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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Approximately how long will the ignition circuit remain armed after pressing the start button?
A. 20 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 45 seconds D. 60 seconds |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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The fuel crossfeed switch operates on ____ power?
A. Left AC B. Right AC C. DC |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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Normally, gravity feed will ensure sufficient fuel flow to operate the engines at up to MAX power from sea level to approximately ___ feet?
A. 6,000 B. 12,000 C. 15,000 D. 25,000 |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Crossfeed operation may be used to:
A. Supply fuel to one engine from both systems B. Operate both engines on fuel from one system C. Balance the systems by drawing fuel from one tank to the other D. All of the above E. A and B only |
Answer: E
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T-38C DASH 1
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If a fuel pressure caution light blinks while initiating the afterburner:
A. deselect afterburner and abort the mission B. boost pump failure is indicated C. this is normal, continue the mission D. A and B above |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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A rapid fuel imbalance can occur with the crossfeed switch on and:
A. both boost pumps off B. both boost pumps on C. good crossover D. a or b above |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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The fuel quantity low-level light will illuminate after a ___ second delay when ___ fuel quantity indicator reads below ___ pounds.
A. 7.5; both; 250+/-25 B. 7.5; either; 250+/-25 C. 7.5; both; 275 +/-50 D. 7.5; either; 275 +/-50 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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An airframe mounted gearbox for each engine operates a(an) ___ and a(an) ___.
A. Transformer-rectifier; hydraulic pump B. hydraulic pump; oil pump C. AC generator; oil pump D. hydraulic pump; AC generator |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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The AC generators begin supplying power to the aircraft when the engine reaches a range of ___ to ___ %RPM.
A. 40; 45 B. 43; 48 C. 48; 53 D. 60; 65 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If one or both transformer-rectifiers fail, the XFMR RECT OUT light on the console will illuminate.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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The transformer-rectifiers:
A. Convert AC to DC power B. Convert DC to AC power C. Supply the right engine instruments AC power during engine start D. B and C above |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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A single transformer-rectifier failure is indicated by:
A. A Pilot Fault List (PFL) display B. Illumination of the XFMR RECT OUT light C. A complete loss of DC power D. A complete loss of AC power on the respective AC bus |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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AC electrical power for the right engine instruments is supplied by the ___during normal engine starts.
A. Static inverter B. Transformer-rectifier C. Right generator D. Battery |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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An overheat condition in the forward engine compartment will illuminate ____ bulb(s) of the respective fire warning light in both cockpits.
A. one. B. both. C. neither a or b. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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The hydraulic caution lights will illuminate for:
A. a low-pressure condition below 1,500 psi. B. a high-pressure condition above 3,200 psi. C. excessively high hydraulic fluid temperature. D. a and c. E. all of the above. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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You will lose control of flap movement if you lose what type of power?
A. Left AC. B. Right AC. C. DC. D. b or c. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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The flap slab interconnect will not:
A. reposition the slab to eliminate pitch changes due to flap movement. B. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-down direction. C. increase amount of slab travel in the nose-up direction. D. change the pitch authority of the control stick by increasing the amount of horizontal tail deflection per inch of stick travel. E. all of the above. |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the wing flap lever is between the 0-60 % position or 60-100 % position, the flaps may still extend or retract.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Activation of the speedbrake requires _____ power.
A. hydraulic and DC. B. hydraulic and AC. C. AC and DC. D. hydraulic, AC, and DC. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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The landing gear warning system will be activated if the landing gear is not down and locked and:
A. airspeed 210 KIAS or less, altitude 10,000 +/-750 feet or below, both throttles are below 96%. B. airspeed 240 KIAS or less, altitude 10,000 +/-750 feet or below, both throttles are below 96%. C. airspeed 210 KIAS or less, altitude 10,000 +/-750 feet or below, one throttle is below 96%. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Front cockpit pilot should not place the left foot outboard of the rudder pedal due to the possibility of striking the landing gear handle interconnect linkage causing:
A. uncommanded gear retraction. B. hard over rudder. C. uncommanded deflection of nose wheel steering. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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With DC failure, the rear cockpit nose gear light _____ illuminate due to gear relay wiring.
A. will. B. will not. C. may or may not. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Landing gear alternate extension may take up to:
A. 35 seconds. B. 1 minute. C. 10 to 17 seconds. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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During preflight, if the striker plate in the nose gear well is found in the extended position, check the reset lever in the reset _____ position. This resets all gear switches, but will not raise the striker plate.
A. (down). B. (up). C. (center). D. (neutral). |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the canopy jettison is activated with the canopy in other than the closed and locked position, the canopy:
A. will separate from the aircraft normally. B. will lock in position. C. could fall off its hinges and into the cockpit. D. jettison sequence will not begin. |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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Hard items stored under the seat may puncture the cockpit floor when the seat is lowered, resulting in loss of cabin pressure.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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The two bolts behind the ejection seat must be aligned with the arrows and reference line (or shoulder) of the catapult head.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the drogue chute cover is not flush with the drogue chute container and if the canopy is lost or jettisoned in flight, wind blast effect could separate the drogue chute cover from the container and cause inadvertent drogue chute deployment. Chute deployment could cause an immediate out-of-control condition.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Physically checking the gear handle full down during the "BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION" is:
A. technique only. B. required by the tech order. C. not necessary as long as you visually check. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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The ______ will personally ensure that the rear canopy is closed and locked.
A. crew chief B. pilot C. either a or b |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the aircraft will not accept external AC power, and the APU checks good:
A. cycle the battery OFF, then ON. B. cycle the battery ON, then OFF. C. do not touch the battery switch; the battery is unserviceable. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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On the ground, the minimum RPM required for engine start is _______.
A. 10% B. 12% C. 14% D. 16% |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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During start, if ignition does not occur before fuel flow reaches 360 LB/HR, retard the throttle to OFF and:
A. abort the aircraft. B. maintain airflow to permit fuel and vapors to purge. C. wait a minimum of 2 minutes before attempting another start. D. b and c above. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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If engine light is normal but rpm doesn't reach generator cut-in speed before termination of the start cycle, you should:
A. push the engine start button to ensure aircraft electrical power is available. B. push the throttle up. C. abort the start. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Abort the start if EGT does not begin to rise within:
A. 12 seconds after placing the throttle to idle. B. 12 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow. C. 15 seconds after placing the throttle to idle. D. 15 seconds after the first indication of fuel flow. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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While accomplishing the flight controls check, the pilot must visually confirm proper movement of the actual flight control surfaces.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If an APU was used to start the engines, you must:
A. check the right generator for crossover. B. check the left generator for crossover. C. a and b. D. none of the above, since the APU checks the crossover itself. |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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Nosewheel tires are severely damaged when maximum deflection turns are attempted at speeds in excess of _____ knots.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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To prevent possible canopy downlock mechanism damage, taxi with _____ and pressurized whenever practical.
A. both canopies open B. both canopies closed C. one canopy open and one canopy closed D. a or b |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Abort the takeoff if the afterburner does not light in _______ seconds.
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. Do not abort the takeoff if the aircraft reaches MACS. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Less than predicted acceleration check speed will invalidate:
A. CEFS. B. Adjusted Refusal Speed. C. SETOS. D. All the above. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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When flying in gusty winds, increase which of the following speed by half the gust factor?
A. Final turn. B. Final approach. C. Touchdown. D. All of the above. E. B and C |
Answer: E
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T-38C DASH 1
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After the gear is lowered from the back seat, what must the front seat pilot do?
A. Nothing special. B. Physically check the handle down. C. Visually check the handle down. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Extreme CAUTION must be exercised when applying wheel brakes above 120 KIAS as locked wheels or tire skids are difficult to recognize. If tire skids are detected, immediately release both brakes and cautiously reapply.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Extreme nose high aerobraking when crossing raised arresting cables may result in damage to the _____.
A. afterburner ejectors B. main tires C. main gear doors |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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After selecting RAM DUMP, you may have to wait _____ for the pressure to equalize.
A. several seconds. B. several minutes. C. 5 minutes. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Allow _____ seconds for landing-taxi light retraction and (or) closure of ram dump door prior to engine shutdown.
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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The canopy seals will remain inflated if the engines are shutdown with _____, making the canopies more difficult to open.
A. both canopies locked B. either canopy locked C. the front canopy locked |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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When using the canopy breaker tool, the curved edge of the blade must be _____. This will allow glancing blows against the canopy to deflect away from you.
A. toward you B. away from you C. either A or B |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Anytime the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway):
A. immediately shut down the affected engine. B. immediately shut down both engines. C. leave both engines running to ensure downside hydraulic pressure. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Aerodynamic braking is more effective than cautious wheel braking above _____ .
A. 100 KCAS B. MACS C. NACS D. 120 KCAS |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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When MA-1A barrier engagement is imminent, attempt to:
A. engage it perpendicular, in a three-point attitude, and if possible, in the center. B. brake through engagement. C. lower the speedbrake to catch the barrier. D. A and B |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Flaps should not be repositioned during a high speed abort until the aircraft slows below no flap final approach speed.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Extreme caution must be exercised when applying wheel brakes above _____ KCAS as locked wheels or tire skids are difficult to recognize.
A. 100 B. 110 C. 120 D. 130 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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MA-1A barrier engagement is unlikely with the:
A. WSSP installed. B. speedbrake open. C. A or B |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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Best acceleration during a single-engine takeoff occurs with the aircraft:
A. in the takeoff attitude. B. in a three-point attitude, with the stick at, or slightly aft of, the takeoff trim setting. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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During a single engine takeoff, climb should be _______ until the airspeed reaches 190 KCAS and flaps are retracted.
A. restricted to only that required to avoid obstacles B. at a 7 degree pitch attitude C. at the maximum climb angle of 10 degrees D. none of the above |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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During a single-engine takeoff, gear door drag is not a factor above _____ KCAS.
A. SETOS B. SETOS + 10 C. SETOS + 20 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If engine failure occurs after takeoff, it may be necessary to allow the aircraft to settle back to the runway.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Depending on airspeed and altitude it may be necessary for the pilot to leave the throttle of the affected engine at a high power setting until reaching a safe airspeed and/or altitude for ejection.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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With the left engine inoperative with windmilling hydraulics, gear retraction, when initiated between SETOS+10 and 190 KIAS, may require up to _____.
A. 30 seconds B. 45 seconds C. 1 minute D. 2 minutes |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If unable to retract the landing gear, best single-engine level flight/climb capability is obtained at _____ with 60% flaps or at _____ with the flaps up.
A. SETOS, 220 KIAS B. SETOS + 10, 200 KIAS C. SETOS + 10, 240 KIAS D. 190 KIAS, 220 KIAS |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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During single-engine takeoff, the flap indicator should be checked to ensure flaps are within 60% range after the flaps are set at 60 %.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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The effects of a tire failure are most pronounced at heavy gross weights and speeds below _____ KIAS.
A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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You experience gear retraction failure; after placing the landing gear lever down and a safe gear down indication is obtained, do not retract or recycle the gear unless a greater emergency exists.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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_____ should be attempted immediately upon detection of dual engine flameout at low altitudes, if time permits.
A. Ejection B. Normal Restart C. Alternate Airstart |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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Do not crossfeed if:
A. a fuel quantity indicator is inoperative. B. an engine has seized. C. a generator has failed with good crossover. D. all the above. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Do not delay ejection by attempting airstarts at low altitude if below the optimum airstart airspeed and below _____ feet AGL.
A. 1500 B. 2000 C. 2500 D. 3000 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If dual engine failure occurs, attempt to restart the _____ engine first.
A. left B. right |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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RPM hangup during an airstart may be eliminated by _____ airspeed.
A. increasing B. decreasing |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If it appears that a boost pump has failed and flight below 25,000 feet is impractical:
A. flight can be continued above 25,000 feet at reduced power settings. B. crossfeed may be used to ensure boost pump pressure if a reduced power setting is impractical. C. flight at lowest practical altitude and reduced power minimizes probability of fuel flow interruptions. D. All of the above |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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With dual engine failure, the battery switch is not required to be ON to provide ignition if windmilling rpm is available.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If you suspect engine damage during a compressor stall, you should:
A. advance the throttle above idle only if required. B. never advance the throttle above idle. C. advance the throttle cautiously above 80% to determine the maximum usable engine speed. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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After retarding the right throttle to idle for a fire light, the fire light immediately goes out. When you test the fire warning system, the right fire light does not illuminate. You should:
A. leave the right engine in idle, unless you have other indications of a fire. B. shut down the right engine. C. eject. D. use the right engine normally. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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When a fire light is preceded or accompanied by a pop, bang or thump, it usually indicates a serious engine malfunction and (or) fire. Consideration should be given to:
A. increasing airspeed. B. shutting down the engine. C. ejecting. D. retarding the throttle to idle and checking the fire sensors. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Delaying placing the throttle to off after a fire warning light illuminates could result in possible loss of _____ from fire damage.
A. oil pressure B. generator failure with no crossover C. flight control system D. all navigational equipment |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the engine cannot be shut down with the throttle, the _____ switch (affected engine) should be closed.
A. boost pump B. fuel shutoff C. crossfeed D. generator |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Restarting an engine after the fire light is extinguished should be accomplished only during a heavyweight situation.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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With boost pumps inoperative, engine flameout may occur if above 25,000 feet.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If smoke and fumes are encountered in the cockpit, select Oxygen - 100%. If odors persist, use of emergency oxygen bottle should be considered.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air conditioning system may indicate air conditioner turbine failure. You should _____.
A. select oxygen - 100% B. descend below FL250 C. select RAM DUMP D. all of the above E. B and C |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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If either canopy is lost in flight, immediately slow to _____ KIAS or less to minimize turbulence and noise.
A. 200 B. 250 C. 275 D. 300 |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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After losing a canopy, the minimum drag airspeed is approximately _____ KIAS.
A. 200 B. 225 C. 250 D. 275 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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The best glide speed with 1000 LBS of fuel remaining is:
A. 230 KIAS. B. 240 KIAS. C. 250 KIAS. D. 270 KIAS. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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To obtain the approximate maximum glide distance in nautical miles, multiply the altitude in thousands of feet by _____.
A. 1.3 B. 1.5 C. 1.6 D. 2.0 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If oxygen system contamination is suspected, consideration should be given to disconnecting the aircraft oxygen hose before activating the emergency oxygen cylinder.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Simultaneous failure of the engine RPM and oil pump (oil pressure zero) may be an indication of:
A. Airframe mounted gearbox failure. B. Left generator failure without crossover. C. Right generator failure without crossover. D. Oil pump shaft shear. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the operating engine requires shutdown, the previously shutdown engine for an oil system malfunction may be restarted.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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The minimum altitude recommended for bailout in a controlled situation is _____ feet AGL.
A. 1500 B. 2000 C. 2500 D. 3000 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Under uncontrollable conditions, eject at a minimum of _______ feet AGL.
A. 2000 B. 8000 C. 10,000 D. 15,000 |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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During ejection assume the proper body position by _____, and feet held back against seat.
A. sitting erect B. head firmly against headrest C. a only D. b only E. a and b |
Answer: E
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T-38C DASH 1
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If you notice a fuel low pressure light and find that the boost pump circuit breakers are popped:
A. reset the circuit breakers. B. turn off the associated boost pump, then reset the circuit breakers. C. turn the crossfeed on, then reset the circuit |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If _____ power is lost with the gear extended, the gear should be pinned prior to taxiing clear of the runway.
A. DC B. AC C. a and b |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Simultaneous illumination of the generator and hydraulic caution lights for the same engine may indicate a gearbox failure. This can be confirmed by checking the appropriate _____ indicator.
A. oil pressure B. hydraulic pressure C. nozzle |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If complete DC failure occurs with the landing gear extended:
A. downside hydraulic pressure will be lost. B. pull the alternate gear extension handle to ensure the gear are down. C. the gear should be pinned prior to taxiing clear of the runway. D. a and c. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine will allow control of the aircraft for landing.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Pilots should refrain from resetting the generator _______ due to the danger of generator burning.
A. more than once B. more than twice C. more than once every 10 minutes D. if the engine cannot be adjusted to the opposite side of the shift range |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If utility hydraulic pressure is depleted:
A. land with all gear up. B. stop straight ahead and have the gear pins installed prior to clearing the runway. C. the flight control hydraulic system backs up all the utility driven systems. D. the flaps will not extend. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If the engine had previously been shut down due to a hydraulic over temperature, and the caution light as gone out, you can restart the engine if necessary.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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With dual hydraulic system failure:
A. eject. B. hydraulic pressure provided solely by a windmilling engine is sufficient to control the aircraft for landing. C. land as soon as conditions permit. D. b and c. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If one hydraulic system reads zero, hydraulic systems transfer may occur. In this case, flight time could be limited to only _______ minutes.
A. 15 B. 25 C. 35 D. 45 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If damage to the flaps or flap actuating mechanism (other than flap-slab interconnect) is known or suspected, do not reposition flaps.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Touchdowns as high as _______ knots are possible.
A. 180 B. 200 C. 220 D. 240 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Due to engine oil supply and pressure requirements zero-G flight is restricted to ____ seconds and negative-G flight (any attitude) to ____ seconds.
A. 10/60 B. 20/30 C. 10/30 D. 20/60 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If interconnect cable failure occurs on an aircraft without the locking device after flaps are down 60 % or more, a sudden pitch-up will occur and the pilot must:
A. recover instantaneously. B. take corrective action within three seconds to ensure recovery without a loss of altitude. C. eject. |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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During an abrupt pitch-up due to interconnect system failure (nonlocking), the pilot must take corrective action within ___ second(s) to ensure recovery without loss of altitude.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If you suspect brake fluid venting overboard, pump the brakes in flight to ensure you will have pressure after landing.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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During single-engine landing, at high density altitude or high gross weights, selecting full flaps in the flare, an immediate touchdown and premature landing may occur.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Compared to a normal landing, a no-flap landing may increase the landing distance by:
A. 1,000 feet. B. 2,000 feet. C. 50%. D. double. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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If you have your nose gear up and one main gear extended, this is a landable configuration.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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If a main landing gear fails to extend to the locked position due to the main landing gear sidebrace pin backing out:
A. repeat extension attempts may result in an unlandable configuration. B. repeat extension attempts will result in a landable configuration. C. neither a nor b. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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After landing with all gear up, the speedbrake may grind down beyond the actuator attach point and cause the nose to suddenly_______.
A. pitch up B. yaw C. drop D. collapse |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If you suspect the right brake system has failed, with no other directional control problems, plan to land in (on) the _____ of the runway.
A. right side. B. left side. C. center. |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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Vibrations accompanied by fumes and/or odors from the air-conditioning system may indicate failure of the _______.
A. air conditioner turbine B. right/left airframe mounted gearbox C. right/left generator D. right/left oil pump shaft |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Maximum range occurs at _____ AOA and maximum endurance occurs at _____ AOA.
A. .18, .3 B. .3, .4 C. .2, .6 D. .24, .4 |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Do not exceed _____ KIAS with the landing gear extended and/or landing gear doors open.
A. 190 B. 220 C. 240 D. 250 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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An overstress failure of the main landing gear sidebrace trunion may occur if the gear is:
A. extended with greater than 30 degrees of bank. B. extended/retracted with greater than 45 degrees of bank. C. extended at greater than 1.5 Gs. D. b or c above. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Do not exceed _______ KIAS with the nosewheel steering engaged.
A. 45 B. 65 C. 85 D. 105 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Do not exceed _______ KIAS while taxiing with the canopies open.
A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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The G limits with 3000 LBS of fuel remaining are:
A. -2.4, +5.9, and +4.3 asymmetric B. -2.6, +6.2, and +4.5 asymmetric C. -2.7, + 6.6, and +4.7 asymmetric D. -2.9, + 7.2, and +5.1 asymmetric |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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The G-limits with 2000 LBS of fuel remaining are:
A. -2.9, +7.2, and +5.1 asymmetric. B. -2.8, +6.9, and +4.9 asymmetric C. -3.0, +7.0, and +4.7 asymmetric. D. -2.6, +6.5, and +4.7 asymmetric. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Vertical stalls are prohibited only during solo flights.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Spins may be intentionally entered when flying dual with a qualified T-38 spin pilot.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Maximum allowable transient RPM is _______%.
A. 100 B. 104 C. 105 D. 107 |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Total fluctuations in EGT of _____ degrees are acceptable if the average EGT is between _____ and _____ degrees C.
A. 10 (+/-5), 620, 645 B. 10 (+/-5), 630, 650 C. 15 (+/-7.5), 630, 645 D. 15 (+/-7.5), 630, 650 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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At full afterburner, the nozzles should read between _______.
A. 0 - 20 B. 5 - 20 C. 20 - 55 D. 50 - 85 |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Nozzle position at MIL is _______%.
A. 0 - 20 B. 20 - 55 C. 50 - 85 D. 50 - 100 |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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During cold weather starts, oil pressure above 55 PSI may be observed. Oil pressure should return to normal within _______ minutes.
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Following rapid throttle movements, nozzles should stabilize within _______ seconds.
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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A sudden change of _____ psi or greater in oil pressure indication occurs at any stabilized rpm, follow the oil system malfunction procedures.
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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The maximum allowable airspeed is _____ knots EAS.
A. 650 B. 680 C. 710 D. 845 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If a high sink rate condition is allowed to develop, recovery may not be possible at traffic pattern altitudes.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If full aileron deflection in the direction of the spin is not maintained, spin recovery may be prolonged or prevented.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Crossfeeding is recommended when fuel differences exceed _____ pounds.
A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 175 |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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If normal crossfeed operation is continued until the active system runs dry:
A. dual engine flameout will occur. B. gravity feed will supply sufficient fuel from the other fuel system. C. only the corresponding engine will flameout. D. engine restart will be impossible due to air in the lines. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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If icing is inadvertently encountered during flight, leave the area of icing condition as soon as possible.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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After flight through icing conditions, which result in icing accumulations on the front canopy, a 781 writeup is necessary so that the engines will be inspected for damage.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
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After ice ingestion, the affected engine should be operated at the _____ possible rpm to make a safe landing.
A. highest B. lowest |
Answer: B
|
T-38C DASH 1
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If flight through moderate precipitation is unavoidable, you should:
A. slow to minimum practical airspeed to lessen rain damage. B. fly at maximum practical airspeed to minimize time in the precipitation. C. set a high power setting with anti-ice on to preclude engine flameouts. D. b and c. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Flight in moderate precipitation may damage the:
A. nose cone. B. vertical stabilizer C. canopies. D. a or b. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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The recommended best penetration airspeed if turbulence and thunderstorms are experienced is _______ KIAS.
A. 250 B. 280 C. 300 D. 350 |
Answer: B
|
T-38C DASH 1
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The maximum recommended crosswind component for a dry runway is ______ knots, wet runway is _____ knots, and for a runway containing standing water is _____ knots.
A. 25, 15, 10 B. 30, 20, 10 C. 25, 20, 15 D. 30, 15, 10 |
Answer: B
|
T-38C DASH 1
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The afterburner fuel control meters fuel as a function of:
A. compressor discharge pressure. B. throttle position. C. inlet air temperature. D. A and B. E. all of the above. |
Answer: D
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T-38C DASH 1
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Throttle bursts are movements from idle to MIL in ____second(s) or less.
|
Answer: 1
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T-38C DASH 1
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The 30-second start cycle starts when:
A. you press the start button. B. you place the throttle in idle. C. from the first indication of fuel flow. |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
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Moving the throttle from "OFF" to "IDLE" during engine start:
A. arms the ignition circuit for 30 seconds, firing the main and afterburner ignitors, and starts fuel flow to the engine. B. energizes the ignition exciter, firing main and afterburner ignitors, and starts fuel flow to the engine. C. energizes the ignition exciter, firing main and afterburner ignitors, and positions the nozzles to the engine start range. D. energizes the right autosyn instruments, firing the main and afterburner ignitors, and positions the nozzles to the engine start range. |
Answer: B
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
On solo missions, the rear cockpit standby ADI should be _____.
A. caged. B. uncaged |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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Which of the following component(s) is(are) lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed at RAM DUMP?
A. Anti-G suit. B. Canopy defog. C. Cabin pressurization. D. All the above. |
Answer: D
|
T-38C DASH 1
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Which of the following components is NOT lost when the cabin pressure switch is placed at RAM DUMP?
A. Anti-G suit B. Canopy defog C. Anti-ice D. Air conditioner |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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A _____ percent loss in MIL thrust and a _____ percent loss in MAX thrust can be expected with the engine anti-ice switch on.
A. 10, 5 B. 20, 12.5 C. 15, 7.5 D. 9, 6.5 |
Answer: D
|
T-38C DASH 1
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After experiencing _____ generator failure with no crossover, the floodlights will not be automatically available and must be adjusted to obtain lighting.
A. left B. right C. total |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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|
The oxygen low-level light may blink due to sloshing if the system contains less than _____ liters, and normally illuminates when the indicator reads _____ liter(s) or less.
|
Answers: 3, 1
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
During normal operations, the oxygen pressure gauge should read _____ to _____ psi.
|
Answers: 50, 120
|
T-38C DASH 1
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The emergency oxygen cylinder should have a minimum pressure of _____ psi.
A. 1700 B. 1800 C. 1900 D. 2000 |
Answer: B
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T-38C DASH 1
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|
Normal hydraulic pressure is _____ to _____ psi.
|
Answers: 2850, 3200
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
Abort engine start if EGT reaches _____ degrees C to preclude exceeding temperature limits.
|
Answer: 845
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
The aircraft stall is characterized by airframe buffet and a ______ rather than by a clean nose-down pitch motion.
A. high sink rate. B. wing rock. C. nose-up pitch motion. D. all of the above |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
When experiencing any unrecognizable post stall gyrations, _______ until the aircraft settles into a recognizable maneuver or recovers.
A. move the stick abruptly full forward and hold B. move the stick abruptly full aft and hold C. smoothly neutralize all flight controls D. move the aileron full in the direction of the turn with rudder applied full opposite |
Answer: C
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T-38C DASH 1
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By specification, gravity feed operation is guaranteed only to ______ feet.
A. 6,000. B. 12,000. C. 15,000. D. 25,000. |
Answer: A
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T-38C DASH 1
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Without the aid of a boost pump, flameouts have occurred as low as ______ feet.
A. 6,000 B. 12,000 C. 15,000 D. 25,000 |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
A fuel low pressure light is a valid indication of boost pump failure only if:
A. crossfeed switch is off. B. the corresponding throttle is out of the off position. C. the corresponding fuel shutoff switch is normal. D. all of the above. |
Answer: D
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
Placing either or both fuel shutoff switches at the CLOSED position shuts off fuel flow to either or both engines in approximately _____ second(s) without using the throttles.
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10 |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
Which lights cannot be dimmed using the Warning/Caution/Advisory Light Bright/Dim Switch?
A. AOA indexer lights. B. Master caution light. C. Fire warning lights. D. Gear indicators. |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
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|
In order to dim the caution lights, you must:
A. place the console rheostat out of off, and select dim. B. place the floodlight rheostat out of off, and select dim. C. place the instrument light control out of off, and select dim. D. simply select dim on the bright/dim switch. |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
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If the test circuit is inoperative, an illumination of the fire warning light should be ignored as it is not a valid indication of a fire.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
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|
Allowing the rudder pedal adjust T-handle to snap back during adjustment may trip or damage pedestal circuit breakers or ILS control and cause the cable to wear excessively.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
|
|
If one of the flap motors fails as you lower the flaps, you may expect:
A. one flap to stop, the other to continue. B. both flaps to stop. C. both flaps to continue because they are interconnected by a rotary shaft. D. none of the above. |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
|
|
The audible warning signal is not activated by an unlocked gear door condition.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
With the landing gear warning system activated and the aircraft accelerating, the light and tone may not go out until the airspeed reaches approximately _______.
A. 210 KIAS B. 220 KIAS C. 240 KIAS D. 250 KIAS |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
|
|
The two main gear lights in the front cockpit and all gear lights in the rear cockpit are illuminated. The nose gear light in the front cockpit is not illuminated. The bulb tests good. This is a landable configuration.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
What will be the correct indications after practicing alternate gear extension, with the landing gear lever in the LG UP position?
A. Three green, light out in handle, horn sounding. B. Three green, light on in handle, horn sounding. C. Three green, light on in handle, horn not sounding. |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
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|
If the canopy will not fully close while holding for takeoff,
A. it is permissible to taxi back to chocks. B. re-attempt to close the rear canopy first then the front one. C. do not taxi or tow aircraft until cleared by a qualified maintenance technician. |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
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|
If an open canopy has been exposed to jet blast, it should be checked for normal operation . If the canopy will not close:
A. taxi back to the chocks and have maintenance inspect the canopy mechanism. B. re-attempt to close the rear canopy first, then the front. C. do not taxi the aircraft until cleared by a qualified maintenance technician. D. try to force it closed. |
Answer: C
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
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|
Damage and possible loss of canopy may occur if the hood is bunched between the drogue chute housing and canopy and the seat is raised to the near full-up position.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
T-38C DASH 1
|
|
|
FAR’s apply only to civil aircraft operations.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
During investigations of violations, do not give aircrew names to the FAA unless specifically approved by the Air Force Representative to the FAA (AFREP).
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
When an alternate is required and the visibility-only weather criterion is used to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel:
A. Need not include the fuel required for an approach at the original destination. B. Must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination. C. Need not include fuel for an approach at the alternate. D. Must include a fuel reserve of 25% of total flight time or 30 minutes, whichever is higher. |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If not operating in the National Airspace System, on an IFR flight plan and into an airport with a functioning control tower, the PIC will close an activated flight plan through FSS or ATC facility by any means of communication available.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
A signature by the pilot in command on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means:
A. the flight was properly ordered and released. B. current NOTAMs, weather, and other pertinent flight data was obtained. C. the flight will be conducted according to governing directives. D. the flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy. E. all the above. |
Answer: E
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
The "see-and-avoid" concept applies to flights conducted in VMC:
A. on VFR flight plans. B. on IFR flight plans. C. both a and b above. D. neither a or b above. |
Answer: C
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, each will alter its course to the:
A. center. B. right. C. left. D. right and down. |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If you are overtaking an aircraft and see a possible conflict, you must alter your course to ______.
A. the left. B. climb. C. descend. D. the right. |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
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|
Right-of-way is given to:
A. aircraft in distress. B. the aircraft at the lower altitude, when more than one aircraft is approaching to land, has the right of way provided this advantage is not used to cut in front of another aircraft. C. if approaching head-on, the larger aircraft. D. both a and b above. |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
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|
Clearance to taxi to a runway is clearance to taxi:
A. to the first intersecting runway. B. across all intersecting runways and onto the assigned runway. C. to the assigned runway provided additional clearances are received at intersecting runways. D. to the assigned runway and across all intersecting runways. |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
You execute a go-around and request a closed. Tower approves it while you are 2000 feet down the runway. Do you have to wait until the departure end to execute the closed pull-up?
A. Yes, unless specifically cleared by the tower. B. No. |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
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|
According to AFI 11-202 Vol 3, pilots must not operate over congested areas if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within a _____ feet radius of the aircraft.
A. 500, 1,000. B. 1,000, 2,000. C. 500, 2,000. D. 1,000, 1,000. |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
When the cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet, each occupant of an Air Force aircraft must use supplemental oxygen.
A. 10,000. B. 13,000. C. 18,000. D. 25,000. |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility (ETA+- 1 hour).
A. 1,000, 3. B. 1,500, 3. C. 2,500, 3. D. 3,000, 3. |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If you deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3 due to an emergency, after flight you must:
A. inform your immediate supervisor and commander within 24 hours of the incident. B. make a detailed written record. C. furnish a written report only if traffic priority was assigned. D. both a and b above. E. both a and c above. |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If you experience an emergency which results in traffic priority, although no deviation from AFI 11-202 Vol 3 occurs, after flight you must:
A. notify immediate supervisor and commander within 30 days. B. do nothing since there was no deviation. C. record details in writing. D. submit a written report within 10 days. |
Answer: C
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Which of the following, when flight planning, must the pilot in command ensure that aircrew members know concerning the appropriate procedures and applicable information for the intended operation:
A. NOTAMs. B. Alternatives available if the pilot cannot complete the flight as planned. C. Departure, enroute, destination, and alternate weather observations and forecasts. D. Takeoff and landing limitations. E. All of the above. |
Answer: E
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
In addition to the equipment required for IFR flight, flight in IMC requires operational:
A. canopy defogging equipment, pitot heat. B. operative pitot heat, anti-icing and/or de-icing equipment. C. canopy defogging, pitot heat, anti-icing and/or de-icing equipment. |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Primary flight instrumentation must provide:
A. full-time display of attitude. B. aircraft altitude. C. airspeed information. D. both a and b above. E. all the above. |
Answer: E
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
A change in route or destination not shown on the original flight plan is authorized without refiling provided:
A. the change does not involve ADIZ penetration. B. the change is approved by controlling ATC agency for an IFR flight. C. the facility providing flight service is notified of the change. D. it is filed using the format in the FLIP Enroute Supplements. E. all of the above. |
Answer: E
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
While flying in an area with significant glider activity, we have the right of way because of our greater airspeed and maneuverability.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Do not exceed _____ KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL unless the MAJCOM has approved a higher speed.
A. 250. B. 156. C. 300. D. 200. |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Which of the following is true regarding clearance authority?
A. This is delegated to the person who assumes responsibility for the aircraft. B. Under VFR, the PIC must adhere to the clearance requirements for the class of airspace in which they intend to operate as published in FLIP. C. IFR flight in controlled airspace, ATC clearance must be obtained prior to departure. D. Both b and c above. E. None of the above. |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, until at least 400' AGL above the departure end of the runway, at a safe airspeed, and past departure end of the runway (if visible) unless:
A. safety dictates otherwise. B. VMC. C. when required by local procedures. D. both a and c above. E. all of the above. |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Pilots are allowed to practice emergency procedures when passengers are on board the aircraft.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
What is a pilots maximum authorized altitude in an unpressurized aircraft if occupants do not have oxygen?
A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 13,000 feet MSL. C. FL 180. D. FL 250. |
Answer: B
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If occupants do not have oxygen, pilots will not operate an unpressurized aircraft between 10,000 and 13,000 feet MSL for longer than _____ hours.
|
Answer: 3
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If the aircraft loses cabin pressure, the pilot must initiate an immediate descent to the lowest practical altitude, preferably below ____ ft., but in no case allow cabin altitude to remain above ____ ft., unless occupants are wearing functional pressure suits.
|
Answers: 18,000 / 25,000
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
If flying at 10,000 feet MSL in class E airspace, visibility must be ____ miles in order to be considered VFR.
|
Answer: 5
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Pilots will fly fixed-wing aircraft under VFR when required for mission accomplishment.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
You want to fly to Bernie Airfield and it does not have a published approach. You can:
A. file VMC to a point that is within 25 NM of the field and pick up an IFR clearance. B. file IFR to a point that is forecasted to be VFR at your time of arrival and then continue under VFR to destination. C. file to a point serviced by a published approach and make your descent to VMC condition and continue VFR to destination. D. go back to base ops because you can not legally file to Bernie Airfield. E. both b and c above. |
Answer: E
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Temporary (TEMPO) changes in ceilings and visibility at destination:
A. are not restrictive for filing purposes, but may require that an alternate be filed. B. are restrictive for filing purposes if they occur within ETA +/- 1 hour. C. are not restrictive for filing purposes if the TEMPO conditions are due to thunderstorms or rain showers and the pilot is thoroughly briefed on the possibility of such weather. D. A and C |
Answer: A
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
When flying IFR in the US off airways, maintain at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within _____ NM of the route centerline.
A. MOCA B. 1,000, 22 C. 1,000 (2,000 in mountainous terrain), 10 D. 1,000 (2,000 in mountainous terrain), 5 |
Answer: D
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
You have commenced a published approach and are subsequently advised that the weather has deteriorated below published approach minimums. Which of the following is (are) correct?
A. The pilot must not deviate from the last ATC clearance before obtaining a new or amended clearance. B. Request clearance to a holding fix or alternate airport as applicable. C. You may continue the approach to PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher D. None of the above. E. All of the above. |
Answer: E
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Pilots must use _____ to determine visibility minimums; _____ may be used if it's not available. For circling approaches, _____ shall be used.
A. RVR, PVV, PV B. PV, RVR, RVV C. RVR, PV, PV D. RVV, RVR, PV |
Answer: C
|
AFI 11-202 VOL 3
|
|
|
Official business conducted on the phone from your quarters is not an interruption of your crew rest.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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Flight duty period is from __________ to __________. However, time spent in the completion of duties will not count as crew rest toward the next flight duty period.
A. step time to jet / engines shutdown B. report time for official duties / departure from squadron C. report time for official duties / engines shutdown D. Not applicable to T-38 instructor pilots conducting UFT |
Answer: C
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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The airfield has been assessed for departure by TERPS personnel and no penetration of the obstacle surfaces exists. An aircraft may depart the field, climb to 400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation, turn in any direction, and if a minimum climb gradient of 200'/NM is maintained be assured of obstacle clearance. This is the definition of:
A. Aerobatics B. FAA exemption C. Diverse departure D. Standard departure procedure |
Answer: C
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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A standard formation is a formation in which the aircraft maintain proximity of no more than
_____ NM horizontally and within _____ feet vertically from flight leader. |
Answers: 1 / 100
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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In formation, you notice your wingman holds his/her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. Your wingman moves his/her hand forward and down. He/she is trying to tell you:
A. descend to lower altitude. B. he or she needs to land immediately. C. he or she is reducing power to 75 % rpm. D. he or she is Bingo fuel. |
Answer: A
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates an __________.
A. electrical malfunction. B. oxygen malfunction. C. engine malfunction. D. flight control malfunction. |
Answer: C
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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What is the basic jet airspeed for landing on someone's wing?
A. 155. B. 145. C. 150. D. 130. |
Answer: D
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. Your wingman then moves his/her arm up and down rapidly indicating:
A. he/she wants to land immediately. B. he/she is HEFOE with an oxygen problem. C. he/she needs to descend. D. he/she has reached Bingo fuel. |
Answer: A
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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During a formation sortie, lead taps his earphone, then holds up a clenched fist next to his helmet. This means:
A. lead is receiver out. B. go channel zero. C. go back to previous frequency. D. go to prebriefed manual frequency. |
Answer: D
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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The formation signal for "attention in the air" is to:
A. large wing rock. B. execute a rapid, shallow wing rock. C. execute a series of porpoising maneuvers. D. turn the anti-collision beacon off then on. |
Answer: B
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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During a formation takeoff, preparatory hand signals are not required prior to raising the gear and flaps.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: A
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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If you, as the lead aircraft, see your wingman give you a clenched fist in the top of the canopy, but no fingers are shown, what is the problem?
A. The wingman forgot what HEFOE stands for. B. The distressed aircraft has multiple emergencies or systems inoperative. C. This signal denotes the wingman's need for a position change. D. Your wingman desires to land immediately. |
Answer: B
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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What do the letters H.E.F.O.E. stand for?
A. Hydraulic, engine, fuel, oxygen, electrical. B. Hydraulic, electrical, fuel, oil, engine. C. Hydraulic, electrical, fuel, oxygen, engine. D. None of the above. |
Answer: C
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AFI 11-202 VOL 3
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What do the letters H.E.F.O.E. stand for?
A. Hydraulic, engine, fuel, oxygen, electrical. B. Hydraulic, electrical, fuel, oil, engine. C. Hydraulic, electrical, fuel, oxygen, engine. D. None of the above. |
Answer: C
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AFI 11-205
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During a formation sortie, lead uses rudder to fishtail the aircraft. This is the signal for:
A. go afterburner. B. loosen the formation. C. lead is pushing up the power. D. lead is initiating a climb.. |
Answer: B
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AFI 11-205
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Regarding cockpit signals for multi-crew aircraft: Voice is the primary method of communication between the pilot and other crew members.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: A
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AFI 11-205
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During a formation sortie, lead displays a clenched fist and moves it outboard. This is the signal for:
A. go afterburner. B. loosen the formation. C. lead is pushing up the power. D. lead is initiating a climb. |
Answer: A
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AFI 11-205
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The HEFOE signal for when five fingers are extended vertically indicates a (n) .
A. oil system malfunction. B. hydraulic malfunction. C. electrical malfunction. D. engine malfunction. |
Answer: D
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AFI 11-205
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Absence of an ILS identifier:
A. is acceptable as long as no OFF flags are visible. B. indicates an unreliable signal. C. is normal for an ILS. D. means that you may fly only to localizer minimums. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored.
A. T B. F |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Turning in the shorter direction to place the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line and centering the CDI with a TO indication, then maintaining that course to the station describes:
A. homing. B. intercepting a course outbound. C. proceeding direct. D. intercepting a course outbound. |
Answer: C
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Groundspeed checks made below ____ feet are accurate at any distance from the DME station.
A. 500. B. 1,000. C. 3,000. D. 5,000. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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As a technique, when correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.
A. 10°, 5°. B. 10°, 15°. C. 5°, 10°. D. 5°, 15°. |
Answer: C
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____ feet.
A. 50. B. 75. C. 100. D. 150. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Air Force pilots flying civil departure procedures must plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least _____ feet AGL and climb at a rate of at least _____ feet per NM to be assured of obstacle clearance.
A. 35, 150. B. 35, 200. C. 50, 300. D. Not specified for civil SIDs. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When flying a departure procedure, we must climb on runway heading until _____ feet above airport elevation, unless otherwise instructed.
A. 100. B. 400. C. 500. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with an incompatible missed approach, alternate missed approach/departure instructions must be coordinated with ATC before ___.
A. accepting the approach clearance. B. FAF. C. MAP. D. not specified. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Minimum safe altitude is the minimum altitude which provides at least _____ feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which the procedure is based.
A. 1000. B. 1,000 feet, 2,000 feet in mountainous terrain. C. 2,000. D. 2,000 feet, 3,000 feet in mountainous terrain. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Minimum sector altitude provides _____ feet of obstacle clearance within _____ NM of the facility.
A. 1,000, 50. B. 1,000, 25. C. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain), 25. D. 1,000 feet (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain), 50. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Touchdown zone elevation is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing runway.
A. 1,500. B. 2,000. C. 2,500. D. 3,000. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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On multifacility approaches, the depicted VDP will be for the _____ published.
A. highest DH. B. lowest DH. C. highest MDA. D. the lowest MDA. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees.
A. 2. B. 4. C. 5. D. 8. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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While flying a SID, the controller vectors you off the SID. You now can assume the entire SID is canceled unless told to expect to resume SID.
A. T B. F |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Which is a correct standard holding pattern?
A. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or above 14,000 feet. B. Left turns, 1 minute when holding at or above 14,000 feet. C. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet. D. Left turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet. |
Answer: C
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When the aircraft is _____ minutes or less from a clearance limit fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed.
A. 3, 5. B. 5, 3. C. 3, 3. D. 5, 5. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Which of the following concerning holding is correct?
A. You are considered to be established in the holding pattern upon initial passage of the holding fix. B. You are considered to be in the holding pattern when outbound abeam the fix. C. Fly turns at standard rate, or 30 degrees of bank, whichever is greater (no wind). D. Maximum teardrop entry is 30 degrees. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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If you are established in a holding pattern that does not have a published holding or minimum IAF altitude, and you are cleared for the approach:
A. maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach. B. descend at your discretion. C. descend immediately to IAF altitude. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:
A. climb to that altitude. B. maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach. C. break off the approach and request new vectors. D. none of the above. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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If during a descent ATC advises you that radar contact is lost while in IFR conditions and there is a delay in receiving new instructions, what should you do?
A. Ask the controller for a new clearance. B. You are cleared to fly any published approach. C. Advise the controller of your intentions. D. Either a or c above. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When clearance for an approach is issued; ATC expects an immediate turn in the shortest direction to intercept the approach course upon reaching the IAF.
A. T B. F |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When cleared for an approach, proceed to IAF, then turn _____ to intercept the approach course.
A. in the shortest direction. B. left. C. right. D. in the longest direction. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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On a radial and arc combination high-altitude approach, if established in a holding pattern and the IAF is located on an arc or on a radial at a distance less than that required for a normal lead point, you:
A. may turn early to intercept the arc. B. are required to overfly the IAF. C. must request maneuvering airspace from ATC before turning early to intercept the arc. D. none of the above. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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The localizer has a usable range of at least _____ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline.
A. 10. B. 12. C. 18. D. 20. |
Answer: C
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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The final approach course on a nonradar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach.
A. 20. B. 30. C. 35. D. 40. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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The course selected in the course select window when flying an ILS or localizer approach should:
A. not have any effect on the heading pointer in the CI. B. always be the front course when flying the front course and the back course when flying the back course. C. always be the front course. D. be any course you wish, since it doesn't affect the CDI indications. |
Answer: C
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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If you are more than one dot below or two dots above glide slope on an ILS, you:
A. should not descend below localizer minimums. B. must discontinue the approach. C. may continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured. D. either a or c above. E. none of the above. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for:
A. 1 minute while being vectored to final. B. 30 seconds on final for an ASR. C. 15 seconds on final for a PAR. D. both b and c above. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with:
A. your weather minimums. B. your aircraft category. C. your descent rate out of the FAF. D. none of the above. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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While at an out base, you notice yellow chevrons in the overrun. This indicates that:
A. the overrun should not be used except in an emergency or aborted takeoff B. you can use the overrun to taxi and takeoff, but not for landing. C. the base has a precision approach to that runway. D. the base has a non-precision approach to that runway. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Instrument hold lines ensure proper ILS operation during weather conditions less than 800 feet ceiling and (or) 2 miles visibility. You must listen to the current weather to know when to hold short of the instrument hold line.
A. True F. False |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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The circling MDA and weather minima to be used are for the runway:
A. to which the instrument approach is being flown. B. of intended landing. C. either a or b above. D. none of the above. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Obstruction clearance areas for circling maneuvers are determined by:
A. aircraft category. B. weather at the out base. C. each base on an individual basis. D. none of the above. |
Answer: A
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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To begin the sidestep maneuver, you must:
A. have side-step runway or side-step runway environment in sight. B. be past the FAF. C. be at the MDA. D. both a and b above. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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According to AFM 11-217, if you go missed approach after initiating a sidestep maneuver, you will follow the missed approach procedure for:
A. a compatible approach to the sidestep runway. B. the approach just flown unless otherwise directed. C. do not initiate missed approach after a sidestep maneuver is begun. D. given by the tower controller. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When the missed approach is initiated prior to the MAP:
A. start the missed approach procedure from that point. B. proceed to the MAP along the final approach course and then execute the missed approach procedures. C. you can not safely execute the published missed approach procedure. D. ask for alternate missed approach procedures. |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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When executing climbout instructions you may:
A. initiate an immediate climb to the assigned altitude. B. turn to the assigned heading upon reaching the MAP. C. turn to the assigned heading when past departure end of runway, if visible, and 400 feet above TDZE. D. both a and c above. E. none of the above. |
Answer: D
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AFMAN 11-217 VOL 1
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Immediately execute stall recovery procedures any time in the traffic pattern upon detection of:
A. stall indications. B. an excessive sink rate. C. a or b. |
Answer: C
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AFMAN 11-250 VOL 1
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On the range indicator check, the DME must be within _____ mile(s) or _____ % of the distance to the facility, whichever is greater.
A. 5, 3 B. .5, 3 C. .3, 5 D. 5, 8 |
Answer: B
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AFMAN 11-250 VOL 1
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Rolling takeoffs may increase takeoff roll and critical field length approximately _____ to _____ feet.
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Answer: 150 / 300
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AFMAN 11-250 VOL 1
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When VVI is less than 6,000 fpm, begin the level-off at _____ percent of VVI.
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Answer: 10
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AFMAN 11-250 VOL 1
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The primary jettison area for the SUU-20 is at Falcon Range on the main bomb circle with clearance from the RCO. Fly at _______.
A. 3000 feet; no faster than 350 KIAS, 060 deg heading B. 2500 feet; less than 300 KIAS, 080 deg heading C. 2400 feet; less than or equal to 300 KIAS, 080 deg heading D. 1920 feet; 420 KIAS, 060 deg heading |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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A local climb out is to maintain runway heading at or below 2300' until departure end of the runway, climb and maintain 5000 feet, and contact Sheppard Arrival or as assigned.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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When the local altimeter setting is below 29.92, raise the bottom of the MOA ________.
A. By 500 feet B. By 200 feet for each .01 increment below 29.92 C. By 10 feet for each .01 increment below 29.92 D. Not necessary to raise the bottom of the MOA. |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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Minimum fuel and Emergency fuel are ______ and ______ (ENJJPT):
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Answer: 700, 500
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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If you hear "departure leg extend" from Tinder after requesting a closed pattern, you are expected to fly runway heading, at or below 2,300' MSL until 1 mile past departure end, and then turn crosswind.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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There are no breakouts from a restricted pattern.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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Formation Landings are permitted under Bird Watch Condition SEVERE.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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On an abandon approach climb and maintain _______ and offset to the east of the Runway you were flying your straight-in to.
A. 1,500' AGL B. 1,500' MSL C. 2,300' AGL D. 2,300' MSL |
Answer: D
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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When pulling closed/turning crosswind on Runway 15, cross the extended runway centerline of Runway 17/35 at or above _____.
A. 1,500' MSL B. 2,300' MSL C. 2,800' MSL |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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Aircraft flying seven miles initial normally have the right-of-way over aircraft on 90 or 45 to initial.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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You may enter Tinders pattern via point alpha as:
A. Single ship B. 2-ship C. a or b |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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High pattern altitude is
A. 2,800' AGL B. 4,000' MSL C. 4,500' MSL |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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After crossing point alpha, descent to be wings level at 2,800' MSL _____ mile prior to outside downwind.
A. 1 B. 1/2 C. 1/4 |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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Do not descend below _____MSL until east of Kickapoo airport extended runway centerline.
A. 2,300' B. 2,800' C. 3,000' |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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If unable to cancel, on a Falls pattern at 7 DME, Sheppard arrival will break the aircraft off the approach. You can expect:
A. An abandon approach followed by vectors for an instrument approach or departure B. another Falls departure C. A runway heading climb to 5,000' MSL followed by vectors for an instrument approach or departure |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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If landing on Runway 15C with an instrument status or lower, automatically change to ________ frequency after clearing the runway.
A. Tinder B. Tower C. Ground D. SOF |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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All aircraft departing on Tinder's runway are considered IFR unless you request otherwise.
A. True B. False C. I don't know |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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You are allowed to do touch and go landings during bird condition SEVERE.
A. True B. False |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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After landing on 15R, you are allowed to cross from the left side to the right to exit at Taxiway G, unless there is traffic behind you.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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You should squawk ________ while in Tinder's pattern.
A. STBY B. 1200 C. 7700 D. 4000 |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 1
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Flight leads will brief potential Over G area and avoidance techniques on every mission.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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All range airspeeds and altitudes may be briefed "standard."
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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The "corridor" is always open and does not need prior coordination when departing Pine with a flight established in Oak.
A. True. B. False. |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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When accomplished, a trim check on Falcon Range will be at:
A. 2,400' MSL, 420 KIAS. B. 2,500' MSL, 420 KIAS. C. 2,500' AGL, 420 KIAS. |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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Target G for IFF student BFM is ___________.
A. Anything over 4 G's B. 5.0 to 5.5 G's C. 5.5 to 6.0 G's D. 6.0 G's |
Answer: B
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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If you are solo, you need ______ wingtip spacing for run up on takeoff.
|
Answer: 50 ‘
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11-2T-AT-38 V3 SUP 2
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Physically check the fuel shutoff switches in the normal position prior to engine start
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT38V3 CH8
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Do not taxi with less than 25 feet of wingtip clearance unless there is a wing walker at each affected wingtip. One marshaler suffices with only one wingtip affected. This requirement is waived at home station when fixed taxi lines provide a minimum of 10 feet wingtip clearance from permanent objects, other aircraft, fire bottles or ground equipment in designated areas.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT38V3 CH8
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Minimum fuel is ___ pounds and emergency fuel is ___ pounds. Solo student (N/A AT-38 Solo trainees) minimum fuel is ___ pounds, and solo normal recovery fuel is ___ pounds.
A. 700, 500, 800, 900 B. 600, 400, 800, 900 C. 650, 500, 700, 800 D. 700, 400, 800, 900 |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT38V3 CH8
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When the AC determines the aircraft will land at Sheppard below touchdown fuel, diverting may (or may not) be necessary. Contact SOF and use all available information to determine the best course of action.
A. True B. False |
Answer: A
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11-2T-AT38V3 CH8
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Do not takeoff within ________ minutes of servicing with liquid oxygen (LOX).
A. No minimum time required B. 45 C. 30 D. 15 |
Answer: C
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11-2T-AT38V3 CH8
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