T-1 Training Guide Questions (Trans)

Front 1

1. What if not installed properly can result in
loss of cabin pressure in flight?

Back 1

Emergency Exit
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-3

Front 2

2. What is required before changing any
electrical source?

Back 2

Advise crew
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-4

Front 3

3. Before applying electrical power to the
aircraft what is required?

Back 3

One crewmember must be onboard
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-4

Front 4

4. Failure to check all eight door locking pins
showing white can result in what?

Back 4

Door opening in flight
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-10

Front 5

Door opening in flight
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-10

Back 5

When performing pilot and copilot duties, and the aircraft is in motion
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-11

Front 6

6. What could cause erroneous engine fault
monitor recorder activation during a battery
start?

Back 6

Both batteries not being on during start, if GPU is not available and battery start is required
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-11

Front 7

7. An external power unit is required for
engine start at ambient temperatures
below_____?

Back 7

5°F (-15°C)
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-14

Front 8

8. What are the minimum voltage
requirements for engine start? Battery?
GPU?

Back 8

22, 28
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-14

Front 9

9. What are you required to do if any
abnormal start indications occur prior
moving the associated throttle out of
CUTOFF into IDLE?

Back 9

Press starter disengage button
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-15

Front 10

10. During engine start, after placing the
throttle to IDLE you experience a
malfunction. What do you do?

Back 10

Bring throttle to cutoff, continue to motor engine for 15 sec, then press starter disengage button
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-15

Front 11

11. During a battery start when do you place
start selector to OFF?

Back 11

EFC AUX PWR, boost pump, ignition lights off
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-15

Front 12

12. When must engine anti-ice have to be on
for taxi and takeoff?

Back 12

Visible moisture and temperature below 5°C
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-16

Front 13

13. What is being checked when the stick
shaker activates twice for the L and R stall
warning system?

Back 13

Altitude compensator
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-16

Front 14

14. In what position are the flaps placed when
taxiing through ice and snow?

Back 14

Up
TO 1T-1A-1, 2-19

Front 15

15. What do you do if an anti-skid malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes?

Back 15

- Turn anti-skid off, attempt braking from both sides, use emergency brakes if necessary TO 1T-1A-1, 2-19

Front 16

16. How long will normal braking not be available after testing the anti-skid system?

Back 16

- 4 sec.TO 1T-1A-1, 2-19

Front 17

17. When must fuel crossfeed not be used?

Back 17

- Takeoff, final approach, landing, less than 600 lbs either tank TO 1T-1A-1, 2-19

Front 18

18. What must be turned off prior to recycling the right nonessential bus?

Back 18

- VCCS TO 1T-1A-1, 2-21

Front 19

19. What must be briefed during the crew brief before taking off?

Back 19

- Normal takeoff, emergency takeoff and return, ATC clearance, altimeter setting, noise abatement - TO 1T-1A-1, 2-21

Front 20

20. What is paramount that crewmembers are briefed on prior to flight?

Back 20

- Appropriate actions and responsibilities during flight operationsTO 1T-1A-1, 2-22

Front 21

2. What is the standard for clearing?

Back 21

- Clearing on radios by all crewmembers. PF continues to fly and may attempt to locate without sacrificing control. PNF notes clock position, high/low. Jump will actively monitor TCAS as well as search for traffic. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 22

3. What is the standard for Radio Procedures?

Back 22

- PNF will handle ATC radios 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 23

4. What is the standard for Transfer of Aircraft Control?

Back 23

- IAW 11-247 1.7.1; if intercom inop., remove an ear cup. If excessive noise, point and pass or write notes. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 24

5. What is the standard for Simulated EPs?

Back 24

- IAW 11-2T-1 Vol 3 3.14.1, SOG §31. Prefaced by IP as “simulated.” In actual emergency, terminate all simulated emergencies and return aircraft to a “normal” configuration before performing actual emergency procedures. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 25

6. What is the standard for Weight and Balance?

Back 25

- Will be checked by crew at duty desk and utilize a canned Form F. With >3 on board, use Form F specific to that aircraft. See SOG §21.15. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 26

7. What is the standard for Crew Duties?

Back 26

- Student performing walk-around will also perform step 2 of Before Exterior Inspection. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 27

8. What is the standard for Delays / Spares?

Back 27

- Coordinate through Liberty Ops for chock extensions, notify of tail change, request that Base Ops be notified, request latest abort/discrepancy log write-ups, confirm weight and balance in “black binder” in jumpseat console. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 28

9. What is the standard for Avionics Set-up?

Back 28

- Once PF acknowledges new heading/altitude, PNF will set the appropriate instrument. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 29

10. What is the standard for Bird Strike?

Back 29

- On final, and aircraft in a safe position to land, controllable, and landing distance/brake energy not a factor, land the aircraft. Prior to S1, stop. After S1, leave aircraft configuration, perform controllability check, return to land. If engine bird ingestion is suspected and engine integrity/reliability in doubt, land as soon as possible. 32 FTS SOG Attmt 3

Front 30

11. Is the date on the top of the DD Form 175 in local or zulu?

Back 30

- Local FLIP GP 4-6

Front 31

12. At what weight is an aircraft classified as “Heavy”?

Back 31

- 255,000 lbs FLIP GP 4-7

Front 32

13. How would you write 9000’ on a DD Form 175?

Back 32

- 90 FLIP GP 4-25

Front 33

14. When can I use 2-Letter NDB identifiers on a flight plan?

Back 33

- If they define an airway segment FLIP GP 4-25

Front 34

15. The route of flight on the flight plan must contain at least one waypoint or NAVAID within the first ______ miles of each ARTCC.

Back 34

- 200 nm FLIP GP 4-27

Front 35

16. How do you calculate the “Fuel on Board” time?

Back 35

- Max endurance at 10,000’ MSL using all usable fuel

Front 36

17. What do you do if you have more crew members than blocks on a DD Form 175?

Back 36

- Continue on back of DD175 FLIP GP 4-28

Front 37

18. Do you have to put a SSN on the flight plan?

Back 37

- No, may use “ON FILE” FLIP GP 4-28

Front 38

19. If flying with the OG/CC does he require a VIP code on the DD Form 175?

Back 38

- Yes, if landing at another military field. FLIP GP 4-30

Front 39

20. In BE40/G; what does the G represent?

Back 39

- GNSS with GPS or WAAS, with enroute and terminal capability FLIP GP 4-6

Front 40

1. The hydraulic power supply system supplies hydraulic pressure to operate what?

Back 40

- Gear, flaps, speed brakes, wheel brakes TO 1T-1A-1 Ch 1

Front 41

2. The hydraulic power supply system consists of what components?

Back 41

- Pumps, hydraulic package, valve package, hydraulic system controls & indicators TO 1T-1A-1, 1-68

Front 42

3. How many hydraulic pumps does the T-1A have, and what kind are they?

Back 42

- 2, variable displacement rotary plunger TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 43

4. Each hydraulic pump supplies what rate and psi of hydraulic fluid to it components?

Back 43

- 0 gpm at 1500 psi and 3.9 gpm at 1400 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 44

5. The hydraulic reservoir is pressurized to _________ psi.

Back 44

- 15 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 45

6. What is the capacity of the hydraulic reservoir?

Back 45

- 1.1 gal TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 46

7. Where are the hydraulic fluid shutoff valves installed?

Back 46

- Between reservoir outlet and pumps TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 47

8. At what pressure does the hydraulic pressure relief valve start to open?

Back 47

- 1650 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 48

9. How is the hydraulic bypass valve actuated?

Back 48

- Electrically, by the hydraulic pressure bypass switch TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 49

10. When do the two hydraulic low pressure caution annunciators illuminate?

Back 49

- < 750 psi at each pump TO 1T-1A-1, 1-77

Front 50

11. When does the low hydraulic fluid level caution annunciator illuminate?

Back 50

- < 0.6 gal TO 1T-1A-1, 1-77

Front 51

12. At what pressure does the hydraulic system typically stabilize?

Back 51

- 1500 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 52

13. What can you expect in the event a hydraulic line were to rupture?

Back 52

- Rapid and complete loss of hydraulic fluid TO 1T-1A-1, 1-71

Front 53

14. What is the indication that the hydraulic fluid filter has become clogged or becomes non-operational.

Back 53

- There is no indication TO 1T-1A-1, Ch 1

Front 54

15. Does emergency extending your landing gear relieve all pressure in the hydraulic system?

Back 54

- No—emergency gear extension uses gravity and springs, not hydraulics TO 1T-1A-1, 1-80

Front 55

1. Name the components of the fuel supply system.

Back 55

- Power source, fuel storage subsystem, fuel distribution subsystem, refueling subsystem, fuel management subsystem, fuel system controls and indicators TO 1T-1A-1, 1-33

Front 56

2. How does the fuel flow between tanks in the T-1A?

Back 56

- Aft cabin, aft fuselage, mid tanks, wing tanks TO 1T-1A-1, 1-35

Front 57

3. What pressure differential is required for the fuel filter bypass valve to open?

Back 57

- 2.3 ±0.2 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-51

Front 58

4. During normal operations fuel is supplied to the engine how?

Back 58

- Primary jet pumps TO 1T-1A-1, 1-44

Front 59

5. The fuel supply system is designed to operate between what altitude and temperature?

Back 59

- SL to FL 410, -40° to 50°C TO 1T-1A-1, 1-33

Front 60

6. What is the volume of fuel in the wing tanks under pressure refueling? Gravity refueling?

Back 60

- Pressure—409 gal, gravity—423 gal TO 1T-1A-1, 1-40

Front 61

7. What is the capacity of the fuel feed chamber?

Back 61

- 20 gal TO 1T-1A-1, 1-36

Front 62

8. What are the three types of fuel pumps on the T-1A?

Back 62

- Jet pumps, electric boost and transfer pumps, engine driven pumps TO 1T-1A-1, 1-41

Front 63

9. How many electric fuel pumps are there? Where are they?

Back 63

- Four—2 boost pumps in fuel feed chambers, 2 transfer pumps in mid tanks TO 1T-1A-1, 1-41

Front 64

10. What are the four purposes of the boost pumps?

Back 64

- Engine starting, backup for primary jet pumps, source of pressure for engine-driven pumps, crossfeed TO 1T-1A-1, 1-41

Front 65

11. When do the boost pumps automatically come on?

Back 65

- Fuel feed line pressure < 5 psi, fuel feed chamber less than full, engine starting, crossfeed TO 1T-1A-1, 1-42

Front 66

12. When do the transfer pumps come on? What must be operating for the transfer pumps to be on?

Back 66

- Whenever there is fuel in mid tanks and an operating generator TO 1T-1A-1, 1-42

Front 67

13. What are check valves used for in the fuel system?

Back 67

- To prevent fuel backflow, (no specific definition in -1) TO 1T-1A-1, 1-45

Front 68

14.What are the three types of drain valves used in the fuel system?

Back 68

- Sump, defuel, filler port overboard drain valves TO 1T-1A-1, 1-46

Front 69

15. At what pressure differential does the transfer fuel pumps turn off?

Back 69

- 5 ±0.5 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-42

Front 70

16. At what pressure does wing tank overpressure annunciator illuminate?

Back 70

- 3.5 ±0.5 psi TO 1T-1A-1, 1-49

Front 71

17. When does the fuel feed level low light annunciator illuminate?

Back 71

Less than 11 gal (70 lbs) remaining in the respective fuel feed chamber TO 1T-1A-1, 1-51

Front 72

18. When does the fuel level low light illuminate?

Back 72

- Less than 32 gal (200 lbs) remaining in the respective tank TO 1T-1A-1, 1-50

Front 73

19. When are the fuel level indicators unreliable?

Back 73

- High angles of attack, any angle of sideslip TO 1T-1A-1, 1-50

Front 74

20. Will cross feeding supply fuel to both engines simultaneously?

Back 74

- Yes TO 1T-1A-1, 1-52

Front 75

1. What type of power system is the primary source of power for the T-1A?

Back 75

- DC Power (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-52

Front 76

2. What type and how much power does each generator supply?

Back 76

- 28 VDC (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-53

Front 77

3. At what % N2 does the generator start acting like a generator?

Back 77

35-40 % N2 (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-53

Front 78

4. When the power leaves the generator where does it go?

Back 78

- It goes to the respective main bus (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-57

Front 79

5. What type of battery does the T-1A have?

Back 79

- 24VDC, 40 ampere-hrs, lead acid (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-53

Front 80

6. What is the battery’s purpose?

Back 80

- It supplies secondary electrical power for ground operation, engine starting, and emergency requirements (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-53

Front 81

7. What is the sole purpose of the battery feeder protection unit?

Back 81

- Detects a ground fault that may occur in the battery and external power feeder and ground lines (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-53

Front 82

8. What is external DC power used for?

Back 82

- It is used for ground engine starts, battery charging, and maintenance requiring electrical power (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-58

Front 83

9. Why do you not want to operate the defog blower and/or windshield heat at the same time?

Back 83

- Operating these systems in combination while using the GPU causes an excessive amperage pull which could result in overheating the ground plug and receptacle. (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-58

Front 84

10. What provides ground fault protection?

Back 84

- Battery Feeder Protection Unit (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-53

Front 85

11. What is on the standby bus?

Back 85

- CRUISE. Co-Pilot instrument lights, RTU #1, UHF comm., Left ITT, Standby attitude indicator and altimeter vibrator, Engine EFC. (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-62

Front 86

12. What is the purpose of the AHRS battery?

Back 86

- Provides power to either or both AHRS computers if either the left load bus and/or the right load bus power fails. (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-59

Front 87

13. What keeps the standby battery charged?

Back 87

- LH Load bus (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-60

Front 88

14. What are the main components on the emergency bus?

Back 88

- C SLEEVES. Cabin smoke detector, Selected Left engine instruments (N1 and N2), Landing gear position lights, Emergency lights, Emergency pitch trim, VHF Nav 1, Engine fire extinguishers, Standby bus. (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-62

Front 89

15. What supplies AC power on the T-1A?

Back 89

- The two Inverters located in the nose compartment. (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-64

Front 90

1. What components are dependent on the Pneumatic Power Supply System?

Back 90

- AWEEPH – Acu, wing anti-ice, engine anti-ice, entrance door seal, pressurization, hydraulic reservoir (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-80

Front 91

2. The pressure regulator is preset to adjust bleed air pressure to what psi?

Back 91

- 15+/-1 (T.O. 1T-1A-1) 1-80

Front 92

3. What are the check valves installed for in the bleed air system?

Back 92

- Prevents bleed air from one engine entering the bleed air lines of the other engine (so if you have an inop engine, bleed air doesn’t escape through it)

Front 93

4. What systems control and operate the landing gear system?

Back 93

- Mechanically and hydraucially operatored doors Indicator lights and warning horn for position/condition Rudder pendals for nose gear Mains have disc breaks

Front 94

5. What are the three subsystems of the landing gear system?

Back 94

- Landing gear, nosewheel, and brake subsystems

Front 95

6. What prevents the landing gear from being raised while on the ground?

Back 95

- A solenoid energized through a ground safety switch on left main gear

Front 96

7. The landing gear extension takes approximately how many seconds?

Back 96

- 7 seconds

Front 97

8. During an emergency gear extension what is the approximate time to get all the gear down and locked?

Back 97

- 30 seconds

Front 98

9. What action should one take to get the gear locked after a failed emergency gear extension?

Back 98

Try yawing the aircraft.

Front 99

10. What happens if only the main landing gear are down upon landing?

Back 99

- Hold nose up as long as possible

Front 100

11. On the ground what will cause the landing gear warning tone to activate?

Back 100

- Throttles to TRT, pitch trim not set for TO

Front 101

12. What would cause the landing gear warning tone to activate in the air?

Back 101

- Gear not down/locked and Flaps 0-10, throttle below 70% N2 Gear not down/locked and Flaps > 10

Front 102

13. During maximum deflection of rudder what degree is the nose wheel from center?

Back 102

- 45

Front 103

14. Is there an additional way to increase the nose wheel past full rudder deflection? If so how and to what degree?

Back 103

- Differential breaking/power 25

Front 104

15. What are the three modes of braking operation?

Back 104

- Manual, power, anti-skid

Front 105

16. What is the accumulator used for located just aft of the left main landing gear wheel well?

Back 105

- Stablizes hydraulic pressure during fluctuations

Front 106

17. During anti-skid operations, at what speed does the anti-skid become active?

Back 106

- 14 knots, also available on landing after 37 knots or if squat switch detects weight on wheels for more than 2.5 seconds, whichever occurs first

Front 107

18. Why is it important not to land with the brakes applied?

Back 107

- So the wheels don’t get exploded

Front 108

19. Upon landing with the anti-skid in the ON position; when will you have anti-skid braking?

Back 108

- 37 knots or if a squat switch senses weight on the wheels for more than 2.5 seconds

Front 109

20. Why is it important not to simultaneously use the emergency braking handle and the brake pedals?

Back 109

- Emergency brake and hydraulic brake lines are joined at the shuttle valve assemblies and using both would cause erratic shuttle valve movement leading to erratic braking or locking.

Front 110

1. Binding throttles may be an indication of what?

Back 110

- Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-19

Front 111

2. When must the EFCs be on?

Back 111

- EFC’s will be on whenever the engines are running unless indications of a malfunction exist. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-21

Front 112

3. If you were to increase throttles above idle during a hung start what could be the result?

Back 112

- Increased fuel flow without normal RPM indications could result in engine over temperature. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-29

Front 113

4. When are you allowed to reset a circuit breaker in the fuel system?

Back 113

- Never reset a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-35

Front 114

5. If the transfer pump operation light remains illuminated with either L or R XFER PRESS LO illuminated, and the switch is in AUTO, what do you need to do?

Back 114

- Pull the LH or RH TRANS PUMP circuit breaker to avoid transfer pump damage. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-43

Front 115

6. Use of the engine fire switchlights to close the fuel valve will also do what?

Back 115

- Also closes the hydraulic valve. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-52

Front 116

7. If the 26 vac primary shed bus is lost, what is not available?

Back 116

- Flap Position, LH and RH OIL PRESS indicators TO 1T-1A-1, 1-66

Front 117

8. Failure to set the proper AOA value may cause what?

Back 117

- An erroneous on-speed indication. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-100

Front 118

9. Activating the wing anti-ice system with significant wing ice accumulation could result in what?

Back 118

- Engine ice ingestion with resultant blade damage and possible engine flameout. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-145

Front 119

10. The anti-ice and deice systems must operate together if either one should fail what must be done?

Back 119

- Both systems must be turned off. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-152

Front 120

11. How do you place the windshield rain removal system in PARK?

Back 120

- Go to OFF first, and then PARK. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-157

Front 121

12. TCAS does not relieve pilots of what?

Back 121

- Their responsibility to see and avoid by maintaining and outside vigilance. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-345

Front 122

13. Following a TCAS “CLEAR OF CONFLICT: advisory the pilot should do what?

Back 122

- Expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-349

Front 123

14. What could failure to set the decision height properly in the radio altimeter do?

Back 123

- Result in nuisance warnings from the GPWS. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-359

Front 124

15. Who can do potentiometer adjustments?

Back 124

- Qualified maintenance technician. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-380

Front 125

16. The audible warning “TOO LOW FLAPS” is not activated when?

Back 125

- When an approach or landing configuration with 30° of flaps selected. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-389

Front 126

17. To prevent overheating when should the landing lights be extinguished?

Back 126

- As soon as landing and taxi requirements have been met. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-401

Front 127

18. In regards to the oxygen system a temperature drop of 100 degrees F will reduce pressure how much?

Back 127

- 20%. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-411

Front 128

19. When are you not allowed to be occupying the commode seat?

Back 128

- During T/O and landing. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-412

Front 129

20. The audio mute switch is not functional for what?

Back 129

- Not functional for tone generator signals. TO 1T-1A-1, 1-417

Front 130

1. After starting engines the crew chief states you have a tailpipe fire and shortly after you get a LH ENG FIRE PUSH annunciator. What do you suspect?

Back 130

- The tailpipe fire has spread beyond the tailpipe. TO 1T 1A-1, 3-4

Front 131

2. How many feet is the emergency escape hatch above the ground with the gear extended?

Back 131

- 4.5’. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-5

Front 132

3. While executing an abort in what position should the yolk be?

Back 132

- Neutral position. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-9

Front 133

4. What could happen if you retract the gear with a known blown tire?

Back 133

- Possible damage to the wheel well could occur. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-10

Front 134

5. In the event of an engine failure after takeoff, what are the negative effects of not laterally trimming the aircraft?

Back 134

- Holding lateral control input will significantly degrade single engine, cruise, and acceleration performance. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-10

Front 135

6. Securing then engine should not be accomplished prior to reaching 400 feet AGL and what?

Back 135

- Clear of obstructions. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-10

Front 136

7. During a single engine approach maintain a final approach speed of what for a autopilot coupled approach?

Back 136

- Vapp+5. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-14

Front 137

8. If the boost pumps begin operation while in the automatic mode for no apparent reason you should do what?

Back 137

- Leave the boost pump in AUTO mode and land as soon as practical. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-17

Front 138

9. If you try to match the throttles with an EFC off what could happen?

Back 138

- May cause overboosting of the other engine. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-17

Front 139

10.What won’t be used for final approach or landing to prevent a single system failure from causing a dual engine flameout?

Back 139

- Crossfeed. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-18

Front 140

11. How long must you wait to reset a No 1 or No 2 BUS FDR circuit breaker?

Back 140

- Do not reset popped BUS FDR circuit breakers. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-20

Front 141

12. What do you do if any trim axis is disabled?

Back 141

- Land as soon as practical. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-23

Front 142

13. If aircrew suspects a binding control surface, visually ensure what?

Back 142

- The autopilot switch is disengaged. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-23

Front 143

14. If an asymmetric flap condition cannot be correct land using what kind of approach?

Back 143

- Straight-in approach. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-26

Front 144

15. With the speedbrakes extended, what is it you cannot do?

Back 144

- Extend the flaps beyond 10°. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-27

Front 145

16. Prolonged use of emergency pressurization can result in what?

Back 145

- Melting of aircraft trim panels near the rear bulkhead and potential some and fumes in the cockpit. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-28

Front 146

17. Do not attempt an actual single-engine go-around after doing what?

Back 146

- Selecting flaps 30 degrees. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-32

Front 147

18. Approach airspeeds of Vapp +35 is required for ice accumulations of approximately _____?

Back 147

- 1.5 inches. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-42

Front 148

19. If flight in icing conditions cannot be avoided refer to the ___________ procedure?

Back 148

- Landing With Ice Accumulation On The Wings procedure. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-51

Front 149

20. Flight in visible moisture without pitot hear may result in what?

Back 149

- Erratic operation or failure of the following systems: Mach/airspeed indicator, RA/VSI and altimeters. TO 1T-1A-1, 3-52

Front 150

1. The crew member occupying the jump seat will never do what?

Back 150

- Actuate flight controls, configuration controls, or controls on the shroud or instrument panels. TO 1T-1A-1 sec IV pg 4-1

Front 151

2. Pilots shall not exchange seat when?

Back 151

- During flight if only two pilots are aboard the aircraft. TO 1T-1A-1 sec IV pg 4-2

Front 152

3. All crew members will monitor UHF or VHF ATC communications in addition to interphone when?

Back 152

- During takeoff, descent, and landing. TO 1T-1A-1 sec IV pg 4-3

Front 153

4. If a flap or landing gear limitation is exceeded, the aircraft commander should suspect damage and not do what?

Back 153

- Change the applicable aircraft configuration unless necessary for safety of flight. TO 1T-1A-1 sec V pg 5-1

Front 154

5. For generator assisted start on the second engine, if the operating engine is out of idle what could happen?

Back 154

- The generator may be damaged. TO 1T-1A-1 sec V pg 5-7

Front 155

6. What is the maximum speed to contact the nose and main gear with support donuts for BAK 9, BAK 12, or BAK 13 arresting cables?

Back 155

- 5 knots. TO 1-T-1A-1 sec V pg 5-9

Front 156

7. What anti-ice systems can be on for takeoff?

Back 156

- Windshield heat on LOW and engine anti-ice. TO 1T-1A-1 sec V pg 7-9 ** It only references what is not allowed, this is through interpolation**

Front 157

8. What is the maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff and landing?

Back 157

- Take-off: 100 lbs, Touch and Go: 100lbs, Flight: 300 lbs, Landing: 300 lbs TO 1-1T-1A-1 sec V pg 5-11

Front 158

9. The speed brakes provide minimal deceleration at high speeds. Do not delay what?

Back 158

- Do not delay dive pullout for speed brake extension. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VI pg 6-4

Front 159

10. Excessive altitude may be lost if the aircraft is not flown to what until a positive rate of climb is established?

Back 159

- If not flown until just prior to stick shaker onset. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VI pg 6-7

Front 160

11. Intentional spins in this aircraft are what?

Back 160

- Prohibited. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VI pg 6-7

Front 161

12. The severity of the wind shear will be dependent on what?

Back 161

- The altitude and magnitude of wind change. Severe windshear should be avoided whenever possible.TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-6

Front 162

13. If deicing fluid is used, care should be taken to prevent the fluid from coming in contact with what?

Back 162

- Plexiglass or plastic since it will tend to craze or soften these materials. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-8

Front 163

14. What is the only exception to using antiice/deice systems to deice the aircraft?

Back 163

- With the exception of window heat, do not use aircraft anti/deice systems to deice the aircraft prior to flight. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-8 - Don’t use except for preflight tests and landing rollout. Use of wing heat on the ground can result in a wing overheat condition due to insufficient ambient airflow. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-9

Front 164

15. If actual icing is encountered during flight, no greater than 10 degrees of flaps may be utilized for landing unless the following conditions are met. What are they?

Back 164

- The icing conditions were encountered for less than 10 minutes, and the RAT during said encounter was warmer than -8ºC A RAT of +10ºC or warmer is observed during the descent, approach, or landing If either of the two conditions above are met, 30º flaps may be utilized for landingTO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-10

Front 165

16. An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below what?

Back 165

- 5ºF (-15ºC). TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-11

Front 166

17. Takeoff planning is of extreme importance when operating from a _________.

Back 166

- From a marginal length runway with high ambient temperatures. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-13

Front 167

18. The weather radar may not detect ______.

Back 167

- Volcanic dust. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-14

Front 168

19. During cold weather starts, oil pressure may temporarily exceed maximum limits until what?

Back 168

- The oil temperature warms sufficiently to give normal indications. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-11

Front 169

20. At night, St. Elmo’s fire/static discharges may be observed around what?

Back 169

- The windshield, accompanied by a bright orange glow in the engine inlets. TO 1T-1A-1 sec VII pg 7-14

Front 170

1. What is Runway Surface Reading (RCR)?

Back 170

- Measure of tire-to-runway friction coefficient. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-2

Front 171

2. What is Runway Surface Condition (RSC)?

Back 171

- Average depth covering the runway surface measure to 1/10th inch. (1 inch is RSC 10). TO 1T-1A-1, A3-2

Front 172

3. What is Critical Field Length (CFL)?

Back 172

- The total length of runway required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure, then continue to lift off or stop. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 173

4. What is Critical Engine Failure Speed (VCEF)?

Back 173

- The speed at which on e engine can fail and the same distance is required to either continue to accelerate to lift off speed, or to abort and decelerate to a full stop. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 174

5. What is Take-Off Ground Run?

Back 174

- The runway distance normally obtained in service operation at zero wind at the mission-specified weight, pressure altitude, thrust setting, ambient temperature, and appropriate take off configuration using lift-off speed. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 175

6. What is Minimum Control Speed Ground (VMCG)?

Back 175

- (88 KIAS) Minimum controllable speed during the take-off run, at which, when an engine if failed, it is possible to maintain directional control using only primary aerodynamic controls without deviating more than 24 feet laterally with all three wheels on the runway. The speed is established with the remaining engine at the take-off thrust setting, the aircraft loaded at the most unfavorable weight and center of gravity, and the aircraft trimmed for takeoff, without exceeding 180 pounds of rudder control force by the pilot with the rudder boost system operating. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 176

7. What is Minimum Control Speed Air (VMCA)?

Back 176

- (89 KIAS) Minimum controllable speed in the take-off configuration out of ground effect with one engine inoperative, and the remaining engine at take-off rated thrust. VMCA is determined at: the most critical combination of aft center of gravity, light weight, and asymmetric thrust. Established with the aircraft trimmed for take-off, 5 degrees AOB in the operating engine and no more than 180 pounds of rudder force by the pilot with the rudder boost system operating. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 177

8. What is Refusal Speed (VR)?

Back 177

- Maximum speed that can be attained, with normal acceleration, from which a stop may be completed within the available runway length. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 178

9. What is Maximum Braking Speed (VB)?

Back 178

- Maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum brake energy limit of 14.8 million ft-lbs. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 179

10. What is a Take-Off Acceleration Check?

Back 179

- Provides a speed for a given distance during take-off ground roll. This speed can be checked against aircraft IAS at that distance to ensure that the takeoff is proceeding normally. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 180

11.What is Go/No-Go Speed?

Back 180

- Takeoff is committed at IAS at or above S1. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-3

Front 181

12.What is Rotation Speed (VROT)?

Back 181

- Speed at which the aircraft attitude is increased from the ground run (taxi) attitude to the lift-off speed. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-4

Front 182

13.What is Stall Speed (VS)?

Back 182

- The higher of: The airspeed at which the aircraft will case to fly due to the loss of aerodynamic lift during the application of smooth control inputs. Or The minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable.

Front 183

14.What is Climbout Speed (VCO)?

Back 183

- Scheduled single-engine climbout speed and should be obtained at or prior to reaching the 50-feet obstacle height.

Front 184

1. What does it mean to you when the refusal speed is less than rotate speed?

Back 184

- If VR is less than VROT, this is a “split marker situation” requiring a takeoff acceleration check. This means that S1 is equal to VR and the go no decision is made for Rotate speed. TO 1T-1A-1, A3-5

Front 185

2. For Take-Off planning explain how headwinds and tailwinds are used?

Back 185

- Headwinds: Benefits normally accepted as an increased safety margin and not accounted for takeoff planning. If mission requirements dictate 50% of the steady headwind component when determining CFL, VCEF, VR, VB and take-off distances. Do not apply headwind for terrain clearances. - Tailwinds: Apply 150% of tailwind component to CFL, VCEF, VR, VB, and takeoff distances. Apply 150% of tailwind component for terrain clearance.

Front 186

3. Explain the three different Take-Off cases and discussed in A3-7?

Back 186

- SEE TO 1T-1A-1, A3-7