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274 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The fuel system is designed to operate between...?
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Sea level and 41,000 ft
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The fuel system is designed to operate between what temp range?
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-40 to 50
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3. Do not set a popped system CB?
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True
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4. Describe the fuel flow sequence throughout the fuel tanks?
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Aft cabin to aft fuselage to right mid to left mid then to the wings.
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5. The capacity of the fuel feed chamber in gallons?
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20 gallons
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6 Name the four types of pumps in the Fuel system?
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Electric boost pump, Electric transfer pump, jet pump and engine driven pump
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7. State the four purposes of the boost pump.
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Engine start, crossfeed, back up for primary jet pumps, source of pressure for transfer pumps
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8. In the automatic mode the boost pump will operate when?
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Fuel feed pressure line drops below 5 psi +/- .5, fuel feed chamber falls below full, engine start is selected, crossfeed is selected
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9. Where are the electric transfer pumps located and what do they do?
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In the midtanks and transfer fuel to the wing tanks.
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10. How is fuel transferred through the jet pumps?
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Motive flow
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11. What is the total capacity when pressure refueled?
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771 gal 5,166 pounds
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12. What is the total capacity when gravity refueled?
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739 gal
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13. What do the sniffle valves vent?
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air and fuel
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14. What do the float check valves vent?
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only air
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15. What is the purpose of pressure relief valves?
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Provides over pressure protection during single point refueling
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16. Sniffle valves pull air inward at a an interval vacuum greater than ___ to ___ psi?
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.1-.3 psi
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17. Sniffle valves dump fuel overboard at pressure greater than ___psi?
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5psi
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18. What is the purpose of flapper valves?
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Keep fuel flowing in one direction, prevents backflow
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19. Name the two methods of refueling t-1.
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Gravity and single point pressure
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20. How is gravity fueling accomplished?
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3 filler ports, 2 in wings and 1 in the aft fuselage
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21. Crossfeed supplies fuel to a single engine from both wings simultaneously.
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False
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22. If the fuel indicator fails it will indicate what?
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below 0
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23 In the event of an EFC failure, engine spool up time will decrease.
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False (it will take longer to spool up)
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22. Crossfeed must not be used during final approach or landing?
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True
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23. Fuel filter bypass annunciator comes on, what does that mean?
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Unfiltered fuel is being supplied to the engines
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24. When does the fuel pressure low annunciator illuminate?
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5 +/- .5
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25. When does the fuel feed annunciator illuminates?
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32 gal (200 pounds) or less
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28. When does the wing tank overpressure annunciator illuminate?
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3.5 +/- .5
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29. How many sniffle valves are there and where are they located?
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5, two in each wing and one in the gravity fueling port on the aft fuselage
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1. What are the three electrical power systems of the T-1?
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DC, AC, Standby
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2. Is it AC or DC on the standby?
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DC standby
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3. What are the three main primary DC power components?
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starter generators, battery, external power
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4. How much power does the generators provide?
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28 volts DC
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5. The generators power their respective load buses through what?
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the main bus
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6. What type of battery is in the T-1?
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24v 40 amp hr lead acid
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7. What does the battery feeder fail indicate?
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Just the light, the battery feeder protection is lost.
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8. What if you get the feeder fail and emergency bus feeer fail?
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Emergency bus is being powered by the left hand load bus
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9. What if you get feeder fail, emergency bus feeder fail, battery cutoff?
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Ground fault has occurred and the battery feeder protection unit has disconnected the battery from the system
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10.Do not operate the defog blower and or windshield heat at the same time as electric heat.
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True
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11. When can you use electric heat?
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only on the ground
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12. Ground fault protection is provided by the battery protection circuits.
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True
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13. The standby battery provides power to what?
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(CRUISE) Copilot instrument lights, RTU (left), UHF radio, ITT (left), Standby attitude indicator, Standby altimeter vibrator, Electric Fuel Control for start
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14. If the standby power is not armed during preflight, the standby bus will not be powered through the loss of all electrical power.
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True
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15. The AC power system is powered by what?
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Two inverters located in the nose compartment
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16. With the inverter selector switch to auto, how is AC power distributed?
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#1 powers primary and #2 powers secondary
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17. With the inverter selector switch to #1 how is the AC power distributed?
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Forces #1 to power primary bus
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18. With the inverter selector switch to #2 how is the AC power distributed?
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#2 powers primary, #1 powers secondary
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19. What causes AC bus shed annunciator to illuminate?
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#2 inverter is being powered by the emergency bus, and #1 inverter has failed
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20. Max generator load above 32,500 ft?
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280
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21. Max generator load below 32,500 ft?
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400
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22. Max generator load on ground?
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280
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23. Shedding external anti-ice loads reduce electrical load by how many amps?
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253
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24. Single generator ops, N2 for operating engine must be____?
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58% min
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25. While operating on emergency and/or standby power what hydraulic systems will be inoperative? landing gear, flaps, speed brakes, anti-skid
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landing gear, flaps, speed brakes, anti-skid
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26. What is on the Emergency Bus?
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(SLEEVES) Select LH instruments (N1 and N2), Landing gear lights, Engine Fire Light, Cabin smoke light, emergency pitch trim, VHF Nav 1, Emergency lights, Standby bus
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1. T-1 hydraulic system controls what?
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Flaps, landing gear, speedbrakes and normal braking
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2. What types of hydraulic pumps are utilized in the hydraulic system?
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Variable displacement rotary plunger type pumps
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3. Hydraulic pumps delivery and pressure varies from what to what?
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0 gpm at 1500 psi and 3.9 gpm at 1400 psi
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4. Hydraulic reservoir capacity?
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1.1 gal
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5. Hydraulic reservoir is pressurized by what and at what psi?
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bleed air at 15 psi
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6. Why is hydraulic reservoir pressurized?
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To prevent foaming and system pressure
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7. Hydraulic system normally stabilizes at what?
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1500 psi
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8. Hydraulic pressure relief valves begins to open when?
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1650 psi
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9. Hydraulic pressure relief valve is fully open at ___ psi
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1850
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10.Hydraulic pressure above 1850 can only be relieved by doing what?
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By activating the hydraulic pressure relief switch
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11.Hydraulic pump pressure low annunciator illuminates when pressure falls below what?
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750 psi
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12.Hydraulic level low annunciator illuminates when?
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Fluid level in reservoir falls be low .6 gal
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13.System that requires bleed air?
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(AWEEPH) ACU, Wing anti ice, Entrance door seal, Engine anti ice, Pressurization, Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
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14.When landing without normal hydraulic pressure will increase what flap landing dist and by what %?
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30 flap landing dist by 90%
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15.In the event of loss of hydraulics you should do what to reduce landing roll?
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Reduce gross weight
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16.For no flap landings landing distance will increase by what?
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35%
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1. How is the landing gear controlled and actuated?
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electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated
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2. The landing gear extension and retraction cycle requires how many seconds?
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7 up and 7 down
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3. For emergency gear extension the emergency gear extension handle is pulled out how many inches?
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10
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4. During emergency gear extension how many seconds does it take for the gear to be down and locked?
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30
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5. Landing gear warning tone is heard when?
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Flaps are at 10 or 0 position
-One or both throttles are below 70% N2 or -if Flaps are extended beyond 10 degrees -(another one is when on the ground with weight on wheels switch |
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6. An illuminated gear unlocked indicator means what?
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Landing gear is in transit, one or more gear not locked, main gear fuselage doors not locked
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7. Max rudder pedal deflection steers the nose wheel how many degrees of center?
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25
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8. Using differential power or braking will turn the nose wheel up to how many degrees?
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45
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9. If both pilot and copilot are attempting to operate the breaks, who control the brakes?
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the one who pushes the hardest
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10. Name four modes of breaking operation?
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Anti-skid, power, manual, emergency
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11. The antiskid function is fully functional during manual breaking?
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false
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12. The break accumulator is pressurized at how much psi of nitrogen?
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900 +/= 50
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13. Anti-skid control is activated above how many knots tire speed?
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14
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14. When is anti-skid available on landing?
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37 knots or weight on wheels more than approx 2.5 sec
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15. It is permissible to test anti-skid in congested areas?
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false
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16. If an anti-skid fail annunciator is illuminated the anti-skid should be placed to what to ensure full power breaking?
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Off
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17. The nitrogen emergency system provides pressure for how many break applications?
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7-10
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18. If nitrogen pressure has been used to close the main gear doors enough pressure remains for how many break applications?
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7-9
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19. Normal breaking should be used in conjunctions with emergency breaking to increase breaking effectiveness.
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False
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20. State the three conditions that the parking break should not be set?
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hot breaks, co-pilot's side, freezing temps with visible moisture
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21. During emergency gear extension, pulling the landing gear CB does what?
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It removes electrical power from the gear system to eliminate gear sequencing
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22. Once the gear has been extended using the emergency method, do not recycle the gear handle.
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True
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23. Landing with one main gear up or unsafe you should touch down where on the runway?
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The same side of the runway as the extended gear.
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1. When does cabin pressure low annunciator illuminate?
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9,500 +/- 500
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2. When does engine ice temp low annunciator illuminate?
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120
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3. When does Air Condition fail annunciator illuminate?
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400 or 53 psi
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4. Bleed air duct fail annunciator illuminate?
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350 or 3.5 +/- .5
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5. Cabin air overheat annunciator illuminate?
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235
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6. Defog overheat annunciator illuminate?
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200
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7. When does cabin pressure hi annunciator illuminate?
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11 +/- 1 psi
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1. If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in standby the manual mode should not be used.
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True
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2. The engines should be manually synchronized within what percentage before synchronization should be used?
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1.5
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3. At what percent N2 does the starter generator begin acting as a generator?
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30-40%
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4. The engine fire extinguishing system uses what kind of extinguishing agent?
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Halon
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5. What occurs when an engine fire switch light has been pressed?
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Respective fuel/hydraulic valves are closed and arms both fire bottles
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6. What is on the accessory gearbox?
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(SHOPPN) Starter generator, HMU, Oil pump, Fuel Pump, Hydraulic Pump, N2 speed sensors
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7. How much thrust is lost due to an EFC failure?
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40%
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6, Define TRT-
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The maximum allowable thrust (determined by fan speed, N1). It varies with pressure altitude, ram air temp and engine bleed air usage. Operation is limited to 5 minutes. Defined by 104%, 700 ITT and 2,900 LBS.
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7. Define MCT-
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Max allowable thrust (determined by fan speed N1) that my be used without a time limitation. It varies with pressure altitude, ram air temp and engine bleed air usage. Defined by 104%, 680 ITT, 2,900 LBS.
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8. How often must MCT be computed?
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every 5,000 feet
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9. Define Max Cruise Thrust-
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The highest thrust setting for use in cruise. Takes into account such parameters as engine time between overhaul, fuel economy, and true airspeed.
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10 Define N1 go around-
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Max allowable thrust for use during a Go-Around (1 or 2 engines) is determined by fan speed N1. Varies with pressure altitude, ram air temp, and engine bleed air usage. Defined by 104%, 700 ITT, 2,900 LBS
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11. Define CEFS-
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The speed at which one engine can fail and the same distance is required to either continue to accelerate to lift-off speed, or to abort and decelerate to a full stop.
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12. Define CFL-
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The total length of runway required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure, then continue to lift-off or stop. It is used during take-off planning together with the climb out data to determine maximum gross weight for a safe takeoff and climbout. For a safe takeoff, the critical field length must be no greater than the runway available.
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13. Define Vmcg (and assumptions)-
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Ground minimum control speed, 88 knots, is the min controllable speed during the take-off run, at which, when an engine is failed, it is possible to maintain directional control using only primary aerodynamic controls without deviating more than 25 feet laterally with all three wheels on the runway. The speed is established with the remaining engine at the take-off thrust setting, the aircraft loaded at the most unfavorable weight and center of gravity and the aircraft trimmed for takeoff, without exceeding 180 pounds of rudder control force by the pilot with the rudder boost system operating. Conditions of crosswind and RCR may increase Vmcg
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14. Define Vmca (and assumptions)-
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Air min control speed, 89 knots, is the min controllable speed in the take-off configuration out of ground effect with on engine inoperative and the remaining engine at take-off rated thrust. It is determined at the most critical combination of asymmetric thrust, light weight, and aft center of gravity. The speed is established with the aircraft trimmed for takeoff, 5 degrees angle of bank into the operating engine and no more than 180 pounds of rudder control force by the pilot with the rudder boost system operating. Vmca is always less than take-off speed and is not considered in take-off planning.
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15. Define Vr-
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The max speed that can be attained, with normal acceleration, from which a stop may be completed within the available runway length.
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16. Define Vb max for takeoff/landing-
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Max speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the max brake energy limits 14.8 million ft lb total.
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17. When is an acceleration check required?
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Anytime when S1 is less than Vrot
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18. Takeoff acceleration check must be adjusted to be at least ____?
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10 knots less than S1
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19. Define S1 and give the equation?
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The takeoff is committed at indicated airspeeds at or above S1. If an engine failure occurs prior to obtaining S1 and action is takedn to stop the aircraft before obtaining S1, take-off abort capability is assured. In take-off planning, S1 is equal to or greater than the higher of Vmcg or CEFS. It less than or equal to the lowest of Vr, Vrot, Vb. If it is higher, the take-off weight must be reduced until this requirement is met.
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20. Define Vrot-
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The speed at which the aircraft attitude is increased from the ground run attitude to the lift-off attitude. It is greater than Vmcg
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21. Define Liftoff speed-
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The speed at which lift off occurs
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22. Define takeoff flare-
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The ground distance covered between lift-off and the 50 ft obstacle height
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23. Define climb out speed (Vco)
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The scheduled single-engine climbout speed and should be obtained at or prior to reaching the 50ft obstacle height. Due to the excess thrust available with two engines, the two-engine climbout speed is 10 knots greater or Vco+10
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24. How is reference zero computed-
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The sum o the take-off ground run distance to lift-off, plus the airborne horizontal distance needed to accelerate and climb to arrive at the 50ft obstacle height at or above the obstacle climbout speed.
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1. Min airspeed in the break?
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160
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2. Min airspeed in pull-up?
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160
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3. Normal T-1 landing zone?
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500-2000 ft
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4. Height crossing threshold?
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20-60 ft
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5. Consider using what flap setting in strong crosswind or gusty wind conditions?
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10 flap
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6. What trim must be neutralized for single engine patterns?
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rudder trim
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7. If performing a go-around, the pilot flying will state?
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crew going around, flaps 10 set power
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8. On a go-around, rotate nose how many degrees high?
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13-15
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9. What is caused by over-rotation in flare or abrupt flare?
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ballooning
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1. What three requirements are required to terminate?
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Sufficient ground references, base or dogleg, within 15 miles
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4. Normal T-1 block times at CSM?
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9:00-12:00
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5. What is the bird notification system based on a nation wide network of nexrad radar?
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AHAS
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6. What is the bird activity forecast based only on historical bird movement?
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BAM
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7. T-1 pilots will wear or carry dog tags in flight.
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True
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9. When is winter weather clothing required for local flights?
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wind-chill is 0 degrees F or below
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10. When is winter clothing required for out and back or cross country?
|
Any part of the route of flight that is covering terrain where the ground temp is 32 degrees or below
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11. Define on-time takeoff.
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5 min before and 10 min after
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12. Where is the chock time published?
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Pen and ink
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13. By what speed do you set TRT?
|
60KIAS
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What is the Nose gear extension
|
3.5 inches
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The sight gauge for the hydraulic quantity totally filled indicates what
|
1.1 gallon hydraulic fluid -- fill lines shows .8 gallons
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What is the pressure of the fire bottles
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600psi/70 deg F
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If the green oxygen disc is missing what does this mean
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oxygen system must be reserviced
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how many sniffle valves are there on the T1
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5 -- two on each wing and one in the gravity refueling door
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how long is the BPO good for
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48 hours unless it was flown
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What is the chine on the nose wheel used for
|
direct flow of water and slush away from the engine
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What is the nose tire chord limit
|
cords
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What is the main strut extension limit
|
1.1 inches minimum
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What is the main tire cord limit
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2 for out and backs/locals; 1 for cross country
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What is the tire pressure limit
|
mains = 125 +/-5 and nose 120 +/- 5 psi
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How long is a tire pressure check good for
|
6 hrs unless flown and then all day
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Can a pilot sign a red X
|
NO
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What is an exceptional release
|
aircraft forms have been reviewed and aircraft is safe for flight
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Can a pilot sign for an ER
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yes, for his own flight
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Can fuel drops be hanging from sniffle valves
|
fuel drop is ok, not dripping though
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how many static wicks are there and what are they used for
|
12, dissipate static electricity, none can be missing
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Describe the battery feed test
|
disconnects the battery from the system, leaving on the STBY bus powered, in emergency checks EMER bus power, should also check for BAT CUT OFF and INV 1 FAIL annunciators
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If the AHRS test fails on one sid can you try the next side, how long to hold the button
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no, 5 seconds
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Why does the stick shaker actuate twice during the stall test
|
test of the altitude compensator
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does the AOA speed index setting affect the stall test
|
no
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What lights dont come on during the indicator light test
|
ground comm, engine start, start disengage, elt, red gear
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ITT should rise within how many seconds of placing the throttle to idle
|
10 seconds
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What should you do if starter does not drop out by 45%
|
press the starter disengage button, if they dont go out, cut off throttles and turn out batteries, put generator switches to EMER
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What does it mean when the fire bottles blowout disc is missing
|
bottle contents have been discharged, talk to maintenance
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Why does the AC BUS shed light come on during the EMER TEST on preflight
|
because inverter no 2 is being powered by EMER BUS
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How do you know if the oil quantity indicator is bad or the qty is low
|
if the light doesnt come one, check with the dipstick
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What does a / or - indicate in the aircraft forms
|
/ = minor maintenance - = inspection overdue
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When must engine anti ice be turned on during ground ops
|
OAT/SAT of 5C or colder and visible moisture
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Which of the door seals is the one that inflates
|
The one attached to the fuselage
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What is the wing leading edge scoop for? wingtip vent scoop?
|
mixes ambient air with bleed air from regulator for the wing anti ice system
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What is the wing fuel tank pressurization scoop used for
|
used to keep positive pressure on the fuel as wing fuel decreases
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what is the max power allowed during ground ops
|
70 % N2
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What is the minimium speed to perform anti skid test?
|
14 kts
|
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What is the minimum distance you can taxi from an obstacle
|
10 ft
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What is the minimum distance you can taxi behind another aircraft
|
150 ft day, 300 ft night/snow
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When do we need a wing walker
|
<25 feet
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How do we test the radar
|
MFD Map or Radar mode, RDR CONTROL button, next, test mode, look for the arcs
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How do we test TCAS
|
Press ATC2, press the test button
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What happens when you discharge the hand held fire extinguisher
|
all of it is discharged at once
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How often do we recompute MCT
|
every 5000 ft
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What are the three speeds for steep turns
|
160, 200, 230
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What checks must be accomplished prior to TP stalls
|
YAMS 20/20 (yaw damper, aoa, mct, speed, 200 kts, fl200)
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While performing maneuvers in the area, the primary reference for area orientation should be
|
area landmarks and terrain charts
|
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What altitude is required for stalls, slow flight, and demos
|
5000 ft AGL
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What are the restrictions for unusual attitudes
|
5000agl, recover above 130 and below 270 kts, do not exceed 45 bank, 25 Nose up and 20 nose down
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What type of check should be done before commencing maneuvers in the area
|
ABCD, altimeter, borders, cruise check/clear, discrete
|
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between each maneuver do what check
|
ACC, area, configuration, clear
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What is a good lead point for vertical s/climb/descents
|
10% of vvi
|
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What is the normal aim point on a 30 flap straight in visual
|
500 ft, middle of windscreen
|
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a 500 ft aimpoint corresponds to a TCH of
|
20 ft
|
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What is considered the T1 landing zone
|
500-2000 ft
|
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What is the desired TCH landing zone
|
20 - 50 ft
|
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What is touchdown speed
|
Vapp -6 kts
|
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What is the max descent rate allowed at touchdown
|
600 ft/min
|
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What can you use to determine whether the yaw damper is engaged or not
|
EADI
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|
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What is required to fly at civil fields at night
|
glide path guidance and familiar field
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Can we do simulated EP patterns at night
|
yes if weather is 3000/3 or better
|
|
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When does the PF call for flaps during touch and go
|
aircraft is in a 3 point attitude
|
|
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what is the min speed for closed pullup
|
160 knots
|
|
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what is the min airspeed for downwind
|
min airspeed for configuration
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|
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what is the min airspeed for turns greater than 15 deg of bank
|
configuration + 10 knots
|
|
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what is the max bank in the traffic pattern
|
plan not to exceed 30 deg in the final turn or on final and 45 degrees anywhere else in the pattern
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can you accomplish practice no flap full stop landings
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no
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what is minimum weather for VFR patterns
|
1500/3, vfr cloud clearance in class D airspace
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Can the T1 fly multiple patters in moderate icing
|
no
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Can the T1 climb and descend in severe icing
|
no
|
|
|
1. Boldface for Engine Fire During Ground Operations
|
THROTTLES – CUTOFF
|
|
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Boldface for Engine Fire During Flight
|
THROTTLE - IDLE
THROTTLE - CUTOFF ENGINE FIRE SWITCH - PUSH BOTTLE ARMED SWITCH - PUSH |
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Boldface for Smoke or Fumes in Aircraft
|
OXYGEN MASKS - DON/100%
|
|
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Boldface for Pitch Trim/Roll Trim/Rudder Trim Runaway or Failure
|
TRIM INT & A/P DISENGAGE SWITCH - PUSH AND HOLD
|
|
|
Boldface for Low Cabin Pressure
|
OXYGEN MASKS - DON/100%
|
|
|
2. Time limit for TRT
|
5 minutes
|
|
|
Time limit for MCT
|
Continuous
|
|
|
Time limit for Idle
|
Continuous
|
|
|
3. Max ITT for TRT
|
700
|
|
|
Max ITT for MCT
|
680
|
|
|
Max ITT for Idle
|
580
|
|
|
Max ITT for Starting
|
550-600 (4 sec)
600-700 (2 sec) 700-720 (1 sec) |
|
|
Max Transient ITT
|
720 (2 sec max)
|
|
|
4. Max % N2 for TRT
|
96
|
|
|
Max % N2 for MCT
|
96
|
|
|
Max % N2 for Idle
|
52 (min)
|
|
|
Max Transient % N2
|
96
|
|
|
5. Max % N1 for TRT
|
104
|
|
|
Max % N1 for MCT
|
104
|
|
|
Max Transient % N1
|
106
|
|
|
6. Max Oil Pressure for TRT
|
60-83
|
|
|
Max Oil Pressure for MCT
|
60-83
|
|
|
Max Oil Pressure for Idle
|
40 (min)
|
|
|
Max Oil Pressure Starting
|
83-95 for 90 sec
|
|
|
7. Max Transient Oil Pressure
|
95 for 90 sec
|
|
|
Max Oil Temperature for TRT
|
10-121
|
|
|
Max Oil Temperature for MCT
|
10-121
|
|
|
Max Oil Temperature for Idle
|
-40-121
|
|
|
Max Oil Temperature for Starting
|
-40 (min)
|
|
|
Max Transient Oil Temperature
|
135 (Max) (15 min Max)
|
|
|
8. Normal oil pressure is __ to __ at N2 > 60%
|
60, 83
|
|
|
Under cold starting procedures, oil pressure between __ to __ is limited to __ seconds
|
83, 95, 90
|
|
|
9. Normal hydraulic pressure is __ to __ psi
|
1350, 1550
|
|
|
Normal nitrogen pressure is __ to __ psi
|
1350, 1650
|
|
|
Normal oxygen pressure is __ to __ psi
|
1600, 1850
|
|
|
10. Minimum battery voltage for battery start is __ volts DC
|
22
|
|
|
Maximum generator load prior to starting second engine is __ amps
|
150
|
|
|
11. Motoring of the starter is limited to:
|
First, __ seconds then __ minutes cooling
30, 5 Second, __ seconds then __ minutes cooling 30, 15 Third, __ seconds then __ minutes cooling 30, 60 |
|
|
12. Maximum airspeed to extend flaps 10 degrees
|
200
|
|
|
Maximum airspeed to extend flaps > 10 degrees
|
170
|
|
|
Maximum airspeed with flaps extended > 10 degrees
|
165
|
|
|
Maximum airspeed to extend landing lights
|
200
|
|
|
Maximum airspeed for windshield wipers
|
200
|
|
|
Aircraft is limited to __ KIAS or __ MACH, whichever is less
|
330, .78
|
|
|
13. Min/Max fuel temperature
|
-40/50 C
|
|
|
Emergency/Min fuel Dual
|
300/500
|
|
|
Emergency/Min fuel Team
|
300/700
|
|
|
14. Max fuel imbalance for takeoff
|
100
|
|
|
Max fuel imbalance for flight
|
300
|
|
|
Max fuel imbalance for landing
|
300
|
|
|
15. Max tailwind
|
10 knots
|
|
|
Max crosswind dry
|
25
|
|
|
Max crosswind wet
|
15
|
|
|
Max crosswind icy
|
10
|
|
|
16. What does a red dash mean in the 781
|
Overdue inspection
|
|
|
What does a red slash mean in the 781
|
Minor maintenance required
|
|
|
What does a red X mean in the 781
|
Aircraft is grounded
|
|
|
17. What do black initials mean in the 781
|
No discrepancies in aircraft
|
|
|
18. Oil must be changed every
|
400 hours
|
|
|
19. What inspections are required daily
|
Tire pressure, oxygen, nitrogen
|
|
|
20. Tire pressure check must be accomplished __ hours before the first flight of the day
|
6
|
