Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
108 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which T-6A enviromental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system?
|
Air conditioning
|
|
|
True or False. In order for the air conditioner compressor to be engaged, both the AIR COND and DEFOG switches must be in the ON position.
|
False
|
|
|
The ____ controls provide power to the front and rear cockpit blowers which supply airflow throught the air conditioning vents.
|
evaporator blower
|
|
|
On the ground, the fresh air blower is activated by the _____.
|
weight-on-wheels swtich on the landing
|
|
|
Fresh air is distrubuted to the main cockpit duct and then output through the _____.
|
footwarmers or defog vents
|
|
|
While in flight, cool air from the _____ passses throught the heat exchanger, draws heat from the bleed air, and is then exhausted through a vent in the lower right cowling.
|
ram air inlet
|
|
|
True or False. As the temperature control is turned toward COLD, the heat exchanger bypass valve opens up and more cool air from the heat exchanger passes into the cockpit.
|
False
|
|
|
Which control, when activated, prevents engine compartment fumes from entering the cockpit through the enviromental system after an engine shutdown situation?
|
Firewall shutoff handle
|
|
|
Cockpit air temperture is automatically adjusted between _____ Fahrenheit with the TEMP CONTRTOL switch set to AUTO.
|
60 degrees and 90 degrees
|
|
|
True or False. When the DEFOG swtich is ON and the Vent Control Lever is set to CANOPY, a higher volume of bleed air in the system causes ambient cockpit air to be drawn into the heating system ejector, mixed with bleed air in the main cockpit duct and flow downstream to the windshield and canopy defog ducts.
|
True
|
|
|
Placing the vent lever in the ____ position causes the valve at the front cockpit assembly to direct the warm air into the windshield defog duct.
|
CANOPY
|
|
|
The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is on and functioning with the _____ and the ______.
|
generator on-line; AIR COND or DEFOG switch ON
|
|
|
A panel in the ____ side of the fuselage allows access for maintenance personnel to recharge the system refrigerant when necessary.
|
forward right
|
|
|
The _____ will produce airflow at up to 350 cubic feet per minute at the HI setting.
|
evaporator blowers
|
|
|
Engine bleed air for the cockpit heating system is supplied from the ____.
|
right side engine compressor P3 port.
|
|
|
Teh enigine-driven air conditioner compressor pumps refrigetant in vapor form to the _____.
|
condenser
|
|
|
P;acing the Defog switch to ON opens the ______ which causes a higher volume of bleed air to pass through the heating system ejector.
|
bi-levelflow control bypass valve
|
|
|
When the engine is running, and the generator is on-line, the air conditioner compressor is engaged when the ____ switch is set to ON.
|
DEFOG
|
|
|
In the cockpit evapator modules, _____ is drawn through coils which contain liquid refrigerant.
|
warm cockpit air
|
|
|
After takeoff, fresh air is supplied through the ______.
|
ram air inlet on top of the cowling
|
|
|
The temperature control switch knob on the enviromental control panel controls the position of the _____.
|
heat exchanger bypass valve
|
|
|
The ECS has two temperature sensors to alert the pilot of _____ conditions in the ducting.
|
overtemperature
|
|
|
Cockpit pressure altitude is maintained by the pressurization control valve at ______ feet until a cockpit differential pressure of 3.6+/- 0.2 psi is reached at 18,069 ft.
|
8000
|
|
|
The safety valve receives a signal from the triangleP regulator if the cockpit differential pressure exceeds ____ psi.
|
4.0
|
|
|
The anit-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit is opened by _____ during maneuvers.
|
increasing positive G force
|
|
|
The T-6A anti-G system helps maintain ____ during high G maneuvers.
|
normail blood circulation
|
|
|
An ____ is installed near each regulator which allows the pilot to continue breathing ambient cockpit air if OBOGS should fail.
|
anit-suffocation valve
|
|
|
Approximately three minutes after OBOGS is activated, the ____ annunciator will light if there is a system failure during the system self test.
|
OBOGS FAIL
|
|
|
True or False. The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered charged if the pointer is at 1500 psi or above.
|
False
|
|
|
A control valve regulator in th eaft pressure bulkhead monitors the _____ and automatically adjusts the position of the ______.
|
cockpit pressure; pressurization control valve
|
|
|
OBOGS extracts oxygen from the engine bleed air tapped from the ____.
|
P3 port on the left side of the engine
|
|
|
In the event of an OBOGS failure, the emergency oxygen cylinder is manually activated by pulling up on the ____ located on the ____ side of the seat bucket.
|
green looped handle; left
|
|
|
Cockpit pressure altitude and differnetial pressure are shown on the _____ on the lower side of the instrument panel.
|
alternate engine data display
|
|
|
Placing the enviromental control panel PRESSURIZATION switch in the ____ postion opens the control valve and fresh air valve, depressurizes the cockpit, allows ram air into the cockpit and continues bleed air inflow into the cockpit.
|
RAM DUMP
|
|
|
Tubing from the emergency oxygen cylinder runs from the cylinder across the back of the seat bucket to the right side, and then connects to the _____.
|
pilot's CRU-60/P
|
|
|
The amber CKPT ALT light will illuminate when cockpit pressure altitude exceeds ____ ft.
|
19,000
|
|
|
Which canopy section(s) provide enhanced birdstrike protection?
|
windscreen and front transparency
|
|
|
What do these steps allow you to do?
1.Press and hold the unlock button 2. Rotate exterior canopy handle clockwise to OPEN. 3.Left the canopy to its full 90 degrees open positon. |
Open teh canopy from the outside
|
|
|
When closing the canopy from the inside, the canopy has been properly latched when the _____.
|
mechanical green indicator is visible.
|
|
|
What indications will you get if the canopy is unlocked?
|
MASTER WARN switchlight, CANOPY annunciator, and aural tone.
|
|
|
The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when surface winds exceed ____ knots.
|
40
|
|
|
The CFS functions automatically during ejection or can be activated by ____ CFS handles.
|
internal or external
|
|
|
Which control will fracture the front cockpit canopy transparency only?
|
Front cockpit CFS handle
|
|
|
In order for the CFS to be activated, aircraft electrical power must be available. True or False.
|
False
|
|
|
FLSC is used on the front transparency instead of MDC because ____.
|
FLSC is more powerful than MDC and can cut the thicker front transparency.
|
|
|
What are the major systems of the T-6A canopy?
|
Locking/latching, sealing, defog, and fracturing
|
|
|
The purpose of the CFS is to _____.
|
provide emergency egress if the canopy will not open normally
|
|
|
What does the CANOPY annunciator light indicate?
|
The canopy is not properly locked.
|
|
|
Activating the left external CFS handle will ____.
|
activate the explosives for both the front and rear cockpit transparencies
|
|
|
To safely activate the fracturing system using an external CFS handle _____.
|
face away from the aircraft and pull the CFS lanyard to its full length of 10 feet.
|
|
|
An internal CFS handle located on the left console in the front cockpit allows activation of the fracturing system for the ______.
|
front cockpit transparency only
|
|
|
The pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when ____.
|
engine bleed air inflow is available; weight is off the right main landing gear.
|
|
|
The pilot would use teh MOR handle to separate from the seat _____,
|
over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL
|
|
|
When properly secured, you will be restarined with the torso harness connnected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the ____ and ____ are securely fastened.
|
lap belt; leg restraints
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the leg retraint system?
|
prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
|
|
|
During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided ____.
|
for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
|
|
|
During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails?
|
the canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat maoves up the rails
|
|
|
An internal CFS handle located on the left console in the front cockpit allows activation of the fracturing system for the ______.
|
front cockpit transparency only
|
|
|
What happens when the ISS mode selector is set to BOTH?
|
the rear seat will always eject first
|
|
|
The pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when ____.
|
engine bleed air inflow is available; weight is off the right main landing gear.
|
|
|
The pilot would use teh MOR handle to separate from the seat _____,
|
over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL
|
|
|
During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by _____.
|
detonated gas pressure
|
|
|
When properly secured, you will be restarined with the torso harness connnected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the ____ and ____ are securely fastened.
|
lap belt; leg restraints
|
|
|
An internal CFS handle located on the left console in the front cockpit allows activation of the fracturing system for the ______.
|
front cockpit transparency only
|
|
|
What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system?
|
Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the leg retraint system?
|
prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
|
|
|
The pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when ____.
|
engine bleed air inflow is available; weight is off the right main landing gear.
|
|
|
During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided ____.
|
for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
|
|
|
The pilot would use teh MOR handle to separate from the seat _____,
|
over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL
|
|
|
When properly secured, you will be restarined with the torso harness connnected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the ____ and ____ are securely fastened.
|
lap belt; leg restraints
|
|
|
During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails?
|
the canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat maoves up the rails
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the leg retraint system?
|
prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
|
|
|
What happens when the ISS mode selector is set to BOTH?
|
the rear seat will always eject first
|
|
|
During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided ____.
|
for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
|
|
|
During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by _____.
|
detonated gas pressure
|
|
|
During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails?
|
the canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat maoves up the rails
|
|
|
What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system?
|
Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
|
|
|
What happens when the ISS mode selector is set to BOTH?
|
the rear seat will always eject first
|
|
|
During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by _____.
|
detonated gas pressure
|
|
|
What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system?
|
Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
|
|
|
An internal CFS handle located on the left console in the front cockpit allows activation of the fracturing system for the ______.
|
front cockpit transparency only
|
|
|
The pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when ____.
|
engine bleed air inflow is available; weight is off the right main landing gear.
|
|
|
The pilot would use teh MOR handle to separate from the seat _____,
|
over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL
|
|
|
When properly secured, you will be restarined with the torso harness connnected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the ____ and ____ are securely fastened.
|
lap belt; leg restraints
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the leg retraint system?
|
prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
|
|
|
During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided ____.
|
for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
|
|
|
During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails?
|
the canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat maoves up the rails
|
|
|
What happens when the ISS mode selector is set to BOTH?
|
the rear seat will always eject first
|
|
|
During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by _____.
|
detonated gas pressure
|
|
|
What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system?
|
Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
|
|
|
Why is it a good practice to eject from the aircraft in a level flight attitude?
|
ensure little or no sink rate
|
|
|
What happens during simultaneous ejections(ISS mode selector is set to BOTH)?
|
the rear seat will eject first
|
|
|
What happens if the SSK Selector is set to AUTO?
|
The SSK will deploy 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation.
|
|
|
The T-6A ejection seat is designed to provid rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero speed up to _____ ft. and ____ KIAS.
|
35,000; 370
|
|
|
The ejection seat leg restraint garters are attached _____.
|
just above the boots.
|
|
|
You will attach the SSK by connecting _____.
|
the SSK V-rings on the torso harness to the seat buckles
|
|
|
The PIRD performs which of the following functions?
|
Retracts the shoulder harness straps during ejection
|
|
|
Where are the parachute and chute harness assembly located?
|
In the headbox
|
|
|
What happens if the SSK selector is set to AUTO?
|
The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation
|
|
|
The ejection seat emergency oxygen system provides which of the following?
|
10 minutes of oxygen
|
|
|
In order to prevent inadvertent activation of the ejection system while on the ground, each seat _____.
|
should be secured with a safety pin that has a red streamer
|
|
|
How is the T-6A ejection seat propelled?
|
detonated gas pressure and rocket motor
|
|
|
Prior to ejection, it is desirable to do which of the following?
|
climb to trade airspeen for altitude
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the drogue chute?
|
Helps to stablize and decelerate the seat
|
|
|
Recommended minimum altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection, according to the Flight Manual, are ____ and ____ fet AGL respectively.
|
2000;6000
|
|
|
Proper seat adjustment during ejection is a safety issue because _____.
|
adjusting the seat so your helment is higher than the canopy breaker can have lethal results
|
|
|
Which switch controls the flow of fresh air to the cockpit during ground operations and unpressurized flight?
|
The RAM AIR FLOW switch on the Enviromental Control Panl controls the position of the fresh air valve and thus the amount of air flow.
|
|
|
Tru or False? The AIR COND switch is available in both cockpits and is used to activate teh air conditioner compressor.
|
False the AIR COND switch is located only in the front cockpit on the enviromental control panel
|
