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231 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
T-34 engine type
|
-reverse-flow type with inverted capabilities
-PT6A-25 built by Pratt & Whitney |
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Describe the compressor section of the engine
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3 stage axial and 1 stage centrifugal compressor with a 7:1 compression ratio
|
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What is P3?
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fuel control reference air tells FCU how much air in in the diffuser
|
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Describe engine bleed air
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comes from the diffuser and provides cockpit heating
|
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What are the four main sections of the engine?
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compressor, combustion, turbine, exhaust
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What type is the combustion chamber?
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annular reverse flow type
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How many igniter plugs?
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2, used only for initial start
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What is the first turbine called?
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N1 or compressor turbine
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When N1 is at 101.5%, compressor RPM equals?
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37,000 RPM
|
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What is the second turbine called?
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Nf, free turbine, or power turbine
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What does the engine inlet air bypass system do?
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prevents ice from reaching engine
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A yellow can indicates what substance?
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oil
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What is the oil system capacity?
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4.4 gallons
|
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What type of oil pump and where is it located?
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gear driven pump; located inside oil tank
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What are the units of measurement on the oil dipstick?
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quarts
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Dipstick indications are:
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hot & cold, max & min
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What type of oil system?
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pressure and splash and spray
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Oil heat exchanger heats fuel to:
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70-90º F
|
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Auxiliary oil tank capacity:
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1 QT
|
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PCL controls fuel flow how?
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has 11'' rod running from cam box assembly to FCU
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Internal scavenge pump location:
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inside accessory gearbox
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How many scavenge oil pumps?
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2
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Idle normal N1 is:
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62%-65%, but not below 60% or over 65%
|
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Exciter box uses what type and strength of electricity?
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Nominal 28VDC to generate 1400V P(ulsating) DC
|
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Green "ignition" light on annunciator panel means?
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exciter box is energized
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How many relays does the starter have?
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2, generator and auto-ignition
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What does auto-ignition do?
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Provides spark during flameout
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What does the "Auto Ignition" light on the annunciator panel mean?
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auto-ignition system armed
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When does auto-ignition engage?
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When torque is 300-180 ft-lbs
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Describe reduction gearbox
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two stage, reduces power turbine RPM at 15:1 ratio
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Where is chip detector located?
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reduction gearbox
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Describe torque indicator system:
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26V AC, mounted on reduction gearbox flange
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Max torque:
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1315 ft-lbs (550 SHP)
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NATOPs torque:
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1015 ft-lbs (425 SHP)
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Where is the propeller tachometer generator?
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reduction gearbox
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Normal max allowable RPM?
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2200
|
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Define blade angle
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angle between the plane of rotation of the propeller and the chord line of the blade
|
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Three known blade angles:
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Feather--87.5º
Idle--17.5º Max beta--(-)5º |
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Six parts of the pitch change assembly:
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1. Feathering springs
2. Retainer cup 3. Counterweights 4. Servo piston 5. Connecting links 6. Beta feedback ring |
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Force required to keep prop at idle:
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high oil pressure
|
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What does the PCL control?
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fuel flow
|
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Conditions required to select Beta:
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1. DC power to solenoid
2. Nose landing gear strut compressed 3. Depress beta switch on PCL |
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Two ranges of PCL:
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1. Beta
2. Power |
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Two functions of condition lever:
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1. Control fuel on/off
2. Set RPM |
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Purpose of the Beta feedback ring:
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set idle and beta
|
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Three positions of condition lever:
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1. Fuel off
2. Feather 3. RPM |
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How many friction knob locks in cockpit?
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one in the front cockpit
|
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Pitch change progression
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Fuel increase...RPM increase...less HP oil...piston moves aft...prop angle increases
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Overspeed governor location
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reduction gearbox
|
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When does overspeed governor actuate?
|
2332 RPM
|
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How does the overspeed governor work?
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diverts high pressure oil back to reduction gearbox
|
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At what RPM does primary prop governor fail?
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2332
|
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Where is fuel topping governor located?
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primary prop governor (2398RPM)
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How does fuel topping governor work?
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decreases Py air which decreases fuel flow
|
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What does the torque limiter limit the engine to?
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1315 ft-lb (550 SHP)
|
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What does EPL do?
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manually controls fuel flow
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What is the primary fuel for the T-34?
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JP5
|
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Fuel capacity?
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135 gallons
|
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Useable fuel?
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130 gallons
|
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Fuel gauge reads in what units?
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pounds
|
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Right and Left low fuels light comes on at what point?
|
90lbs useable fuel remaining in corresponding tank
|
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Engine driven fuel boost pump does what?
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moves fuel from sump to engine
|
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Fuel boost pump is mounted to and driven by what?
|
external oil scavenge pump on accessory gearbox
|
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What indicates fuel boost pump failure?
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fuel press and master caution lights
|
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Electric boost pump uses what type of electricity?
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28 VDC
|
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If the fuel pressure light comes on:
|
it could be an oil scavenge pump problem
|
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Fuel flow gauge electricty
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26 VAC
|
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3 parts of the FCU
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1. hydro (fuel)
2. pnuematic (P3) 3. mechanical (PCL) |
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How many thermocouples?
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8 bi-metallic
|
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Max continuous ITT?
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695º C
|
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Will ITT temp set of fire warning light?
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No, infrared radiation
|
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Can you dim fire warning light?
|
no
|
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Time to raise/lower gear
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4 sec
|
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Landing gear strut type
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shock strut
|
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What is inside of strut?
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nitrogen and hydraulic fluid
|
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How many inches showing on rear strut?
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3"
|
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How many inches showing on front strut?
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3-5"
|
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Tire is inflated with?
|
Nitrogen
|
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Safety switches on starboard strut:
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1. disables AOA indexer
2. disables "gear up" side of gear motor |
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Safety switches on port strut:
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1. Warning light and horn actuation
2. NACWS test enabled |
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Safety switches on nose strut:
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1. Beta enabled
2. Rudder pedal shakers disabled |
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Where is landing light warning from?
|
nose gear position switch
|
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How many types of landing gear uplocks and what are they?
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2, mechanical advantage and positive uplocks
|
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How many types of landing gear downlocks and what are they?
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3, mechanical advantage, overcenter pivot, and positive downlock
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Main landing gear has what kind of downlock?
|
positive
|
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What type of switch tells landing gear up/down?
|
position switch
|
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What lights indicate gear is down and locked?
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external data indicator lights
|
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Only conditions to silence landing gear horn:
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in flight, gear up, PCL <75%
OR in flight, gear up, PCL and EPL >75% |
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Control lock in place, control surfaces are:
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elevators full down, rudder aligned with vertical stab, ailerons neutral (both 2º down)
|
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Secondary flight controls:
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1. Trim tabs
2. Strakes 3. Ventral fins |
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Auxiliary flight controls:
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flaps
|
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Trim controls location?
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forward end of left console
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Adjust trim when?
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to adjust for unbalanced flight without exerting continuous pressure on primary flight controls
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Trim sequence:
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Rudder, elevator, aileron
|
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Difference between R&L elevators:
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9º (R up 4.5º, L down 4.5º)
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Rudder trim type:
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Anti-servo
|
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Describe anti-servo:
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trim leads in direction of travel and provides artificial feel
|
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Aileron trim type
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servo, opposite direction
|
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Does right aileron trim tab move?
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no
|
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Strakes and ventral fin purpose:
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limit spin rate
|
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Fla extension time
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10 sec
|
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Flap purpose
|
high lift devices
|
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Max speed to use flaps
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120 KIAS
|
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Flap indicator on which wing?
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left
|
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Landing gear speeds
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up, 120 KIAS; down, 150 KIAS
|
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Enter/exit from which side?
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left
|
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overhead assist handle
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unlocks canopy from an aft open position
|
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color of nitrogen storage bottle for canopy blow
|
orange
|
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How does emergency canopy open work?
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nitrogen actuates cylinder which pulls cables attached to both canopies, pulling them back
|
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How long does emergency canopy release take?
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1-4 seconds
|
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Seat lock release is locked on which side?
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right
|
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What causes the inertial reel on safety harness to restrain pilot?
|
rapid linear deceleration of greater than 2 Gs
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How many clocks in a/c?
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2
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What are the clocks powered by?
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Spring
|
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What is the function of the jet pump?
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To mix bleed air with outside air
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Where does fresh air come from?
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accessory air inlet
|
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Purpose of the firewall gate valve
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controls flow from jet pump
|
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cockpit heating overtemperature sensor location
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in the air duct aft of firewall
|
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warning given when air duct temp exceeds 250ºF
|
master caution light and bleed air warning light
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What action is taken when BLEED AIR annunciator fault light illuminates?
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switch environmental control to "fresh air increase"
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Source of outside air to rear cockpit
|
scoop under plane
|
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purpose of air conditioner
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remove heat from circulated cockpit air
|
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A/C system works on what principle?
|
vapor cycle
|
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A/C compressor is operated by?
|
belt driven, actuated by clutch
|
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A/C compressor location
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left side of aircraft
|
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High pressure A/C switch rated at:
|
380 PSI
|
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Low pressure A/C switch rated at:
|
3 PSI
|
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Condenser blower location
|
front wheel well
|
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Which gear uplock position switch works compressor blower?
|
port
|
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Oxygen tank capacity
|
76 cubic feet, 1850 PSI
|
|
Minimum oxygen for a flight?
|
1000 PSI
|
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Why set oxygen switch to 100%?
|
prevent contamination
|
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Type of oxygen during climb and descent?
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100% and normal
|
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What does white flow indicator mean?
|
oxygen being released from cockpit regulator to mask
|
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What switch will alter oxygen pressure?
|
emergency control lever
|
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Where is oxygen t-handle located?
|
front, right, forward cockpit
|
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Where is the oxygen high pressure releif valve located?
|
aft, right side of empennage
|
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How many master break cylinders?
|
4
|
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How does the shuttle valve work?
|
most pressure applied operates brakes
|
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What is the minimum brake thickness?
|
1/10 inch
|
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Which cockpit has control of parking break?
|
front
|
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What conditions prohibit setting of parking break?
|
overheating or freezing temperatures
|
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What is the purpose of the trim tab?
|
relieve pressures on flight controls
|
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Compliance with NATOPS is what?
|
mandatory!
|
|
What is a line connector or relay?
|
takes a small amount of current to manage large amount of current
|
|
Battery volts required to battery start a/c?
|
22V
|
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Battery produces what kind of gas?
|
hydrogen
|
|
What two items can recharge battery?
|
1. generator
2. GPU |
|
What is the purpose of the electrical command switch?
|
takes control of AC and DC power
|
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Can you give away electrical command?
|
no
|
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What is the only hot wired switch?
|
electrical take command
|
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What is the generator power rating?
|
30V, 200amps
|
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What does the voltmeter read?
|
highest voltage (generator)
|
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Ammeter readings are?
|
+ or -
|
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Three indications of external power:
|
1. generator light off
2. 28V 3. discharge on ammeter |
|
Why is GPU used?
|
to save power during start and for maintenance
|
|
Power rating of starter:
|
28V, 800 amps
|
|
Time limitations on starter
|
40 secs/60 secs, 40 sec/60 secs, 40 secs/30 minutes
|
|
How do you get master caution light off?
|
1. fix the problem
2. depress the button |
|
What type of light is provided by utility light?
|
spot or flood
|
|
Purpose of glare shield
|
to prevent strobe from shining in pilot's eyes
|
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When do you use emergency audio position on mixer switch?
|
amplifier failure
|
|
how do you manually set frequency?
|
turn knob to manual
|
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"Main" on UHF frequency means what?
|
normal operation
|
|
"Both" on UHF frequency means what?
|
normal operation and monitors guard frequency
|
|
What is the Guard channel?
|
243 MHz
|
|
Where is the VOR antenna located?
|
top of vertical stabilizer
|
|
When TACAN is on standby, it provides?
|
bearing only
|
|
What does the systems test button do?
|
checks bearing needles, VOR, RMI needle, and DME
|
|
Where is the TACAN antenna located?
|
bottom of fuselage, forward of ventral fin
|
|
TACAN provides what in T/R mode?
|
bearing and DME
|
|
How is DME measured?
|
slant range in nautical miles
|
|
How long to warm up transponder?
|
20 secs
|
|
Where is ELT located?
|
front cockpit, left side
|
|
Battery life of ELT?
|
48 hours, minimum
|
|
When selecting alt static air, which cockpit's instruments are accurate?
|
front cockpit only
|
|
Where does alternate static air come from?
|
avionics compartment
|
|
What is the max allowable altimeter error?
|
75 feet
|
|
altitude encoder location
|
front cockpit only
|
|
Which transponder does altitude encoder send information to?
|
whichever has command
|
|
What is the indication that altitude encoder is not working?
|
red "code off" flag is displayed
|
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When does AOA indexer work?
|
landing gear is down, in flight
|
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What power is required by the RMI?
|
26VAC and 28VDC
|
|
Where is the flux detector located?
|
in left wing tip
|
|
Describe the flux detector
|
north knowing but unstable
|
|
What power is required by the directional gyro?
|
115 VAC
|
|
What is the normal position of the "fast slave" switch?
|
slave
|
|
What is required to use "fast slave"?
|
straight and level, unaccelerated flight
|
|
What are the limits of the attitude indicator?
|
±82º pitch; 360º role
|
|
One needle width on the turn indicator indicates what type of turn?
|
1/2 STD rate turn (4 minutes)
|
|
Two needle widths on the turn indicator indicates what type of turn?
|
STD rate turn (2 minutes)
|
|
What type of power do the inverters produce?
|
115VAC
|
|
What are the three parts of the compressor section?
|
1. compressor inlet case
2. compressor 3. diffuser |
|
From diffuser, what provides P3 and bleed air?
|
2 tap-offs
|
|
Number of spray nozzles
|
10 primary, 4 secondary
|
|
In what direction does the compressor turbine rotate?
|
counter clockwise
|
|
What is the purpose of the compressor turbine?
|
1. Rotates compressor
2. Drives accessory gearbox |
|
When the prop is at max RPM, what is the power turbine RPM?
|
33,000 RPM
|
|
What are located between the two turbines?
|
8 thermocouples measuring ITT
|
|
What door allows solid particles to be separated and vented overboard?
|
Engine Air Inlet Bypass
|
|
Accessory inlet air directs air to what four components?
|
"AOCS"
1. Engine driven Accessories 2. Oil cooler 3. Cockpit 4. Starter/generator |
|
How are bearings lubricated?
|
pressure
|
|
How is accessory and reduction gearbox lubrication accomplished?
|
pressure and spray and splash method
|
|
Where is the main oil tank located?
|
between accessory gearbox and compressor inlet casing
|
|
Where is the auxiliary oil tank located?
|
bottom of accessory gearbox
|
|
Where is the main oil pump located?
|
the bottom part of the main oil tank
|
|
Describe the main oil pump
|
gear-type pump driven by a shaft from the accessory gearbox
|
|
What drives the internal scavenge pump?
|
same shaft as main oil pump
|
|
Internal oil scavenge pump removes oil from?
|
compressor bearings and accessory gearbox
|
|
External oil scavenge pump removes oil from?
|
power turbine shaft bearings and reduction gearbox
|
|
What is the type of oil filter?
|
metal screen
|
|
Where is the oil breather located?
|
main oil tank
|
|
Where is the oil pressure transmitter located?
|
right engine support frame
|
|
What happens to fuel flow when exciter box is operating?
|
provides a false reading
|
|
Where is the auto-ignition sensing switch located?
|
reduction gearbox
|
|
What are the four ignition components?
|
1. Starter switch
2. 2 igniter plugs 3. Ignition switch 4. Exciter box |
|
How is fuel retained if cap is lost during flight?
|
anti-siphoning flapper valve
|
|
What type of sensors measure fuel weight in tanks?
|
capacitance type fuel quantity sensors
|
|
What is the power requirement for the fuel quantity system?
|
28VDC
|
|
Low fuel lights receive input from?
|
Thermistor on baffle section of 40 gallon tanks
|
|
Where is the fuel flow transmitter located?
|
top center of firewall
|
|
What type of sediment drains are on the 40 gallon tanks?
|
snap type water sediment drains
|
|
What detects loss of fuel pressure?
|
boost pressure sense switch
|
|
The fuel flow transmitter produces what type of electrical signal?
|
26VAC
|
|
What is the pressure of the main fuel pump?
|
800 psi
|
|
What device limits the compressor to 37,000 RPM?
|
FCU
|
|
What is the purpose of the ITT system?
|
to provide engine-operating temperature
|
|
What is the type of fire detection system?
|
flame surveillance system
|
|
Where is the firewall test sensing switch located?
|
front cockpit only
|
|
What is the purpose of the torquemeter?
|
indicate engine power out on prop shaft
|
|
What three accessories use torquemeter oil pressure?
|
1. Torque limiter
2. Auto-ignition sense switch 3. Torque transmitter |