Swo

Front 1

The Roving Patrol gives his/her report to the OOD for entry into the deck log every…

Back 1

30 minutes

Front 2

What logs is used to relay information to future watches that does not go into the deck log?

Back 2

Pass Down Log

Front 3

In what Log would you find information verifying that the oncoming watch has the same weapon the previous watch had?

Back 3

Weapons Custody Log

Front 4

What log is used as a record of the material condition of the ship?

Back 4

Damage Control Closure Log

Front 5

Why is it important for the oncoming OOD to know the status of pier services when the watch is relieved?

Back 5

"BTo prevent hazardous conditions or interference such as when divers are in the water, or when there are Sailors working over the side

Front 6

Upon being relieved of watch, the off going OOD informs the incoming OOD of the status of the ships, boats and vehicles so that he/she…

Back 6

knows what is going on

Front 7

The Duty Signalman should break which flag when personnel are working aloft?

Back 7

KILO

Front 8

When receiving a ship alongside inport, the Duty Signalman should break which flag?

Back 8

India

Front 9

What is used to test a ship’s reaction time for emergency communication procedures:

Back 9

Communications Quick Reaction Drills

Front 10

Which officer controls sorties?

Front 11

What Inport Security Threats is it important to secure the brow? More than one answer may be correct.

Back 11

Riot on the Pier

Front 12

The Aircraft Warning Lights are energized by what means:

Front 13

The inner parts of the hull on either side of the keel up to where the sides begin are the…

Back 13

bilges

Front 14

Which small boats is painted haze gray on the freeboard, black below the water line, and has a red stripe at the water line?

Back 14

Captain’s Gig

Front 15

What small boat(s) is/are painted black on the freeboard and green below the water line?

Back 15

Flag Officer’s Barge

Front 16

Who is responsible for training the crew and Boat Officers, providing the Bow Hook and the Coxswain and also responsible for the operation, care, and maintenance (except machinery) of small boats?

Back 16

1st LT

Front 17

On a small boat, who must be familiar with the rules of the road, adhere to proper boat etiquette, and maintain the Compass Log?

Back 17

Boat Officer

Front 18

A strong fiber line used to make fast the small boat’s bow when in the water beneath the boat falls is________.

Back 18

seapainter

Front 19

With which honor should a small boat follow the parent ship?

Back 19

Half masting of colors

Front 20

What is any part of a slack line or chain, particularly when curved or looped?

Back 20

Eye

Front 21

What is a tattletale?

Back 21

A bight of heavy cord as light small stuff ranging from two measure points on the working line to determine when the safe working load has been reached. When it parts, the main line will go next. It is a 40 inch loop spaced 30 inches apart

Front 22

The yellow Quarterdeck/Bridge Alarm represents which type of hazard?

Back 22

Collision

Front 23

The inport Watchstander who tours and inspects engineering spaces for violations of watertight integrity and fire hazards when the plant is inactive or disabled is the _______.

Front 24

The inport Watchstander who delivers the twelve o'clock reports to the CO (or CDO in the CO's absence) is the _______.

Back 24

MOOW

Front 25

The Watchstander who musters and supervises extra duty personnel is the _______.

Back 25

DMAA

Front 26

What internal communication circuits is the two-way amplified Captain's command circuit connecting the major ship control stations?

Back 26

Circuit 21 MC, Semi-Vital, Class I

Front 27

Twelve o'clock reports are delivered to the CO before noon so permission can be requested and given to strike _______ bells on time.

Back 27

8

Front 28

What reports is/are among the standard 12 o'clock report requirements?

Back 28

Fuel and Water, Boat, Mag Temps, Muster, Draft

Front 29

The 1MC is defined and used as:

Back 29

A one-way communications system that is used to pass vital information to all hands shipwide.

Front 30

How often does the Sounding and Security Watch Officer gives his/her report to the OOD for entry into the Deck Log?

Back 30

Not to exceed 30 minutes

Front 31

What must the OOD do during crane operations?

Back 31

Ensure adequate supervision of the evolution to restrict personnel movement in the affected area and observe all safety precautions'

Front 32

List the circumstances that may exempt a ship from making daily Deck Log entries include _______.

Back 32

"special operations designated by the CNO

Front 33

What remarks regarding absentees are to be included in the Deck Log?

Back 33

"The time and circumstances of later whereabouts or fate

Front 34

Deck Log entries for drills and exercises _______.

Back 34

The start and finish time of all drills/exercises will be entered into the deck log. Any information pertinent to the drill/exercise will also be entered and denoted with the word "DRILL" to ensure all personnel recognize the entry as a drill/exercise item.

Front 35

Working parties are often required to onload stores and complete important shipwide evolutions. The OOD can contribute to the well being of the crew by_______.

Back 35

"providing head-of-the-line meal privileges or arrange to have hot meals saved

Front 36

When fueling or refueling, the OOD should do what?

Back 36

"Pass the word putting out the smoking lamp

Front 37

What is an appropriate action in response to a riot on the pier?

Back 37

"Recall Gangway watches/Pier Sentries

Front 38

What security team consists of a minimum of two members required to respond within 5 minutes to a security alert?

Back 38

Security Alert Team

Front 39

Who can grant political asylum?

Back 39

The State Department

Front 40

What type of aid, if any, could the OOD offer if, in a foreign port, a civilian approached the quarterdeck of the ship and asked for political asylum?

Back 40

None

Front 41

Can the OOD grant temporary refuge to an individual claiming to be in personal danger?

Back 41

Yes

Front 42

When high winds are expected, the OOD should _______.

Back 42

"Make sure lines aren’t parting

Front 43

When thunderstorms occur, or are imminent, the OOD should _______.

Back 43

"secure any Sailors from working aloft

Front 44

What is the proper procedure for dipping the national flag if the ensign is at half-mast?

Back 44

Hoist the flag to the truck or peak, answer the dip, return the flag to the truck or peak, then lower it to the half-masted position

Front 45

When should passing honors be rendered?

Back 45

A vehicle with its lights on, personal flags flying from the front fenders drives down the pier.

Front 46

How many sideboys does a Vice Admiral rate?

Back 46

8

Front 47

Why do the man overboard lights pulsate?

Back 47

The switch is continually turned ON and OFF by use of the crank.

Front 48

What is the paint scheme for a Captain's gig?

Back 48

haze gray and black with a red stripe at the waterline

Front 49

What equipment should be carried in a ship's boat to ensure safety of navigation?

Back 49

"Chart(s) of area to be transited

Front 50

What type of davit, the entire operation is controlled by the boat falls and the descent is controlled by a winch or manual brake?

Back 50

Gravity Davit

Front 51

What davit allows for superior boat handling procedures and permits the extension of rescue boat handling to higher sea states than considered safe with conventional davits?

Back 51

Single Arm Track-way Davits

Front 52

What is the reason to have a boat rigged and ready for lowering underway?

Back 52

"To be ready for short notice personnel transfers between ships if needed

Front 53

What is the drag circle?

Back 53

Diameter of the drag circle is the distance from the hawespip to pelorous plus the amount of anchor chain paid out

Front 54

Which lines are considered breastlines?

Back 54

Forward bow spring and after bow spring

Front 55

What best describes the swing circle?

Back 55

Daimeter of Swing Cirlce is the length of the ship plus theamount of anchor chain paid out.

Front 56

What does the watchstander observe during anchor watch?

Back 56

How the anchor tends and it’s strain, amount of chain on deck.

Front 57

Communications for the Watchstander

Front 58

What form of R/T watch there is a transmitter calibrated and available but not necessarily ready for immediate use and a complete log is kept?

Back 58

COVERED

Front 59

What form of security prevents unauthorized persons from viewing or gaining access to classified information?

Back 59

PHYSICAL

Front 60

What type of R/T net, member stations are authorized to transmit traffic to other stations without obtaining permission from NECOS?

Back 60

FREE

Front 61

What characteristics characterizes an R/T net? .

Back 61

A Radiotelephone (R/T) net consists of two or more units capable of direct communications on a common circuit. Units (also known as stations) can be ships, aircraft, submarines, small boats, deployed troops, shore based communication facilities, etc. All R/T nets are controlled by a Net Control Station (NECOS) who is responsible for ensuring an efficient exchange of traffic while also maintaining net security and frequency

Front 62

“K” is the prosign for what proword?

Back 62

OVER

Front 63

You hear over an uncovered net from a unit whose callsign is AAA, "... this is USS NEVERSAIL, correction, AAA, Roger, Over." What should you respond with?

Back 63

BEADWINDOW 6

Front 64

What publications, held only by the U.S. Navy, set forth current tactics, doctrine, procedures, and terminology?

Back 64

NWP

Front 65

What publication series is held by Allied naval forces and sets forth guidance and requirements for varied Allied exercises?

Back 65

Allied Exercise Publications (AXP): This series is held by all Allied naval forces and sets forth guidance and requirements for various Allied exercises.

Front 66

What publication, which serves as a reference for the watchstander in determining what exercises may come up during the watch and in the short-range future, will be distributed prior to battle group sailing?

Back 66

LETTER OF INSTRUCTION (LOI)

Front 67

What OPTASK supplement contains detailed tasking and instructions for all attached aircraft and is announced by the OTC or air coordinator?

Back 67

OPTASK AIR

Front 68

Pub 102 is translated into how many languages?

Back 68

NINE

Front 69

What form of visual communication is typically the communication method choice when ships are conducting maneuvering exercises in close proximity to each other?

Back 69

FLAGHOIST

Front 70

What form of visual communication is often the quickest means to transmit a visual message, however, it does not work well for extended distances?

Back 70

SEMAPHORE

Front 71

There can be a maximum of _______ flags/pennants on a hoist/halyard.

Back 71

5

Front 72

What governing pennant is used when an addressee desires to question a signal?

Back 72

Interrogative: When an addressee desires to question a signal, the signal shall be hoisted at the dip and INT closed up on the next available halyard

Front 73

What information, provided by the operator, is indicated at the bottom of the form and includes precedence, date/time group (DTG) and addresses for the plaindress message?

Back 73

Addresees, Date, Released By, System, Precedence, Operator, Supervisor, Routing Blocks, DTG

Front 74

A radiotelephone net used to transmit navigation, administrative, or routine traffic is characterized as _______.

Back 74

NON-TACTICAL

Front 75

What is the appropriate prosign for the prowords "I Say Again"?

Back 75

IMI

Front 76

What are the appropriate proword/s for the prosign "AR"?

Back 76

OUT

Front 77

What message format is used to send a signal that will not be executed immediately. ?

Back 77

DELAYED EXECUTIVE

Front 78

Bridge-to-Bridge is classified as what sort of radiotelephone net?

Back 78

NON-TACTICAL

Front 79

Which Radio/Telephone watch is described as having a continuous receiver watch and a complete log being kept, but no requirement for a transmitter?

Back 79

COPY

Front 80

Measures used to protect transmissions from interception and exploitation (including following proper R/T procedures as well as practicing Emission Control) describes what sort of Communication Security (COMSEC)?

Back 80

TRANSMISSION SECURITY

Front 81

What are the four steps in relaying a flaghoist between two ships?

Back 81

SENDING, ANSWERING, ACKNOWLEDGING, EXECUTING

Front 82

In what order are flag hoists read?

Back 82

"Starboard to port

Front 83

On a visual message blank, which block indicates what visual signaling method is employed for transmitting the message (i.e., flashing light, flaghoist, semaphore)?

Back 83

SYSTEM

Front 84

Which publication series is held by U.S. Navy forces only and promulgates guidance and requirements for various exercises?

Back 84

FXP

Front 85

Underway Watch Fundamentals

Front 86

What is the primary basic function of the Officer of the Deck?

Back 86

To be in charge of the ship and take responsibility for its safe and proper operation.

Front 87

Which officer may relieve the Officer of the Deck in times of danger or emergency. The OOD reports to this officer on matters regarding the ship’s daily routine?

Back 87

Executive Officer

Front 88

Which officer reports to the OOD for the speed and direction of rotation of the main engines and for standby power requirements and other services?

Back 88

EOOW

Front 89

What is not covered in the CO's Standing orders?

Front 90

What is not covered in the Night Orders?

Back 90

Watch Relief Procedures

Front 91

A security alarm that alerts personnel when entry has been made into secure weapons magazines is a:

Back 91

FZ Alarm

Front 92

Which alarm box is painted green and has a square tipped handle for identification at night?

Back 92

Chemical Alarm

Front 93

Which alarm box is painted yellow and has a star tipped handle for identification at night?

Back 93

Collision Alarm

Front 94

What piece of navigation equipment indicates relative wind direction and velocity?

Back 94

Anemometer

Front 95

What instrument is used to determine the range from your ship to another ship or fixed object ashore?

Back 95

Stadimeter

Front 96

What device is commonly used for taking bearings during piloting evolutions?

Back 96

Telescopic Alidade

Front 97

What maintains the ship's permissible electromagnetic radiation by assigning an EW control to monitor it?

Back 97

EMCON

Front 98

Which sound-powered phone circuit is used to pass Electronic Warfare Information, including intercepted signal characteristics and threat evaluations?

Back 98

53

Front 99

What log is similar to the Deck Log in procedure and content except that it also includes all recommendations from the CIC to the bridge?

Back 99

CIC Watch Log

Front 100

What communication circuit is used to pass sonar information from sonar control to the DRT in the CIC and to the Underwater Battery Fire Control (UBFC) operators for torpedo/VLA firings?

Back 100

1JS

Front 101

What uses passive sonar information to determine a contact’s course, speed and range?

Back 101

TMA

Front 102

What watchstander is responsible for controlling all USW aircraft assigned to the ship and for passing tactical data between USW aircraft and the ship?

Back 102

ASTAC

Front 103

Used when in the vicinity of land, CIC maintains a navigation plot by means of radar fixes and in good visibility will back up the Navigator with recommendations by _______.

Back 103

Identifying land masses that can be used for visual navigation.

Front 104

Which Navigation Team Member supervises the surface picture and associated displays and ensures the bridge team receives timely information, warnings and recommendations concerning surface contacts via the bridge status board phone talker?

Back 104

Piloting officer

Front 105

During day and night operations, what will be the primary means of rescue, if available?

Back 105

HELO

Front 106

Which evolution is conducted when a particular military, political or extremely heavy weather situation requires a ship or group of ships to get underway on very short notice?

Back 106

Sortie

Front 107

Which flight pattern indicates that the pilot needs assistance or that the aircraft’s transmitter has failed but its receiver still operates?

Back 107

Right hand triangular pattern

Front 108

Which condition of readiness is the ship capable of self-defense and the CIC and weapons stations are half manned?

Back 108

CONDITION 2

Front 109

Which officer is normally designated, in writing (per the Captain's Standing Orders), to relieve the OOD when situations warrant and advises the CO on the safe navigation of the ship?

Back 109

NAVIGATOR

Front 110

Which officer is responsible for inspecting the Deck Log daily?

Back 110

NAVIGATOR

Front 111

The basic function of the _______ is to control the movement of the ship by issuing orders to the helm and lee helm.

Back 111

CONNING OFFICER

Front 112

What statements about Deck Logs is/are correct

Front 113

What attributes of proper watchstanding describes the ability to predict possible events and the necessary actions to quickly and correctly respond? ?

Back 113

FOREHANDEDNESS

Front 114

What instrument measures the ship's speed through the water?

Back 114

Pit Log: The Pit Log indicates the ship's speed through the water based on the Pit Sword, which measures the actual speed of the water flowing past the hull. The speed indicated may therefore be influenced by current.

Front 115

What chart is the most widely used projection chart. It allows the user to easily determine position, distance, and direction. However, because of its design, distortion of the true size of surface features increases with distance from the equator?

Back 115

MERCATOR PROJECTIONS

Front 116

Which additional watchstander is required in Conditions I and III, but not required in Condition IV (Peacetime readiness)?

Back 116

TAO

Front 117

What is the senior enlisted operations specialist on the watch team called? (This watchstander assigns watch personnel according to capabilities and rotates the watch as necessary to maximize training and minimize boredom and fatigue.)

Back 117

CICWS

Front 118

What is the primary mission of CIC?

Back 118

The primary mission is to provide the organized collection, processing, display, competent evaluation and rapid dissemination of pertinent tactical information and intelligence to command and control stations.

Front 119

Which log is similar to the Deck Log in procedure and content except that it also includes all recommendations from the CIC to the Bridge?

Back 119

CIC WATCH LOG

Front 120

During SAR operations the CIC must monitor SAR and distress communication radio frequencies, recommend appropriate search areas and procedures to the Bridge, and _______.

Back 120

keep the bridge informed of all developments

Front 121

Which underway condition of readiness requires the ship to man all weapons systems, sensors, damage control, and engineering stations to provide maximum flexibility, survivability, and warfighting capability?

Back 121

CONDITION 1

Front 122

Which underway condition of readiness provides an adequate number of qualified personnel to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the ship and provides the best economy of personnel assignment to watches?

Back 122

CONDITION 4

Front 123

What is the importance of periodically calculating true winds during the CIC watch?

Back 123

Emergency flight quarters and chaff course recommendation

Front 124

Which flight pattern indicates the pilot needs assistance, or the aircraft has experienced complete communication failure?

Back 124

Left hand triangular pattern

Front 125

During aircraft emergencies the OTC will _______.

Back 125

Designating an emergency landing ship: AND Designating "lost aircraft control":

Front 126

Which types of platform(s) can be assigned Plane Guard?

Back 126

HELO OR SHIP

Front 127

Division Officer Administration

Front 128

What are the 31 responsibilities of a division officer, as prescribed in section 361.b of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 128

Take care of assigned personnel, Ensure proper maintenance and material readiness, Provide proper training, Ensure safety standards are maintained, Maintain good order and discipline

Front 129

What are the ten chapters of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 129

"1-Unit Administration,

Front 130

What are the four unit bills that can be found in Chapter 6 of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 130

Operational, Emergency, Special, Administrative

Front 131

What is not a divisional billet described in Chapter 3 of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 131

Actual billets – Division Officer, Leading Chief Petty Officer, Leading Petty Officer, Work Center Supervisor, Work Center Personnel, Damage Control Petty Officer, Supply Parts Petty Officer

Front 132

What describes the Directives Issuance System, as defined in the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 132

Provides the guidance necessary for command personnel to effectively perform their assigned responsibilities including procedures and formats used to issue policy, procedural, and informational releases, as well as developing, issuing, filing, and maintaining all unit directives

Front 133

Which publication is endowed with the primary sanction of law, and contains the primary guidelines concerning duty, responsibility, authority and relationships among the various commands?

Back 133

Navy Regulations

Front 134

You have been tasked by the Training Officer to give a lecture to the wardroom officers on standard watch organization including the positions and their responsibilities. Based on this scenario, which publication should you read in order to prepare for your lecture?

Back 134

Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (OPNAVINST 3120.32)

Front 135

What is the difference between rating and rate?

Back 135

A rate is an occupation, or broad career field, A rating is an occupation, or broad career field, while rate is a combination of rating and paygrade

Front 136

You decide to withhold recommendation of advancement because the candidate does not meet the requirements. You make an entry in the enlisted member's service record. Given this situation, what is the next step that you should perform?

Back 136

Send a message to NETPDTC, the organization that oversees testing, to inform them that you are withholding advancement

Front 137

You withdraw a recommendation for advancement because a candidate is no longer qualified. What forms do you submit in order to remove the recommendation?

Back 137

NAVPERS 1616/26

Front 138

What options correctly describe the Division Officer's Notebook?

Back 138

"The Division Officer's Notebook contains information that helps orient a relieving DIVO

Front 139

A sailor assigned to your division notifies you that while on leave, he got married. He provides you a copy of his marriage certificate and all the pertinent information on his wife (date of birth, social security number, etc.). What is the most important thing the sailor should do to update the sailor's record?

Back 139

"Send the sailor to disbursing to update his personnel data so that he will start receiving allowances for being married

Front 140

Under what circumstances does Fourth Amendment protection apply to a search?

Back 140

"A government agent conducts the search.

Front 141

For a search to be protected by the Fourth Amendment, it must be conducted in an area in which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy. What is an example of an area in which a servicemember does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy?

Back 141

"· Government property (including vehicles and aircraft)

Front 142

What is true of a quarterdeck personnel inspection?

Back 142

It is an example of a non-contraband inspection to ensure security, military fitness, and good order and discipline. The use of technical aids such as a drug dog is reasonable and permissible.

Front 143

Accurately describe inventories?

Back 143

"It involves listing personal effects for administrative purpose.

Front 144

What is true in regard to evidence custody procedures?

Back 144

"It is the responsibility of all Navy law enforcement personnel to take every precaution to preserve the integrity of evidence in its original condition. Investigative personnel must enter evidence into the custodial system as soon as possible after its collection, seizure, or surrender.

Front 145

When does an Unauthorized Absence (UA) begin?

Back 145

As soon as the absence is discovered.

Front 146

Today is 22 Dec and YN3 Jensen did not show up for Admin Division quarters at 0730. A search of the ship revealed that YN3 Jensen was not onboard and no one in Admin Division knew his whereabouts. You make a page 13 entry. Where else should you record YN3 Jensen's absence?

Back 146

Daily Absentee Report

Front 147

Seaman Jones was instructed to sweep the deck of the division workspace on his duty day. The next morning, you inspect the workspace and notice the decks are still dirty and the chewing gum wrappers you saw yesterday are still on the deck. You decide Extra Military Instruction (EMI) is in order. What is an appropriate EMI assignment for Seaman Jones?

Back 147

"Assign Seaman Jones EMI to read the articles of the UCMJ pertaining to rules and regulations and orders given.

Front 148

Your ship is preparing for a scheduled peacetime deployment. As division officer, you meet with your LCPO to discuss manning issues. He indicates to you that the current number of personnel onboard is below that of precious deployment manning and that you are missing some personnel with critical NECs. Which document should you use to accurately determine your divisional authorized manning levels, prospective personnel gains and losses, and personnel NEC requirements of your divisional?

Back 148

Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)

Front 149

Petty Officer (PO) Williams is a crewmember assigned to your division onboard ship. He has just received news from his father in Iowa that their family business is in serious trouble and could possibly be facing bankruptcy. PO Williams explains to you that this business has been in the family for years and that his immediate assistance is needed at home to help save the business. PO Williams submits to you a special request chit requesting a Humanitarian/Hardship Discharge to help save the business from going bankrupt. PO Williams is an above average performer and is one year from his discharge date. Your LCPO informs you that he can support the request since the ship’s schedule has you in port most of the year and that PO Williams deserves recommending approval of this request. Based on this situation, what options best describes what action you, as PO Williams's Division Officer, should take?

Back 149

Deny PO Williams's request because it is not for an authorized Humanitarian/Hardship Discharge reason.

Front 150

As division officer, you have specific responsibilities in regards to the Hazardous Material/Hazardous Waste (HM/HW) Program safety. Select from the list below, the option that is NOT a responsibility of a division officer in regards to HM/HW?

Back 150

"Ensure that HM retained within their work centers is specific to the operations and maintenance of assigned equipmentEnsure that approved personal protective clothing and equipment are available for HM operations or incidents and personnel are trained in their proper use and maintenance.

Front 151

Boatswain Mate First Class Keller's recommendation was withheld. He has now met the requirements for advancement. Given this situation, what step must be performed in order to reinstate his recommendation for advancement?

Back 151

The CO/OIC reinstates the withheld advancement by sending a message to NETPDTC requesting that the advancement no longer be withheld. The request must stipulate that the member was deemed eligible for advancement by the CO/OIC.

Front 152

HM1 Smith was frocked to the next higher paygrade. What does this mean?

Back 152

"Personnel who have satisfied all advancement requirements, including passing the exam and being selected to the next higher paygrade, can be frocked to that paygrade prior to their advancement date.

Front 153

The CO is authorized to directly advance qualified personnel in what paygrades?

Back 153

E-3 through E-5

Front 154

What arethe factors used to determine the final score for advancement?

Back 154

Standard score, PNA points, Length of service, Service in paygrade, Awards

Front 155

In which case is a person still eligible for advancement?

Front 156

Non-eligible

Front 157

Retired Status

Back 157

Personnel in a retired status, including disability retirements.

Front 158

Personnel in confinement

Back 158

Personnel in confinement as a result of civil conviction or sentence of court-martial on their authorized date of advancement.

Front 159

Failed physical standards

Back 159

Personnel who have failed to meet Navy Physical Readiness standards.

Front 160

Non-US citizen personnel

Back 160

Non-US citizen personnel in a rating requiring access to classified information. Commands with personnel who have an impending citizenship date must notify the Naval Personnel Command

Front 161

Prisoner of War

Back 161

Prisoners of war or missing personnel, except by special action by the Chief of Naval Personnel.

Front 162

Missing Personnel

Back 162

Personnel in a deserter or unauthorized absence (UA) status.

Front 163

Fraudulent Advancement

Back 163

Personnel who have been determined by administrative or court-martial proceedings to have used, attempted, or conspired to use fraudulent means to obtain advancement are ineligible for advancement on the cycle for which fraud is substantiated, and remain ineligible until the CO reinstates the advancement recommendation.

Front 164

Which one of the following final multiple score factors gives credit for various achievements such as obtaining an associate's or bachelor's degree while on active service?

Back 164

Miscellaneous

Front 165

On the right-hand side of the enlisted service record there is a Court Memorandum. What is this?

Back 165

Page used to record court-martial and nonjudicial punishment actions that affect an individual’s pay

Front 166

Accurately describe enlisted EVALs.

Back 166

"The comments and promotion recommendations in a sailor's EVAL can play a major part in the selection board process.

Front 167

What is true regarding the FITREP format?

Back 167

"All documentation in the administrative blocks must be made in all capital text

Front 168

How can the Commanding Officer (CO) establish the credibility of an informer?

Back 168

"The source is a law enforcement official

Front 169

What is true regarding the legal requirements of a search?

Back 169

"Searches upon entry to or exit from U.S. installations, aircraft, and vessels abroad are permitted if implemented by the CO for security, military fitness, or good order and discipline.

Front 170

At what time during a UA is a member administratively declared a deserter?

Back 170

"The facts and circumstances of absence without regard to the length of absence indicate that the member may have committed the offense of desertion, as defined in Article 85, UCMJ

Front 171

Any member who misses the movement of a ship, aircraft, or unit with which he/she is required in the course of duty to move shall be punished under which Article of the UCMJ?

Back 171

Article 87

Front 172

What is the vehicle used to identify possible offenses and initiate the investigation of the reported offense?

Back 172

You use the standard Navy chit, Report and Disposition of Offense(s) to start a charge???

Front 173

The Navy mandates how orders and regulations must be published and posted. This includes what?

Back 173

Explain Orders, Post UCMJ Article 137, Provide Training, Publish Orders / Matters, Provide Publications

Front 174

What is true about the duties of the Shore Patrol?

Back 174

"Providing assistance to U.S. Military personnel who are on leave or liberty.

Front 175

What provides additional training within a specific phase of military duty where the Servicemember is deficient?

Back 175

EMI

Front 176

SORM Article 361 lists basic functions of a Division Officer (DIVO). What are basic functions of a DIVO?

Back 176

Be Responsible, Stay Informed, Promote Good Conduct, Report to XO

Front 177

What options are true about written requests for hardship discharge separation?

Back 177

"The eligible member who does not have an additional service obligation may be discharged.

Front 178

What kind of administrative discharge requires a pattern of adverse behavior that shows a significant departure from expected conduct.

Back 178

Other Than Honorable

Front 179

What kind of administrative discharge is warranted if during the Sailor's current enlistment, the member’s final evaluation average is 2.50 or above. (This average is determined by averaging the individual trait averages of all evaluations during the current enlistment.)

Back 179

Honorable

Front 180

What kind of administrative discharge includes entry-level separation and void enlistment or induction.

Back 180

Uncharacterized

Front 181

What kind of administrative discharge is warranted if during the Sailor's current enlistment, the member’s final evaluation average is 2.49 or below. (This average is determined by averaging the individual trait averages of all evaluations during the current enlistment.)

Back 181

General

Front 182

What options are general eligibility requirements for discharge for reason of homosexuality?

Back 182

"Engaged in a homosexual act

Front 183

When must the accused begin serving the punishment?

Back 183

Once he is awarded the punishment

Front 184

A CO may remit a punishment during what period of time?

Back 184

At any time up to 4 months after the punishment was awarded.

Front 185

What happens immediately after the rights of the accused are explained during a Non-judicial Punishment?

Back 185

Preliminary Inquiry

Front 186

What is the main function of the Safety Council?

Back 186

Analyze ship's safety program and make quarterly policy recommendations

Front 187

What is a Class B Mishap?

Back 187

Property damage exceeding $200,000 but less than $1,000,000

Front 188

What is the purpose of the train circle?

Back 188

A red circle painted on the deck indicating the outer limit of the "swing" arc of the equipment

Front 189

Who are the members of the Safety Council?

Back 189

XO-Chairman, Department Heads, Safety Officer

Front 190

Any ordnance proven, by test or analysis, to be adversely affected by RF energy is designated as _______.

Back 190

Unsafe

Front 191

What is the purpose of the Heat Stress Program?

Back 191

Provide shipboard working environments that under normal operational conditions do not expose personnel to hazardous heat stress conditions. This is outlined in OPNAVINST 5100.19 (series).

Front 192

What are a few of special safety precautions that applies to the handling of ammunition?

Back 192

"Safety observers will always be posted at the handling scene.

Front 193

What is a main function of the Enlisted Safety Committee?

Back 193

"Exchanges information on mishap and near mishap prevention.

Front 194

What correctly describes the functions and uses of the Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)?

Back 194

"The EDVR is a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted manning. It lists all individuals assigned and provides:

Front 195

Message Writing

Front 196

Who is responsible for ensuring all references are listed correctly?

Back 196

Drafter

Front 197

What is the highest precedence that should be assigned to administrative matters?

Back 197

"Priority (P)

Front 198

What type of precedence is normally assigned to hurricane reports?

Back 198

Immediate (O)

Front 199

What classification designator is given to a message that requires encryption for transmission?

Back 199

UNCLAS EFTO which means: UNCLASSIFIED, Encrypted For Transmission Only

Front 200

Who may originate a “Personal For” message?

Back 200

Admirals

Front 201

What term is used when the reference has not been sent to all of the addressees?

Back 201

NOTAL

Front 202

Where are classification markings placed in the remarks section?

Back 202

"‘The Classification Line” this identifies the overall classification of the message

Front 203

When located after the Remarks portion of the message, what does the BT indicate?

Back 203

The end of the message

Front 204

What are AMCROSS messages used for?

Back 204

Primarily used to notify personnel assigned to deployed commands of medical urgencies involving the member's immediate family.

Front 205

Drafter routes the rough copy through the chain of command until it reaches the:

Back 205

releasing authority for the message

Front 206

GENADMIN messages can be broken down into _______ parts?

Back 206

Three (3)

Front 207

Why were CASREPS developed?

Back 207

To provide an expeditious means of reporting a diminished combat readiness posture due to a significant equipment malfunction.

Front 208

A casualty is defined as an equipment malfunction or deficiency that cannot be corrected within _______.

Back 208

48 hours

Front 209

What does an Initial CASREP identify?

Back 209

Status of casualty and parts required to affect repair

Front 210

A CASREP will be submitted after the occurrence of significant equipment casualty, as soon as possible but not later than _______.

Back 210

24 hours after the occurrence of a significant equipment casualty

Front 211

An Update CASREP is sent under which condition(s)?

Back 211

Information that has changed from the Initial CASREP

Front 212

There are four types of CASREPS. Which list is correct?

Back 212

Initial, Update, Correct, and Cancel

Front 213

What information should be addressed in the remarks section of an Initial CASREP?

Back 213

"What is the problem?

Front 214

How are Collective Address Designator addressees related?

Back 214

By an administrative or an operational chain of command

Front 215

What term is used to clear message traffic channels in areas experiencing a major crisis?

Back 215

Minimize

Front 216

During Minimize, which type of correspondence can still be forwarded?

Back 216

Non-electronically transmitted correspondence can still be forwarded.

Front 217

SPECAT indicates the message contains what?

Back 217

Special Category information

Front 218

PERSONAL FOR indicates a message that should be reviewed by whom?

Back 218

The CO or individual indicated

Front 219

When Minimize is in effect, restrictions are placed on _______.

Back 219

Non-urgent message traffic

Front 220

What is the normal distribution of SPECAT messages?

Back 220

Personnel with a need-to-know basis

Front 221

Determine the check-sum digit for the following position. 3340N___-11820W___.

Back 221

0, 2

Front 222

In an Initial CASREP, what does Field 5 represent in the casualty description?

Back 222

A category denoting the effect of a casualty on a unit\'s primary and/or secondary mission areas

Front 223

When does a new sequence of numbers start for CASREP serialization?

Back 223

Starts after the unit has submitted CASREP message number 999.

Front 224

Determine the check-sum digit for the following position. 2837N__-07435W__.

Back 224

0, 9

Front 225

In the Initial CASREP, what information does the AMPN set provide?

Back 225

An explanation for why parts are not onboard

Front 226

Determine the check-sum digit for the following position. 3644N__-07548W__.

Back 226

7, 4

Front 227

Where is a "check sum" digit used in CASREPs?

Back 227

Latitude and longitude

Front 228

The list of information addressees obtained for Initial CASREP include what?

Back 228

Technical assistance activities for selected equipment and the appropriate AIG

Front 229

Where is the address placed for the technical assistance activity that will perform work on a casualty?

Back 229

Action

Front 230

Which publication provides the primary guidance for drafting a Casualty Report?

Back 230

NWP 1-03.1

Front 231

How is CASREP serial number determined?

Back 231

The serial numbers are sequential from 1 through 999 for every CASREP originated by a unit. These serial numbers should never be repeated until a new sequence of 1 through 999 has begun. A new sequence of numbers starts after the unit has submitted CASREP message number 999.

Front 232

In an Initial CASREP, what does Field 1 represent in the casualty description?

Back 232

Indicates the type of CASREP being sent.

Front 233

Training

Front 234

How is the 100 Level PQS assessed?

Back 234

Assessment is either in verbal or written form depending on command protocol.

Front 235

What emphasis is placed on the 200 Level PQS requirements?

Back 235

focuses on system components and component parts relevant to one or more designated Watchstations.

Front 236

What must be accomplished before beginning the 300 Level PQS requirements?

Back 236

100 level fundamentals and 200 level systems must be completed.

Front 237

Who is responsible for indoctrinating new officers into the PQS program?

Back 237

Senior Watch Officer

Front 238

What best describes the Final Evaluation Problem?

Back 238

Represents the culmination of the entire Basic Phase of training

Front 239

During the Final Evaluation Problem, the ship will conduct a training scenario written by _______.

Back 239

Integrated Training Team

Front 240

What is the focus of Underway Demonstration (UD)?

Back 240

Underway Demonstration (UD) portion of the Engineering Readiness Process focuses on engineering operations, evolutions, and drills. To standardize UDs across the force, an ATGPAC/LANT assessment team will support the ISIC during the UD.

Front 241

Which publication provides guidance on maintaining PQS records (e.g., PQS progress chart, interim qualification letters)?

Back 241

NAVEDTRA 43100-1 PQS Management Guide

Front 242

Who is concerned with safety training lectures and records?

Back 242

Safety Officer

Front 243

Who solicits input from each training group within their departments for the PBFT meetings?

Back 243

Department Heads

Front 244

Who is responsible for ensuring Department Head inputs regarding training, do not conflict with the schedule of events or inputs from other departments?

Back 244

Training Officer

Front 245

What is the basic instrument for informing personnel of the ship's training goals and operating schedules?

Back 245

Long-Range Training Plan

Front 246

Who chairs the Planning Board for Training (PBFT)?

Back 246

XO

Front 247

What is the mechanism for planning and scheduling training and is modified regularly?

Back 247

The short-range training plan

Front 248

Who is responsible for maintaining divisional training records?

Back 248

Division Officer (DIVO)

Front 249

Describes General Military Training (GMT)?

Back 249

It serves as "All Hands" type training

Front 250

What best describes the purpose of Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS) training?

Back 250

Provides the minimum level of knowledge and skills required of a trainee seeking qualification for a particular watchstation

Front 251

How is the General Military Training (GMT) Manual used to develop a divisional training program?

Back 251

It contains all of the lesson plans used to conduct GMT.

Front 252

How is the 100 level PQS assessed?

Back 252

Assessment is either in verbal or written form depending on command protocol.

Front 253

What level of PQS requirements focuses on obtaining the basic knowledge and principles required to understand the specific equipment and dates necessary to a watchstander?

Back 253

The 100 Level PQS requirements (known as 100 Series or 100 Section) focus on obtaining the basic knowledge and principles required to understand the specific equipment or duties necessary to your Watchstation.

Front 254

Readiness

Front 255

Which procedures must be followed when classified information has been compromised?

Back 255

"Regain custody of the classified information, if possible, and reinstate the proper protection.

Front 256

The Security Manager is responsible for which one of the following functions?

Back 256

Serves as the principal advisor and representative to the commanding officer in matters pertaining to the classification, safeguarding, transmission, and destruction of classified information and reports directly to the commanding officer in the conduct of assigned duties

Front 257

Coordinates entire shipboard security program

Back 257

`Must have a favorably adjudicated SSBI or PR within the past five years

Front 258

What is true of the CMS Custodian?

Back 258

"Responsible for the receipt, custody, accountability, and distribution of all COMSEC material (e.g., crypto equipment, key cards)

Front 259

What is(are) correct Control Procedure(s) in the distribution of classified material?

Back 259

"After being logged in, classified materials are placed in the custody of designated personnel.

Front 260

Which one of the following is true regarding the destruction of classified materials?

Back 260

In cases of emergency, classified material must be destroyed in order. (TS/S/C)

Front 261

What describes the purpose of the LOGREQ?

Back 261

The purpose of a LOGREQ is to identify a ship's anticipated needs prior to entering port

Front 262

What are the requirements for submitting a MOVREP?

Back 262

"Submitted The requirements for submitting MOVREQs is:

Front 263

What is the purpose of SORTS?

Back 263

It is the principle source of data that conveys detailed combat-readiness information, including primary mission areas and overall ratings.

Front 264

A situation has occurred onboard your ship that involves significant events, but they aren’t significant enough to meet the reporting criteria for OPREP-3 messages. Given this situation, which one of the following types of messages should be released?

Back 264

Unit SITREP

Front 265

Your crew caught foreign nationals spying onboard the ship. This event has received a great deal of press coverage because the foreign nationals claim they are innocent diplomats. Given this situation, what message would you use to report the detention of these foreign nationals?

Back 265

OPREP-3 Pinnacle

Front 266

Assume that a part must be purchased from a local vendor. Which funds source should you use to purchase the part?

Back 266

Government Commercial Purchase Card Program (GCPC)

Front 267

During corrective maintenance, your technician discovers that a control valve has failed and a new valve is needed. The ship's COSAL does not reflect the installed equipment. The technician remembers that during the last overhaul period, the system was updated with new equipment that included the control valve. Since the equipment is not listed in the COSAL, there is no onboard allowance for the valve. The valve is available locally from a vendor. Given this situation, which one of the following forms should the Repair Parts Petty Officer fill out to request the part?

Back 267

NAVSUP 1250-1

Front 268

The primary purpose of the Tag-Out Log is to have a control document that:

Back 268

Notifies operators when a component is unreliable or not operating at all

Front 269

What items are included in the Tag-Out Log?

Back 269

Instrument Log, TGL, TUM

Front 270

Complete the following statement. Tag-Out Standards:

Back 270

Sets expectations and regulations to follow during equipment tag-out

Front 271

During the PMS tag-out procedure, who verifies the position of the tags when they are returned to the original position by maintenance?

Back 271

Maintenance Person

Front 272

Which two of the following are electronic test equipment categories?

Back 272

GPETE and SPETE

Front 273

You are assigned as the CSOOW onboard your ship. Your ship is underway with the Battle Group and performing exercises. In the performance of your duties as CSOOW, which one of the following duties or tasks would you most likely be required to perform?

Back 273

Coordinate combat systems functions with EOOW, DCA, and OOD.

Front 274

Which groups of components would you find in the CSOP section of the CSOSS User's Manual?

Back 274

Master Procedures (MP), Operational Procedures (OP), System Procedures (SP), and Component Procedures (CP)

Front 275

You would open the CSOSS User's Manual to the section with CSOCC procedures if you needed information about which one of the following?

Back 275

Equipment emergency initialization instructions following failure

Front 276

Which is the command in each homeport designated as the center with overall responsibility for efficient planning, brokering, and execution of all ship maintenance and modernization for assigned ships?

Back 276

Regional Maintenance Center (RMC)

Front 277

What components are needed for equipment repairs to critical equipment in a particular space?

Back 277

Ready Service Spares (RSS)/Bulkhead Spares

Front 278

What is the main purpose of the Fleet Modernization Program?

Back 278

Provide a plan for improvements

Front 279

What is a criterion for deferred maintenance?

Back 279

"Ship’s force personnel require assistance from an external activity to accomplish the maintenance.

Front 280

A piece of your division equipment requires maintenance. Your onboard technicians have exhausted all onboard expertise trying to repair the equipment. To get the job screened for accomplishment by a Fleet Maintenance Activity, you must report the problem in MDS. Which form should you use to report deferred maintenance actions?

Back 280

2K

Front 281

When submitting a deferred maintenance request, you learn that to complete the request you need to provide amplifying information, such as drawings. Which form would you submit to provide the amplifying information?

Back 281

2L

Front 282

What statements is true about classified MRCs?

Back 282

It is the only PMS material that is classified

Front 283

What describes the role of a SMMO in reference to the 3-M system?

Back 283

"Normally a DIVO who serves as a liaison between the ship and any outside maintenance organizations performing corrective maintenance on the ship

Front 284

All of the following are objectives of the 3-M System, EXCEPT:

Back 284

Assist in the designing of new ship-classes

Front 285

What is a reason why the 3-M System was created?

Back 285

To provide a standardized approach to preventive and corrective maintenance

Front 286

What can be called upon to provide FLEET TECH ASSISTS for newly installed equipment?

Back 286

Shipyards

Front 287

What information does a TGL provide?

Back 287

Lists the location and position of switches/valves required to isolate a system

Front 288

Who reviews associated Tag-out Logs during watch relief and shift turnover?

Back 288

Watch/Duty Officer

Front 289

What action should be taken when tags are missing?

Back 289

The AO and RA should be notified immediately.

Front 290

What actions should be taken when components are out of position?

Back 290

"Report the condition immediately to the AO and RA representative.

Front 291

What action(s) should be taken when tags are damaged?

Back 291

"Report the tag to the AO and RA immediately

Front 292

What type of clearance is granted pending the results of a PSI?

Back 292

Interim Clearance

Front 293

What control procedure is used for secret material that arrives via registered mail?

Back 293

Destruction

Front 294

What classification is designated as providing a "substantial degree of protection"?

Back 294

Secret

Front 295

What types of clearances require the existence of a favorable investigation and LRC; SSBI initiated?

Back 295

Top Secret

Front 296

Maintenance personnel use the COSAL to access information about all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 296

Crew Allotments

Front 297

What is true of consumables Have a limited life expectancy? An example would be paint

Front 298

A parts request has been filled out by the RPPO using NAVSUP Form 1250-1. Who would retrieve it from the storeroom if the part requested was onboard?

Back 298

SK

Front 299

All of the following are true of equipage, EXCEPT:

Back 299

An example would be computer paper

Front 300

What is listed in the Location field on the EGL?

Back 300

The exact location of the equipment

Front 301

What is identified in the Equipment field of the MRC?

Back 301

The equipment supported by the maintenance requirement

Front 302

On a Cycle Board what does the "#" symbol after a maintenance check mean?

Back 302

There is mandatory related maintenance for this check

Front 303

What does the Rate field on the MRC identify?

Back 303

The recommended skill level for the person performing the requirement

Front 304

What does the periodicity code delineate?

Back 304

How frequently the requirement must be performed

Front 305

Navigation, Seamanship, and Shiphandling

Front 306

Seamanship

Front 307

What is the drum on vertical machinery units around which lines are passed to provide assistance in hoisting weights, or taking a strain on lines?

Back 307

Capstan

Front 308

What is a metal coupling device, consisting of an oblong piece internally threaded at both ends and two threaded rods that form a unit, that can be adjusted for tension or length?

Back 308

Turnbuckle

Front 309

_______ run at near right angles to the keel and control the ship's distance from the pier.

Back 309

Breast lines

Front 310

What term is used for running the eye of one mooring line through the eye of another line when two mooring lines share a Bollard?

Back 310

Dipping the Eye

Front 311

The command, ''Cast off (Line Number, or) all lines'' means for the line handlers to

Back 311

Release the line from the bitts

Front 312

What is the free or working end of a line?

Back 312

Bitter end

Front 313

What agents can cause hard to detect damage to a natural line?

Back 313

Heat, sunlight, mildew rot, chemicals, paint, and oils. It is therefore necessary to stow this type of rop or line away from harmful substances. The best stowage is in a dry, cool, dark, well-ventilated area, far away from any potential source of chemicals or gaseous fumes.

Front 314

As each chain marking passes the wildcat, the first anchor report is made to the conning officer by calling out which statement?

Back 314

Fathoms on deck. Some ships may call out shots on deck as opposed to fathoms.

Front 315

During the process of weighing anchor, frequency reports are made periodically on the direction the chain is tending, the _______, and the degree of strain on the chain.

Back 315

CBT version is number of fathoms. Shot on Deck, More often I see number of shots.

Front 316

What are the advantages of mooring to a buoy vs. anchoring?

Back 316

Mooring to a buoy is more secure and requires less space.

Front 317

What is the dip in the towline that acts as a spring?

Back 317

Catenary

Front 318

What makes up the chafing chain and point of attachment on the towed ship?

Back 318

Anchor chain

Front 319

The four basic types of approaches on a disabled ship requiring a tow are:

Back 319

Parallel, 45 degree, backing down, and crossing the T

Front 320

What is the correct procedure for getting underway after connecting your ship to tow another vessel?

Back 320

Increase speed gradually one knot at a time until at desired speed so as not to snap the tow line.

Front 321

Which is an accurate description of being in-step when towing another vessel?

Back 321

Both ships should be rising and falling on waves simultaneously.

Front 322

What is a correct towing safety consideration?

Back 322

Step up speed, one knot at a time, until towing speed is reached

Front 323

What is the role of the Approach ship during an UNREP?

Back 323

Makes the approach and keeps station on the control ship.

Front 324

What color is the Rig Captain's helmet during an UNREP?

Back 324

Yellow

Front 325

What do transfer station markers indicate on a delivery ship during an UNREP?

Back 325

Type of cargo being transferred at the station.

Front 326

What might justify an emergency breakaway from an UNREP?

Back 326

"An engineering casualty affecting the ability of one of the ships to maintain the replenishment course and speed

Front 327

Who can order an emergency breakaway from an UNREP?

Back 327

The CO of either ship.

Front 328

What is a primary means of communication while maintaining radio silence?

Back 328

(unofficial) Visual signals

Front 329

A _______ walk down is conducted on flight deck to prevent missile hazards or objects being sucked into intakes.

Back 329

FOD

Front 330

What is the term for use of a helicopter to transfer materiel to or from a ship?

Back 330

VERTREP

Front 331

What is used to hoist personnel to an airborne helicopter?

Back 331

Grounding strap or horse collar

Front 332

What ensures the safe helicopter landing during day, night and severe conditions?

Back 332

RAST (Recovery, Assist, Secure, and Traverse)

Front 333

Which control is used by RAST for normal operations?

Back 333

Remote control

Front 334

Which crewmember relays instructions from the LSO to flight deck personnel?

Back 334

LSE

Front 335

What is the purpose of the ship/helicopter facility certification program?

Back 335

To ensure minimum safety criteria are met in the installation and modification of aviation facilities aboard ships.

Front 336

What life preserver is normally inherently buoyant?

Back 336

Kapok

Front 337

During which Abandon Ship Phase do officers in charge of debarkation stations direct release of life rafts and personnel proceed over the side in an orderly fashion?

Back 337

Phase II

Front 338

During which Abandon Ship Phase do all personnel below decks, who are not engaged in securing or salvage duties, proceed topside and don life preservers?

Back 338

Phase I

Front 339

What is correct instruction for swimming through flames?

Back 339

Manually deflate vest; swim as far away as possible under water, and re-inflate orally once clear of flames

Front 340

The hydrostatic release on a life raft will be automatically activated between _______ and _______ feet.

Back 340

10, 40

Front 341

The purpose of a life raft's sea painter is to:

Back 341

Make fast the small boat’s bow when in the water beneath the boat

Front 342

What does the command, "Heave around (line number)" mean?

Back 342

Place tension on the specified line using the capstan.

Front 343

What lines can function as the Breast lines?

Back 343

Bow line, stern line

Front 344

What are heavy, vertical cylinders, usually arranged in pairs that are used to make fast or secure lines?

Back 344

Bitts

Front 345

What controls the ship's aft movement?

Back 345

Forward spring lines

Front 346

What does the command, "Send Over" (Line Number) mean?

Back 346

Pass the specified mooring line over to the pier.

Front 347

What is the safe working load of synthetic line?

Back 347

Normally 1/6 to 1/10 of its breaking strength

Front 348

How is wire rope measured?

Back 348

Wire rope size is designated by diameter. The diameter of a wire rope is considered to be the diameter of a circle that will just enclose all of its strands.

Front 349

What type of lines are smaller and lighter than nylon lines of equal breaking strength?

Back 349

(Probable) Aramid / Kevlar

Front 350

What are nylon line's signs of aging?

Back 350

Flexible when tensioned, turns yellow, becomes stiff (all of the above)

Front 351

What does the watchstander observe during anchor watch?

Back 351

Observes the strain and how the chain is tending.

Front 352

What is the correct method of mooring to a buoy?

Back 352

There are two methods of mooring to a buoy: dip rope and trolley. Both use the anchor chain and mooring shackle. A boat crew and buoy crew are necessary for both methods.

Front 353

What color is the last shot?

Back 353

Red

Front 354

What is used to steady the ship on during the final approach leg of an anchorage?

Back 354

The conning officer should aim the ship towards the head bearing.

Front 355

What joins two shots of anchor chain?

Back 355

Detachable link

Front 356

What best describes the swing circle?

Back 356

A circle with a radius equal to the length of anchor chain plus the length of the ship. This the maximum radius that the ship’s stern can swing about the anchor point.

Front 357

If the towing vessel drifts faster than the vessel to be towed, the towing vessel should _______.

Back 357

Approach from leeward

Front 358

What is generally used for heavy sea towing because of ease in handling and minimal storage requirements?

Back 358

Towing wire

Front 359

What are general safety precautions during UNREP?

Back 359

"1. Only essential personnel are allowed at a transfer station during replenishment.

Front 360

What will be sounded by the ship initiating an emergency breakaway to notify other ships in the vicinity?

Back 360

Six short blasts.

Front 361

What is the color of the 40-foot canvas or nylon marker on the phone and distance line?

Back 361

Yellow (Go Read Your Book With Glasses…or the other one.)

Front 362

What color is the Rigger's hardhat?

Back 362

Blue

Front 363

What are Winch Operators also known as?

Back 363

Inhaul/outhaul operators.

Front 364

What are the responsibilities of the Winch operator?

Back 364

"Don brown helmets

Front 365

What is the preferred method of Replenishment at Sea?

Back 365

(guess) VERTREP

Front 366

What is a line with a lead weight attached to a shot line that is heaved over to the receiving ship in daylight?

Back 366

Shot line

Front 367

Inspection of VERTREP handling equipment includes:

Back 367

Forklift trucks, Cargo nets, Pendants and hoisting slings

Front 368

Who supervises all firefighting evolutions concerning helicopter operations?

Back 368

DCA

Front 369

What method is particularly advantageous for small-scale replenishment by eliminating the time required for approach hook-up and disconnect.

Back 369

VERTREP

Front 370

Which crewmember is a qualified pilot who coordinates the activities of all personnel involved in helicopter operations?

Back 370

(unofficial) Air Boss

Front 371

What is the Stabilized Glide Slope Indicator?

Back 371

Projects a tri-colored (green, amber, red) beam of light centered on a safe glide path to the ship.

Front 372

How does atmospheric pressure affect helicopter lift during VERTREP?

Back 372

When temperature increases, lift decreases. When pressure increases, lift increases. Therefore, a cold, dry day with high barometric pressure is ideal.

Front 373

What pieces of life raft equipment are stored, rolled up, and snapped to the inside of the raft canopy and should be snapped to the top of the canopy on the outside?

Back 373

"FALSE: Rain catcher tube, buoyancy compensator, desalting kit

Front 374

How can overcrowding of life rafts be alleviated?

Back 374

Have able-bodied personnel hang onto ropes over the side no longer than necessary, rotating personnel as needed.

Front 375

What is correct instruction for entering the water from the ship's side?

Back 375

"Be fully clothed

Front 376

What report(s) does the Officer of the Deck receive during abandon ship?

Back 376

Receives muster reports, classified material destruction reports, salvage and securing reports

Front 377

Which statement about the condition of Exposure is true?

Back 377

Symptoms of exposure include shivering, listlessness, indifference, and drowsiness. Treatment is to re-warm as soon as possible.

Front 378

Shiphandling

Front 379

Vertical distance from the waterline to the weatherdeck is called _______.

Back 379

Freeboard

Front 380

In U. S. waters, tugs typically use what type of tie-up methods?

Back 380

Power tie-up, double headline, or single headline

Front 381

Orders to the Lee Helm include what?

Back 381

Engine Bell Orders, Pitch Orders, RPM Orders, Engine Bell and RPM Orders Only

Front 382

The station taken by the ship, which is assigned to recover any person who falls overboard from the ships engaged in CONREP, is called the _ ______.

Back 382

Lifeguard

Front 383

When underway, there are areas of decreased water pressure (suction) amidships and increased water pressure at the bow and stern, as the results of the differences in velocity of the flow of water around the hull called _ ______.

Back 383

Venturi Effect

Front 384

Both the Bridge Helmsman and Aftersteering Helmsman must be qualified IAW the applicable Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS) as _ ______.

Back 384

Master Helmsman

Front 385

During an UNREP, the phone and distance line is hand tended to ensure proper tension is maintained and has colored markers every _______.

Back 385

20

Front 386

The basic format for issuing standard commands is:

Back 386

Command, Reply, Report Acknowledgment

Front 387

As the Conning Officer, whom must you notify prior to tensioning or detensioning the rigs?

Back 387

The Helm

Front 388

In preparation of the ship breaking away, the ship needs to display the appropriate flaghoist. The receiving ship will display the:

Back 388

Preparatory

Front 389

OOD emergency actions include:

Back 389

Pass the word, Maneuver the ship, Notify ships in company, preparing to abandon ship if necessary

Front 390

Who establishes modified casualty control procedures under circumstances of restricted maneuvering?

Back 390

CO

Front 391

When would the GQ alarm sound during a fire?

Back 391

After the word of Fire is passed

Front 392

At what angle should a ship attempt to impact another when a collision is inevitable?

Back 392

The narrowest angle possible

Front 393

What is the first action of a Conning Officer after a grounding incident?

Back 393

Stop the engines

Front 394

Who advises the CO of possible courses of action in a grounding situation?

Back 394

Navigator

Front 395

Who is responsible for maintaining the General Emergency Bill?

Back 395

Engineering Officer

Front 396

Who is responsible for maintaining the Abandon Ship Bill?

Back 396

1st LT

Front 397

Which recovery turn do submarines use?

Back 397

Y Backing procedure

Front 398

Which recovery turn is used at night and in reduced visibility?

Back 398

Williamson Turn

Front 399

Which rescue boat crewmember is responsible for signal flares, semaphore flags, multipurpose light, and portable radio?

Back 399

Signalman/Bow Hook

Front 400

Who is responsible for notifying the OOD of a victim’s position in the water?

Back 400

Forward Lookout

Front 401

During a man overboard recovery, the CIC Watch Officer will ensure the DRT is shifted to _ ______ yards per square inch.

Back 401

200 yds/in

Front 402

The current ship's head is 359T. The navigator recommends coming to course 005 T. What standard command would you give to change course from 359T to 005T?

Back 402

Come Right, steer course 005 degrees

Front 403

While conducting a port turn to 090T using left 20 degrees rudder, the Conning Officer decides to reduce the rudder to left 15 degrees. What command would accomplish this?

Back 403

Ease your rudder left 15 degrees, steady course 090 degrees

Front 404

When making its breakaway after all lines are clear, the approach ship will increase speed...

Back 404

Moderately (from 3-5 knots), then order the rudder over outboard in small steps from 2 degrees to 4 degrees.

Front 405

Who must attempt to maintain station until all lines are clear during an emergency breakaway?

Back 405

Conning Officer

Front 406

Your ship is in the process of making an approach on a delivery ship for CONREP, and you are at 1,200 yards with a lateral separation of 2 degrees.

Back 406

Using the Radian Rule, what will be the lateral separation between ships when you are alongside (provided both ships continue to proceed along the ordered UNREP heading)? 40yds

Front 407

CONREP breakaway procedures/maneuvering considerations include all of the following except:

Back 407

Propeller wash effects from the approach ship’s departure

Front 408

Using the Radian Rule, if you desire 150 feet of lateral separation between ships when alongside, what should the angle of separation be when your ship approaches the delivery ship on the ordered UNREP course from astern at 1,000 yards?

Back 408

3 degrees

Front 409

What does the Romeo flag closed up indicate on the receiving ship during an FAS?

Back 409

Commencing my approach

Front 410

When alongside the control ship during CONREP, the Conning Officer should order ship's heading changes . . .

Back 410

Using ordered course to steer in small increments

Front 411

What does the Bravo flag closed up indicate during an FAS?

Back 411

Transferring flammable liquids

Front 412

Which technique is used to ensure adequate lateral separation when making an approach to the CONREP delivery ship?

Back 412

Radian rule

Front 413

In order to reduce damage during an unavoidable collision it is best to...

Back 413

maneuver ship to provide the narrowest angle blow possible

Front 414

When hauling out of formation during an engineering casualty, what does one short blast of the whistle indicate _______ (International Rules), _______ (Inland Rules)?

Back 414

I’m altering my course to starboard; I intend to leave you on my port side

Front 415

When hauling out of formation during an engineering casualty, what do two short blasts of the whistle indicate _______ (International Rules), _______ (Inland Rules)?

Back 415

I’m altering my course to port; I intend to leave you on my starboard side

Front 416

What are the three basic recovery methods used for man overboard rescues?

Back 416

Helicopter, shipboard, and small boat recoveries

Front 417

What do general procedures for a small boat recovery include?

Back 417

"Put the rudder over full toward the side from which the victim fell

Front 418

What is an example of external force?

Back 418

Wind, current, tugboats, pilots

Front 419

Rudder effectiveness is a function of speed and _ ______.

Back 419

Rudder angle

Front 420

With CRP propellers, a ship's speed through the water is a function of both shaft rotation rate and ordered _ ______.

Back 420

Screw Pitch

Front 421

The entire surface area of the ship above the waterline that wind acts upon is the _ ______.

Back 421

Sail Area

Front 422

With fixed blade propellers, a ship's speed through the water is a function of the fixed blade pitch and the _____ rate.

Back 422

shaft rotation

Front 423

Weather and the Watchstander

Front 424

A widespread body of air ranging from several hundred to several thousand miles in diameter, where the temperature and moisture conditions on a horizontal plane are very similar is a(n):

Back 424

Air mass

Front 425

What piece of weather equipment is used to measure atmospheric pressure in inches of mercury or millibars?

Back 425

Barometer

Front 426

What is the primary tool used to minimize the risk of ship damage from extratropical and tropical storms, high seas, and sea ice?

Back 426

OTSR

Front 427

In the Northern Hemisphere, if your ship is caught in the dangerous semi-circle of a hurricane, bring the true wind onto the _______ and keep it there, making as much headway as possible.

Back 427

STBD Bow

Front 428

Which Hurricane Condition of Readiness (COR) is issued when destructive winds are possible within 48 hours?

Back 428

Condition three

Front 429

Which piece of weather equipment is used to measure relative humidity?

Back 429

Psychrometer

Front 430

What is a WEAX?

Back 430

A weather forecast tailored for a battle group’s area of operations

Front 431

During periods of heavy weather and while inport, the OOD should keep the CO informed of the conditions of readiness, request permission to hoist in all boats, and secure gang way and _______.

Back 431

"Keep the CO informed of any environmental changes as noted in the standing orders.

Front 432

What is the difference between a typhoon and a hurricane?

Back 432

A hurricane is associated with the western hemisphere, while a typhoon is associated with the eastern hemisphere.

Front 433

What is an OPAREA Forecast?

Back 433

A 24 hour forecast for established Navy Operating Areas

Front 434

In the Northern Hemisphere, relative to the path of forward motion, the semi-circle to the right is called the _______.

Back 434

Dangerous semi-cirlce

Front 435

Terrestrial Navigation

Front 436

How many miles per year does the Magnetic North Pole move?

Back 436

6 to 25 miles per year

Front 437

Where is the geographic North Pole located?

Back 437

90 degrees North Latitude

Front 438

What is approximately equivalent to one nautical mile?

Back 438

One Minute of Latitude

Front 439

What information is usually located in the lower left corner of a chart?

Back 439

Edition

Front 440

Which shows generalized shorelines and topography, and only principle aids to navigation and major landmarks?

Back 440

Sailing Chart

Front 441

What includes corrections for NIMA Charts and Publications, announces new editions, new products, and cancelled products, and lists worldwide radiobroadcast warnings from NAVAREA and HYDROPAC/HYDROLANT?

Back 441

Notice to Mariners

Front 442

What publication provides narrative descriptions of coastlines, harbors, winds, typical weather patterns, tides, currents, off-lying dangers, and other information not readily shown on a chart?

Back 442

Sailing Directions

Front 443

What type time is read from a sundial?

Back 443

Apparent Solar Time

Front 444

Standard Meridians are exactly divisible by

Back 444

15 degrees

Front 445

How many 15 degree wide time zones are defined? How many 7 1/2 degree wide time zones are defined?

Back 445

24,0

Front 446

What is applied to local time to obtain Greenwich Mean Time?

Back 446

Time zone description

Front 447

What is GMT when it is 0601 at 35 degrees N 75 degrees E?

Back 447

"Zone Description + Zone Time = GMT

Front 448

When transiting through time zones, traveling _______, set clocks ahead. Traveling _______, set clocks back.

Back 448

East, West

Front 449

Changes in local time and date are made solely for the purpose of

Back 449

Convenience

Front 450

What is the error that results from a one-minute error in time in a celestial computation?

Back 450

15NM

Front 451

What provides the navigator with precise time?

Back 451

Quartz Chronometers

Front 452

What is a current called that is caused by the gravitational interaction of the earth and moon, and to a lesser extent, the earth and sun?

Back 452

Tidal current

Front 453

What is the period of time where there is little or no water movement due to tidal currents?

Back 453

Slack Water

Front 454

What is the depth to which a vessel is submerged?

Back 454

Navigational Draft

Front 455

What does each of The 4 volumes of tide tables cover?

Back 455

Different global regions

Front 456

What team will compute tides and currents for the entire day and post graphs describing this information conspicuously on the bridge and in CIC when the ship is transiting restricted waters?

Back 456

Navigation team

Front 457

When reading a tidal graph, what is read across the bottom?

Back 457

Time

Front 458

What object should NOT be used to obtain a fix?

Back 458

Buoy

Front 459

What type of buoy is conical shaped?

Back 459

Nun Buoys, primarily red and mark the right side of the channel.

Front 460

What colors are used on Cardinal buoys?

Back 460

Yellow and Black

Front 461

What is the line where earth and sky appear to meet?

Back 461

Horizon

Front 462

What is the distance a light can be seen based upon the height of the light and the curvature of the earth?

Back 462

Computed Range

Front 463

A ship's magnetic compass aligns itself with the _______ component of the earth's magnetic field.

Back 463

Horizontal component

Front 464

What is the difference between true North and magnetic North?

Back 464

Variation

Front 465

What is the term for compass error resulting from installation in or on a steel ship?

Back 465

Deviation

Front 466

What is used on-board ship as the primary direction indicator?

Back 466

Gyrocompass

Front 467

Which does the gyrocompass seek?

Back 467

True north

Front 468

What gyro course must you steer to make good 355°T with a 4°W gyro error?

Back 468

359 degrees

Front 469

What is a position established at a specific time to a high degree of accuracy?

Back 469

Fix

Front 470

How many LOPs does it take to determine a fix?

Back 470

3

Front 471

What is the process of determining a ship's future position based solely upon its course and speed?

Back 471

Dead Reckoning

Front 472

How is Set and Drift calculated?

Back 472

Current Triangle

Front 473

What is a pre-determined bearing to an aid to navigation used by the Navigator and the OOD to make course changes?

Back 473

Turn Bearing

Front 474

When turning, what is the distance gained at right angles to the original course, measured from the line representing the original travel direction to the point of turn completion?

Back 474

Transfer

Front 475

When turning, what is the distance gained in the direction of the original course, measured from the place where the turn starts to the point of turn completion?

Back 475

Advance

Front 476

What is used in areas where a hazard to navigation must be passed close aboard, but is not visible to the eye, is poorly marked, or not marked at all?

Back 476

Danger bearings

Front 477

How many fixed objects are used to establish a danger bearing?

Back 477

2

Front 478

What is a position determined by crossing lines of position obtained at different times and advanced to a common time?

Back 478

Running Fix

Front 479

What is an advantage of using radar?

Back 479

Used at night and low visibility, quick and accurate, can track other vessels, can be used at greater distances from land

Front 480

What is the art of establishing a geographic position on the open sea by reference to geological features of the ocean floor?

Back 480

Bathymetric Navigation

Front 481

How far does sound travel in one second?

Back 481

4800 feet per second

Front 482

What should be used as a companion volume to the Coast Pilots and Sailing Directions?

Back 482

World Port Index

Front 483

What is GMT when the local time is 0900 and the time zone description is + 8?

Back 483

1700

Front 484

What is the zone description if you are located at 75 degrees west longitude?

Back 484

5

Front 485

What is the zone description if you are located at 62 degrees west longitude?

Back 485

4

Front 486

What is the zone description if you are located at 75 degrees east longitude?

Back 486

-5

Front 487

What is local time when it is 0900(Z) and the time zone description is + 4?

Back 487

500

Front 488

What is the nominal range of Cape Henry Light (Mo (U) 20s 164ft 15M) if visibility is 11.0 nm and the height of eye is 55 feet?

Back 488

15nm

Front 489

What denotes the preferred channel on a preferred channel buoy?

Back 489

The Topmost color (buoys may have bands of red and green)

Front 490

What is the computed range of Point Loma Light (Fl 15s 88ft 23M HORN), if visibility is 11 nm and your height of eye is 55 feet?

Back 490

11NM.

Front 491

You observe a range at 040 degrees. The true bearing of the range from the chart is 044 degrees. What is the gyro error?

Back 491

4E, What you are steering = True +/- error, 40=44-4E

Front 492

What is the algebraic sum of variation and deviation?

Back 492

Compass error

Front 493

What is the definition of the term "set"?

Back 493

Direction that the ship is being pushed, measured from DR to the most recent fix.

Front 494

What are radar limitations?

Back 494

Subject to mechanical failure, radar bearing lines are inaccurate, susceptible to atmospheric disturbances

Front 495

What navigation system was based on measuring the Doppler shift of the satellite radio signal broadcast as it transited the sky?

Back 495

TRANSIT was first, GPS also

Front 496

What is WGS-84?

Back 496

Reference datum used for the United States Charts

Front 497

DGPS uses an additional input from a _______ to minimize inherent error.

Back 497

ground station

Front 498

What ensures safety of people and goods coming in and out of the U.S. transported via the sea?

Front 499

The concept of _______ navigation was conceived following the launch of Sputnik in 1957.

Back 499

Satellite Navigation

Front 500

The GPS allows users to calculate _______ by measuring time it takes for satellite’s radio transmissions traveling at the speed of light to reach the receiver.

Back 500

Their position

Front 501

How many satellites are required to determine precise latitude, longitude and altitude calculations?

Back 501

4

Front 502

A GPS fix with a Figure of Merit of greater than _______ cannot be used for navigation.

Back 502

5

Front 503

When utilizing GPS, a datum indicates _______.

Back 503

Reference baseline

Front 504

________ charts are created by scanning an existing paper chart.

Back 504

Raster

Front 505

The _______ continuously provides accurate dead reckoning positions, velocity, and attitude indications.

Back 505

SINS

Front 506

What measures the individual components of acceleration on-board ship?

Back 506

gyro

Front 507

A key advantage of electronic navigation is accurate display of _______.

Back 507

Ability to display the ships current position

Front 508

Celestial Navigation

Front 509

What contains hourly tabulations of Greenwich Hour Angle and declination for three consecutive days?

Back 509

Daily Pages

Front 510

What is the purpose of the Increments and Corrections table in the Nautical Almanac?

Back 510

Interpolation of GHA and declination

Front 511

What is located on the front and back covers of the Nautical Almanac?

Back 511

Altitude correction charts

Front 512

What is used for solving nautical computations of altitude and azimuth and is formed by the great circles connecting the elevated pole, zenith of the observer's position, and a celestial body?

Back 512

Navigational Triangle

Front 513

What is another name for Celestial Equator?

Back 513

Equinoctial

Front 514

What is the difference between Celestial Hour Circles and Terrestrial Longitude?

Back 514

Celestial Hour Cirles are measured only to the west and Terrestrial longitude is measured to the east and to the west.

Front 515

What is a publication of astronomical data, designed primarily for marine navigation, that identifies the exact location of celestial bodies at a given time and day?

Back 515

Nautical Almanac

Front 516

What items are necessary to calculate time of sunset?

Back 516

Nautical almanac and current position

Front 517

What accurately describes how Declination is measured?

Back 517

0 thru 90 degrees North and South of the Celestial Equator

Front 518

Maneuvering Boards

Front 519

What is used to compute speed, distance, and time?

Back 519

E, r, m vectors; nomogram

Front 520

What is used for accurate measurement of distance between two points on the maneuvering board?

Back 520

Range scale

Front 521

On the 2:1 scale the distance between each circle is:

Back 521

2000yds

Front 522

Which scale is most effective and most often used for measuring speed?

Back 522

0.209027778

Front 523

Ownship is on course 245°T. Lookout reports a contact bearing 047°R. What is the true bearing of the contact?

Back 523

245+047 = 292°T

Front 524

Ownship is heading 217°T. Lookout reports a contact bearing 254°R. What is the true bearing of the contact?

Back 524

217+254-360=111°T

Front 525

Ownship is on course 310°T. The radar operator reports a contact bearing 235°T. The contact’s course is determined to be 100°T. What is the target angle?

Back 525

360-Contact’s Course-(Contact’s True Bearing-180)=315R

Front 526

Ownship is on course 345°T. The lookout reports a contact bearing 047°R. The contact’s course is determined to be 270°. What is the target angle?

Back 526

360-Contact’s Course-(Contact’s Relative Bearing + O/S Course -180)=360-270-345+047-180=332

Front 527

What is DRM?

Back 527

Direction of Relative Motion

Front 528

What two items of information are marked on the nomogram when determining SRM?

Back 528

time and distance

Front 529

How many degrees must you add or subtract to the DRM when solving for CPA?

Back 529

90

Front 530

Which statement(s) are correct when referring to the e-r vector?

Back 530

Own ship’s course and speed

Front 531

To take station on the guide, what information will be needed to reach a solution to get to station?

Back 531

Guide’s course & speed

Front 532

In what direction is the r-m vector drawn?

Back 532

"Same direction as contact’s relative motion

Front 533

A search turn can only be executed from which type of formation?

Back 533

Line abreast

Front 534

Which ship automatically becomes the guide when executing a search turn?

Back 534

The ship outboard of the turn (first ship to turn)

Front 535

When maneuvering in formation, what must be taken into account by the OOD and all watchstanders?

Back 535

"Position and course and speed of other ships particularly the guide

Front 536

What are the limitations on the amount of wheel in a column formation?

Back 536

180 for a column; 90 for a line abreast; 30 for a diamond

Front 537

When wheeling in a column formation, the guide will automatically shift to _______.

Back 537

Leading ship

Front 538

What information is required to plot screen sectors?

Back 538

Ranges and bearings/sector barriers

Front 539

To make an accurate avoiding course recommendation, what information needs to be verified prior to the recommendation?

Back 539

Contact course and speed ; Own ship course and speed

Front 540

What must be verified to have an accurate desired wind solution?

Back 540

C, S, rel wind speed, rel wind direction

Front 541

Combat Systems and Maritime Warfare

Front 542

Combat Systems Fundamentals

Front 543

Military chiefs of the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marines serve collectively as the principal military advisers to the President, Secretary of Defense and the NSC as part of what organization?

Back 543

Joint Chiefs of Staff

Front 544

Which type of organization is organized geographically or functionally and composed of U.S. combat forces from two or more services, with a broad and continuing mission?

Back 544

Unified Command

Front 545

Which chain of command is comprised of forces from one or more services organized to accomplish an assigned task and is not a permanent structure?

Back 545

The Operational Chain of Command

Front 546

Which type of command officer has tactical control of resources assigned to him and has the power to exercise command by negation over subordinate commanders?

Back 546

AB

Front 547

Subjective determinations of the ease with which an adversary could initiate an attack against task groups are known as

Back 547

Tactical Situations (TACSITS).

Front 548

What is a directive for operations extending over a considerable period of time and usually extending over a large geographical area?

Back 548

OPLAN

Front 549

What is a formatted message to order a specific task, and/or exchange essential information required to control a force at sea?

Back 549

OPTASK

Front 550

What types of antenna can operate on two or more frequencies simultaneously?

Back 550

Broadband

Front 551

What Single Audio Systems (SAS) features permits operation even when experiencing problems, can cause system damage if implemented, and therefore requires the CO's permission?

Back 551

Bypass feature

Front 552

What Single Audio System features permits rapid restoration of limited communications following total failure or battle damage?

Back 552

EMERGENCY PATCH

Front 553

What is the battle group communications plan that lists all assigned battle group frequencies and their designated uses?

Back 553

OPTASK COMM

Front 554

What is derived from the OPTASK COMM by the ship's Communications Officer and specifies where circuits are patched?

Back 554

Shipboard Comms Plan

Front 555

What is the condition imposed to reduce voice and record message traffic so that essential traffic may be handled efficiently?

Back 555

Minimize

Front 556

The Navy SATCOM program consists of which three types of satellites?

Back 556

Ultra High Frequency Follow-On (UHF), Fleet Satellite Communications (FLTSATCOM), and Milstar

Front 557

What satellite subsystems is a two-way, command and control communications system used primarily to exchange Over-the-Horizon (OTH) Targeting information?

Back 557

OTCIXS

Front 558

What satellite subsystems is a one-way, from shore to ship, command and control communications system that is the primary source for ships receiving Tomahawk mission plans?

Back 558

TADIXS

Front 559

What satellite subsystem was created to deliver each ship its daily messages and still ensure timely delivery of important message traffic?

Back 559

Fleet Broad Cast

Front 560

What process is used on the Fleet Broadcast that allows up to 15 independent channels of PC information to be received on a single frequency?

Back 560

Time Division Multi-plexing

Front 561

What satellite subsystem multiplexes several SATCOM circuits onto a single 25 kHz bandwidth channel?

Back 561

UHF Dama Subsystem

Front 562

What is a standard telephone that can be encrypted for use on security levels up to Secret?

Back 562

Secure Telephone Unit STU-III

Front 563

The most important factor in determining a JTIDS Network is establishing the _______.

Back 563

Net Time Reference

Front 564

A unit is usually selected to be the Gridlock Reference Unit because it is considered to have the _______.

Back 564

Best Navigational Data

Front 565

Cooperative Engagement Capability (CEC) is a system of hardware and software allowing the sharing of _______ radar data on among ships.

Back 565

AIR TARGET

Front 566

Select the aircraft that is equipped with Link-11 capability.

Back 566

P3-C

Front 567

In radio waves, what is wavelength?

Back 567

The distance in space occupied by one wave

Front 568

In radio waves, what is amplitude?

Back 568

Height of the wave crest above the reference line (middle of the wave: inbetween crest and trough)

Front 569

In radio waves, what is frequency?

Back 569

Number of cycles generated in one second

Front 570

What is the reduction in strength of a radio frequency wave caused by either scattering or absorption?

Back 570

Attenuation

Front 571

What is created when air temperature differences form a channel through which electromagnetic signals travel greater than expected distances?

Back 571

Duct

Front 572

What happens when a radio wave passes from a less dense to a denser medium?

Back 572

It is refracted toward the normal

Front 573

What frequency band does the Navy use primarily for tactical line of sight communications, satellite communications, and some surveillance radars?

Back 573

UHF

Front 574

What frequency band is used primarily for bridge-to-bridge communications and helicopter/amphibious operations?

Back 574

VHF

Front 575

What frequency band requires large shore-based antennas?

Back 575

SHF

Front 576

Which term is the rate at which pulses are transmitted, given in hertz or pulses per second and is the reciprocal of pulse repetition time?

Back 576

Pulse Repetition Frequency

Front 577

A radar system's bearing resolution is determined by _______.

Back 577

Horizontal Beam Width

Front 578

The ability for equipment to operate at different frequencies over a specific range is _______.

Back 578

Frequency Agility

Front 579

Snell's Law states that a sound ray, going from one region to a second region will change direction in proportion to its change in _______.

Back 579

Velocity

Front 580

Which path is formed as the result of a sound ray leaving the source in a positive gradient, bending upward to the surface, reflecting downward, and continuing refraction toward sea surface?

Back 580

Surface Duct

Front 581

What is the sonar operator's ability to detect a valid signal (reflected echo) as displayed by the system?

Back 581

Recognition Differential (RD)

Front 582

How many degrees of coverage can a towed sonar obtain?

Back 582

320

Front 583

Who leads the Shipboard Noise Control Team?

Back 583

ASWO

Front 584

Propulsion and auxiliary machinery within the ship generate structure-borne noise known as _______ noise.

Back 584

SELF

Front 585

The main source of propeller noise is _______ noise caused by collapsing water vapor made by the rotating propeller blades.

Back 585

CAVITATION

Front 586

What forces bleed air through holes in the propeller blade tips?

Back 586

Prairie System

Front 587

_______ guns use propellant energy to open the breech, eject empty cartridge cases, and load subsequent rounds.

Back 587

Automatic

Front 588

What is the maximum distance a projectile will travel when fired at the optimum elevation angle?

Back 588

Maximum gun range

Front 589

The _______ is the end through which a MK 45 5” gun is loaded.

Back 589

Breech

Front 590

The MK 86 gunfire control system is associated with what gun?

Back 590

5''/54 MK 45

Front 591

What deals with the factors that push a projectile off its flight path?

Back 591

EXTERIOR BALLISTIC

Front 592

What includes consideration of powder combustion and pressure within the gun?

Back 592

INTERIOR BALLISTICS

Front 593

Which layer of the atmosphere is responsible for reflecting and refracting frequencies below 30 MHZ and is the most important region for low frequency, long distance, and point-to-point communications?

Back 593

Ionosphere

Front 594

In discussing radio frequency propagation paths, what is not a component of the Ground Wave?

Back 594

"A ground wave is a radio wave that travels near the earth's surface. It is composed of the following component waves:

Front 595

KY 58 VINSON, KYV 5 ANDVT, KG 84, and KWR 46 are examples of which type of communication equipment?

Back 595

CRYPTO

Front 596

What describes the Single Audio System's two operation modes?

Back 596

Each SAS circuit operates in one of two modes, Cipher or Plain.

Front 597

What is an example of a directional antenna?

Front 598

Which factor impacts initial velocity most significantly?

Back 598

Bore Erosion

Front 599

What is the first step in solving the gunfire control problem?

Back 599

GATHER

Front 600

What type of sonar receives and displays noise being generated by a contact?

Back 600

PASSIVE

Front 601

Background noise in the ocean environment generated by weather, biologics, and shipping is known as _______ noise.

Back 601

AMBIENT

Front 602

Naval Weapons and Combat Systems

Front 603

The MK15 CIWS executes what autonomous engagement sequences?

Back 603

Search, Detect, Assign, Track, Kill

Front 604

Which Electronic Warfare area includes actions taken to ensure friendly effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum despite enemy use of EW?

Back 604

Electronic Counter-Countermeasures

Front 605

Which Electronic Countermeasure system provides early warning of threat weapon system and targeting platform emitters and targeting information to own ship hard-kill weapons?

Back 605

SLQ-32

Front 606

Which Electronic Countermeasure system is a deck-mounted, mortar-type countermeasure system used to launch chaff against a variety of threats?

Back 606

MK 36 SRBOC

Front 607

What system detects and automatically tracks air contacts squawking mode II and emergency responses?

Back 607

Beacon Video Processor (BVP)

Front 608

What system is a line-of-sight, beacon-type, air navigation aid that provides slant range, bearing, and identification information?

Back 608

URN-25 TACAN

Front 609

The _______ uses electronic or electromechanical means to produce torpedo decoy signals.

Back 609

SLQ-25 NIXIE

Front 610

Which of the below is an air dropped, self-contained sonar used to detect submarines?

Back 610

Sonobouy types: DICASS or DIFAR

Front 611

What weapon does LAMPS MK III SH-60B use against surface targets?

Back 611

Hellfire

Front 612

How does NTDS provide automatic exchange of air, surface, and subsurface track information?

Back 612

Digital Data Link

Front 613

In the Detect to Engage sequence, what is the process of accurately determining and predicting target position?

Back 613

Tracking

Front 614

In Navy Tactical Data System (NTDS) symbology, a square is the symbol for what?

Back 614

Unknown Surface

Front 615

What color represents the projectile that is used for dummy/drill/inert ammunition for handling and loading training?

Back 615

GOLD

Front 616

What system stores and pneumatically launches the MK 46 and MK 54 torpedo subsurface warfare weapons from a variety of surface combatants including FFG, DD, CG, and DDG class ships.

Back 616

MK32 SVTT

Front 617

What type of missile was the Submarine Vertical Launch System (VLS) developed to fire?

Back 617

Tomahawk

Front 618

What best describes active homing?

Back 618

It relies on a transmitter within the weapon to provide the source of energy on which the weapon will home

Front 619

What best describes semi-active homing?

Back 619

It relies on the launch platform to provide the source of energy on which the weapon will home

Front 620

Which missile is the land attack weapon of choice for the U.S Department of Defense because of its long range, lethality, and extreme accuracy?

Back 620

Tomahawk

Front 621

What are the three main components of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile (TLAM)?

Back 621

Guidance Section, Warhead, Sustainer Section

Front 622

What is a lightweight torpedo capable of performing Direct Search and Non-Direct Search?

Back 622

MK 50

Front 623

What is a lightweight torpedo that can be launched from torpedo tubes, fixed and rotary wing aircraft, and ASROC missiles?

Back 623

MK46

Front 624

What is the Navy's only torpedo used to combat nuclear submarines and high performance surface ships?

Back 624

MK48 ADCAP

Front 625

What provides the fleet with all weather, rapid response MK 46 Mod 5 torpedo delivery against intermediate range threat submarines?

Back 625

Vertically Launched ASROC (VLA)

Front 626

What ammunition does not require a Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance condition set when loading or transporting?

Back 626

HERO SAFE

Front 627

What feature of the AEGIS weapon system allows a particular system to function when all or part of its components have been damaged?

Back 627

Graceful Degradation

Front 628

What is the purpose of the MK 36 SRBOC system?

Back 628

Launch Chaff

Front 629

A Hostile Air contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 629

Triangle Upper Half

Front 630

An Unknown Surface contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 630

Square

Front 631

A Friendly Air contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 631

Upper half of a circle

Front 632

A Man Overboard would be displayed by the following NTDS symbology:

Back 632

Concentric Circles

Front 633

A Friendly Surface contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 633

Complete Circle

Front 634

What is the term given to the assignment of the optimum weapon for a given threat?

Back 634

Weapons Pairing

Front 635

What is the primary use of a clearing charge?

Back 635

It is used during a misfire to clear a fouled bore

Front 636

What projectile is used primarily for Anti-Air Warfare?

Back 636

HE-VT

Front 637

In semi-active homing, the _______ provides the energy on which the weapon homes.

Back 637

Launch Platform

Front 638

In active homing, the _______ provides the energy on which the weapon homes.

Back 638

Weapon

Front 639

What is used for torpedo training and has all the characteristics of a live MK 46 torpedo except a warhead?

Back 639

EXTORP

Front 640

Naval Platforms

Front 641

Which class of aircraft carrier has nuclear propulsion?

Back 641

Nimitz

Front 642

Which aircraft is used as a fighter/interceptor?

Back 642

F 18

Front 643

Which aircraft is used in Airborne Early Warning (AEW)?

Back 643

E2C Hawkeye

Front 644

Which aircraft is called the Osprey?

Back 644

V-22

Front 645

Which aircraft is called the Super Cobra?

Back 645

AH-1

Front 646

Which aircraft is called the Fighting Falcon?

Back 646

F-16

Front 647

Which aircraft is called the Sentry?

Back 647

E-3

Front 648

Which aircraft is called the Stratofortress?

Back 648

B-52

Front 649

Which weapon is used for air-to-air delivery?

Back 649

sidewinder

Front 650

Which weapon is used for air-to-surface delivery?

Back 650

maverick

Front 651

What weapon systems are common to ARLEIGH BURKE class Flight I destroyers but not Flight IIA?

Back 651

2 Harpoon quad-canister missile launchers

Front 652

What is the primary mission of Command Ships?

Back 652

Provide command and control for Fleet Commanders

Front 653

What is the general purpose of amphibious assault ships (LHA or LHD)?

Back 653

Embark, deploy, and land elements of a Marine landing force

Front 654

What is NOT true for both LSD and LPD type ships?

Back 654

Capable of carrying 4 LCACs, as well as providing dock and repair services for LCACs and other classes of vehicles

Front 655

What types of radar can be found on the LPD 17?

Back 655

SPQ-9B (fire control)

Front 656

What will not be carried by the LPD 17?

Back 656

10 LCUS

Front 657

Which craft are used as long-range insertion/extraction platforms for SEAL/marine operations?

Back 657

PC-1 CYCLONE

Front 658

Which craft is designed to ride on a cushion of air and achieve speeds of over 40 kts on open water and over 20 mph on land?

Back 658

LCAC

Front 659

What is the primary mission of the AO class ships?

Back 659

Deliver fuel to underway units

Front 660

What is the primary mission of the AS-39 class ships?

Back 660

To service Los Angeles class SSN’s

Front 661

Which weapons are found aboard the Emory S. Land class ships?

Back 661

20 MM machine guns

Front 662

What is the primary mission of the ARS-50 class ships?

Back 662

Salvage and ocean towing.

Front 663

What designates vessels as part of the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force (NFAF), also called United States Naval Ship (USNS)

Back 663

distinguished by blue and gold bands painted on their funnels. The prefix ''T'' at the front of their ship class designates an MSC asset.

Front 664

What is the primary mission of the LOS ANGELES and SEAWOLF class submarines?

Back 664

USW

Front 665

What weapon systems are used by the nuclear attack submarines?

Back 665

Tomahawks, MK-48 Torpedoes, and Mines

Front 666

What is the primary mission of Nuclear Strategic Missile Submarines (SSBNs)?

Back 666

Strategic deterrence

Front 667

Maritime Warfare

Front 668

Doctrine is most prominent at the _______ level.

Back 668

Operational

Front 669

What is the timely concentration, employment, and sustainment of military power at a speed and tempo our adversaries cannot match?

Back 669

Strategic agility

Front 670

_______ promotes national influence and access to critical global areas.

Back 670

Forward presence

Front 671

What provides organic Naval logistics for sustained Naval combat?

Back 671

Sealift

Front 672

Naval forces enjoy nearly unrestricted global _______ due to the high seas international status, and the right of innocent passage through territorial waters of countries we are at peace with.

Back 672

Mobility

Front 673

_______ operations defeat theater ballistic missiles, neutralize tactical cruise missiles, and provide for a joint air defense.

Back 673

Theater air dominance

Front 674

What is a Law of Armed Conflict general principle?

Back 674

Only that degree and kind of force required to activate partial or comlete enemy submission is allowed.

Front 675

One of the Law of Armed Conflict principles is _______.

Back 675

Guarantees that violence is directed toward enemy forces.

Front 676

Which of these are acts of perfidy?

Back 676

White flag used to gain military advantage.

Front 677

Who determines the response made to hostile acts and demonstrations of hostile intent?

Back 677

The National Command Authority (NCA)

Front 678

What area of the OODA Loop is the process of the commander's staff receiving raw intelligence?

Back 678

Observation

Front 679

What area of the OODA Loop is the analysis of past observations and actions coupled with an understanding of the adversary's intentions?

Back 679

Orientation

Front 680

What is the goal of offensive C2W?

Back 680

To slow the adversary’s tempo by spreading out their decision cycle

Front 681

Which level of destruction is when approximately 10-30 percent of personnel, equipment, and/or their functionality are casualties?

Back 681

Neutralized

Front 682

What is the process of denying information to adversaries regarding friendly capabilities or intentions by identifying indicators associated with planning and conducting military operations?

Back 682

Operational Security (OPSEC)

Front 683

What lists areas searched and is filed by Maritime Patrol aircraft after completed patrols?

Back 683

Maritime Mission Analysis Summary Messages (PURPLE)

Front 684

What type Intelligence is derived from foreign material exploitation and results from captured (or otherwise obtained) foreign equipment analysis?

Back 684

Technical Intelligence (TECHINT)

Front 685

What retains effective electromagnetic spectrum use by friendly forces?

Back 685

Electronic Protection

Front 686

Which ES Receiver provides selectivity, increased sensitivity, and an excellent capability for discrete signal analysis?

Back 686

Narrowband

Front 687

What is an umbrella term covering technologies that relate to production of a concentrated beam of electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?

Back 687

Directed Energy (DE)

Front 688

What is the deliberate radiation, re-radiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, or denial of electromagnetic energy in a manner intended to convey misleading information?

Back 688

Electromagnetic deception

Front 689

What Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) sources originate from interaction of own ships signals with elements of the ship's hull?

Back 689

Structural

Front 690

What Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) sources are limited by proper equipment design and maintenance?

Back 690

Incidental

Front 691

What produce Tactical Atmospheric Summaries (TAS) on electromagnetic conditions and range predictions for all radars an EW sensors?

Back 691

Oceanography Division (OD)

Front 692

What best describes CWC?

Back 692

Acts as the central command authority for the entire battlegroup.

Front 693

What is an organization of combatant ships tailored for a specific tactical mission?

Back 693

Surface Action Group (SAG)

Front 694

What best describes SUWC?

Back 694

Responsible for planning and executing both offensive and defensive war-at-sea strikes as well as for SSC.

Front 695

Who is responsible for the validity of information that flows over the Officer-in Tactical-Command Information Exchange System net to units in a particular geographic area?

Back 695

FOTC

Front 696

A means of expressing the inaccuracies inherent in detecting, locating, tracking, and reporting the position of a target is known as the _______.

Back 696

AOU

Front 697

A small, un-piloted aircraft able to help classify, localize and detect surface tracks is known as a _______.

Back 697

UAV

Front 698

Which weapon is the Navy’s primary Naval Gun Fire Support (NGFS) weapon?

Back 698

5” Gun

Front 699

What is a passive homing missile?

Front 700

In a Hard Kill Requirement, what is the objective of the attack?

Back 700

Sink the opposing force

Front 701

Who makes the final determination of a suspect vessels disposition?

Back 701

MIF Commander

Front 702

What is the application of information, initiative, and decision force to attain maritime environment superiority or supremacy?

Back 702

Battlespace dominance

Front 703

What provide a mobile base for AW aircraft and have advanced facilities for command, control, and communications?

Back 703

Carriers

Front 704

What Electronic Warfare Aircraft (EW) has electronic attack (EA) capabilities?

Back 704

BEA-6B Prowler

Front 705

What is an Army AW system that provides air defense of ground forces and crucial assets against air-breathing threats and Theater Ballistic Missiles (TBM)?

Back 705

Patriot Air Defense System

Front 706

What is a mobile, helicopter transportable air defense system designed for combat conditions?

Back 706

HAWK Defense System

Front 707

What is the purpose of the Theater Ballistic Missile Defense (TBMD) system?

Back 707

The TBMD system is intended to minimize vulnerability of U.S. forces and protect population areas against ballistic missile threats.

Front 708

What officer controls the USW watch team during USW operations?

Back 708

Undersea Warfare Evaluator

Front 709

The commander at the scene of a contact in a USW situation is the ________.

Back 709

SAC

Front 710

The following is comprised of fixed, mobile, and deployable acoustic arrays providing vital tactical data to USW forces.

Back 710

Integrated Undersea Surveillance System (IUSS)

Front 711

What is the last known position of a submarine called?

Back 711

DATUM

Front 712

What organization develops and directs all plans involving submarine operations?

Back 712

SUBOPAUTH

Front 713

What refers to all methods that may be used to counter an enemy mining effort?

Back 713

Mine Countermeasures

Front 714

Mine fields that are laid in harbors, approaches, and straits under enemy control is known as ________.

Back 714

Offensive

Front 715

Mines that are usually anti-invasion in 10' to 40' water are classified as ________.

Back 715

Very shallow water mines

Front 716

A non-acoustic, laser based mine countermeasure system that detects and localizes floating and shallow water mines is called the _______.

Back 716

ALMDS

Front 717

What type of amphibious operation may be used to cause an enemy to misemploy forces?

Back 717

Demonstration

Front 718

Which phase of amphibious operations begins with issuance of the Initiating Directive?

Back 718

Planning

Front 719

Which of the below furnishes protection from air, surface, and subsurface threats?

Back 719

Screening Group

Front 720

In Amphibious Operations, the CATF is usually a _______ Officer.

Back 720

Navy

Front 721

What is defined as the time the first helicopter touches down in a landing zone?

Back 721

L-Hour

Front 722

Which type of breaker is the preferred for an amphibious operation?

Back 722

Spilling

Front 723

The following are the five phases of an Amphibious Operation - in order.

Back 723

Planning, Embarkation, Rehearsal, Movement, Assault (PERMA)

Front 724

The Combat Cargo Officer (CCO) is normally a _______.

Front 725

What type amphibious operation loading achieves maximum utilization of troop and cargo space and is appropriate if an unopposed landing is anticipated?

Back 725

Administrative

Front 726

What type of amphibious operation loading utilizes space in a tactical manor so that equipment can be unloaded selectively?

Back 726

Combat Loading

Front 727

What are the two different methods of cargo stowage during an amphibious operation?

Back 727

Horizontal stowage and vertical stowage

Front 728

Which type of rehearsal is conducted by elements of an amphibious task force whose tasks are not intimately associated with those of the amphibious task force main body?

Back 728

Separate Force Rehearsal

Front 729

What is a characteristic of Rehearsal Plans?

Back 729

Issued separately from the operation plan

Front 730

During an Amphibious Operation, what groups include units required for mine clearance?

Back 730

Advance Force Group

Front 731

What prepares a general movement plan for the Amphibious Task Force (ATF)?

Back 731

CATF

Front 732

What organization is established on a command ship to control airspace within the Amphibious Objective Area (AOA) during the initial phase of an assault?

Back 732

TACC

Front 733

What is the largest of the Marine air-ground groups?

Front 734

_______ is a geographical area designated for command and control purposes that encompasses the objective(s) to be secured by an amphibious task force

Back 734

Amphibious Objective Area

Front 735

What officer is designated by the amphibious task force commander to coordinate all the surface operations during multiple landings?

Back 735

Central Control Officer

Front 736

In Amphibious Operations, what staff organization coordinates all aircraft-to-shore movements for a colored beach?

Back 736

Helicopter Direction Center

Front 737

In Amphibious Operations, what type wave has an assigned time to cross the beach?

Back 737

Scheduled

Front 738

During an Amphibious Landing, how would Tactical Logistics Group (TACLOG) locate a specific piece of equipment requested by a unit ashore?

Back 738

Using a serial number

Front 739

During an Amphibious Landing, what unit is responsible for operations from the surf zone to high water mark?

Back 739

Beach Party Team

Front 740

A Sea Echelon assault allows an Amphibious Task Force (ATF) to operate from _______.

Back 740

Over-The-Horizon (OTH

Front 741

What report is provided to assault commanders giving them an indication of surf conditions at an amphibious landing site?

Back 741

SUROB

Front 742

What unit provides hydrographic survey data for a proposed landing beach?

Back 742

SEAL Teams

Front 743

The mission of Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) is to assist assault forces in seizing of an objective by destroying or neutralizing what:

Back 743

"Shore installations opposing the approach of the ATF (missile sites, airfields, early warning radar)

Front 744

How many versions of the MV-22 Osprey are being designed?

Back 744

3

Front 745

Marine Corps operating forces are drawn from what?

Back 745

Fleet Marine Forces (FMF)

Front 746

What is one of the missions of the Fleet Marine Force?

Back 746

Seize or defend Advanced Naval Bases

Front 747

Marine Corps operational control is vested in which two forces?

Back 747

Fleet Marine Force Atlantic and Fleet Marine Force Pacific

Front 748

What is a Marine organization drawn from the FMF to perform a specific mission?

Back 748

Marine Air Ground Task Force

Front 749

What is a task-organized, rapidly deployable, sea-based force optimized for forward presence and crisis response missions?

Back 749

Maine Expeditionary Unit (MEU)

Front 750

What is included in a Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF)?

Back 750

Command element, ground combat element, aviation combat element, combat service support.

Front 751

What is a vital part of the Marine Corps flexibility doctrine, can be rapidly forward deployed with significant combat power, and is sustainable for 30 days?

Back 751

Maritime Propositioning Force (MPF)

Front 752

What is the Marine Corps' only land prepositioning project?

Back 752

Norway Prepositioning Program/Norway Air-Land MAGTF (NALM)

Front 753

What consists of these subordinate Battalions: Headquarters and Service, Engineer Support, Landing Support, Maintenance, Medical, Dental, Motor Transport, and Supply?

Back 753

Force Service Support Group (FSSG)

Front 754

What is responsible for centralized management of intelligence collection tasks?

Front 755

What is the Naval Surface Fire Support mission?

Front 756

CIWS BLK-1B enables what additional capability?

Back 756

Surface engagement capabilities

Front 757

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), what type fire is delivered against targets masked by hills?

Back 757

Defilade (reverse Slope)

Front 758

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), which spotting method is characterized by the word ''Directions'' in the call for fire?

Back 758

Aimpoint commands

Front 759

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), gun spot elements, given in the following order, are deflection, range, and _______.

Back 759

altitude

Front 760

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) phrase indicates friendly forces are within 750 meters of the gun target?

Back 760

Danger close

Front 761

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) phrase indicates the impact of the last round was not observed by the spotter?

Back 761

lost

Front 762

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) phrase requests ship deliver high volume fire without further adjustment?

Back 762

Fire for effect

Front 763

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) command indicates the last salvo was fired with incorrect settings?

Back 763

Neglect

Front 764

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), what ship report indicates the moment of firing?

Back 764

First Salvo or Shot

Front 765

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), which area has the responsibility to maintain the plot of all known enemy forces and installations?

Back 765

CIC

Front 766

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), who directs communications with the spotter?

Back 766

Gunnery Liaison Officer

Front 767

Engineering

Front 768

Damage Control

Front 769

Who is the Damage Control Officer?

Back 769

The Chief Engineer

Front 770

Who is directly responsible for all DC efforts and serves as the Ship's Gas Free Engineer?

Back 770

The Damage Control Assistant (DCA)

Front 771

The _______ supervises the training of all DCPOs.

Back 771

DCA

Front 772

Who acts as liaison with the base fire department during an inport casualty?

Back 772

The Command Duty Officer

Front 773

Which team renders emergency assistance to persons or activities outside the unit?

Back 773

Rescue and assistance detail

Front 774

Which team proceeds directly to the scene to assess and extinguish small fires?

Back 774

The Rapid response team, Flying Squad

Front 775

There are Crash and Salvage Teams on all _____.

Back 775

Air Capable ships

Front 776

Which is the correct statement in the treatment of a head wound?

Back 776

Give no medications or fluid

Front 777

Which is the correct statement in the treatment of an abdominal wound with an exposed organ?

Back 777

Do not replace protruding abdominal organs.

Front 778

Which is the correct statement in applying an indirect pressure point?

Back 778

Do not use an indirect pressure point any longer then necessary.

Front 779

Once a tourniquet is applied, it can be removed by medical ________________

Back 779

when it is no longer required.

Front 780

Compound fractures are described as how?

Back 780

A fracture that the bone protrudes through the skin

Front 781

When performing mouth-to-mouth artificial respiration, you give:

Back 781

two slow ventilation 1 ½ seconds per breath.

Front 782

The oropharyngeal airway is used only on unconscious victims to keep the airway open by:

Back 782

keeping the tongue from closing (occluding) the air way

Front 783

A symptom of shock is?

Back 783

Breathing is shallow, rapid and irregular.

Front 784

Excessive sweating may lead to dehydration causing ___________

Back 784

heat cramps

Front 785

The severity of a burn can be identified by the damage to the skin. What is the most severe level of burn?

Back 785

3rd degree

Front 786

A first-degree burn results in ______________

Back 786

pidermal layer is irritated, reddened and tingling Skin is sensitive to touch and blanches with pressure pain is mild to severe

Front 787

The proper way to remove a person from an electrical wire that cannot be de-energized immediately is to:

Back 787

use a non conducting rope or stick to move the victim.

Front 788

Morphine may be given to a person with a/any_____________

Front 789

Which stretcher is best suited for vertical trunk extraction of the victim?

Back 789

Neil Robertson

Front 790

Which stretcher is used to transfer injured persons to and from boats? .

Back 790

Stokes

Front 791

During General Quarters (GQ), eating, drinking, and smoking are not allowed without the permission of the _______.

Back 791

commanding officer

Front 792

What protective clothing should be worn if combating a mainspace fire?

Back 792

Fire fighting ensemble (FFE)

Front 793

To don the SCBA, using the coat style method, start with the unit_________

Back 793

valve downward

Front 794

When using the coat style donning method, the belt and shoulder straps should be adjusted to carry the weight of the SCBA on your ______.

Back 794

hips

Front 795

You can access the 1MC from the following spaces.

Back 795

Pilot house, CCS, and import OOD Stations

Front 796

What is the Captain's battle circuit commonly called?

Back 796

XJA

Front 797

CO2 extinguishes fire by _______.

Back 797

reducing oxygen to the point combustion stops

Front 798

The component that activates the CO2 system is the _______.

Back 798

pull cable/pull box

Front 799

Halon is pressurized to 600-675 psig at 70°F with _______ gas.

Back 799

nitrogen

Front 800

Which pressurized gas provides the initiating force for opening the discharge control valve on Halon 1301 cylinders?

Back 800

Carbon dioxide

Front 801

From what piping system does the dry type magazine sprinkler system receive water for actuation?

Back 801

Fire Main

Front 802

The fire protection system used on the ship to protect the VLS modules is the ______?

Back 802

deluge system

Front 803

What percentage of grease, dust, and lint particles are removed from the air stream passing through the Gaylord Hood?

Back 803

0.95

Front 804

When the fusible links in the APC Fire Extinguishing System melt what happens?

Back 804

Actuates discharge of APC

Front 805

What is maximum effective range of a CO2 extinguisher?

Back 805

4-6 feet

Front 806

The AFFF cylinder is charged to _______.

Back 806

100

Front 807

Where does Casualty Power originate from?

Back 807

Terminals located on each side of the ships swichboards

Front 808

Casualty power is rigged and connected IAW casualty power doctrine, under the supervision of the _______.

Back 808

Ships electricians

Front 809

Which portable blower is powered by ship's AC power?

Back 809

Box fan

Front 810

The Box Fan can be used to expel all but _______ from spaces.

Back 810

explosive gases

Front 811

What is a DZUS key used for?

Back 811

Opening aircraft panels

Front 812

What tool is used to pry, pound, pull and puncture?

Back 812

Halligan tool

Front 813

The interior of a ship is divided into compartments by vertical walls, called _______.

Back 813

Bulkheads

Front 814

The fourth part of the compartment numbering system uses letter(s) to designate _______.

Back 814

compartment usage

Front 815

What material condition is set during darken ship to prevent light from showing outside the ship?

Back 815

Dog zebra

Front 816

Every time a Material Condition of Readiness is set, it is recorded in the _______.

Back 816

Damage control closure log

Front 817

Modified condition _____ is when a hatch is closed, but the access scuttle left open to allow for rapid access by personnel.

Back 817

Zebra

Front 818

The Damage Control Closure Log is normally maintained at _______.

Back 818

DC Central

Front 819

Compartment Check Off Lists contains the all of the following information EXCEPT?

Back 819

Preventative maintenance for the fittings

Front 820

A _______ test may be used for testing doorframes for signs of twisting or warpage.

Back 820

string

Front 821

The DDG 51 class has a _______ type firemain supplied by six fire pumps to supply seawater to the firemain at a rate of 1000 gpm.

Back 821

vertical offset loop with horizontal separation

Front 822

Space isolation and the ability to allow alignment to other spaces for dewatering are provided by _______.

Back 822

Bulkhead isolation valves

Front 823

The _____ system normally provides emergency dewatering of main engine rooms, auxiliary machinery rooms, and possibly other engineering spaces.

Back 823

Main drainage

Front 824

When an eductor has finished removing water from the space, it will begin removing _______.

Back 824

air

Front 825

_______ is used mainly to combat class "C" fires.

Back 825

CO2

Front 826

The type III AFFF balanced pressure proportioner is designed to pump how many gallons per minute (GPM) of AFFF concentrate?

Back 826

65 gallons

Front 827

Combustible materials that leave an ash are class _______ fires?

Back 827

Alpha

Front 828

________ is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture.

Back 828

Flashpoint

Front 829

A portable AFFF extinguisher lasts about 60 seconds and will vapor seal an area of about _______ square feet.

Back 829

20

Front 830

A class Bravo fire would normally be extinguished by _______.

Back 830

Halon, AFFF, PKP

Front 831

After completion of hot work, fire watches must remain on station for _______, or until the work area is cool to the touch, whichever is longer.

Back 831

30 minutes

Front 832

What equipment should a fire watch need?

Back 832

Protective goggles or glasses, gloves, welding leathers (if needed), and appropriate firefighting equipment

Front 833

What type of nuclear burst causes the most widespread destructive effects?

Back 833

Airburst

Front 834

What are the characteristics of a high altitude nuclear burst?

Back 834

This burst produces an air blast, thermal radiation, an electromagnetic pulse, initial radiation, and atmospheric ionization.

Front 835

What is the life expectancy of a C-2 canister in a chemical environment?

Back 835

30 days

Front 836

Living microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi) that cause disease in man, animals, and plant life are?

Back 836

Pathogens

Front 837

What high intensity radiac is used to conduct a Gross External Survey?

Back 837

AN/PDR 43

Front 838

In addition to G (nerve) and XV agents, _______ detects vesicant/blister agent vapors.

Back 838

IPDS

Front 839

What is the last space personnel pass through before entering the Total Protection Zone (TPZ) on a ship with CPS?

Back 839

CPL Contaminated purge locker

Front 840

What type of pipe patch is primarily used on low pressure (up to 150 psig) piping systems?

Back 840

Soft Patch

Front 841

Which is the most common prefabricated patch for holes with jagged edges protruding inboard used?

Back 841

Box patch

Front 842

The type of shoring that is the strongest and is normally used in vertical shoring of decks, bulkheads, and hatches is the direct compression, or _______ shore.

Back 842

I type

Front 843

What is considered the weakest and most inefficient type shoring?

Back 843

H type

Front 844

When using eductors to dewater a compartment, the actuating pressure should be at least _______ times the static head pressure on the discharge side of the eductor.

Back 844

3

Front 845

What is the maximum operating time of the P-100 portable pump before running out of fuel?

Back 845

2.75 hours

Front 846

The Electric Submersible Pump is designed to deliver 180 GPM of water at a static head of _______ feet.

Back 846

50

Front 847

When an object is immersed in water, it displaces a mass of water _______ the mass of the object.

Back 847

equal

Front 848

When a ship is floating in water what two sets of forces act on it?

Back 848

Bouyancy and gravity

Front 849

Weight added causes the center of buoyancy to ______.

Back 849

Move up

Front 850

What fire-extinguishing system provides protection for galley deep fat and doughnut fryers and their exhaust systems?

Back 850

APC

Front 851

What is the proper Gas Free testing sequence?

Back 851

Fire Out, Compartment Ventilated, test for Oxygen, Flammable and Toxic gases.

Front 852

What precautions must be followed prior to entering a space in which CO2 has been discharged?

Back 852

Space must be ventilated and gas free testing complete

Front 853

Which method is the last resort for treating serious bleeding?

Back 853

Tourniquets

Front 854

What are the procedures to treat an eye wound?

Back 854

Cover eye with a paper cup, build up the dressing, cover both eyes.

Front 855

What is the definition of infection?

Back 855

Contamination with a disease producing organism or matter

Front 856

Which stretcher is used to transfer injured persons to and from boats?

Back 856

Stokes

Front 857

What are symptoms of a second-degree burn?

Back 857

Blisters mottled appearance severe pain

Front 858

What are the fundamentals of First Aid?

Back 858

Save a life, prevent further injury and preserve resistance to infection

Front 859

Firemain supplies seawater for general firefighting and _______.

Back 859

magazine sprinklers; cooling; ballasting

Front 860

What is the final step for aligning the eductor?

Back 860

Open suction valve

Front 861

The automatic control system is designed to actuate the magazine sprinkler in response to _______.

Back 861

a slow rise to a fixed temperature; a rapid rise in temperature

Front 862

How is displacement calculated?

Back 862

Using calculative draft marks and draft diagram

Front 863

The inclination of a ship to one side, normally due to weight distribution, is called _______.

Back 863

List

Front 864

What is the volume of the watertight portion of the ship above the waterline?

Back 864

Reserve buoyancy

Front 865

Exposure to which chemical agent would show symptoms of drooling and convulsing?

Back 865

Nerve agent

Front 866

What actions should you take to help someone who is drooling and convulsing and has possibly been exposed to nerve agents?

Back 866

"Check his/her mask

Front 867

Which is true concerning the Counter Measure Washdown system?

Back 867

"Supplied from the firemain

Front 868

At what MOPP level will an inventory of CBR-D equipment be done?

Back 868

MOPP level 1

Front 869

At what MOPP level will you be required to don CPO suits and boots?

Back 869

MOPP level 3

Front 870

What is/are the preferred method(s) of dissemination and delivery of biological agents?

Front 871

What is the lowest temperature at which sustained combustion will occur without the application of a spark or flame?

Back 871

Ignition temperature

Front 872

What are the three ways heat is transferred?

Back 872

Conduction Convection and Radiation

Front 873

What are the characteristics of class Alpha fire?

Back 873

Organic, solids, leaves an ash.

Front 874

What type of transfer occurs when heat is transferred across an intervening space and no material substance is involved?

Back 874

Radiation

Front 875

What is/are the methods for attacking a fire? Check all that apply.

Back 875

Direct and Indirect

Front 876

When attacking a fire, who directs the nozzleman in employment of the hose?

Back 876

Attack team leader

Front 877

When fighting fires, who determines the method of attack?

Back 877

Scene Leader and Attack team leader

Front 878

What best describes positive ventilation?

Back 878

Suply on high, exhaust on low/off.

Front 879

Which principle does the investigator follow?

Back 879

Thoroughly Cautiously and quickly

Front 880

What list contains the four primary safety procedures that should be observed when accessing a space?

Back 880

Non-hinged, cracked door, crouched down narrow

Front 881

What team uses the proximity suit?

Back 881

Crash and Salvage

Front 882

What Repair Locker area of responsibility includes the aft part of the ship?

Back 882

Repair 3

Front 883

Despite all your efforts, the installed AFFF system fails to operate. How can you provide foam to fight the fire without using the installed AFFF system?

Back 883

In-line eductor with AFFF bucket.

Front 884

Which portable fan produces static electricity and must be grounded prior to operation?

Back 884

Ram Fan 2000

Front 885

In Compartment 3-120-0-E what does the second zero refer to?

Back 885

Relationship of space to center line

Front 886

What is the minimum material condition of readiness required in peacetime, when open-ocean steaming in fair weather?

Back 886

Yoke

Front 887

Where are CCOLs located?

Back 887

Inside main access to space with copies at each exit.

Front 888

What is a benefit in material condition ZEBRA?

Back 888

Facilitates rapid transit from one space to another = This is wrong but this is right according to CBT.

Front 889

The sum of two angles cut for the shoal at the strongback connection points or the shore connections points should not exceed _______.

Front 890

What is the rule of thumb for the length of shore and wedge?

Front 891

What is a primary flooding boundary?

Front 892

What are shoals used for in K-type shoring?

Front 893

What source of energy normally supplies the S-type and Peri-Jet eductors?

Back 893

Fire Main

Front 894

Engineering Fundamentals

Front 895

Which device is used to move any substance which flows or which can be made to flow?

Back 895

Pump

Front 896

Which tanks permit oil to stand while water and other impurities are separating?

Back 896

Settling

Front 897

What is a valve in a tank or compartment called that is primarily used to permit air to escape?

Back 897

vent

Front 898

Which type of pump is widely used for pumping non-viscous liquids?

Back 898

Centrifugal…

Front 899

Which small relief valve is primarily used as a warning device?

Back 899

Sentinel valve

Front 900

What is the appropriate color piping for the firemain system?

Back 900

Red

Front 901

Which governor is somewhat similar to the constant-speed governor?

Back 901

Mechanical governor

Front 902

What type of a governor limits the maximum speed at which an engine will operate?

Back 902

Speed-limiting

Front 903

Removing water and/or sediment from an oil tank is referred to as _______.

Back 903

Stripping

Front 904

The main relief valve relieves back to the _______.

Back 904

Sump

Front 905

What fluid property in the purification process is affected by decreased temperature and higher pressure?

Back 905

Viscosity

Front 906

The fuel oil transfer pump supplies unpurified fuel from the storage tank to the fuel oil _______?

Back 906

Purifier

Front 907

Where would you be able to locate the specific NSTM chapter that covers important safety precautions for handling fuel?

Back 907

NSTM 541/542

Front 908

An air bank is made of one or more _______.

Back 908

Flasks

Front 909

What is an engineering science that pertains to liquid pressure and flow?

Back 909

Hydraulics

Front 910

Which device converts fluid power to linear, or straight line, force and motion?

Back 910

Cylinder actuator

Front 911

The most common liquid contaminant in hydraulic systems is _______.

Front 912

To which tank is oil transferred in the batch purification method using the purifier pump or transfer pump?

Back 912

Settling

Front 913

Which class ships have a coast down pump installed to provide oil to the reduction gear if a loss of system pressure occurs?

Back 913

FFG

Front 914

The function of the lube oil pump is to maintain most remote bearing lube oil pressure at _______ psi.

Back 914

15-25

Front 915

Which component is a form of coupling that connects or disconnects the engine to the Main Reduction Gear?

Back 915

Clutch

Front 916

What is the purpose of the propulsion drive system?

Back 916

Propel the ship through the water

Front 917

The Hydraulic Oil Power Module (HOPM) provides power to the _______.

Back 917

Controllable Pitch Propeller

Front 918

Manual controls and indications for the CPP are provided on the _______.

Back 918

OD Box

Front 919

Strut bearings are lubricated with _______.

Back 919

Seawater

Front 920

One of the advantages of the steam propulsion plant is _______.

Back 920

Usefulness of auxiliary functions

Front 921

What is one of the advantages of the Gas Turbine propulsion plant?

Back 921

Quietness

Front 922

One of the advantages of the diesel propulsion plant is the _______.

Front 923

Which terms define energy in motion producing work?

Front 924

What type of orders should be used whenever the plant is placed in operation for a scheduled underway, significant equipment testing, or for prolonged periods of auxiliary steaming?

Back 924

Light off orders

Front 925

Who must approve the final qualifications of all EOOW/ Oil King watch standers?

Back 925

CO

Front 926

What is the purpose of the MSFD?

Back 926

Combating main space fires

Front 927

In which spaces does the MSFD provide immediate actions in case of a major flammable liquid leak and Class Bravo fires?

Back 927

Engine spaces

Front 928

What type of orders does the Engineering Officer use to issue instructions to conduct routine and special evolutions that are planned for the evening and night watches, and to provide guidance on plant operations?

Back 928

Engineering orders

Front 929

Who supervises placing the ship in the material readiness condition of closure ordered by the Commanding Officer?

Back 929

DCA

Front 930

Which label is used if the instrument error is large or inconsistent on a pressure gage?

Back 930

Out of commission label

Front 931

What is the responsibility of the Division Officer with respect to the heat stress program?

Back 931

Limit personnel’s heat exposure per established stay-times, except as approved by CO

Front 932

With respect to the personal protective equipment program what is the responsibility of the Division Officer.

Back 932

Ensure that assigned personnel are adequately trained on the type and proper use of PPE required for their work stations and enforce the proper use and wear of protective equipment within the spaces under his/her responsibility.

Front 933

According to the OPNAVINST 5100.19d what two things must be done before conducting maintenance on installed electrical equipment?

Back 933

De-energize and tag out

Front 934

After the completion of hot work, what is required of the posted fire watch?

Back 934

Ensure that the area where the work was performed is cool to the touch and then return every 3 minutes for a total of 30 minutes to verify the absence of a fire.

Front 935

What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

Back 935

Technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling, use, and disposal.

Front 936

How many gallons of flammable liquid per space may be stored in the "In-use flammable liquid cabinets"?

Back 936

30

Front 937

If not an emergency, where is it allowed to discharge oily waste with oil content higher than 15 ppm?

Back 937

Nowhere

Front 938

Where is the ship allowed to discharge plastics?

Back 938

nowhere

Front 939

Bagged shredded glass and metal waste may be discharged past _______ NM.

Back 939

12nm

Front 940

What is the definition of Hazardous Materials (HM)?

Back 940

Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment.

Front 941

Which document provides Navy wide guidance for Oil/Hazardous Substance (OHS) spill response?

Back 941

OPNAVINST 5090.1B

Front 942

Which valve, similar in construction to a relief valve, is primarily used as a warning device?

Back 942

Sentinel valve

Front 943

Removing water and/or sediment from an oil tank is referred to as _______?

Back 943

Stripping

Front 944

Which term describes the heat transfer between a solid surface and a moving liquid or gas?

Back 944

Convection

Front 945

Which type of pump is used to pump liquids over a wide range of viscosity?

Back 945

Rotary

Front 946

A rhythmic variation of speed that can be eliminated by blocking the fuel supply manually or with load limit is called _______.

Back 946

Hunting

Front 947

Which term defines a progressive drop in speed as load is picked up by the prime mover from no load to full load without manually changing the speed setting?

Back 947

Speed droop

Front 948

What color are handwheels of valves painted in the fuel oil system?

Front 949

_______ is used to transfer liquid fluids only.

Back 949

Piping – True or false question improperly copied…

Front 950

An electrical signal generated by the _______ shifts the electro-hydraulic servo valve.

Back 950

Control system

Front 951

As the main servo moves, _______ is ported to one side or the other of the blade positioning pistons internal to the hub.

Back 951

High pressure oil

Front 952

The fuel transfer heater raises the _______ of the fuel prior to entering the fuel purifier.

Back 952

temperature

Front 953

The fuel overflow/expansion tanks are designed to be used as additional fuel _______.

Back 953

Storage – Another true or false…

Front 954

In which test is a sample held up to a bright light and its appearance checked for free water, haziness or cloudiness, and particles?

Back 954

Clear and Bright

Front 955

Soluble substances such as _______ cannot be separated from lube oil.

Back 955

Fuel

Front 956

During normal purifier operation, centrifugal force causes the _______ to travel farthest from the axis of rotation.

Back 956

Sediment

Front 957

The Integrated Fluid Variable Gear (IFVG) transmits engine power to the _______ class ship propellers.

Front 958

What class of ship uses the turning gear for inspections and maintenance of the reduction gear?

Front 959

Each Controllable Pitch Propeller (CPP) has five blades whose pitch is changed _______ to provide the ship with ahead or astern movement.

Back 959

Hydraulically

Front 960

The primary purpose of propulsion shafting is to transfer the torque generated by the main engine to the _______.

Back 960

Propeller

Front 961

A _______ is a form of coupling that connects or disconnects the engine to the Main Reduction Gear.

Back 961

Flexible coupling

Front 962

What type of heat transfer occurs by actual contact between substances or from molecule to molecule within a substance?

Back 962

Conduction

Front 963

The basic steam cycle is a four-phased open, heated cycle. This means that the fluid _______ reused and water must _______.

Back 963

Not/be constantly added….Another true false (false)….

Front 964

The _______ is responsible for the proper care, storage and use of fuels and lubricating oils.

Back 964

MPA

Front 965

Approval from the _______ must be obtained prior to taking fuel/ballasting.

Back 965

CO

Front 966

What is a Technical Work Document?

Back 966

Provide the craftsman with clear, concise, and technically correct instructions to complete the maintenance task while conforming to technical specifications

Front 967

Onboard the ship, what documents are considered legal records?.

Back 967

Engineering log and Engineer’s Bell Book

Front 968

What documents provides guidance for shipboard training?

Back 968

SURFORTRAMAN

Front 969

EOSS consist of the _______ and _______.

Back 969

EOP and EOCC

Front 970

What procedures is a type of EOP?

Back 970

MLOC, MP, SNOK

Front 971

The _______ program is designed to protect personnel from the hazards associated with electrical shock.

Back 971

Electrical safety

Front 972

The _______ and _______ programs permit early detection of contaminants.

Back 972

FOQM and LOQM

Front 973

The Tag Out log is divided in _______ sections.

Back 973

5

Front 974

Propulsion plant tag-out audits are performed _______ when in a restricted availability?

Back 974

Weekly

Front 975

Who authorizes resumption of normal operations if tampering is evident during a security breech?

Back 975

CO

Front 976

The _______ sounds general quarters when a major flammable leak is reported.

Back 976

OOD

Front 977

What is a purpose of the MSFD?

Back 977

Combating main space fires/fire prevention

Front 978

_______ enhances operational readiness and mission accomplishments by an aggressive safety and occupational health program.

Front 979

Inhalation of asbestos fibers has been demonstrated to cause at least two distinct disease states, _______ and _______.

Back 979

Cancer and asbestosis

Front 980

Who assists the Commanding Officer in conducting a mishap investigation?

Back 980

Safety officer

Front 981

Who can authorize the extension of safe stay times?

Back 981

CO

Front 982

Personnel included in hearing conservation will receive _______ monitoring hearing tests.

Back 982

Annual

Front 983

Single hearing protection (plugs or muffs) is required in all areas where sound levels exceed _______ dB.

Back 983

84

Front 984

The deck around an immediate eye hazard shall be marked with a _______ inch black and yellow striped or checkerboard tape.

Back 984

3

Front 985

The SCBA is a(n) _______ type respirator.

Back 985

Atmosphere supplying

Front 986

Who can grant permission to work on energized equipment?

Back 986

CO

Front 987

Oil Content Monitor system discharge must be less than _______ ppm.

Back 987

15

Front 988

Which document provides guidelines for Oil/Hazardous Substance (OHS) spill response?

Back 988

OPNAVINST 5090.1B

Front 989

The Mark II Oil Spill Kit box and contents are kept on the _______.

Back 989

Main deck

Front 990

Specific guidance concerning pollution control is provided by EOSS in the _______.

Back 990

SNOK

Front 991

Steam Engineering

Front 992

The DFT is the dividing line between which two phases of the basic steam cycle?

Back 992

Condensate and feed

Front 993

What is the term for the major steam system that operates at boiler pressure?

Back 993

Main steam

Front 994

After leaving the superheater a majority of the main steam is piped to the _______.

Back 994

De super heater

Front 995

Which principle do condensate pumps use to control hotwell levels?

Back 995

Submersions control

Front 996

What components separate air and steam mixtures in main condensers?

Front 997

When the engineering plant is cold iron, the ship can use _______ for 150 psig dry steam.

Back 997

Shore steam

Front 998

What is the purpose of the main circulating pump?

Back 998

Cooling water for main condenser

Front 999

What is the function of a steam reducing station?

Back 999

Reduces pressure, for systems that do not require high presser

Front 1000

Which valves control warm-up of downstream piping?

Back 1000

By pass valves

Front 1001

What should never be used when operating valves?

Back 1001

A monkey, a base ball bat ( Pipe wrench)

Front 1002

What is the purpose of the main air ejector?

Back 1002

Removes non-condensable gasses

Front 1003

Which valve controls the amount of steam to the HP turbine?

Back 1003

Ahead Throttle valve

Front 1004

Which valve is used to isolate the boiler from main steam?

Back 1004

Main steam stop valve

Front 1005

Which valves are used to control steam flow and isolate piping systems from machinery spaces?

Back 1005

Cross connect valves

Front 1006

Which valve is used to provide two valve protection to machinery that uses main steam?

Back 1006

Guarding valve

Front 1007

How does loss of auxiliary steam affect operation of 150 psig steam?

Back 1007

You also loss 150 psi steam

Front 1008

What is the function of the boiler auxiliary steam stop?

Back 1008

To stop flow from the de supper heater

Front 1009

Who or what controls the atmospheric exhaust unloader valve?

Back 1009

The atmospheric unloading valve provides another means of relieving excessive pressure in the AE system. An air operated and non-air operated unloading valves are set to open at 23 psig and are fully open at 25 psig (fails open). It discharges to the atmosphere via escape piping. During start up, shut down, and emergency operations it can be manually operated to stabilize AE line pressure.

Front 1010

What type of bearing takes care of axial thrust?

Back 1010

Thrust bearing

Front 1011

What parts of a reaction steam turbine serve the same purpose as the nozzle of an impulse turbine?

Back 1011

Fixed and moving blades

Front 1012

The labyrinth packing in a turbine serves what purposes?

Back 1012

Minimize pressure drop across the diaphragm

Front 1013

What is a function of a steam turbine?

Back 1013

Converts the energy in the steam to mechanical energy

Front 1014

Which type of seal is used to minimize pressure drop across the diaphragm?

Back 1014

Labyrinth packing rings

Front 1015

Define "impulse" as it applies to a steam turbine.

Back 1015

The force that turns the turbine comes from the impact of the steam on the blades of the turbine.

Front 1016

Where are the moving turbine blades attached?

Back 1016

The rotor

Front 1017

Define reaction as it applies to a steam turbine.

Back 1017

The force that turns the turbine.

Front 1018

Where are the main generating tubes located?

Back 1018

In the boiler behind the supper heater / that are connected to the water drum and steam drum

Front 1019

What term is used to describe steam at the temperature at which water boils at the given pressure?

Back 1019

Saturation temp

Front 1020

Which steam drum component separates incoming feed water and generated steam?

Back 1020

Belly plates in the steam drum

Front 1021

What is superheated steam referred to after some of the superheat has been removed?

Back 1021

Aux steam

Front 1022

What is the purpose of combustion air?

Back 1022

It is used to shape the flame and provide air required for combustion

Front 1023

What system is used to put out fires in the boiler air casing?

Back 1023

Steam smothering

Front 1024

Who must grant permission prior to securing any boiler?

Back 1024

CO/ except as required by EOCC

Front 1025

What is the minimum pressure to surface (or bottom) blow a boiler overboard? 50 PSI

Front 1026

What is the purpose of the steam drum?

Back 1026

Receives feed water and separates steam from water

Front 1027

Which deposit does a bottom blow remove from the lower circuits of the boiler?

Back 1027

Sludge and other impurities

Front 1028

Which term is defined as a short-term decrease in boiler drum water level that results from a change in the firing rate or steam flow without any corresponding change in the feeding rate?

Back 1028

Shrink

Front 1029

What is the heat source for the boiler economizer?

Back 1029

Boiler exhaust

Front 1030

The steam exiting the superheater is referred to as _______.

Back 1030

Main steam

Front 1031

Boilers will expand and contract as the temperature within changes. What is used to compensate for this?

Back 1031

Sliding feet

Front 1032

Which term is defined as a short-term increase in boiler drum water level that results from a change in the firing rate or steam flow without any corresponding change in the feeding rate?

Back 1032

Swell

Front 1033

On the boiler, where are burner assemblies located?

Back 1033

On the burner front

Front 1034

What is the purpose of the gland seal steam system?

Back 1034

It provides a seal between the turbine and the outside air

Front 1035

What is the function of the HP turbine?

Back 1035

Converts the energy in the steam to mechanical energy

Front 1036

Single Axial flow refers to steam flowing in _______.

Back 1036

HP turbine

Front 1037

What is the function of the salinity indicator?

Back 1037

To detect salt and other impurities in the water

Front 1038

What is the purpose of the main circulating pump?

Back 1038

To provide the cooling water for the main condensed at lower ship speeds

Front 1039

Main and auxiliary condensers should not be subjected to seawater pressure in excess of _______ psig.

Back 1039

20 PSI

Front 1040

The condensate flows into what, after leaving the bottom of the main condenser?

Back 1040

Hot well

Front 1041

A condenser changes a gas to a liquid by causing the gas to _______. Condense

Front 1042

When should the duplex fire safe fuel oil strainers be shifted?

Back 1042

The answer is 10 psi, but they have been removed from NAVY ships

Front 1043

How does a relief valve prevent over pressurization of the fuel oil service pump?

Back 1043

When fuel is not needed it relives fuel back to the suction side of the pump to keep from deadheading

Front 1044

What is the purpose of the Fuel Oil Control Valve (FOCV)?

Back 1044

Regulates the fuel as required by demand

Front 1045

Where does the fuel oil unloading valve allow the excess fuel oil to flow?

Back 1045

Back to the service tank on suction

Front 1046

To avoid the risk of losing suction due to ship movement, the fuel oil service tank level should not be allowed to drop below _______%.

Back 1046

50%

Front 1047

The constant pressure regulator monitors the fuel oil pressure on the discharge side of the fuel oil service pump and maintains a constant discharge pressure of _______ psig.

Back 1047

350 to 400 PSI

Front 1048

The Fuel Oil Control Valve (FOCV) has a minimum setting of _______ psig.

Back 1048

35 to 40 PSI

Front 1049

When is the portable fuel oil service pump used?

Back 1049

Light off only

Front 1050

What will shut down the Main Feed Pump when pump suction drops to the near minimum NPSH?

Back 1050

The low suction safety trip

Front 1051

Where does the main feed booster pump take suction?

Back 1051

DFT

Front 1052

What equipment is used to make feed water?

Back 1052

EVAPS

Front 1053

Which component in most boilers can be described as a multi-pass tube bundle that is located in the water drum?

Back 1053

De-supper heater

Front 1054

The bulk of the steam generated by the boiler is formed in the main generating bank because it has the largest heating surface.

Back 1054

TRUE

Front 1055

What component consists of perforated piping that allows steam to smother a fire that may occur in the boiler air casing?

Back 1055

Steam smothering system

Front 1056

Which valve is installed in the boiler fuel oil system line to ensure that fuel oil is isolated from the burner front, quickly and completely when the boiler is secured?

Back 1056

Fuel oil quick closing valve

Front 1057

The purpose of the Automatic Combustion Control (ACC) system is to maintain steam pressure within _______.

Back 1057

+/- 5 psig of setpoint

Front 1058

Who is responsible for inspecting the firebox and which tool should be used?

Back 1058

Space Supervisor/BID

Front 1059

Non-moving blades are either attached directly to the turbine casing or they are located where?

Back 1059

Inside the nozzle diaphragm

Front 1060

A turbine that has more than one pressure drop is classified as what type of turbine?

Back 1060

Pressure Compounded Turbine

Front 1061

What is the first stage of a HP turbine?

Back 1061

Curtis

Front 1062

The Rateau staging of a HP turbine is to be considered velocity compounded because there is a velocity increase and a velocity decrease in each Rateau stage.

Back 1062

FALSE

Front 1063

The LP Turbine is considered a condensing turbine.

Back 1063

True

Front 1064

What controls the amount of steam allowed to flow from the steam chest into the HP turbine?

Back 1064

Throttle Valve Assembly

Front 1065

In the main gland seal system, which component dumps excess gland seal piping pressure to the LP turbine exhaust trunk?

Back 1065

Gland Seal unloader

Front 1066

At what percentage of load on the generator will leakage from the forward end (high pressure end) of the SSTG supply steam for the gland seal system?

Back 1066

60%

Front 1067

Personnel can paint the main shaft while the main engine jacking gear is engaged because the main shaft will be rotating slowly.

Back 1067

False

Front 1068

What is the purpose of the main steam strainer?

Back 1068

Prevents any particles from entering the main turbines

Front 1069

What is the purpose of the main steam bypass valve?

Back 1069

To warm up piping and remove water in piping via the LP drains

Front 1070

Where does the 600 PSIG Auxiliary steam come from?

Back 1070

De-super heater

Front 1071

When performing maintenance on a turbine what component is used to isolate the Auxiliary Exhaust System?

Back 1071

Combination exhaust relief valve

Front 1072

What type of valve is used to prevent uneven thermal expansion or contraction of the piping system?

Back 1072

By pass valve

Front 1073

What happens to the condensate in the DFT?

Back 1073

It de-aerates and heats and converts it to feed water

Front 1074

What shuts the Main Feed Pump (MFP) throttle valve when the pump suction pressure drops to near the minimum Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) required to prevent cavitating the pump?

Back 1074

The low suction safety trip

Front 1075

In theory the steam cycle is a closed loop system where the quantity of _______ is endlessly recycled.

Back 1075

TRUE

Front 1076

What is used to distribute water made from the evaporator?

Back 1076

Feed valve manifold

Front 1077

High Pressure Drain System collects drains from steam systems and equipment that operate at pressures _______ 150 PSIG?

Back 1077

TRUE

Front 1078

After leaving the bottom of the main condenser, the condensate flows into what?

Back 1078

auxiliary cooling water pump

Front 1079

What is the purpose of the main air ejector?

Back 1079

To remove air and no-condensable gasses from the condensate

Front 1080

In a main condenser that is operating on scoop injection, the flow of water is controlled by what means?

Back 1080

The forward speed of the ship

Front 1081

In what position will the burner root valve be on a secured burner?

Back 1081

Fully Closed

Front 1082

Diesel Engineering

Front 1083

What is the name of the barrel or bore where the engine pistons move back and forth?

Back 1083

Cylinder

Front 1084

Name the water passages that allow circulation of cooling water around cylinders.

Back 1084

Water jacket

Front 1085

Which component uses electrical energy that is stored in batteries to start an engine?

Back 1085

Electric starter

Front 1086

Pistons that employ a back-and-forth motion are commonly classified as _______.

Back 1086

Reciprocating engines

Front 1087

What is the rotating shaft of cam lobes that is used to control the operation of valves and fuel pumps through a series of other parts that move against it?

Back 1087

Camshaft

Front 1088

What measuring instrument is used to measure crankcase vacuum or pressure?

Back 1088

Manometer

Front 1089

What cycle of operation is taking place when the exhaust valve is open, the power stroke is finished, and the piston starts back up?

Back 1089

Exhaust stroke

Front 1090

The heavy wheel attached to the crankshaft that stores up energy during the power event and releases it during the remaining events of the operating cycle is referred to as the _______.

Back 1090

Flywheel

Front 1091

Which term refers to the method in which wasted exhaust gases can produce power gains of over 50%?

Back 1091

Turbocharged

Front 1092

Which component has the function of removing small particles of debris from the fuel prior to it entering the fuel injectors?

Back 1092

Fuel filters

Front 1093

As more fuel is burned in an engine, the hotter the exhaust gases will be become. What device measures the temperature of these gases?

Back 1093

Pyrometer

Front 1094

The speed of an engine is measured in _______.

Back 1094

Rotations per minute (RPM)

Front 1095

What is the function of the lube oil cooler?

Back 1095

Keep the lube oil within the most efficient operating range

Front 1096

What will cause lube oil contamination in a diesel engine?

Back 1096

Leaky fuel nozzles or injectors

Front 1097

Gas Turbine Engineering

Front 1098

What are the major components of the gas generator assembly?

Back 1098

COMPRESSOR, COMBUSTOR, HIGH PRESSURE TURBINE

Front 1099

What type of a clutch do CG, DDG, and FFG class gas turbine ships use?

Back 1099

SELF SHIFTING SYNCHRONIZING

Front 1100

Which components make up the intake silencers arrangement?

Back 1100

BAFFLES

Front 1101

What last resort protection is provided by the air intake system if blow in doors open during GTM operation?

Back 1101

FOD SCREENS

Front 1102

The acronym FOD stands for _______.

Back 1102

Foreign Object Damage

Front 1103

The emergency air inlet doors ("blow-in doors") open as a result of _______.

Back 1103

CLOGGED DEMISTER PADS

Front 1104

Approximately how many minutes of fuel does a head tank provide for a Propulsion Gas Turbine Engine to run?

Back 1104

APPROXIMATELY 5 MINUTES

Front 1105

Approximately how many minutes of fuel for gas turbine generator operation does the gravity feed tank provide if the FO service system fails?

Back 1105

APP 30 MINUTES

Front 1106

The stand by fuel oil service tank is placed online when the online service tank decreases to _______.

Back 1106

50%

Front 1107

What can be controlled from the Electric Plant Control Console?

Back 1107

GAS TURBINE GENERATORS

Front 1108

The Propulsion and Auxiliary Control Console is located in the _______.

Back 1108

Central Control Station

Front 1109

The Independent Auxiliaries Panel of the PACC controls which system?

Back 1109

Sea Water Service

Front 1110

Gas turbine generator outputs can be monitored from _______.

Back 1110

EPCC

Front 1111

Which component/device records throttle responses and significant engineering plant events?

Back 1111

Bell/Data Log

Front 1112

Select the description of airflow on an axial flow compressor.

Back 1112

Air flows directed over the axis of the compressor rotation

Front 1113

Customer Bleed Air is extracted from the _______ stage of the GTM (LM2500) Compressor.

Back 1113

16

Front 1114

When the cooling fan is in operation, what also must be open?

Back 1114

Vent damper

Front 1115

Compressor stall occurs when _______.

Back 1115

Disruption of air flow in the compressor.

Front 1116

Where is the gas turbine water wash nozzle located?

Back 1116

Inside Module

Front 1117

The vanes that comprise the first 6 stages on the LM2500 GTM compressor stator are known as _______.

Back 1117

Variable Stator vanes

Front 1118

What is the purpose of the start air system?

Back 1118

Drive the pneumatic starter

Front 1119

How many combustion chambers are in an annular combustor?

Back 1119

1

Front 1120

How many bottles are provided for GTM primary CO2?

Back 1120

2

Front 1121

What refers to the build-up of carbon residue caused by intense heat?

Back 1121

Coking

Front 1122

The scavenge filter poppet-type relief valve opens at _______ psid.

Front 1123

How many sumps are on the LM2500 gas turbine?

Back 1123

4

Front 1124

The accessory drive section is mounted on the _______.

Back 1124

turbine front frame

Front 1125

What is the gas turbine module designed to contain?

Back 1125

Engine Temps and noise.

Front 1126

What component of the module allows personnel to conduct a visual inspection of the center body without entering the module?

Back 1126

Module inlet duct window.

Front 1127

There are _______ ultra-violet flame detectors in the GTM enclosure.

Back 1127

Three

Front 1128

Operating the gas turbine with the _______ open for long periods does not harm the engine.

Back 1128

Blow in door/ False

Front 1129

The _______ provide the same function on different gas turbine platforms.

Back 1129

Intake and Exhaust System

Front 1130

All fuel to the GTM recirculates back to the _______ on DD and CG class ships until the GTM main fuel valves open.

Back 1130

Service pump Suction

Front 1131

The gas turbine generators _______ cannot be operated from the CCS.

Back 1131

Manual Pull Trip Valves

Front 1132

Auxiliary Engineering Systems

Front 1133

What is the definition for condensation?

Back 1133

The change from gaseous (vapor) state to a liquid state

Front 1134

Where is a conventional heater usually installed?

Back 1134

Washrooms and water closets (spaces that receive indirect ventilation from other heated spaces

Front 1135

What are patients' symptoms of exposure to liquid or vaporized refrigerant?

Back 1135

Eye irritation, vomiting, and breathing stops

Front 1136

What is the function of the thermostatic expansion valve?

Back 1136

Meters liquid refrigerant causing a reduction in the refrigerant pressure and temperature

Front 1137

What is the definition of refrigerant?

Back 1137

A liquid capable of vaporizing at a low temperature

Front 1138

What is the definition for dew point?

Back 1138

The amount of heat energy required to change substance from liquid to vapor without a change in temperature

Front 1139

In what type of compartment would you find a gravity coil?

Back 1139

In the wardroom Mess Hall

Front 1140

What is the definition for latent heat of fusion?

Back 1140

Heat that is involved when changing from liquid to a solid

Front 1141

What is the purpose of the Parasense Leak Detector?

Back 1141

Detect R-13A airborne contaminants in a space

Front 1142

Dehydrators are used in compressed air systems to reduce the ___water____ content.

Front 1143

An air flask is a pressure vessel for the storage of air above _____ psig.

Back 1143

600psi

Front 1144

Rapid operation of manual valves in a high-pressure air system may cause _______.

Back 1144

an explosion

Front 1145

The LPAC discharges low pressure air, normally in the range of _______ psi.

Back 1145

100-150

Front 1146

What is a characteristic that is used to classify air compressors?

Front 1147

Oil content of the compressed air

Front 1148

The priority valve on a LP air system closes at approximately _______ psi.

Back 1148

85

Front 1149

Which device installed in a reciprocating compressor is designed to smooth the airflow before entering the next stage of compression?

Back 1149

Pulsation Bottle

Front 1150

What type of pump is the seawater feed pump?

Back 1150

centrifugal

Front 1151

What is the concentrated liquid called that remains when seawater is boiled?

Back 1151

Brine

Front 1152

Self-diffusion through a semi-permeable membrane of a solvent due to the differential pressure between two solutions of differing concentrations is referred to as _______.

Back 1152

Reverse Osmosis

Front 1153

What can be used for disinfecting potable water?

Back 1153

Bromine

Front 1154

Which type of distilling plant uses low-pressure steam to create a vacuum for its operation?

Back 1154

Flash type

Front 1155

What types of water is defined as water that is suitable for human consumption?

Back 1155

Potable water

Front 1156

Which component of the RO unit disinfects the water?

Back 1156

Brominator

Front 1157

What terms refers to the total process of the distilling plant, including evaporation and condensation?

Back 1157

Distillation

Front 1158

Where are the trickwheels located?

Back 1158

In the steering gear room

Front 1159

What type of construction is the ram?

Back 1159

Single fitted piece between two cylinders

Front 1160

Which component allows the Bridge to select and control the steering units?

Back 1160

Steering control cable selector switches

Front 1161

What type of steering gear pumps are utilized onboard Navy ships?

Back 1161

Axial piston, variable displacement, bi-directional pumps

Front 1162

What is the function of the synchro transmitter and receiver for the Rudder Order Indicator system?

Back 1162

Provide rapid and accurate transmission of information between equipment and station in the after steering gear room and the ship’s control console.

Front 1163

What remote reading indicator shows both the physical position and the ordered position of the rudder?

Front 1164

What is the function of the differential control unit for the steering system?

Back 1164

To measure the difference between the helm angle and rudder angle and stroke the swash plate to eliminate the difference

Front 1165

The Copper crush blocks prevent the ram from _______.

Back 1165

Overtravel at 37 degrees port or starboard

Front 1166

The _______ acts as a temporary storage space and surge tank for the liquid refrigerant.

Back 1166

receiver

Front 1167

What function does the compressor serve in the refrigeration cycle?

Back 1167

Essemtially a pump. Forces hot temp liquid refrigerant into superheated gas. Discharges high pressure high temp refrigerant vapor to the condenser.

Front 1168

Gravity cooling coils are used primarily in spaces where the load is small, and where electrical equipment (which could spark) would constitute a hazard. Such a compartment would be the _____ space where air conditioning is required.

Back 1168

magazine compartment

Front 1169

Fan-coil assemblies use _______ for the air conditioning of spaces.

Back 1169

chilled water

Front 1170

Air that is used for pneumatic tools, cleaning blow down hoses, ventilating torpedo tubes, fueling hose blow back is considered _______.

Back 1170

LP air

Front 1171

Which pump is used in the event of electrical power loss to the motors?

Back 1171

Handpump

Front 1172

The _______ is located in the after steering gear room and is used for emergency steering.

Back 1172

trickwheel

Front 1173

Electrical Systems Fundamentals

Front 1174

Which degaussing coil counteracts the magnetic field produced by the permanent vertical and the induced vertical magnetization of the ship?

Back 1174

M-COIL

Front 1175

Where would you find a record of all degaussing actions?

Back 1175

DEGAUSSING FOLDER

Front 1176

A compass-compensating coil is used to compensate for the _______ component of a magnetic field caused by the degaussing coils.

Back 1176

Vertical

Front 1177

What type of information is found in the degaussing folder?

Back 1177

Magnetic Treatment of the ship

Front 1178

The function of the degaussing coils is to produce magnetic fields that are _______ and _______ to the magnetic fields produced by the components of the ship's magnetization.

Back 1178

equal and opposite

Front 1179

What factors affect the strength of a coil's magnetic field?

Back 1179

number of turns of wire, current and type of material

Front 1180

What is the device called that is used to shift the power source automatically to maintain power to vital ship equipment?

Back 1180

AUTOMATIC BUS TRANSFER (ABT)

Front 1181

A unit of current is measured in _______.

Back 1181

AMPS

Front 1182

A unit of resistance is measured in _______.

Back 1182

OHMS

Front 1183

What must be done before safely removing a fuse?

Back 1183

TURN POWER OFF AND DISCHARGE THE CIRCUIT

Front 1184

In electrical systems, what is the meaning of AC?

Back 1184

ALTERNATE CURRENT

Front 1185

What is the simplest circuit protection device?

Back 1185

FUSE

Front 1186

What type of an alarm condition indication does an annunciator device give?

Back 1186

AUDIBLE AND VISUAL

Front 1187

Casualty power must be connected from _______.

Back 1187

LOAD TO SOURCE

Front 1188

Which switch, that is a control device, converts mechanical motion into an electrical signal?

Back 1188

LIMIT SWITCH

Front 1189

According to Ohm's Law, current is _______ proportional to the voltage and _______ is proportional to resistance.

Back 1189

DIRECTLY AND INVERSELY

Front 1190

A motor is a device that converts _______ energy to _______ energy.

Back 1190

ELECTRICAL TO MECHANICAL

Front 1191

What types of supply group loads are located in close proximity to each other?

Back 1191

POWER PANEL

Front 1192

The synchronizing monitor is used during the _______ of generators.

Back 1192

PARALLELING

Front 1193

Which meter indicates generator output current?

Back 1193

AMMETER

Front 1194

The ship service/emergency generator provides three phase electrical power, _______ volts AC, and _______ hertz.

Back 1194

450/60

Front 1195

When more than one phase of a three-phase power supply are grounded it is called _______.

Back 1195

SHORT CIRCUIT

Front 1196

The power that dissipates in the resistance of the circuit or is actually used in the circuit is called the _______.

Back 1196

TRUE POWER

Front 1197

Which types of detectors have sensors that activate an alarm when a flicker rate between 8 Hz and 15 Hz is sensed and are installed in locations susceptible to flash-type combustion?

Back 1197

INFRARED DETECTOR

Front 1198

Why would an audible signal be supplemented by a visual signal?

Back 1198

TO OVERCOME EXCESSIVELY NOISY AREAS AND TO ALLOW THE ALARM TO BE NOTICED FROM A DISTANCE.

Front 1199

Which is the Captain's Command system?

Back 1199

21MC

Front 1200

Which situation would require changing an AN/WSN-2 from NAV to DG mode of operation?

Back 1200

CROSSING 85-DEGREE LATITUDE LINE HEADING NORTH

Front 1201

What is the purpose of alarm systems?

Back 1201

TO ALERT PERSONNEL ABOUT A HAZARDOUS CONDITION, EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTION, OR OTHER ABNORMALITY REQUIRING IMMEDIATE ACTION.

Front 1202

What information does the gyrocompass provide to ship's Navigation and Fire Control Systems?

Back 1202

PRECISION ANALOG DUAL-SPEED ROLL, PITCH, AND HEADING DATA

Front 1203

Which system is the Ship-to-Ship Announcing System used to broadcast to another ship alongside?

Back 1203

6MC

Front 1204

Which circuit breakers are used to connect a generator to the 60-Hertz distribution system?

Back 1204

BUS-TIE BREAKERS

Front 1205

The power used by most of the ship equipment, such as ventilation, fire pumps, galley equipment, and lighting is _______.

Back 1205

60HZ

Front 1206

An ABT that shifts back to the normal power source is called _______.

Back 1206

NORMAL SEEKING

Front 1207

What components are referred to as a main bus?

Back 1207

SWITCHBOARD

Front 1208

Two generators supply the distribution system and share the load equally. What electric plant configuration is this?

Back 1208

RING-BUS PARALLEL

Front 1209

Which are the three constant magnetization components?

Back 1209

LONGITUDINAL, ATHWARTSHIP, VERTICAL

Front 1210

The _______ induced magnetization does not change with heading.

Front 1211

The function of the _______ is to produce magnetic fields that are, equal and opposite to the magnetic fields produced by the components of the ship's magnetization.

Back 1211

DEGAUSSING COIL

Front 1212

Connecting, energizing and testing shore power cables should be under the direct supervision of the _______.

Back 1212

ELECTRICAL OFFICER, A LEADING ELECTRICIAN, AND THE SOURCE ACTIVITY PERSONNEL.

Front 1213

The casualty power distribution system permits the use of temporary connections to equipment for maintenance.

Back 1213

FALSE: TEMPORARY CONNECTIONS ARE USED TO SPAN “DAMAGED PORTIONS OF PERMANENTLY INSTALLED SHIP SERVICE AND EMERGENCY DISTRIBUTION SYSTEMS.

Front 1214

Which types of circuits have black labels on an IC switchboard?

Back 1214

CLASS II CIRCUITS – ESSENTIAL TO SHIP CONTROL (I.E, GYRO, RUDDER ANGLE ORDER INDICATORS).

Front 1215

Ionization detectors are used to sense _______ only.

Back 1215

SMOKE

Front 1216

_______ REaction occurs when two dissimilar metals are immersed in seawater, with the seawater acting as an electrolyte.

Back 1216

ELECTRO-CHEMICAL (THINK: BATTERY)

Front 1217

What material is used for the anodes of the Impressed Current Cathodic Protection System?

Back 1217

PLATINUM

Front 1218

The Roving Patrol gives his/her report to the OOD for entry into the deck log every…

Back 1218

30 minutes

Front 1219

What logs is used to relay information to future watches that does not go into the deck log?

Back 1219

Pass Down Log

Front 1220

In what Log would you find information verifying that the oncoming watch has the same weapon the previous watch had?

Back 1220

Weapons Custody Log

Front 1221

What log is used as a record of the material condition of the ship?

Back 1221

Damage Control Closure Log

Front 1222

Why is it important for the oncoming OOD to know the status of pier services when the watch is relieved?

Back 1222

"BTo prevent hazardous conditions or interference such as when divers are in the water, or when there are Sailors working over the side

Front 1223

Upon being relieved of watch, the off going OOD informs the incoming OOD of the status of the ships, boats and vehicles so that he/she…

Back 1223

knows what is going on

Front 1224

The Duty Signalman should break which flag when personnel are working aloft?

Back 1224

KILO

Front 1225

When receiving a ship alongside inport, the Duty Signalman should break which flag?

Back 1225

India

Front 1226

What is used to test a ship’s reaction time for emergency communication procedures:

Back 1226

Communications Quick Reaction Drills

Front 1227

Which officer controls sorties?

Front 1228

What Inport Security Threats is it important to secure the brow? More than one answer may be correct.

Back 1228

Riot on the Pier

Front 1229

The Aircraft Warning Lights are energized by what means:

Front 1230

The inner parts of the hull on either side of the keel up to where the sides begin are the…

Back 1230

bilges

Front 1231

Which small boats is painted haze gray on the freeboard, black below the water line, and has a red stripe at the water line?

Back 1231

Captain’s Gig

Front 1232

What small boat(s) is/are painted black on the freeboard and green below the water line?

Back 1232

Flag Officer’s Barge

Front 1233

Who is responsible for training the crew and Boat Officers, providing the Bow Hook and the Coxswain and also responsible for the operation, care, and maintenance (except machinery) of small boats?

Back 1233

1st LT

Front 1234

On a small boat, who must be familiar with the rules of the road, adhere to proper boat etiquette, and maintain the Compass Log?

Back 1234

Boat Officer

Front 1235

A strong fiber line used to make fast the small boat’s bow when in the water beneath the boat falls is________.

Back 1235

seapainter

Front 1236

With which honor should a small boat follow the parent ship?

Back 1236

Half masting of colors

Front 1237

What is any part of a slack line or chain, particularly when curved or looped?

Back 1237

Eye

Front 1238

What is a tattletale?

Back 1238

A bight of heavy cord as light small stuff ranging from two measure points on the working line to determine when the safe working load has been reached. When it parts, the main line will go next. It is a 40 inch loop spaced 30 inches apart

Front 1239

The yellow Quarterdeck/Bridge Alarm represents which type of hazard?

Back 1239

Collision

Front 1240

The inport Watchstander who tours and inspects engineering spaces for violations of watertight integrity and fire hazards when the plant is inactive or disabled is the _______.

Front 1241

The inport Watchstander who delivers the twelve o'clock reports to the CO (or CDO in the CO's absence) is the _______.

Back 1241

MOOW

Front 1242

The Watchstander who musters and supervises extra duty personnel is the _______.

Back 1242

DMAA

Front 1243

What internal communication circuits is the two-way amplified Captain's command circuit connecting the major ship control stations?

Back 1243

Circuit 21 MC, Semi-Vital, Class I

Front 1244

Twelve o'clock reports are delivered to the CO before noon so permission can be requested and given to strike _______ bells on time.

Back 1244

8

Front 1245

What reports is/are among the standard 12 o'clock report requirements?

Back 1245

Fuel and Water, Boat, Mag Temps, Muster, Draft

Front 1246

The 1MC is defined and used as:

Back 1246

A one-way communications system that is used to pass vital information to all hands shipwide.

Front 1247

How often does the Sounding and Security Watch Officer gives his/her report to the OOD for entry into the Deck Log?

Back 1247

Not to exceed 30 minutes

Front 1248

What must the OOD do during crane operations?

Back 1248

Ensure adequate supervision of the evolution to restrict personnel movement in the affected area and observe all safety precautions'

Front 1249

List the circumstances that may exempt a ship from making daily Deck Log entries include _______.

Back 1249

"special operations designated by the CNO

Front 1250

What remarks regarding absentees are to be included in the Deck Log?

Back 1250

"The time and circumstances of later whereabouts or fate

Front 1251

Deck Log entries for drills and exercises _______.

Back 1251

The start and finish time of all drills/exercises will be entered into the deck log. Any information pertinent to the drill/exercise will also be entered and denoted with the word "DRILL" to ensure all personnel recognize the entry as a drill/exercise item.

Front 1252

Working parties are often required to onload stores and complete important shipwide evolutions. The OOD can contribute to the well being of the crew by_______.

Back 1252

"providing head-of-the-line meal privileges or arrange to have hot meals saved

Front 1253

When fueling or refueling, the OOD should do what?

Back 1253

"Pass the word putting out the smoking lamp

Front 1254

What is an appropriate action in response to a riot on the pier?

Back 1254

"Recall Gangway watches/Pier Sentries

Front 1255

What security team consists of a minimum of two members required to respond within 5 minutes to a security alert?

Back 1255

Security Alert Team

Front 1256

Who can grant political asylum?

Back 1256

The State Department

Front 1257

What type of aid, if any, could the OOD offer if, in a foreign port, a civilian approached the quarterdeck of the ship and asked for political asylum?

Back 1257

None

Front 1258

Can the OOD grant temporary refuge to an individual claiming to be in personal danger?

Back 1258

Yes

Front 1259

When high winds are expected, the OOD should _______.

Back 1259

"Make sure lines aren’t parting

Front 1260

When thunderstorms occur, or are imminent, the OOD should _______.

Back 1260

"secure any Sailors from working aloft

Front 1261

What is the proper procedure for dipping the national flag if the ensign is at half-mast?

Back 1261

Hoist the flag to the truck or peak, answer the dip, return the flag to the truck or peak, then lower it to the half-masted position

Front 1262

When should passing honors be rendered?

Back 1262

A vehicle with its lights on, personal flags flying from the front fenders drives down the pier.

Front 1263

How many sideboys does a Vice Admiral rate?

Back 1263

8

Front 1264

Why do the man overboard lights pulsate?

Back 1264

The switch is continually turned ON and OFF by use of the crank.

Front 1265

What is the paint scheme for a Captain's gig?

Back 1265

haze gray and black with a red stripe at the waterline

Front 1266

What equipment should be carried in a ship's boat to ensure safety of navigation?

Back 1266

"Chart(s) of area to be transited

Front 1267

What type of davit, the entire operation is controlled by the boat falls and the descent is controlled by a winch or manual brake?

Back 1267

Gravity Davit

Front 1268

What davit allows for superior boat handling procedures and permits the extension of rescue boat handling to higher sea states than considered safe with conventional davits?

Back 1268

Single Arm Track-way Davits

Front 1269

What is the reason to have a boat rigged and ready for lowering underway?

Back 1269

"To be ready for short notice personnel transfers between ships if needed

Front 1270

What is the drag circle?

Back 1270

Diameter of the drag circle is the distance from the hawespip to pelorous plus the amount of anchor chain paid out

Front 1271

Which lines are considered breastlines?

Back 1271

Forward bow spring and after bow spring

Front 1272

What best describes the swing circle?

Back 1272

Daimeter of Swing Cirlce is the length of the ship plus theamount of anchor chain paid out.

Front 1273

What does the watchstander observe during anchor watch?

Back 1273

How the anchor tends and it’s strain, amount of chain on deck.

Front 1274

Communications for the Watchstander

Front 1275

What form of R/T watch there is a transmitter calibrated and available but not necessarily ready for immediate use and a complete log is kept?

Back 1275

COVERED

Front 1276

What form of security prevents unauthorized persons from viewing or gaining access to classified information?

Back 1276

PHYSICAL

Front 1277

What type of R/T net, member stations are authorized to transmit traffic to other stations without obtaining permission from NECOS?

Back 1277

FREE

Front 1278

What characteristics characterizes an R/T net? .

Back 1278

A Radiotelephone (R/T) net consists of two or more units capable of direct communications on a common circuit. Units (also known as stations) can be ships, aircraft, submarines, small boats, deployed troops, shore based communication facilities, etc. All R/T nets are controlled by a Net Control Station (NECOS) who is responsible for ensuring an efficient exchange of traffic while also maintaining net security and frequency

Front 1279

“K” is the prosign for what proword?

Back 1279

OVER

Front 1280

You hear over an uncovered net from a unit whose callsign is AAA, "... this is USS NEVERSAIL, correction, AAA, Roger, Over." What should you respond with?

Back 1280

BEADWINDOW 6

Front 1281

What publications, held only by the U.S. Navy, set forth current tactics, doctrine, procedures, and terminology?

Back 1281

NWP

Front 1282

What publication series is held by Allied naval forces and sets forth guidance and requirements for varied Allied exercises?

Back 1282

Allied Exercise Publications (AXP): This series is held by all Allied naval forces and sets forth guidance and requirements for various Allied exercises.

Front 1283

What publication, which serves as a reference for the watchstander in determining what exercises may come up during the watch and in the short-range future, will be distributed prior to battle group sailing?

Back 1283

LETTER OF INSTRUCTION (LOI)

Front 1284

What OPTASK supplement contains detailed tasking and instructions for all attached aircraft and is announced by the OTC or air coordinator?

Back 1284

OPTASK AIR

Front 1285

Pub 102 is translated into how many languages?

Back 1285

NINE

Front 1286

What form of visual communication is typically the communication method choice when ships are conducting maneuvering exercises in close proximity to each other?

Back 1286

FLAGHOIST

Front 1287

What form of visual communication is often the quickest means to transmit a visual message, however, it does not work well for extended distances?

Back 1287

SEMAPHORE

Front 1288

There can be a maximum of _______ flags/pennants on a hoist/halyard.

Back 1288

5

Front 1289

What governing pennant is used when an addressee desires to question a signal?

Back 1289

Interrogative: When an addressee desires to question a signal, the signal shall be hoisted at the dip and INT closed up on the next available halyard

Front 1290

What information, provided by the operator, is indicated at the bottom of the form and includes precedence, date/time group (DTG) and addresses for the plaindress message?

Back 1290

Addresees, Date, Released By, System, Precedence, Operator, Supervisor, Routing Blocks, DTG

Front 1291

A radiotelephone net used to transmit navigation, administrative, or routine traffic is characterized as _______.

Back 1291

NON-TACTICAL

Front 1292

What is the appropriate prosign for the prowords "I Say Again"?

Back 1292

IMI

Front 1293

What are the appropriate proword/s for the prosign "AR"?

Back 1293

OUT

Front 1294

What message format is used to send a signal that will not be executed immediately. ?

Back 1294

DELAYED EXECUTIVE

Front 1295

Bridge-to-Bridge is classified as what sort of radiotelephone net?

Back 1295

NON-TACTICAL

Front 1296

Which Radio/Telephone watch is described as having a continuous receiver watch and a complete log being kept, but no requirement for a transmitter?

Back 1296

COPY

Front 1297

Measures used to protect transmissions from interception and exploitation (including following proper R/T procedures as well as practicing Emission Control) describes what sort of Communication Security (COMSEC)?

Back 1297

TRANSMISSION SECURITY

Front 1298

What are the four steps in relaying a flaghoist between two ships?

Back 1298

SENDING, ANSWERING, ACKNOWLEDGING, EXECUTING

Front 1299

In what order are flag hoists read?

Back 1299

"Starboard to port

Front 1300

On a visual message blank, which block indicates what visual signaling method is employed for transmitting the message (i.e., flashing light, flaghoist, semaphore)?

Back 1300

SYSTEM

Front 1301

Which publication series is held by U.S. Navy forces only and promulgates guidance and requirements for various exercises?

Back 1301

FXP

Front 1302

Underway Watch Fundamentals

Front 1303

What is the primary basic function of the Officer of the Deck?

Back 1303

To be in charge of the ship and take responsibility for its safe and proper operation.

Front 1304

Which officer may relieve the Officer of the Deck in times of danger or emergency. The OOD reports to this officer on matters regarding the ship’s daily routine?

Back 1304

Executive Officer

Front 1305

Which officer reports to the OOD for the speed and direction of rotation of the main engines and for standby power requirements and other services?

Back 1305

EOOW

Front 1306

What is not covered in the CO's Standing orders?

Front 1307

What is not covered in the Night Orders?

Back 1307

Watch Relief Procedures

Front 1308

A security alarm that alerts personnel when entry has been made into secure weapons magazines is a:

Back 1308

FZ Alarm

Front 1309

Which alarm box is painted green and has a square tipped handle for identification at night?

Back 1309

Chemical Alarm

Front 1310

Which alarm box is painted yellow and has a star tipped handle for identification at night?

Back 1310

Collision Alarm

Front 1311

What piece of navigation equipment indicates relative wind direction and velocity?

Back 1311

Anemometer

Front 1312

What instrument is used to determine the range from your ship to another ship or fixed object ashore?

Back 1312

Stadimeter

Front 1313

What device is commonly used for taking bearings during piloting evolutions?

Back 1313

Telescopic Alidade

Front 1314

What maintains the ship's permissible electromagnetic radiation by assigning an EW control to monitor it?

Back 1314

EMCON

Front 1315

Which sound-powered phone circuit is used to pass Electronic Warfare Information, including intercepted signal characteristics and threat evaluations?

Back 1315

53

Front 1316

What log is similar to the Deck Log in procedure and content except that it also includes all recommendations from the CIC to the bridge?

Back 1316

CIC Watch Log

Front 1317

What communication circuit is used to pass sonar information from sonar control to the DRT in the CIC and to the Underwater Battery Fire Control (UBFC) operators for torpedo/VLA firings?

Back 1317

1JS

Front 1318

What uses passive sonar information to determine a contact’s course, speed and range?

Back 1318

TMA

Front 1319

What watchstander is responsible for controlling all USW aircraft assigned to the ship and for passing tactical data between USW aircraft and the ship?

Back 1319

ASTAC

Front 1320

Used when in the vicinity of land, CIC maintains a navigation plot by means of radar fixes and in good visibility will back up the Navigator with recommendations by _______.

Back 1320

Identifying land masses that can be used for visual navigation.

Front 1321

Which Navigation Team Member supervises the surface picture and associated displays and ensures the bridge team receives timely information, warnings and recommendations concerning surface contacts via the bridge status board phone talker?

Back 1321

Piloting officer

Front 1322

During day and night operations, what will be the primary means of rescue, if available?

Back 1322

HELO

Front 1323

Which evolution is conducted when a particular military, political or extremely heavy weather situation requires a ship or group of ships to get underway on very short notice?

Back 1323

Sortie

Front 1324

Which flight pattern indicates that the pilot needs assistance or that the aircraft’s transmitter has failed but its receiver still operates?

Back 1324

Right hand triangular pattern

Front 1325

Which condition of readiness is the ship capable of self-defense and the CIC and weapons stations are half manned?

Back 1325

CONDITION 2

Front 1326

Which officer is normally designated, in writing (per the Captain's Standing Orders), to relieve the OOD when situations warrant and advises the CO on the safe navigation of the ship?

Back 1326

NAVIGATOR

Front 1327

Which officer is responsible for inspecting the Deck Log daily?

Back 1327

NAVIGATOR

Front 1328

The basic function of the _______ is to control the movement of the ship by issuing orders to the helm and lee helm.

Back 1328

CONNING OFFICER

Front 1329

What statements about Deck Logs is/are correct

Front 1330

What attributes of proper watchstanding describes the ability to predict possible events and the necessary actions to quickly and correctly respond? ?

Back 1330

FOREHANDEDNESS

Front 1331

What instrument measures the ship's speed through the water?

Back 1331

Pit Log: The Pit Log indicates the ship's speed through the water based on the Pit Sword, which measures the actual speed of the water flowing past the hull. The speed indicated may therefore be influenced by current.

Front 1332

What chart is the most widely used projection chart. It allows the user to easily determine position, distance, and direction. However, because of its design, distortion of the true size of surface features increases with distance from the equator?

Back 1332

MERCATOR PROJECTIONS

Front 1333

Which additional watchstander is required in Conditions I and III, but not required in Condition IV (Peacetime readiness)?

Back 1333

TAO

Front 1334

What is the senior enlisted operations specialist on the watch team called? (This watchstander assigns watch personnel according to capabilities and rotates the watch as necessary to maximize training and minimize boredom and fatigue.)

Back 1334

CICWS

Front 1335

What is the primary mission of CIC?

Back 1335

The primary mission is to provide the organized collection, processing, display, competent evaluation and rapid dissemination of pertinent tactical information and intelligence to command and control stations.

Front 1336

Which log is similar to the Deck Log in procedure and content except that it also includes all recommendations from the CIC to the Bridge?

Back 1336

CIC WATCH LOG

Front 1337

During SAR operations the CIC must monitor SAR and distress communication radio frequencies, recommend appropriate search areas and procedures to the Bridge, and _______.

Back 1337

keep the bridge informed of all developments

Front 1338

Which underway condition of readiness requires the ship to man all weapons systems, sensors, damage control, and engineering stations to provide maximum flexibility, survivability, and warfighting capability?

Back 1338

CONDITION 1

Front 1339

Which underway condition of readiness provides an adequate number of qualified personnel to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the ship and provides the best economy of personnel assignment to watches?

Back 1339

CONDITION 4

Front 1340

What is the importance of periodically calculating true winds during the CIC watch?

Back 1340

Emergency flight quarters and chaff course recommendation

Front 1341

Which flight pattern indicates the pilot needs assistance, or the aircraft has experienced complete communication failure?

Back 1341

Left hand triangular pattern

Front 1342

During aircraft emergencies the OTC will _______.

Back 1342

Designating an emergency landing ship: AND Designating "lost aircraft control":

Front 1343

Which types of platform(s) can be assigned Plane Guard?

Back 1343

HELO OR SHIP

Front 1344

Division Officer Administration

Front 1345

What are the 31 responsibilities of a division officer, as prescribed in section 361.b of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 1345

Take care of assigned personnel, Ensure proper maintenance and material readiness, Provide proper training, Ensure safety standards are maintained, Maintain good order and discipline

Front 1346

What are the ten chapters of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 1346

"1-Unit Administration,

Front 1347

What are the four unit bills that can be found in Chapter 6 of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 1347

Operational, Emergency, Special, Administrative

Front 1348

What is not a divisional billet described in Chapter 3 of the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 1348

Actual billets – Division Officer, Leading Chief Petty Officer, Leading Petty Officer, Work Center Supervisor, Work Center Personnel, Damage Control Petty Officer, Supply Parts Petty Officer

Front 1349

What describes the Directives Issuance System, as defined in the OPNAVINST 3120.32 SORM?

Back 1349

Provides the guidance necessary for command personnel to effectively perform their assigned responsibilities including procedures and formats used to issue policy, procedural, and informational releases, as well as developing, issuing, filing, and maintaining all unit directives

Front 1350

Which publication is endowed with the primary sanction of law, and contains the primary guidelines concerning duty, responsibility, authority and relationships among the various commands?

Back 1350

Navy Regulations

Front 1351

You have been tasked by the Training Officer to give a lecture to the wardroom officers on standard watch organization including the positions and their responsibilities. Based on this scenario, which publication should you read in order to prepare for your lecture?

Back 1351

Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (OPNAVINST 3120.32)

Front 1352

What is the difference between rating and rate?

Back 1352

A rate is an occupation, or broad career field, A rating is an occupation, or broad career field, while rate is a combination of rating and paygrade

Front 1353

You decide to withhold recommendation of advancement because the candidate does not meet the requirements. You make an entry in the enlisted member's service record. Given this situation, what is the next step that you should perform?

Back 1353

Send a message to NETPDTC, the organization that oversees testing, to inform them that you are withholding advancement

Front 1354

You withdraw a recommendation for advancement because a candidate is no longer qualified. What forms do you submit in order to remove the recommendation?

Back 1354

NAVPERS 1616/26

Front 1355

What options correctly describe the Division Officer's Notebook?

Back 1355

"The Division Officer's Notebook contains information that helps orient a relieving DIVO

Front 1356

A sailor assigned to your division notifies you that while on leave, he got married. He provides you a copy of his marriage certificate and all the pertinent information on his wife (date of birth, social security number, etc.). What is the most important thing the sailor should do to update the sailor's record?

Back 1356

"Send the sailor to disbursing to update his personnel data so that he will start receiving allowances for being married

Front 1357

Under what circumstances does Fourth Amendment protection apply to a search?

Back 1357

"A government agent conducts the search.

Front 1358

For a search to be protected by the Fourth Amendment, it must be conducted in an area in which there is a reasonable expectation of privacy. What is an example of an area in which a servicemember does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy?

Back 1358

"· Government property (including vehicles and aircraft)

Front 1359

What is true of a quarterdeck personnel inspection?

Back 1359

It is an example of a non-contraband inspection to ensure security, military fitness, and good order and discipline. The use of technical aids such as a drug dog is reasonable and permissible.

Front 1360

Accurately describe inventories?

Back 1360

"It involves listing personal effects for administrative purpose.

Front 1361

What is true in regard to evidence custody procedures?

Back 1361

"It is the responsibility of all Navy law enforcement personnel to take every precaution to preserve the integrity of evidence in its original condition. Investigative personnel must enter evidence into the custodial system as soon as possible after its collection, seizure, or surrender.

Front 1362

When does an Unauthorized Absence (UA) begin?

Back 1362

As soon as the absence is discovered.

Front 1363

Today is 22 Dec and YN3 Jensen did not show up for Admin Division quarters at 0730. A search of the ship revealed that YN3 Jensen was not onboard and no one in Admin Division knew his whereabouts. You make a page 13 entry. Where else should you record YN3 Jensen's absence?

Back 1363

Daily Absentee Report

Front 1364

Seaman Jones was instructed to sweep the deck of the division workspace on his duty day. The next morning, you inspect the workspace and notice the decks are still dirty and the chewing gum wrappers you saw yesterday are still on the deck. You decide Extra Military Instruction (EMI) is in order. What is an appropriate EMI assignment for Seaman Jones?

Back 1364

"Assign Seaman Jones EMI to read the articles of the UCMJ pertaining to rules and regulations and orders given.

Front 1365

Your ship is preparing for a scheduled peacetime deployment. As division officer, you meet with your LCPO to discuss manning issues. He indicates to you that the current number of personnel onboard is below that of precious deployment manning and that you are missing some personnel with critical NECs. Which document should you use to accurately determine your divisional authorized manning levels, prospective personnel gains and losses, and personnel NEC requirements of your divisional?

Back 1365

Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)

Front 1366

Petty Officer (PO) Williams is a crewmember assigned to your division onboard ship. He has just received news from his father in Iowa that their family business is in serious trouble and could possibly be facing bankruptcy. PO Williams explains to you that this business has been in the family for years and that his immediate assistance is needed at home to help save the business. PO Williams submits to you a special request chit requesting a Humanitarian/Hardship Discharge to help save the business from going bankrupt. PO Williams is an above average performer and is one year from his discharge date. Your LCPO informs you that he can support the request since the ship’s schedule has you in port most of the year and that PO Williams deserves recommending approval of this request. Based on this situation, what options best describes what action you, as PO Williams's Division Officer, should take?

Back 1366

Deny PO Williams's request because it is not for an authorized Humanitarian/Hardship Discharge reason.

Front 1367

As division officer, you have specific responsibilities in regards to the Hazardous Material/Hazardous Waste (HM/HW) Program safety. Select from the list below, the option that is NOT a responsibility of a division officer in regards to HM/HW?

Back 1367

"Ensure that HM retained within their work centers is specific to the operations and maintenance of assigned equipmentEnsure that approved personal protective clothing and equipment are available for HM operations or incidents and personnel are trained in their proper use and maintenance.

Front 1368

Boatswain Mate First Class Keller's recommendation was withheld. He has now met the requirements for advancement. Given this situation, what step must be performed in order to reinstate his recommendation for advancement?

Back 1368

The CO/OIC reinstates the withheld advancement by sending a message to NETPDTC requesting that the advancement no longer be withheld. The request must stipulate that the member was deemed eligible for advancement by the CO/OIC.

Front 1369

HM1 Smith was frocked to the next higher paygrade. What does this mean?

Back 1369

"Personnel who have satisfied all advancement requirements, including passing the exam and being selected to the next higher paygrade, can be frocked to that paygrade prior to their advancement date.

Front 1370

The CO is authorized to directly advance qualified personnel in what paygrades?

Back 1370

E-3 through E-5

Front 1371

What arethe factors used to determine the final score for advancement?

Back 1371

Standard score, PNA points, Length of service, Service in paygrade, Awards

Front 1372

In which case is a person still eligible for advancement?

Front 1373

Non-eligible

Front 1374

Retired Status

Back 1374

Personnel in a retired status, including disability retirements.

Front 1375

Personnel in confinement

Back 1375

Personnel in confinement as a result of civil conviction or sentence of court-martial on their authorized date of advancement.

Front 1376

Failed physical standards

Back 1376

Personnel who have failed to meet Navy Physical Readiness standards.

Front 1377

Non-US citizen personnel

Back 1377

Non-US citizen personnel in a rating requiring access to classified information. Commands with personnel who have an impending citizenship date must notify the Naval Personnel Command

Front 1378

Prisoner of War

Back 1378

Prisoners of war or missing personnel, except by special action by the Chief of Naval Personnel.

Front 1379

Missing Personnel

Back 1379

Personnel in a deserter or unauthorized absence (UA) status.

Front 1380

Fraudulent Advancement

Back 1380

Personnel who have been determined by administrative or court-martial proceedings to have used, attempted, or conspired to use fraudulent means to obtain advancement are ineligible for advancement on the cycle for which fraud is substantiated, and remain ineligible until the CO reinstates the advancement recommendation.

Front 1381

Which one of the following final multiple score factors gives credit for various achievements such as obtaining an associate's or bachelor's degree while on active service?

Back 1381

Miscellaneous

Front 1382

On the right-hand side of the enlisted service record there is a Court Memorandum. What is this?

Back 1382

Page used to record court-martial and nonjudicial punishment actions that affect an individual’s pay

Front 1383

Accurately describe enlisted EVALs.

Back 1383

"The comments and promotion recommendations in a sailor's EVAL can play a major part in the selection board process.

Front 1384

What is true regarding the FITREP format?

Back 1384

"All documentation in the administrative blocks must be made in all capital text

Front 1385

How can the Commanding Officer (CO) establish the credibility of an informer?

Back 1385

"The source is a law enforcement official

Front 1386

What is true regarding the legal requirements of a search?

Back 1386

"Searches upon entry to or exit from U.S. installations, aircraft, and vessels abroad are permitted if implemented by the CO for security, military fitness, or good order and discipline.

Front 1387

At what time during a UA is a member administratively declared a deserter?

Back 1387

"The facts and circumstances of absence without regard to the length of absence indicate that the member may have committed the offense of desertion, as defined in Article 85, UCMJ

Front 1388

Any member who misses the movement of a ship, aircraft, or unit with which he/she is required in the course of duty to move shall be punished under which Article of the UCMJ?

Back 1388

Article 87

Front 1389

What is the vehicle used to identify possible offenses and initiate the investigation of the reported offense?

Back 1389

You use the standard Navy chit, Report and Disposition of Offense(s) to start a charge???

Front 1390

The Navy mandates how orders and regulations must be published and posted. This includes what?

Back 1390

Explain Orders, Post UCMJ Article 137, Provide Training, Publish Orders / Matters, Provide Publications

Front 1391

What is true about the duties of the Shore Patrol?

Back 1391

"Providing assistance to U.S. Military personnel who are on leave or liberty.

Front 1392

What provides additional training within a specific phase of military duty where the Servicemember is deficient?

Back 1392

EMI

Front 1393

SORM Article 361 lists basic functions of a Division Officer (DIVO). What are basic functions of a DIVO?

Back 1393

Be Responsible, Stay Informed, Promote Good Conduct, Report to XO

Front 1394

What options are true about written requests for hardship discharge separation?

Back 1394

"The eligible member who does not have an additional service obligation may be discharged.

Front 1395

What kind of administrative discharge requires a pattern of adverse behavior that shows a significant departure from expected conduct.

Back 1395

Other Than Honorable

Front 1396

What kind of administrative discharge is warranted if during the Sailor's current enlistment, the member’s final evaluation average is 2.50 or above. (This average is determined by averaging the individual trait averages of all evaluations during the current enlistment.)

Back 1396

Honorable

Front 1397

What kind of administrative discharge includes entry-level separation and void enlistment or induction.

Back 1397

Uncharacterized

Front 1398

What kind of administrative discharge is warranted if during the Sailor's current enlistment, the member’s final evaluation average is 2.49 or below. (This average is determined by averaging the individual trait averages of all evaluations during the current enlistment.)

Back 1398

General

Front 1399

What options are general eligibility requirements for discharge for reason of homosexuality?

Back 1399

"Engaged in a homosexual act

Front 1400

When must the accused begin serving the punishment?

Back 1400

Once he is awarded the punishment

Front 1401

A CO may remit a punishment during what period of time?

Back 1401

At any time up to 4 months after the punishment was awarded.

Front 1402

What happens immediately after the rights of the accused are explained during a Non-judicial Punishment?

Back 1402

Preliminary Inquiry

Front 1403

What is the main function of the Safety Council?

Back 1403

Analyze ship's safety program and make quarterly policy recommendations

Front 1404

What is a Class B Mishap?

Back 1404

Property damage exceeding $200,000 but less than $1,000,000

Front 1405

What is the purpose of the train circle?

Back 1405

A red circle painted on the deck indicating the outer limit of the "swing" arc of the equipment

Front 1406

Who are the members of the Safety Council?

Back 1406

XO-Chairman, Department Heads, Safety Officer

Front 1407

Any ordnance proven, by test or analysis, to be adversely affected by RF energy is designated as _______.

Back 1407

Unsafe

Front 1408

What is the purpose of the Heat Stress Program?

Back 1408

Provide shipboard working environments that under normal operational conditions do not expose personnel to hazardous heat stress conditions. This is outlined in OPNAVINST 5100.19 (series).

Front 1409

What are a few of special safety precautions that applies to the handling of ammunition?

Back 1409

"Safety observers will always be posted at the handling scene.

Front 1410

What is a main function of the Enlisted Safety Committee?

Back 1410

"Exchanges information on mishap and near mishap prevention.

Front 1411

What correctly describes the functions and uses of the Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)?

Back 1411

"The EDVR is a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted manning. It lists all individuals assigned and provides:

Front 1412

Message Writing

Front 1413

Who is responsible for ensuring all references are listed correctly?

Back 1413

Drafter

Front 1414

What is the highest precedence that should be assigned to administrative matters?

Back 1414

"Priority (P)

Front 1415

What type of precedence is normally assigned to hurricane reports?

Back 1415

Immediate (O)

Front 1416

What classification designator is given to a message that requires encryption for transmission?

Back 1416

UNCLAS EFTO which means: UNCLASSIFIED, Encrypted For Transmission Only

Front 1417

Who may originate a “Personal For” message?

Back 1417

Admirals

Front 1418

What term is used when the reference has not been sent to all of the addressees?

Back 1418

NOTAL

Front 1419

Where are classification markings placed in the remarks section?

Back 1419

"‘The Classification Line” this identifies the overall classification of the message

Front 1420

When located after the Remarks portion of the message, what does the BT indicate?

Back 1420

The end of the message

Front 1421

What are AMCROSS messages used for?

Back 1421

Primarily used to notify personnel assigned to deployed commands of medical urgencies involving the member's immediate family.

Front 1422

Drafter routes the rough copy through the chain of command until it reaches the:

Back 1422

releasing authority for the message

Front 1423

GENADMIN messages can be broken down into _______ parts?

Back 1423

Three (3)

Front 1424

Why were CASREPS developed?

Back 1424

To provide an expeditious means of reporting a diminished combat readiness posture due to a significant equipment malfunction.

Front 1425

A casualty is defined as an equipment malfunction or deficiency that cannot be corrected within _______.

Back 1425

48 hours

Front 1426

What does an Initial CASREP identify?

Back 1426

Status of casualty and parts required to affect repair

Front 1427

A CASREP will be submitted after the occurrence of significant equipment casualty, as soon as possible but not later than _______.

Back 1427

24 hours after the occurrence of a significant equipment casualty

Front 1428

An Update CASREP is sent under which condition(s)?

Back 1428

Information that has changed from the Initial CASREP

Front 1429

There are four types of CASREPS. Which list is correct?

Back 1429

Initial, Update, Correct, and Cancel

Front 1430

What information should be addressed in the remarks section of an Initial CASREP?

Back 1430

"What is the problem?

Front 1431

How are Collective Address Designator addressees related?

Back 1431

By an administrative or an operational chain of command

Front 1432

What term is used to clear message traffic channels in areas experiencing a major crisis?

Back 1432

Minimize

Front 1433

During Minimize, which type of correspondence can still be forwarded?

Back 1433

Non-electronically transmitted correspondence can still be forwarded.

Front 1434

SPECAT indicates the message contains what?

Back 1434

Special Category information

Front 1435

PERSONAL FOR indicates a message that should be reviewed by whom?

Back 1435

The CO or individual indicated

Front 1436

When Minimize is in effect, restrictions are placed on _______.

Back 1436

Non-urgent message traffic

Front 1437

What is the normal distribution of SPECAT messages?

Back 1437

Personnel with a need-to-know basis

Front 1438

Determine the check-sum digit for the following position. 3340N___-11820W___.

Back 1438

0, 2

Front 1439

In an Initial CASREP, what does Field 5 represent in the casualty description?

Back 1439

A category denoting the effect of a casualty on a unit\'s primary and/or secondary mission areas

Front 1440

When does a new sequence of numbers start for CASREP serialization?

Back 1440

Starts after the unit has submitted CASREP message number 999.

Front 1441

Determine the check-sum digit for the following position. 2837N__-07435W__.

Back 1441

0, 9

Front 1442

In the Initial CASREP, what information does the AMPN set provide?

Back 1442

An explanation for why parts are not onboard

Front 1443

Determine the check-sum digit for the following position. 3644N__-07548W__.

Back 1443

7, 4

Front 1444

Where is a "check sum" digit used in CASREPs?

Back 1444

Latitude and longitude

Front 1445

The list of information addressees obtained for Initial CASREP include what?

Back 1445

Technical assistance activities for selected equipment and the appropriate AIG

Front 1446

Where is the address placed for the technical assistance activity that will perform work on a casualty?

Back 1446

Action

Front 1447

Which publication provides the primary guidance for drafting a Casualty Report?

Back 1447

NWP 1-03.1

Front 1448

How is CASREP serial number determined?

Back 1448

The serial numbers are sequential from 1 through 999 for every CASREP originated by a unit. These serial numbers should never be repeated until a new sequence of 1 through 999 has begun. A new sequence of numbers starts after the unit has submitted CASREP message number 999.

Front 1449

In an Initial CASREP, what does Field 1 represent in the casualty description?

Back 1449

Indicates the type of CASREP being sent.

Front 1450

Training

Front 1451

How is the 100 Level PQS assessed?

Back 1451

Assessment is either in verbal or written form depending on command protocol.

Front 1452

What emphasis is placed on the 200 Level PQS requirements?

Back 1452

focuses on system components and component parts relevant to one or more designated Watchstations.

Front 1453

What must be accomplished before beginning the 300 Level PQS requirements?

Back 1453

100 level fundamentals and 200 level systems must be completed.

Front 1454

Who is responsible for indoctrinating new officers into the PQS program?

Back 1454

Senior Watch Officer

Front 1455

What best describes the Final Evaluation Problem?

Back 1455

Represents the culmination of the entire Basic Phase of training

Front 1456

During the Final Evaluation Problem, the ship will conduct a training scenario written by _______.

Back 1456

Integrated Training Team

Front 1457

What is the focus of Underway Demonstration (UD)?

Back 1457

Underway Demonstration (UD) portion of the Engineering Readiness Process focuses on engineering operations, evolutions, and drills. To standardize UDs across the force, an ATGPAC/LANT assessment team will support the ISIC during the UD.

Front 1458

Which publication provides guidance on maintaining PQS records (e.g., PQS progress chart, interim qualification letters)?

Back 1458

NAVEDTRA 43100-1 PQS Management Guide

Front 1459

Who is concerned with safety training lectures and records?

Back 1459

Safety Officer

Front 1460

Who solicits input from each training group within their departments for the PBFT meetings?

Back 1460

Department Heads

Front 1461

Who is responsible for ensuring Department Head inputs regarding training, do not conflict with the schedule of events or inputs from other departments?

Back 1461

Training Officer

Front 1462

What is the basic instrument for informing personnel of the ship's training goals and operating schedules?

Back 1462

Long-Range Training Plan

Front 1463

Who chairs the Planning Board for Training (PBFT)?

Back 1463

XO

Front 1464

What is the mechanism for planning and scheduling training and is modified regularly?

Back 1464

The short-range training plan

Front 1465

Who is responsible for maintaining divisional training records?

Back 1465

Division Officer (DIVO)

Front 1466

Describes General Military Training (GMT)?

Back 1466

It serves as "All Hands" type training

Front 1467

What best describes the purpose of Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS) training?

Back 1467

Provides the minimum level of knowledge and skills required of a trainee seeking qualification for a particular watchstation

Front 1468

How is the General Military Training (GMT) Manual used to develop a divisional training program?

Back 1468

It contains all of the lesson plans used to conduct GMT.

Front 1469

How is the 100 level PQS assessed?

Back 1469

Assessment is either in verbal or written form depending on command protocol.

Front 1470

What level of PQS requirements focuses on obtaining the basic knowledge and principles required to understand the specific equipment and dates necessary to a watchstander?

Back 1470

The 100 Level PQS requirements (known as 100 Series or 100 Section) focus on obtaining the basic knowledge and principles required to understand the specific equipment or duties necessary to your Watchstation.

Front 1471

Readiness

Front 1472

Which procedures must be followed when classified information has been compromised?

Back 1472

"Regain custody of the classified information, if possible, and reinstate the proper protection.

Front 1473

The Security Manager is responsible for which one of the following functions?

Back 1473

Serves as the principal advisor and representative to the commanding officer in matters pertaining to the classification, safeguarding, transmission, and destruction of classified information and reports directly to the commanding officer in the conduct of assigned duties

Front 1474

Coordinates entire shipboard security program

Back 1474

`Must have a favorably adjudicated SSBI or PR within the past five years

Front 1475

What is true of the CMS Custodian?

Back 1475

"Responsible for the receipt, custody, accountability, and distribution of all COMSEC material (e.g., crypto equipment, key cards)

Front 1476

What is(are) correct Control Procedure(s) in the distribution of classified material?

Back 1476

"After being logged in, classified materials are placed in the custody of designated personnel.

Front 1477

Which one of the following is true regarding the destruction of classified materials?

Back 1477

In cases of emergency, classified material must be destroyed in order. (TS/S/C)

Front 1478

What describes the purpose of the LOGREQ?

Back 1478

The purpose of a LOGREQ is to identify a ship's anticipated needs prior to entering port

Front 1479

What are the requirements for submitting a MOVREP?

Back 1479

"Submitted The requirements for submitting MOVREQs is:

Front 1480

What is the purpose of SORTS?

Back 1480

It is the principle source of data that conveys detailed combat-readiness information, including primary mission areas and overall ratings.

Front 1481

A situation has occurred onboard your ship that involves significant events, but they aren’t significant enough to meet the reporting criteria for OPREP-3 messages. Given this situation, which one of the following types of messages should be released?

Back 1481

Unit SITREP

Front 1482

Your crew caught foreign nationals spying onboard the ship. This event has received a great deal of press coverage because the foreign nationals claim they are innocent diplomats. Given this situation, what message would you use to report the detention of these foreign nationals?

Back 1482

OPREP-3 Pinnacle

Front 1483

Assume that a part must be purchased from a local vendor. Which funds source should you use to purchase the part?

Back 1483

Government Commercial Purchase Card Program (GCPC)

Front 1484

During corrective maintenance, your technician discovers that a control valve has failed and a new valve is needed. The ship's COSAL does not reflect the installed equipment. The technician remembers that during the last overhaul period, the system was updated with new equipment that included the control valve. Since the equipment is not listed in the COSAL, there is no onboard allowance for the valve. The valve is available locally from a vendor. Given this situation, which one of the following forms should the Repair Parts Petty Officer fill out to request the part?

Back 1484

NAVSUP 1250-1

Front 1485

The primary purpose of the Tag-Out Log is to have a control document that:

Back 1485

Notifies operators when a component is unreliable or not operating at all

Front 1486

What items are included in the Tag-Out Log?

Back 1486

Instrument Log, TGL, TUM

Front 1487

Complete the following statement. Tag-Out Standards:

Back 1487

Sets expectations and regulations to follow during equipment tag-out

Front 1488

During the PMS tag-out procedure, who verifies the position of the tags when they are returned to the original position by maintenance?

Back 1488

Maintenance Person

Front 1489

Which two of the following are electronic test equipment categories?

Back 1489

GPETE and SPETE

Front 1490

You are assigned as the CSOOW onboard your ship. Your ship is underway with the Battle Group and performing exercises. In the performance of your duties as CSOOW, which one of the following duties or tasks would you most likely be required to perform?

Back 1490

Coordinate combat systems functions with EOOW, DCA, and OOD.

Front 1491

Which groups of components would you find in the CSOP section of the CSOSS User's Manual?

Back 1491

Master Procedures (MP), Operational Procedures (OP), System Procedures (SP), and Component Procedures (CP)

Front 1492

You would open the CSOSS User's Manual to the section with CSOCC procedures if you needed information about which one of the following?

Back 1492

Equipment emergency initialization instructions following failure

Front 1493

Which is the command in each homeport designated as the center with overall responsibility for efficient planning, brokering, and execution of all ship maintenance and modernization for assigned ships?

Back 1493

Regional Maintenance Center (RMC)

Front 1494

What components are needed for equipment repairs to critical equipment in a particular space?

Back 1494

Ready Service Spares (RSS)/Bulkhead Spares

Front 1495

What is the main purpose of the Fleet Modernization Program?

Back 1495

Provide a plan for improvements

Front 1496

What is a criterion for deferred maintenance?

Back 1496

"Ship’s force personnel require assistance from an external activity to accomplish the maintenance.

Front 1497

A piece of your division equipment requires maintenance. Your onboard technicians have exhausted all onboard expertise trying to repair the equipment. To get the job screened for accomplishment by a Fleet Maintenance Activity, you must report the problem in MDS. Which form should you use to report deferred maintenance actions?

Back 1497

2K

Front 1498

When submitting a deferred maintenance request, you learn that to complete the request you need to provide amplifying information, such as drawings. Which form would you submit to provide the amplifying information?

Back 1498

2L

Front 1499

What statements is true about classified MRCs?

Back 1499

It is the only PMS material that is classified

Front 1500

What describes the role of a SMMO in reference to the 3-M system?

Back 1500

"Normally a DIVO who serves as a liaison between the ship and any outside maintenance organizations performing corrective maintenance on the ship

Front 1501

All of the following are objectives of the 3-M System, EXCEPT:

Back 1501

Assist in the designing of new ship-classes

Front 1502

What is a reason why the 3-M System was created?

Back 1502

To provide a standardized approach to preventive and corrective maintenance

Front 1503

What can be called upon to provide FLEET TECH ASSISTS for newly installed equipment?

Back 1503

Shipyards

Front 1504

What information does a TGL provide?

Back 1504

Lists the location and position of switches/valves required to isolate a system

Front 1505

Who reviews associated Tag-out Logs during watch relief and shift turnover?

Back 1505

Watch/Duty Officer

Front 1506

What action should be taken when tags are missing?

Back 1506

The AO and RA should be notified immediately.

Front 1507

What actions should be taken when components are out of position?

Back 1507

"Report the condition immediately to the AO and RA representative.

Front 1508

What action(s) should be taken when tags are damaged?

Back 1508

"Report the tag to the AO and RA immediately

Front 1509

What type of clearance is granted pending the results of a PSI?

Back 1509

Interim Clearance

Front 1510

What control procedure is used for secret material that arrives via registered mail?

Back 1510

Destruction

Front 1511

What classification is designated as providing a "substantial degree of protection"?

Back 1511

Secret

Front 1512

What types of clearances require the existence of a favorable investigation and LRC; SSBI initiated?

Back 1512

Top Secret

Front 1513

Maintenance personnel use the COSAL to access information about all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 1513

Crew Allotments

Front 1514

What is true of consumables Have a limited life expectancy? An example would be paint

Front 1515

A parts request has been filled out by the RPPO using NAVSUP Form 1250-1. Who would retrieve it from the storeroom if the part requested was onboard?

Back 1515

SK

Front 1516

All of the following are true of equipage, EXCEPT:

Back 1516

An example would be computer paper

Front 1517

What is listed in the Location field on the EGL?

Back 1517

The exact location of the equipment

Front 1518

What is identified in the Equipment field of the MRC?

Back 1518

The equipment supported by the maintenance requirement

Front 1519

On a Cycle Board what does the "#" symbol after a maintenance check mean?

Back 1519

There is mandatory related maintenance for this check

Front 1520

What does the Rate field on the MRC identify?

Back 1520

The recommended skill level for the person performing the requirement

Front 1521

What does the periodicity code delineate?

Back 1521

How frequently the requirement must be performed

Front 1522

Navigation, Seamanship, and Shiphandling

Front 1523

Seamanship

Front 1524

What is the drum on vertical machinery units around which lines are passed to provide assistance in hoisting weights, or taking a strain on lines?

Back 1524

Capstan

Front 1525

What is a metal coupling device, consisting of an oblong piece internally threaded at both ends and two threaded rods that form a unit, that can be adjusted for tension or length?

Back 1525

Turnbuckle

Front 1526

_______ run at near right angles to the keel and control the ship's distance from the pier.

Back 1526

Breast lines

Front 1527

What term is used for running the eye of one mooring line through the eye of another line when two mooring lines share a Bollard?

Back 1527

Dipping the Eye

Front 1528

The command, ''Cast off (Line Number, or) all lines'' means for the line handlers to

Back 1528

Release the line from the bitts

Front 1529

What is the free or working end of a line?

Back 1529

Bitter end

Front 1530

What agents can cause hard to detect damage to a natural line?

Back 1530

Heat, sunlight, mildew rot, chemicals, paint, and oils. It is therefore necessary to stow this type of rop or line away from harmful substances. The best stowage is in a dry, cool, dark, well-ventilated area, far away from any potential source of chemicals or gaseous fumes.

Front 1531

As each chain marking passes the wildcat, the first anchor report is made to the conning officer by calling out which statement?

Back 1531

Fathoms on deck. Some ships may call out shots on deck as opposed to fathoms.

Front 1532

During the process of weighing anchor, frequency reports are made periodically on the direction the chain is tending, the _______, and the degree of strain on the chain.

Back 1532

CBT version is number of fathoms. Shot on Deck, More often I see number of shots.

Front 1533

What are the advantages of mooring to a buoy vs. anchoring?

Back 1533

Mooring to a buoy is more secure and requires less space.

Front 1534

What is the dip in the towline that acts as a spring?

Back 1534

Catenary

Front 1535

What makes up the chafing chain and point of attachment on the towed ship?

Back 1535

Anchor chain

Front 1536

The four basic types of approaches on a disabled ship requiring a tow are:

Back 1536

Parallel, 45 degree, backing down, and crossing the T

Front 1537

What is the correct procedure for getting underway after connecting your ship to tow another vessel?

Back 1537

Increase speed gradually one knot at a time until at desired speed so as not to snap the tow line.

Front 1538

Which is an accurate description of being in-step when towing another vessel?

Back 1538

Both ships should be rising and falling on waves simultaneously.

Front 1539

What is a correct towing safety consideration?

Back 1539

Step up speed, one knot at a time, until towing speed is reached

Front 1540

What is the role of the Approach ship during an UNREP?

Back 1540

Makes the approach and keeps station on the control ship.

Front 1541

What color is the Rig Captain's helmet during an UNREP?

Back 1541

Yellow

Front 1542

What do transfer station markers indicate on a delivery ship during an UNREP?

Back 1542

Type of cargo being transferred at the station.

Front 1543

What might justify an emergency breakaway from an UNREP?

Back 1543

"An engineering casualty affecting the ability of one of the ships to maintain the replenishment course and speed

Front 1544

Who can order an emergency breakaway from an UNREP?

Back 1544

The CO of either ship.

Front 1545

What is a primary means of communication while maintaining radio silence?

Back 1545

(unofficial) Visual signals

Front 1546

A _______ walk down is conducted on flight deck to prevent missile hazards or objects being sucked into intakes.

Back 1546

FOD

Front 1547

What is the term for use of a helicopter to transfer materiel to or from a ship?

Back 1547

VERTREP

Front 1548

What is used to hoist personnel to an airborne helicopter?

Back 1548

Grounding strap or horse collar

Front 1549

What ensures the safe helicopter landing during day, night and severe conditions?

Back 1549

RAST (Recovery, Assist, Secure, and Traverse)

Front 1550

Which control is used by RAST for normal operations?

Back 1550

Remote control

Front 1551

Which crewmember relays instructions from the LSO to flight deck personnel?

Back 1551

LSE

Front 1552

What is the purpose of the ship/helicopter facility certification program?

Back 1552

To ensure minimum safety criteria are met in the installation and modification of aviation facilities aboard ships.

Front 1553

What life preserver is normally inherently buoyant?

Back 1553

Kapok

Front 1554

During which Abandon Ship Phase do officers in charge of debarkation stations direct release of life rafts and personnel proceed over the side in an orderly fashion?

Back 1554

Phase II

Front 1555

During which Abandon Ship Phase do all personnel below decks, who are not engaged in securing or salvage duties, proceed topside and don life preservers?

Back 1555

Phase I

Front 1556

What is correct instruction for swimming through flames?

Back 1556

Manually deflate vest; swim as far away as possible under water, and re-inflate orally once clear of flames

Front 1557

The hydrostatic release on a life raft will be automatically activated between _______ and _______ feet.

Back 1557

10, 40

Front 1558

The purpose of a life raft's sea painter is to:

Back 1558

Make fast the small boat’s bow when in the water beneath the boat

Front 1559

What does the command, "Heave around (line number)" mean?

Back 1559

Place tension on the specified line using the capstan.

Front 1560

What lines can function as the Breast lines?

Back 1560

Bow line, stern line

Front 1561

What are heavy, vertical cylinders, usually arranged in pairs that are used to make fast or secure lines?

Back 1561

Bitts

Front 1562

What controls the ship's aft movement?

Back 1562

Forward spring lines

Front 1563

What does the command, "Send Over" (Line Number) mean?

Back 1563

Pass the specified mooring line over to the pier.

Front 1564

What is the safe working load of synthetic line?

Back 1564

Normally 1/6 to 1/10 of its breaking strength

Front 1565

How is wire rope measured?

Back 1565

Wire rope size is designated by diameter. The diameter of a wire rope is considered to be the diameter of a circle that will just enclose all of its strands.

Front 1566

What type of lines are smaller and lighter than nylon lines of equal breaking strength?

Back 1566

(Probable) Aramid / Kevlar

Front 1567

What are nylon line's signs of aging?

Back 1567

Flexible when tensioned, turns yellow, becomes stiff (all of the above)

Front 1568

What does the watchstander observe during anchor watch?

Back 1568

Observes the strain and how the chain is tending.

Front 1569

What is the correct method of mooring to a buoy?

Back 1569

There are two methods of mooring to a buoy: dip rope and trolley. Both use the anchor chain and mooring shackle. A boat crew and buoy crew are necessary for both methods.

Front 1570

What color is the last shot?

Back 1570

Red

Front 1571

What is used to steady the ship on during the final approach leg of an anchorage?

Back 1571

The conning officer should aim the ship towards the head bearing.

Front 1572

What joins two shots of anchor chain?

Back 1572

Detachable link

Front 1573

What best describes the swing circle?

Back 1573

A circle with a radius equal to the length of anchor chain plus the length of the ship. This the maximum radius that the ship’s stern can swing about the anchor point.

Front 1574

If the towing vessel drifts faster than the vessel to be towed, the towing vessel should _______.

Back 1574

Approach from leeward

Front 1575

What is generally used for heavy sea towing because of ease in handling and minimal storage requirements?

Back 1575

Towing wire

Front 1576

What are general safety precautions during UNREP?

Back 1576

"1. Only essential personnel are allowed at a transfer station during replenishment.

Front 1577

What will be sounded by the ship initiating an emergency breakaway to notify other ships in the vicinity?

Back 1577

Six short blasts.

Front 1578

What is the color of the 40-foot canvas or nylon marker on the phone and distance line?

Back 1578

Yellow (Go Read Your Book With Glasses…or the other one.)

Front 1579

What color is the Rigger's hardhat?

Back 1579

Blue

Front 1580

What are Winch Operators also known as?

Back 1580

Inhaul/outhaul operators.

Front 1581

What are the responsibilities of the Winch operator?

Back 1581

"Don brown helmets

Front 1582

What is the preferred method of Replenishment at Sea?

Back 1582

(guess) VERTREP

Front 1583

What is a line with a lead weight attached to a shot line that is heaved over to the receiving ship in daylight?

Back 1583

Shot line

Front 1584

Inspection of VERTREP handling equipment includes:

Back 1584

Forklift trucks, Cargo nets, Pendants and hoisting slings

Front 1585

Who supervises all firefighting evolutions concerning helicopter operations?

Back 1585

DCA

Front 1586

What method is particularly advantageous for small-scale replenishment by eliminating the time required for approach hook-up and disconnect.

Back 1586

VERTREP

Front 1587

Which crewmember is a qualified pilot who coordinates the activities of all personnel involved in helicopter operations?

Back 1587

(unofficial) Air Boss

Front 1588

What is the Stabilized Glide Slope Indicator?

Back 1588

Projects a tri-colored (green, amber, red) beam of light centered on a safe glide path to the ship.

Front 1589

How does atmospheric pressure affect helicopter lift during VERTREP?

Back 1589

When temperature increases, lift decreases. When pressure increases, lift increases. Therefore, a cold, dry day with high barometric pressure is ideal.

Front 1590

What pieces of life raft equipment are stored, rolled up, and snapped to the inside of the raft canopy and should be snapped to the top of the canopy on the outside?

Back 1590

"FALSE: Rain catcher tube, buoyancy compensator, desalting kit

Front 1591

How can overcrowding of life rafts be alleviated?

Back 1591

Have able-bodied personnel hang onto ropes over the side no longer than necessary, rotating personnel as needed.

Front 1592

What is correct instruction for entering the water from the ship's side?

Back 1592

"Be fully clothed

Front 1593

What report(s) does the Officer of the Deck receive during abandon ship?

Back 1593

Receives muster reports, classified material destruction reports, salvage and securing reports

Front 1594

Which statement about the condition of Exposure is true?

Back 1594

Symptoms of exposure include shivering, listlessness, indifference, and drowsiness. Treatment is to re-warm as soon as possible.

Front 1595

Shiphandling

Front 1596

Vertical distance from the waterline to the weatherdeck is called _______.

Back 1596

Freeboard

Front 1597

In U. S. waters, tugs typically use what type of tie-up methods?

Back 1597

Power tie-up, double headline, or single headline

Front 1598

Orders to the Lee Helm include what?

Back 1598

Engine Bell Orders, Pitch Orders, RPM Orders, Engine Bell and RPM Orders Only

Front 1599

The station taken by the ship, which is assigned to recover any person who falls overboard from the ships engaged in CONREP, is called the _ ______.

Back 1599

Lifeguard

Front 1600

When underway, there are areas of decreased water pressure (suction) amidships and increased water pressure at the bow and stern, as the results of the differences in velocity of the flow of water around the hull called _ ______.

Back 1600

Venturi Effect

Front 1601

Both the Bridge Helmsman and Aftersteering Helmsman must be qualified IAW the applicable Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS) as _ ______.

Back 1601

Master Helmsman

Front 1602

During an UNREP, the phone and distance line is hand tended to ensure proper tension is maintained and has colored markers every _______.

Back 1602

20

Front 1603

The basic format for issuing standard commands is:

Back 1603

Command, Reply, Report Acknowledgment

Front 1604

As the Conning Officer, whom must you notify prior to tensioning or detensioning the rigs?

Back 1604

The Helm

Front 1605

In preparation of the ship breaking away, the ship needs to display the appropriate flaghoist. The receiving ship will display the:

Back 1605

Preparatory

Front 1606

OOD emergency actions include:

Back 1606

Pass the word, Maneuver the ship, Notify ships in company, preparing to abandon ship if necessary

Front 1607

Who establishes modified casualty control procedures under circumstances of restricted maneuvering?

Back 1607

CO

Front 1608

When would the GQ alarm sound during a fire?

Back 1608

After the word of Fire is passed

Front 1609

At what angle should a ship attempt to impact another when a collision is inevitable?

Back 1609

The narrowest angle possible

Front 1610

What is the first action of a Conning Officer after a grounding incident?

Back 1610

Stop the engines

Front 1611

Who advises the CO of possible courses of action in a grounding situation?

Back 1611

Navigator

Front 1612

Who is responsible for maintaining the General Emergency Bill?

Back 1612

Engineering Officer

Front 1613

Who is responsible for maintaining the Abandon Ship Bill?

Back 1613

1st LT

Front 1614

Which recovery turn do submarines use?

Back 1614

Y Backing procedure

Front 1615

Which recovery turn is used at night and in reduced visibility?

Back 1615

Williamson Turn

Front 1616

Which rescue boat crewmember is responsible for signal flares, semaphore flags, multipurpose light, and portable radio?

Back 1616

Signalman/Bow Hook

Front 1617

Who is responsible for notifying the OOD of a victim’s position in the water?

Back 1617

Forward Lookout

Front 1618

During a man overboard recovery, the CIC Watch Officer will ensure the DRT is shifted to _ ______ yards per square inch.

Back 1618

200 yds/in

Front 1619

The current ship's head is 359T. The navigator recommends coming to course 005 T. What standard command would you give to change course from 359T to 005T?

Back 1619

Come Right, steer course 005 degrees

Front 1620

While conducting a port turn to 090T using left 20 degrees rudder, the Conning Officer decides to reduce the rudder to left 15 degrees. What command would accomplish this?

Back 1620

Ease your rudder left 15 degrees, steady course 090 degrees

Front 1621

When making its breakaway after all lines are clear, the approach ship will increase speed...

Back 1621

Moderately (from 3-5 knots), then order the rudder over outboard in small steps from 2 degrees to 4 degrees.

Front 1622

Who must attempt to maintain station until all lines are clear during an emergency breakaway?

Back 1622

Conning Officer

Front 1623

Your ship is in the process of making an approach on a delivery ship for CONREP, and you are at 1,200 yards with a lateral separation of 2 degrees.

Back 1623

Using the Radian Rule, what will be the lateral separation between ships when you are alongside (provided both ships continue to proceed along the ordered UNREP heading)? 40yds

Front 1624

CONREP breakaway procedures/maneuvering considerations include all of the following except:

Back 1624

Propeller wash effects from the approach ship’s departure

Front 1625

Using the Radian Rule, if you desire 150 feet of lateral separation between ships when alongside, what should the angle of separation be when your ship approaches the delivery ship on the ordered UNREP course from astern at 1,000 yards?

Back 1625

3 degrees

Front 1626

What does the Romeo flag closed up indicate on the receiving ship during an FAS?

Back 1626

Commencing my approach

Front 1627

When alongside the control ship during CONREP, the Conning Officer should order ship's heading changes . . .

Back 1627

Using ordered course to steer in small increments

Front 1628

What does the Bravo flag closed up indicate during an FAS?

Back 1628

Transferring flammable liquids

Front 1629

Which technique is used to ensure adequate lateral separation when making an approach to the CONREP delivery ship?

Back 1629

Radian rule

Front 1630

In order to reduce damage during an unavoidable collision it is best to...

Back 1630

maneuver ship to provide the narrowest angle blow possible

Front 1631

When hauling out of formation during an engineering casualty, what does one short blast of the whistle indicate _______ (International Rules), _______ (Inland Rules)?

Back 1631

I’m altering my course to starboard; I intend to leave you on my port side

Front 1632

When hauling out of formation during an engineering casualty, what do two short blasts of the whistle indicate _______ (International Rules), _______ (Inland Rules)?

Back 1632

I’m altering my course to port; I intend to leave you on my starboard side

Front 1633

What are the three basic recovery methods used for man overboard rescues?

Back 1633

Helicopter, shipboard, and small boat recoveries

Front 1634

What do general procedures for a small boat recovery include?

Back 1634

"Put the rudder over full toward the side from which the victim fell

Front 1635

What is an example of external force?

Back 1635

Wind, current, tugboats, pilots

Front 1636

Rudder effectiveness is a function of speed and _ ______.

Back 1636

Rudder angle

Front 1637

With CRP propellers, a ship's speed through the water is a function of both shaft rotation rate and ordered _ ______.

Back 1637

Screw Pitch

Front 1638

The entire surface area of the ship above the waterline that wind acts upon is the _ ______.

Back 1638

Sail Area

Front 1639

With fixed blade propellers, a ship's speed through the water is a function of the fixed blade pitch and the _____ rate.

Back 1639

shaft rotation

Front 1640

Weather and the Watchstander

Front 1641

A widespread body of air ranging from several hundred to several thousand miles in diameter, where the temperature and moisture conditions on a horizontal plane are very similar is a(n):

Back 1641

Air mass

Front 1642

What piece of weather equipment is used to measure atmospheric pressure in inches of mercury or millibars?

Back 1642

Barometer

Front 1643

What is the primary tool used to minimize the risk of ship damage from extratropical and tropical storms, high seas, and sea ice?

Back 1643

OTSR

Front 1644

In the Northern Hemisphere, if your ship is caught in the dangerous semi-circle of a hurricane, bring the true wind onto the _______ and keep it there, making as much headway as possible.

Back 1644

STBD Bow

Front 1645

Which Hurricane Condition of Readiness (COR) is issued when destructive winds are possible within 48 hours?

Back 1645

Condition three

Front 1646

Which piece of weather equipment is used to measure relative humidity?

Back 1646

Psychrometer

Front 1647

What is a WEAX?

Back 1647

A weather forecast tailored for a battle group’s area of operations

Front 1648

During periods of heavy weather and while inport, the OOD should keep the CO informed of the conditions of readiness, request permission to hoist in all boats, and secure gang way and _______.

Back 1648

"Keep the CO informed of any environmental changes as noted in the standing orders.

Front 1649

What is the difference between a typhoon and a hurricane?

Back 1649

A hurricane is associated with the western hemisphere, while a typhoon is associated with the eastern hemisphere.

Front 1650

What is an OPAREA Forecast?

Back 1650

A 24 hour forecast for established Navy Operating Areas

Front 1651

In the Northern Hemisphere, relative to the path of forward motion, the semi-circle to the right is called the _______.

Back 1651

Dangerous semi-cirlce

Front 1652

Terrestrial Navigation

Front 1653

How many miles per year does the Magnetic North Pole move?

Back 1653

6 to 25 miles per year

Front 1654

Where is the geographic North Pole located?

Back 1654

90 degrees North Latitude

Front 1655

What is approximately equivalent to one nautical mile?

Back 1655

One Minute of Latitude

Front 1656

What information is usually located in the lower left corner of a chart?

Back 1656

Edition

Front 1657

Which shows generalized shorelines and topography, and only principle aids to navigation and major landmarks?

Back 1657

Sailing Chart

Front 1658

What includes corrections for NIMA Charts and Publications, announces new editions, new products, and cancelled products, and lists worldwide radiobroadcast warnings from NAVAREA and HYDROPAC/HYDROLANT?

Back 1658

Notice to Mariners

Front 1659

What publication provides narrative descriptions of coastlines, harbors, winds, typical weather patterns, tides, currents, off-lying dangers, and other information not readily shown on a chart?

Back 1659

Sailing Directions

Front 1660

What type time is read from a sundial?

Back 1660

Apparent Solar Time

Front 1661

Standard Meridians are exactly divisible by

Back 1661

15 degrees

Front 1662

How many 15 degree wide time zones are defined? How many 7 1/2 degree wide time zones are defined?

Back 1662

24,0

Front 1663

What is applied to local time to obtain Greenwich Mean Time?

Back 1663

Time zone description

Front 1664

What is GMT when it is 0601 at 35 degrees N 75 degrees E?

Back 1664

"Zone Description + Zone Time = GMT

Front 1665

When transiting through time zones, traveling _______, set clocks ahead. Traveling _______, set clocks back.

Back 1665

East, West

Front 1666

Changes in local time and date are made solely for the purpose of

Back 1666

Convenience

Front 1667

What is the error that results from a one-minute error in time in a celestial computation?

Back 1667

15NM

Front 1668

What provides the navigator with precise time?

Back 1668

Quartz Chronometers

Front 1669

What is a current called that is caused by the gravitational interaction of the earth and moon, and to a lesser extent, the earth and sun?

Back 1669

Tidal current

Front 1670

What is the period of time where there is little or no water movement due to tidal currents?

Back 1670

Slack Water

Front 1671

What is the depth to which a vessel is submerged?

Back 1671

Navigational Draft

Front 1672

What does each of The 4 volumes of tide tables cover?

Back 1672

Different global regions

Front 1673

What team will compute tides and currents for the entire day and post graphs describing this information conspicuously on the bridge and in CIC when the ship is transiting restricted waters?

Back 1673

Navigation team

Front 1674

When reading a tidal graph, what is read across the bottom?

Back 1674

Time

Front 1675

What object should NOT be used to obtain a fix?

Back 1675

Buoy

Front 1676

What type of buoy is conical shaped?

Back 1676

Nun Buoys, primarily red and mark the right side of the channel.

Front 1677

What colors are used on Cardinal buoys?

Back 1677

Yellow and Black

Front 1678

What is the line where earth and sky appear to meet?

Back 1678

Horizon

Front 1679

What is the distance a light can be seen based upon the height of the light and the curvature of the earth?

Back 1679

Computed Range

Front 1680

A ship's magnetic compass aligns itself with the _______ component of the earth's magnetic field.

Back 1680

Horizontal component

Front 1681

What is the difference between true North and magnetic North?

Back 1681

Variation

Front 1682

What is the term for compass error resulting from installation in or on a steel ship?

Back 1682

Deviation

Front 1683

What is used on-board ship as the primary direction indicator?

Back 1683

Gyrocompass

Front 1684

Which does the gyrocompass seek?

Back 1684

True north

Front 1685

What gyro course must you steer to make good 355°T with a 4°W gyro error?

Back 1685

359 degrees

Front 1686

What is a position established at a specific time to a high degree of accuracy?

Back 1686

Fix

Front 1687

How many LOPs does it take to determine a fix?

Back 1687

3

Front 1688

What is the process of determining a ship's future position based solely upon its course and speed?

Back 1688

Dead Reckoning

Front 1689

How is Set and Drift calculated?

Back 1689

Current Triangle

Front 1690

What is a pre-determined bearing to an aid to navigation used by the Navigator and the OOD to make course changes?

Back 1690

Turn Bearing

Front 1691

When turning, what is the distance gained at right angles to the original course, measured from the line representing the original travel direction to the point of turn completion?

Back 1691

Transfer

Front 1692

When turning, what is the distance gained in the direction of the original course, measured from the place where the turn starts to the point of turn completion?

Back 1692

Advance

Front 1693

What is used in areas where a hazard to navigation must be passed close aboard, but is not visible to the eye, is poorly marked, or not marked at all?

Back 1693

Danger bearings

Front 1694

How many fixed objects are used to establish a danger bearing?

Back 1694

2

Front 1695

What is a position determined by crossing lines of position obtained at different times and advanced to a common time?

Back 1695

Running Fix

Front 1696

What is an advantage of using radar?

Back 1696

Used at night and low visibility, quick and accurate, can track other vessels, can be used at greater distances from land

Front 1697

What is the art of establishing a geographic position on the open sea by reference to geological features of the ocean floor?

Back 1697

Bathymetric Navigation

Front 1698

How far does sound travel in one second?

Back 1698

4800 feet per second

Front 1699

What should be used as a companion volume to the Coast Pilots and Sailing Directions?

Back 1699

World Port Index

Front 1700

What is GMT when the local time is 0900 and the time zone description is + 8?

Back 1700

1700

Front 1701

What is the zone description if you are located at 75 degrees west longitude?

Back 1701

5

Front 1702

What is the zone description if you are located at 62 degrees west longitude?

Back 1702

4

Front 1703

What is the zone description if you are located at 75 degrees east longitude?

Back 1703

-5

Front 1704

What is local time when it is 0900(Z) and the time zone description is + 4?

Back 1704

500

Front 1705

What is the nominal range of Cape Henry Light (Mo (U) 20s 164ft 15M) if visibility is 11.0 nm and the height of eye is 55 feet?

Back 1705

15nm

Front 1706

What denotes the preferred channel on a preferred channel buoy?

Back 1706

The Topmost color (buoys may have bands of red and green)

Front 1707

What is the computed range of Point Loma Light (Fl 15s 88ft 23M HORN), if visibility is 11 nm and your height of eye is 55 feet?

Back 1707

11NM.

Front 1708

You observe a range at 040 degrees. The true bearing of the range from the chart is 044 degrees. What is the gyro error?

Back 1708

4E, What you are steering = True +/- error, 40=44-4E

Front 1709

What is the algebraic sum of variation and deviation?

Back 1709

Compass error

Front 1710

What is the definition of the term "set"?

Back 1710

Direction that the ship is being pushed, measured from DR to the most recent fix.

Front 1711

What are radar limitations?

Back 1711

Subject to mechanical failure, radar bearing lines are inaccurate, susceptible to atmospheric disturbances

Front 1712

What navigation system was based on measuring the Doppler shift of the satellite radio signal broadcast as it transited the sky?

Back 1712

TRANSIT was first, GPS also

Front 1713

What is WGS-84?

Back 1713

Reference datum used for the United States Charts

Front 1714

DGPS uses an additional input from a _______ to minimize inherent error.

Back 1714

ground station

Front 1715

What ensures safety of people and goods coming in and out of the U.S. transported via the sea?

Front 1716

The concept of _______ navigation was conceived following the launch of Sputnik in 1957.

Back 1716

Satellite Navigation

Front 1717

The GPS allows users to calculate _______ by measuring time it takes for satellite’s radio transmissions traveling at the speed of light to reach the receiver.

Back 1717

Their position

Front 1718

How many satellites are required to determine precise latitude, longitude and altitude calculations?

Back 1718

4

Front 1719

A GPS fix with a Figure of Merit of greater than _______ cannot be used for navigation.

Back 1719

5

Front 1720

When utilizing GPS, a datum indicates _______.

Back 1720

Reference baseline

Front 1721

________ charts are created by scanning an existing paper chart.

Back 1721

Raster

Front 1722

The _______ continuously provides accurate dead reckoning positions, velocity, and attitude indications.

Back 1722

SINS

Front 1723

What measures the individual components of acceleration on-board ship?

Back 1723

gyro

Front 1724

A key advantage of electronic navigation is accurate display of _______.

Back 1724

Ability to display the ships current position

Front 1725

Celestial Navigation

Front 1726

What contains hourly tabulations of Greenwich Hour Angle and declination for three consecutive days?

Back 1726

Daily Pages

Front 1727

What is the purpose of the Increments and Corrections table in the Nautical Almanac?

Back 1727

Interpolation of GHA and declination

Front 1728

What is located on the front and back covers of the Nautical Almanac?

Back 1728

Altitude correction charts

Front 1729

What is used for solving nautical computations of altitude and azimuth and is formed by the great circles connecting the elevated pole, zenith of the observer's position, and a celestial body?

Back 1729

Navigational Triangle

Front 1730

What is another name for Celestial Equator?

Back 1730

Equinoctial

Front 1731

What is the difference between Celestial Hour Circles and Terrestrial Longitude?

Back 1731

Celestial Hour Cirles are measured only to the west and Terrestrial longitude is measured to the east and to the west.

Front 1732

What is a publication of astronomical data, designed primarily for marine navigation, that identifies the exact location of celestial bodies at a given time and day?

Back 1732

Nautical Almanac

Front 1733

What items are necessary to calculate time of sunset?

Back 1733

Nautical almanac and current position

Front 1734

What accurately describes how Declination is measured?

Back 1734

0 thru 90 degrees North and South of the Celestial Equator

Front 1735

Maneuvering Boards

Front 1736

What is used to compute speed, distance, and time?

Back 1736

E, r, m vectors; nomogram

Front 1737

What is used for accurate measurement of distance between two points on the maneuvering board?

Back 1737

Range scale

Front 1738

On the 2:1 scale the distance between each circle is:

Back 1738

2000yds

Front 1739

Which scale is most effective and most often used for measuring speed?

Back 1739

0.209027778

Front 1740

Ownship is on course 245°T. Lookout reports a contact bearing 047°R. What is the true bearing of the contact?

Back 1740

245+047 = 292°T

Front 1741

Ownship is heading 217°T. Lookout reports a contact bearing 254°R. What is the true bearing of the contact?

Back 1741

217+254-360=111°T

Front 1742

Ownship is on course 310°T. The radar operator reports a contact bearing 235°T. The contact’s course is determined to be 100°T. What is the target angle?

Back 1742

360-Contact’s Course-(Contact’s True Bearing-180)=315R

Front 1743

Ownship is on course 345°T. The lookout reports a contact bearing 047°R. The contact’s course is determined to be 270°. What is the target angle?

Back 1743

360-Contact’s Course-(Contact’s Relative Bearing + O/S Course -180)=360-270-345+047-180=332

Front 1744

What is DRM?

Back 1744

Direction of Relative Motion

Front 1745

What two items of information are marked on the nomogram when determining SRM?

Back 1745

time and distance

Front 1746

How many degrees must you add or subtract to the DRM when solving for CPA?

Back 1746

90

Front 1747

Which statement(s) are correct when referring to the e-r vector?

Back 1747

Own ship’s course and speed

Front 1748

To take station on the guide, what information will be needed to reach a solution to get to station?

Back 1748

Guide’s course & speed

Front 1749

In what direction is the r-m vector drawn?

Back 1749

"Same direction as contact’s relative motion

Front 1750

A search turn can only be executed from which type of formation?

Back 1750

Line abreast

Front 1751

Which ship automatically becomes the guide when executing a search turn?

Back 1751

The ship outboard of the turn (first ship to turn)

Front 1752

When maneuvering in formation, what must be taken into account by the OOD and all watchstanders?

Back 1752

"Position and course and speed of other ships particularly the guide

Front 1753

What are the limitations on the amount of wheel in a column formation?

Back 1753

180 for a column; 90 for a line abreast; 30 for a diamond

Front 1754

When wheeling in a column formation, the guide will automatically shift to _______.

Back 1754

Leading ship

Front 1755

What information is required to plot screen sectors?

Back 1755

Ranges and bearings/sector barriers

Front 1756

To make an accurate avoiding course recommendation, what information needs to be verified prior to the recommendation?

Back 1756

Contact course and speed ; Own ship course and speed

Front 1757

What must be verified to have an accurate desired wind solution?

Back 1757

C, S, rel wind speed, rel wind direction

Front 1758

Combat Systems and Maritime Warfare

Front 1759

Combat Systems Fundamentals

Front 1760

Military chiefs of the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marines serve collectively as the principal military advisers to the President, Secretary of Defense and the NSC as part of what organization?

Back 1760

Joint Chiefs of Staff

Front 1761

Which type of organization is organized geographically or functionally and composed of U.S. combat forces from two or more services, with a broad and continuing mission?

Back 1761

Unified Command

Front 1762

Which chain of command is comprised of forces from one or more services organized to accomplish an assigned task and is not a permanent structure?

Back 1762

The Operational Chain of Command

Front 1763

Which type of command officer has tactical control of resources assigned to him and has the power to exercise command by negation over subordinate commanders?

Back 1763

AB

Front 1764

Subjective determinations of the ease with which an adversary could initiate an attack against task groups are known as

Back 1764

Tactical Situations (TACSITS).

Front 1765

What is a directive for operations extending over a considerable period of time and usually extending over a large geographical area?

Back 1765

OPLAN

Front 1766

What is a formatted message to order a specific task, and/or exchange essential information required to control a force at sea?

Back 1766

OPTASK

Front 1767

What types of antenna can operate on two or more frequencies simultaneously?

Back 1767

Broadband

Front 1768

What Single Audio Systems (SAS) features permits operation even when experiencing problems, can cause system damage if implemented, and therefore requires the CO's permission?

Back 1768

Bypass feature

Front 1769

What Single Audio System features permits rapid restoration of limited communications following total failure or battle damage?

Back 1769

EMERGENCY PATCH

Front 1770

What is the battle group communications plan that lists all assigned battle group frequencies and their designated uses?

Back 1770

OPTASK COMM

Front 1771

What is derived from the OPTASK COMM by the ship's Communications Officer and specifies where circuits are patched?

Back 1771

Shipboard Comms Plan

Front 1772

What is the condition imposed to reduce voice and record message traffic so that essential traffic may be handled efficiently?

Back 1772

Minimize

Front 1773

The Navy SATCOM program consists of which three types of satellites?

Back 1773

Ultra High Frequency Follow-On (UHF), Fleet Satellite Communications (FLTSATCOM), and Milstar

Front 1774

What satellite subsystems is a two-way, command and control communications system used primarily to exchange Over-the-Horizon (OTH) Targeting information?

Back 1774

OTCIXS

Front 1775

What satellite subsystems is a one-way, from shore to ship, command and control communications system that is the primary source for ships receiving Tomahawk mission plans?

Back 1775

TADIXS

Front 1776

What satellite subsystem was created to deliver each ship its daily messages and still ensure timely delivery of important message traffic?

Back 1776

Fleet Broad Cast

Front 1777

What process is used on the Fleet Broadcast that allows up to 15 independent channels of PC information to be received on a single frequency?

Back 1777

Time Division Multi-plexing

Front 1778

What satellite subsystem multiplexes several SATCOM circuits onto a single 25 kHz bandwidth channel?

Back 1778

UHF Dama Subsystem

Front 1779

What is a standard telephone that can be encrypted for use on security levels up to Secret?

Back 1779

Secure Telephone Unit STU-III

Front 1780

The most important factor in determining a JTIDS Network is establishing the _______.

Back 1780

Net Time Reference

Front 1781

A unit is usually selected to be the Gridlock Reference Unit because it is considered to have the _______.

Back 1781

Best Navigational Data

Front 1782

Cooperative Engagement Capability (CEC) is a system of hardware and software allowing the sharing of _______ radar data on among ships.

Back 1782

AIR TARGET

Front 1783

Select the aircraft that is equipped with Link-11 capability.

Back 1783

P3-C

Front 1784

In radio waves, what is wavelength?

Back 1784

The distance in space occupied by one wave

Front 1785

In radio waves, what is amplitude?

Back 1785

Height of the wave crest above the reference line (middle of the wave: inbetween crest and trough)

Front 1786

In radio waves, what is frequency?

Back 1786

Number of cycles generated in one second

Front 1787

What is the reduction in strength of a radio frequency wave caused by either scattering or absorption?

Back 1787

Attenuation

Front 1788

What is created when air temperature differences form a channel through which electromagnetic signals travel greater than expected distances?

Back 1788

Duct

Front 1789

What happens when a radio wave passes from a less dense to a denser medium?

Back 1789

It is refracted toward the normal

Front 1790

What frequency band does the Navy use primarily for tactical line of sight communications, satellite communications, and some surveillance radars?

Back 1790

UHF

Front 1791

What frequency band is used primarily for bridge-to-bridge communications and helicopter/amphibious operations?

Back 1791

VHF

Front 1792

What frequency band requires large shore-based antennas?

Back 1792

SHF

Front 1793

Which term is the rate at which pulses are transmitted, given in hertz or pulses per second and is the reciprocal of pulse repetition time?

Back 1793

Pulse Repetition Frequency

Front 1794

A radar system's bearing resolution is determined by _______.

Back 1794

Horizontal Beam Width

Front 1795

The ability for equipment to operate at different frequencies over a specific range is _______.

Back 1795

Frequency Agility

Front 1796

Snell's Law states that a sound ray, going from one region to a second region will change direction in proportion to its change in _______.

Back 1796

Velocity

Front 1797

Which path is formed as the result of a sound ray leaving the source in a positive gradient, bending upward to the surface, reflecting downward, and continuing refraction toward sea surface?

Back 1797

Surface Duct

Front 1798

What is the sonar operator's ability to detect a valid signal (reflected echo) as displayed by the system?

Back 1798

Recognition Differential (RD)

Front 1799

How many degrees of coverage can a towed sonar obtain?

Back 1799

320

Front 1800

Who leads the Shipboard Noise Control Team?

Back 1800

ASWO

Front 1801

Propulsion and auxiliary machinery within the ship generate structure-borne noise known as _______ noise.

Back 1801

SELF

Front 1802

The main source of propeller noise is _______ noise caused by collapsing water vapor made by the rotating propeller blades.

Back 1802

CAVITATION

Front 1803

What forces bleed air through holes in the propeller blade tips?

Back 1803

Prairie System

Front 1804

_______ guns use propellant energy to open the breech, eject empty cartridge cases, and load subsequent rounds.

Back 1804

Automatic

Front 1805

What is the maximum distance a projectile will travel when fired at the optimum elevation angle?

Back 1805

Maximum gun range

Front 1806

The _______ is the end through which a MK 45 5” gun is loaded.

Back 1806

Breech

Front 1807

The MK 86 gunfire control system is associated with what gun?

Back 1807

5''/54 MK 45

Front 1808

What deals with the factors that push a projectile off its flight path?

Back 1808

EXTERIOR BALLISTIC

Front 1809

What includes consideration of powder combustion and pressure within the gun?

Back 1809

INTERIOR BALLISTICS

Front 1810

Which layer of the atmosphere is responsible for reflecting and refracting frequencies below 30 MHZ and is the most important region for low frequency, long distance, and point-to-point communications?

Back 1810

Ionosphere

Front 1811

In discussing radio frequency propagation paths, what is not a component of the Ground Wave?

Back 1811

"A ground wave is a radio wave that travels near the earth's surface. It is composed of the following component waves:

Front 1812

KY 58 VINSON, KYV 5 ANDVT, KG 84, and KWR 46 are examples of which type of communication equipment?

Back 1812

CRYPTO

Front 1813

What describes the Single Audio System's two operation modes?

Back 1813

Each SAS circuit operates in one of two modes, Cipher or Plain.

Front 1814

What is an example of a directional antenna?

Front 1815

Which factor impacts initial velocity most significantly?

Back 1815

Bore Erosion

Front 1816

What is the first step in solving the gunfire control problem?

Back 1816

GATHER

Front 1817

What type of sonar receives and displays noise being generated by a contact?

Back 1817

PASSIVE

Front 1818

Background noise in the ocean environment generated by weather, biologics, and shipping is known as _______ noise.

Back 1818

AMBIENT

Front 1819

Naval Weapons and Combat Systems

Front 1820

The MK15 CIWS executes what autonomous engagement sequences?

Back 1820

Search, Detect, Assign, Track, Kill

Front 1821

Which Electronic Warfare area includes actions taken to ensure friendly effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum despite enemy use of EW?

Back 1821

Electronic Counter-Countermeasures

Front 1822

Which Electronic Countermeasure system provides early warning of threat weapon system and targeting platform emitters and targeting information to own ship hard-kill weapons?

Back 1822

SLQ-32

Front 1823

Which Electronic Countermeasure system is a deck-mounted, mortar-type countermeasure system used to launch chaff against a variety of threats?

Back 1823

MK 36 SRBOC

Front 1824

What system detects and automatically tracks air contacts squawking mode II and emergency responses?

Back 1824

Beacon Video Processor (BVP)

Front 1825

What system is a line-of-sight, beacon-type, air navigation aid that provides slant range, bearing, and identification information?

Back 1825

URN-25 TACAN

Front 1826

The _______ uses electronic or electromechanical means to produce torpedo decoy signals.

Back 1826

SLQ-25 NIXIE

Front 1827

Which of the below is an air dropped, self-contained sonar used to detect submarines?

Back 1827

Sonobouy types: DICASS or DIFAR

Front 1828

What weapon does LAMPS MK III SH-60B use against surface targets?

Back 1828

Hellfire

Front 1829

How does NTDS provide automatic exchange of air, surface, and subsurface track information?

Back 1829

Digital Data Link

Front 1830

In the Detect to Engage sequence, what is the process of accurately determining and predicting target position?

Back 1830

Tracking

Front 1831

In Navy Tactical Data System (NTDS) symbology, a square is the symbol for what?

Back 1831

Unknown Surface

Front 1832

What color represents the projectile that is used for dummy/drill/inert ammunition for handling and loading training?

Back 1832

GOLD

Front 1833

What system stores and pneumatically launches the MK 46 and MK 54 torpedo subsurface warfare weapons from a variety of surface combatants including FFG, DD, CG, and DDG class ships.

Back 1833

MK32 SVTT

Front 1834

What type of missile was the Submarine Vertical Launch System (VLS) developed to fire?

Back 1834

Tomahawk

Front 1835

What best describes active homing?

Back 1835

It relies on a transmitter within the weapon to provide the source of energy on which the weapon will home

Front 1836

What best describes semi-active homing?

Back 1836

It relies on the launch platform to provide the source of energy on which the weapon will home

Front 1837

Which missile is the land attack weapon of choice for the U.S Department of Defense because of its long range, lethality, and extreme accuracy?

Back 1837

Tomahawk

Front 1838

What are the three main components of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile (TLAM)?

Back 1838

Guidance Section, Warhead, Sustainer Section

Front 1839

What is a lightweight torpedo capable of performing Direct Search and Non-Direct Search?

Back 1839

MK 50

Front 1840

What is a lightweight torpedo that can be launched from torpedo tubes, fixed and rotary wing aircraft, and ASROC missiles?

Back 1840

MK46

Front 1841

What is the Navy's only torpedo used to combat nuclear submarines and high performance surface ships?

Back 1841

MK48 ADCAP

Front 1842

What provides the fleet with all weather, rapid response MK 46 Mod 5 torpedo delivery against intermediate range threat submarines?

Back 1842

Vertically Launched ASROC (VLA)

Front 1843

What ammunition does not require a Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance condition set when loading or transporting?

Back 1843

HERO SAFE

Front 1844

What feature of the AEGIS weapon system allows a particular system to function when all or part of its components have been damaged?

Back 1844

Graceful Degradation

Front 1845

What is the purpose of the MK 36 SRBOC system?

Back 1845

Launch Chaff

Front 1846

A Hostile Air contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 1846

Triangle Upper Half

Front 1847

An Unknown Surface contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 1847

Square

Front 1848

A Friendly Air contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 1848

Upper half of a circle

Front 1849

A Man Overboard would be displayed by the following NTDS symbology:

Back 1849

Concentric Circles

Front 1850

A Friendly Surface contact would display the following NTDS symbology:

Back 1850

Complete Circle

Front 1851

What is the term given to the assignment of the optimum weapon for a given threat?

Back 1851

Weapons Pairing

Front 1852

What is the primary use of a clearing charge?

Back 1852

It is used during a misfire to clear a fouled bore

Front 1853

What projectile is used primarily for Anti-Air Warfare?

Back 1853

HE-VT

Front 1854

In semi-active homing, the _______ provides the energy on which the weapon homes.

Back 1854

Launch Platform

Front 1855

In active homing, the _______ provides the energy on which the weapon homes.

Back 1855

Weapon

Front 1856

What is used for torpedo training and has all the characteristics of a live MK 46 torpedo except a warhead?

Back 1856

EXTORP

Front 1857

Naval Platforms

Front 1858

Which class of aircraft carrier has nuclear propulsion?

Back 1858

Nimitz

Front 1859

Which aircraft is used as a fighter/interceptor?

Back 1859

F 18

Front 1860

Which aircraft is used in Airborne Early Warning (AEW)?

Back 1860

E2C Hawkeye

Front 1861

Which aircraft is called the Osprey?

Back 1861

V-22

Front 1862

Which aircraft is called the Super Cobra?

Back 1862

AH-1

Front 1863

Which aircraft is called the Fighting Falcon?

Back 1863

F-16

Front 1864

Which aircraft is called the Sentry?

Back 1864

E-3

Front 1865

Which aircraft is called the Stratofortress?

Back 1865

B-52

Front 1866

Which weapon is used for air-to-air delivery?

Back 1866

sidewinder

Front 1867

Which weapon is used for air-to-surface delivery?

Back 1867

maverick

Front 1868

What weapon systems are common to ARLEIGH BURKE class Flight I destroyers but not Flight IIA?

Back 1868

2 Harpoon quad-canister missile launchers

Front 1869

What is the primary mission of Command Ships?

Back 1869

Provide command and control for Fleet Commanders

Front 1870

What is the general purpose of amphibious assault ships (LHA or LHD)?

Back 1870

Embark, deploy, and land elements of a Marine landing force

Front 1871

What is NOT true for both LSD and LPD type ships?

Back 1871

Capable of carrying 4 LCACs, as well as providing dock and repair services for LCACs and other classes of vehicles

Front 1872

What types of radar can be found on the LPD 17?

Back 1872

SPQ-9B (fire control)

Front 1873

What will not be carried by the LPD 17?

Back 1873

10 LCUS

Front 1874

Which craft are used as long-range insertion/extraction platforms for SEAL/marine operations?

Back 1874

PC-1 CYCLONE

Front 1875

Which craft is designed to ride on a cushion of air and achieve speeds of over 40 kts on open water and over 20 mph on land?

Back 1875

LCAC

Front 1876

What is the primary mission of the AO class ships?

Back 1876

Deliver fuel to underway units

Front 1877

What is the primary mission of the AS-39 class ships?

Back 1877

To service Los Angeles class SSN’s

Front 1878

Which weapons are found aboard the Emory S. Land class ships?

Back 1878

20 MM machine guns

Front 1879

What is the primary mission of the ARS-50 class ships?

Back 1879

Salvage and ocean towing.

Front 1880

What designates vessels as part of the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force (NFAF), also called United States Naval Ship (USNS)

Back 1880

distinguished by blue and gold bands painted on their funnels. The prefix ''T'' at the front of their ship class designates an MSC asset.

Front 1881

What is the primary mission of the LOS ANGELES and SEAWOLF class submarines?

Back 1881

USW

Front 1882

What weapon systems are used by the nuclear attack submarines?

Back 1882

Tomahawks, MK-48 Torpedoes, and Mines

Front 1883

What is the primary mission of Nuclear Strategic Missile Submarines (SSBNs)?

Back 1883

Strategic deterrence

Front 1884

Maritime Warfare

Front 1885

Doctrine is most prominent at the _______ level.

Back 1885

Operational

Front 1886

What is the timely concentration, employment, and sustainment of military power at a speed and tempo our adversaries cannot match?

Back 1886

Strategic agility

Front 1887

_______ promotes national influence and access to critical global areas.

Back 1887

Forward presence

Front 1888

What provides organic Naval logistics for sustained Naval combat?

Back 1888

Sealift

Front 1889

Naval forces enjoy nearly unrestricted global _______ due to the high seas international status, and the right of innocent passage through territorial waters of countries we are at peace with.

Back 1889

Mobility

Front 1890

_______ operations defeat theater ballistic missiles, neutralize tactical cruise missiles, and provide for a joint air defense.

Back 1890

Theater air dominance

Front 1891

What is a Law of Armed Conflict general principle?

Back 1891

Only that degree and kind of force required to activate partial or comlete enemy submission is allowed.

Front 1892

One of the Law of Armed Conflict principles is _______.

Back 1892

Guarantees that violence is directed toward enemy forces.

Front 1893

Which of these are acts of perfidy?

Back 1893

White flag used to gain military advantage.

Front 1894

Who determines the response made to hostile acts and demonstrations of hostile intent?

Back 1894

The National Command Authority (NCA)

Front 1895

What area of the OODA Loop is the process of the commander's staff receiving raw intelligence?

Back 1895

Observation

Front 1896

What area of the OODA Loop is the analysis of past observations and actions coupled with an understanding of the adversary's intentions?

Back 1896

Orientation

Front 1897

What is the goal of offensive C2W?

Back 1897

To slow the adversary’s tempo by spreading out their decision cycle

Front 1898

Which level of destruction is when approximately 10-30 percent of personnel, equipment, and/or their functionality are casualties?

Back 1898

Neutralized

Front 1899

What is the process of denying information to adversaries regarding friendly capabilities or intentions by identifying indicators associated with planning and conducting military operations?

Back 1899

Operational Security (OPSEC)

Front 1900

What lists areas searched and is filed by Maritime Patrol aircraft after completed patrols?

Back 1900

Maritime Mission Analysis Summary Messages (PURPLE)

Front 1901

What type Intelligence is derived from foreign material exploitation and results from captured (or otherwise obtained) foreign equipment analysis?

Back 1901

Technical Intelligence (TECHINT)

Front 1902

What retains effective electromagnetic spectrum use by friendly forces?

Back 1902

Electronic Protection

Front 1903

Which ES Receiver provides selectivity, increased sensitivity, and an excellent capability for discrete signal analysis?

Back 1903

Narrowband

Front 1904

What is an umbrella term covering technologies that relate to production of a concentrated beam of electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?

Back 1904

Directed Energy (DE)

Front 1905

What is the deliberate radiation, re-radiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, or denial of electromagnetic energy in a manner intended to convey misleading information?

Back 1905

Electromagnetic deception

Front 1906

What Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) sources originate from interaction of own ships signals with elements of the ship's hull?

Back 1906

Structural

Front 1907

What Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) sources are limited by proper equipment design and maintenance?

Back 1907

Incidental

Front 1908

What produce Tactical Atmospheric Summaries (TAS) on electromagnetic conditions and range predictions for all radars an EW sensors?

Back 1908

Oceanography Division (OD)

Front 1909

What best describes CWC?

Back 1909

Acts as the central command authority for the entire battlegroup.

Front 1910

What is an organization of combatant ships tailored for a specific tactical mission?

Back 1910

Surface Action Group (SAG)

Front 1911

What best describes SUWC?

Back 1911

Responsible for planning and executing both offensive and defensive war-at-sea strikes as well as for SSC.

Front 1912

Who is responsible for the validity of information that flows over the Officer-in Tactical-Command Information Exchange System net to units in a particular geographic area?

Back 1912

FOTC

Front 1913

A means of expressing the inaccuracies inherent in detecting, locating, tracking, and reporting the position of a target is known as the _______.

Back 1913

AOU

Front 1914

A small, un-piloted aircraft able to help classify, localize and detect surface tracks is known as a _______.

Back 1914

UAV

Front 1915

Which weapon is the Navy’s primary Naval Gun Fire Support (NGFS) weapon?

Back 1915

5” Gun

Front 1916

What is a passive homing missile?

Front 1917

In a Hard Kill Requirement, what is the objective of the attack?

Back 1917

Sink the opposing force

Front 1918

Who makes the final determination of a suspect vessels disposition?

Back 1918

MIF Commander

Front 1919

What is the application of information, initiative, and decision force to attain maritime environment superiority or supremacy?

Back 1919

Battlespace dominance

Front 1920

What provide a mobile base for AW aircraft and have advanced facilities for command, control, and communications?

Back 1920

Carriers

Front 1921

What Electronic Warfare Aircraft (EW) has electronic attack (EA) capabilities?

Back 1921

BEA-6B Prowler

Front 1922

What is an Army AW system that provides air defense of ground forces and crucial assets against air-breathing threats and Theater Ballistic Missiles (TBM)?

Back 1922

Patriot Air Defense System

Front 1923

What is a mobile, helicopter transportable air defense system designed for combat conditions?

Back 1923

HAWK Defense System

Front 1924

What is the purpose of the Theater Ballistic Missile Defense (TBMD) system?

Back 1924

The TBMD system is intended to minimize vulnerability of U.S. forces and protect population areas against ballistic missile threats.

Front 1925

What officer controls the USW watch team during USW operations?

Back 1925

Undersea Warfare Evaluator

Front 1926

The commander at the scene of a contact in a USW situation is the ________.

Back 1926

SAC

Front 1927

The following is comprised of fixed, mobile, and deployable acoustic arrays providing vital tactical data to USW forces.

Back 1927

Integrated Undersea Surveillance System (IUSS)

Front 1928

What is the last known position of a submarine called?

Back 1928

DATUM

Front 1929

What organization develops and directs all plans involving submarine operations?

Back 1929

SUBOPAUTH

Front 1930

What refers to all methods that may be used to counter an enemy mining effort?

Back 1930

Mine Countermeasures

Front 1931

Mine fields that are laid in harbors, approaches, and straits under enemy control is known as ________.

Back 1931

Offensive

Front 1932

Mines that are usually anti-invasion in 10' to 40' water are classified as ________.

Back 1932

Very shallow water mines

Front 1933

A non-acoustic, laser based mine countermeasure system that detects and localizes floating and shallow water mines is called the _______.

Back 1933

ALMDS

Front 1934

What type of amphibious operation may be used to cause an enemy to misemploy forces?

Back 1934

Demonstration

Front 1935

Which phase of amphibious operations begins with issuance of the Initiating Directive?

Back 1935

Planning

Front 1936

Which of the below furnishes protection from air, surface, and subsurface threats?

Back 1936

Screening Group

Front 1937

In Amphibious Operations, the CATF is usually a _______ Officer.

Back 1937

Navy

Front 1938

What is defined as the time the first helicopter touches down in a landing zone?

Back 1938

L-Hour

Front 1939

Which type of breaker is the preferred for an amphibious operation?

Back 1939

Spilling

Front 1940

The following are the five phases of an Amphibious Operation - in order.

Back 1940

Planning, Embarkation, Rehearsal, Movement, Assault (PERMA)

Front 1941

The Combat Cargo Officer (CCO) is normally a _______.

Front 1942

What type amphibious operation loading achieves maximum utilization of troop and cargo space and is appropriate if an unopposed landing is anticipated?

Back 1942

Administrative

Front 1943

What type of amphibious operation loading utilizes space in a tactical manor so that equipment can be unloaded selectively?

Back 1943

Combat Loading

Front 1944

What are the two different methods of cargo stowage during an amphibious operation?

Back 1944

Horizontal stowage and vertical stowage

Front 1945

Which type of rehearsal is conducted by elements of an amphibious task force whose tasks are not intimately associated with those of the amphibious task force main body?

Back 1945

Separate Force Rehearsal

Front 1946

What is a characteristic of Rehearsal Plans?

Back 1946

Issued separately from the operation plan

Front 1947

During an Amphibious Operation, what groups include units required for mine clearance?

Back 1947

Advance Force Group

Front 1948

What prepares a general movement plan for the Amphibious Task Force (ATF)?

Back 1948

CATF

Front 1949

What organization is established on a command ship to control airspace within the Amphibious Objective Area (AOA) during the initial phase of an assault?

Back 1949

TACC

Front 1950

What is the largest of the Marine air-ground groups?

Front 1951

_______ is a geographical area designated for command and control purposes that encompasses the objective(s) to be secured by an amphibious task force

Back 1951

Amphibious Objective Area

Front 1952

What officer is designated by the amphibious task force commander to coordinate all the surface operations during multiple landings?

Back 1952

Central Control Officer

Front 1953

In Amphibious Operations, what staff organization coordinates all aircraft-to-shore movements for a colored beach?

Back 1953

Helicopter Direction Center

Front 1954

In Amphibious Operations, what type wave has an assigned time to cross the beach?

Back 1954

Scheduled

Front 1955

During an Amphibious Landing, how would Tactical Logistics Group (TACLOG) locate a specific piece of equipment requested by a unit ashore?

Back 1955

Using a serial number

Front 1956

During an Amphibious Landing, what unit is responsible for operations from the surf zone to high water mark?

Back 1956

Beach Party Team

Front 1957

A Sea Echelon assault allows an Amphibious Task Force (ATF) to operate from _______.

Back 1957

Over-The-Horizon (OTH

Front 1958

What report is provided to assault commanders giving them an indication of surf conditions at an amphibious landing site?

Back 1958

SUROB

Front 1959

What unit provides hydrographic survey data for a proposed landing beach?

Back 1959

SEAL Teams

Front 1960

The mission of Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) is to assist assault forces in seizing of an objective by destroying or neutralizing what:

Back 1960

"Shore installations opposing the approach of the ATF (missile sites, airfields, early warning radar)

Front 1961

How many versions of the MV-22 Osprey are being designed?

Back 1961

3

Front 1962

Marine Corps operating forces are drawn from what?

Back 1962

Fleet Marine Forces (FMF)

Front 1963

What is one of the missions of the Fleet Marine Force?

Back 1963

Seize or defend Advanced Naval Bases

Front 1964

Marine Corps operational control is vested in which two forces?

Back 1964

Fleet Marine Force Atlantic and Fleet Marine Force Pacific

Front 1965

What is a Marine organization drawn from the FMF to perform a specific mission?

Back 1965

Marine Air Ground Task Force

Front 1966

What is a task-organized, rapidly deployable, sea-based force optimized for forward presence and crisis response missions?

Back 1966

Maine Expeditionary Unit (MEU)

Front 1967

What is included in a Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF)?

Back 1967

Command element, ground combat element, aviation combat element, combat service support.

Front 1968

What is a vital part of the Marine Corps flexibility doctrine, can be rapidly forward deployed with significant combat power, and is sustainable for 30 days?

Back 1968

Maritime Propositioning Force (MPF)

Front 1969

What is the Marine Corps' only land prepositioning project?

Back 1969

Norway Prepositioning Program/Norway Air-Land MAGTF (NALM)

Front 1970

What consists of these subordinate Battalions: Headquarters and Service, Engineer Support, Landing Support, Maintenance, Medical, Dental, Motor Transport, and Supply?

Back 1970

Force Service Support Group (FSSG)

Front 1971

What is responsible for centralized management of intelligence collection tasks?

Front 1972

What is the Naval Surface Fire Support mission?

Front 1973

CIWS BLK-1B enables what additional capability?

Back 1973

Surface engagement capabilities

Front 1974

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), what type fire is delivered against targets masked by hills?

Back 1974

Defilade (reverse Slope)

Front 1975

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), which spotting method is characterized by the word ''Directions'' in the call for fire?

Back 1975

Aimpoint commands

Front 1976

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), gun spot elements, given in the following order, are deflection, range, and _______.

Back 1976

altitude

Front 1977

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) phrase indicates friendly forces are within 750 meters of the gun target?

Back 1977

Danger close

Front 1978

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) phrase indicates the impact of the last round was not observed by the spotter?

Back 1978

lost

Front 1979

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) phrase requests ship deliver high volume fire without further adjustment?

Back 1979

Fire for effect

Front 1980

What Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) command indicates the last salvo was fired with incorrect settings?

Back 1980

Neglect

Front 1981

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), what ship report indicates the moment of firing?

Back 1981

First Salvo or Shot

Front 1982

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), which area has the responsibility to maintain the plot of all known enemy forces and installations?

Back 1982

CIC

Front 1983

During Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS), who directs communications with the spotter?

Back 1983

Gunnery Liaison Officer

Front 1984

Engineering

Front 1985

Damage Control

Front 1986

Who is the Damage Control Officer?

Back 1986

The Chief Engineer

Front 1987

Who is directly responsible for all DC efforts and serves as the Ship's Gas Free Engineer?

Back 1987

The Damage Control Assistant (DCA)

Front 1988

The _______ supervises the training of all DCPOs.

Back 1988

DCA

Front 1989

Who acts as liaison with the base fire department during an inport casualty?

Back 1989

The Command Duty Officer

Front 1990

Which team renders emergency assistance to persons or activities outside the unit?

Back 1990

Rescue and assistance detail

Front 1991

Which team proceeds directly to the scene to assess and extinguish small fires?

Back 1991

The Rapid response team, Flying Squad

Front 1992

There are Crash and Salvage Teams on all _____.

Back 1992

Air Capable ships

Front 1993

Which is the correct statement in the treatment of a head wound?

Back 1993

Give no medications or fluid

Front 1994

Which is the correct statement in the treatment of an abdominal wound with an exposed organ?

Back 1994

Do not replace protruding abdominal organs.

Front 1995

Which is the correct statement in applying an indirect pressure point?

Back 1995

Do not use an indirect pressure point any longer then necessary.

Front 1996

Once a tourniquet is applied, it can be removed by medical ________________

Back 1996

when it is no longer required.

Front 1997

Compound fractures are described as how?

Back 1997

A fracture that the bone protrudes through the skin

Front 1998

When performing mouth-to-mouth artificial respiration, you give:

Back 1998

two slow ventilation 1 ½ seconds per breath.

Front 1999

The oropharyngeal airway is used only on unconscious victims to keep the airway open by:

Back 1999

keeping the tongue from closing (occluding) the air way

Front 2000

A symptom of shock is?

Back 2000

Breathing is shallow, rapid and irregular.

Front 2001

Excessive sweating may lead to dehydration causing ___________

Back 2001

heat cramps

Front 2002

The severity of a burn can be identified by the damage to the skin. What is the most severe level of burn?

Back 2002

3rd degree

Front 2003

A first-degree burn results in ______________

Back 2003

pidermal layer is irritated, reddened and tingling Skin is sensitive to touch and blanches with pressure pain is mild to severe

Front 2004

The proper way to remove a person from an electrical wire that cannot be de-energized immediately is to:

Back 2004

use a non conducting rope or stick to move the victim.

Front 2005

Morphine may be given to a person with a/any_____________

Front 2006

Which stretcher is best suited for vertical trunk extraction of the victim?

Back 2006

Neil Robertson

Front 2007

Which stretcher is used to transfer injured persons to and from boats? .

Back 2007

Stokes

Front 2008

During General Quarters (GQ), eating, drinking, and smoking are not allowed without the permission of the _______.

Back 2008

commanding officer

Front 2009

What protective clothing should be worn if combating a mainspace fire?

Back 2009

Fire fighting ensemble (FFE)

Front 2010

To don the SCBA, using the coat style method, start with the unit_________

Back 2010

valve downward

Front 2011

When using the coat style donning method, the belt and shoulder straps should be adjusted to carry the weight of the SCBA on your ______.

Back 2011

hips

Front 2012

You can access the 1MC from the following spaces.

Back 2012

Pilot house, CCS, and import OOD Stations

Front 2013

What is the Captain's battle circuit commonly called?

Back 2013

XJA

Front 2014

CO2 extinguishes fire by _______.

Back 2014

reducing oxygen to the point combustion stops

Front 2015

The component that activates the CO2 system is the _______.

Back 2015

pull cable/pull box

Front 2016

Halon is pressurized to 600-675 psig at 70°F with _______ gas.

Back 2016

nitrogen

Front 2017

Which pressurized gas provides the initiating force for opening the discharge control valve on Halon 1301 cylinders?

Back 2017

Carbon dioxide

Front 2018

From what piping system does the dry type magazine sprinkler system receive water for actuation?

Back 2018

Fire Main

Front 2019

The fire protection system used on the ship to protect the VLS modules is the ______?

Back 2019

deluge system

Front 2020

What percentage of grease, dust, and lint particles are removed from the air stream passing through the Gaylord Hood?

Back 2020

0.95

Front 2021

When the fusible links in the APC Fire Extinguishing System melt what happens?

Back 2021

Actuates discharge of APC

Front 2022

What is maximum effective range of a CO2 extinguisher?

Back 2022

4-6 feet

Front 2023

The AFFF cylinder is charged to _______.

Back 2023

100

Front 2024

Where does Casualty Power originate from?

Back 2024

Terminals located on each side of the ships swichboards

Front 2025

Casualty power is rigged and connected IAW casualty power doctrine, under the supervision of the _______.

Back 2025

Ships electricians

Front 2026

Which portable blower is powered by ship's AC power?

Back 2026

Box fan

Front 2027

The Box Fan can be used to expel all but _______ from spaces.

Back 2027

explosive gases

Front 2028

What is a DZUS key used for?

Back 2028

Opening aircraft panels

Front 2029

What tool is used to pry, pound, pull and puncture?

Back 2029

Halligan tool

Front 2030

The interior of a ship is divided into compartments by vertical walls, called _______.

Back 2030

Bulkheads

Front 2031

The fourth part of the compartment numbering system uses letter(s) to designate _______.

Back 2031

compartment usage

Front 2032

What material condition is set during darken ship to prevent light from showing outside the ship?

Back 2032

Dog zebra

Front 2033

Every time a Material Condition of Readiness is set, it is recorded in the _______.

Back 2033

Damage control closure log

Front 2034

Modified condition _____ is when a hatch is closed, but the access scuttle left open to allow for rapid access by personnel.

Back 2034

Zebra

Front 2035

The Damage Control Closure Log is normally maintained at _______.

Back 2035

DC Central

Front 2036

Compartment Check Off Lists contains the all of the following information EXCEPT?

Back 2036

Preventative maintenance for the fittings

Front 2037

A _______ test may be used for testing doorframes for signs of twisting or warpage.

Back 2037

string

Front 2038

The DDG 51 class has a _______ type firemain supplied by six fire pumps to supply seawater to the firemain at a rate of 1000 gpm.

Back 2038

vertical offset loop with horizontal separation

Front 2039

Space isolation and the ability to allow alignment to other spaces for dewatering are provided by _______.

Back 2039

Bulkhead isolation valves

Front 2040

The _____ system normally provides emergency dewatering of main engine rooms, auxiliary machinery rooms, and possibly other engineering spaces.

Back 2040

Main drainage

Front 2041

When an eductor has finished removing water from the space, it will begin removing _______.

Back 2041

air

Front 2042

_______ is used mainly to combat class "C" fires.

Back 2042

CO2

Front 2043

The type III AFFF balanced pressure proportioner is designed to pump how many gallons per minute (GPM) of AFFF concentrate?

Back 2043

65 gallons

Front 2044

Combustible materials that leave an ash are class _______ fires?

Back 2044

Alpha

Front 2045

________ is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture.

Back 2045

Flashpoint

Front 2046

A portable AFFF extinguisher lasts about 60 seconds and will vapor seal an area of about _______ square feet.

Back 2046

20

Front 2047

A class Bravo fire would normally be extinguished by _______.

Back 2047

Halon, AFFF, PKP

Front 2048

After completion of hot work, fire watches must remain on station for _______, or until the work area is cool to the touch, whichever is longer.

Back 2048

30 minutes

Front 2049

What equipment should a fire watch need?

Back 2049

Protective goggles or glasses, gloves, welding leathers (if needed), and appropriate firefighting equipment

Front 2050

What type of nuclear burst causes the most widespread destructive effects?

Back 2050

Airburst

Front 2051

What are the characteristics of a high altitude nuclear burst?

Back 2051

This burst produces an air blast, thermal radiation, an electromagnetic pulse, initial radiation, and atmospheric ionization.

Front 2052

What is the life expectancy of a C-2 canister in a chemical environment?

Back 2052

30 days

Front 2053

Living microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi) that cause disease in man, animals, and plant life are?

Back 2053

Pathogens

Front 2054

What high intensity radiac is used to conduct a Gross External Survey?

Back 2054

AN/PDR 43

Front 2055

In addition to G (nerve) and XV agents, _______ detects vesicant/blister agent vapors.

Back 2055

IPDS

Front 2056

What is the last space personnel pass through before entering the Total Protection Zone (TPZ) on a ship with CPS?

Back 2056

CPL Contaminated purge locker

Front 2057

What type of pipe patch is primarily used on low pressure (up to 150 psig) piping systems?

Back 2057

Soft Patch

Front 2058

Which is the most common prefabricated patch for holes with jagged edges protruding inboard used?

Back 2058

Box patch

Front 2059

The type of shoring that is the strongest and is normally used in vertical shoring of decks, bulkheads, and hatches is the direct compression, or _______ shore.

Back 2059

I type

Front 2060

What is considered the weakest and most inefficient type shoring?

Back 2060

H type

Front 2061

When using eductors to dewater a compartment, the actuating pressure should be at least _______ times the static head pressure on the discharge side of the eductor.

Back 2061

3

Front 2062

What is the maximum operating time of the P-100 portable pump before running out of fuel?

Back 2062

2.75 hours

Front 2063

The Electric Submersible Pump is designed to deliver 180 GPM of water at a static head of _______ feet.

Back 2063

50

Front 2064

When an object is immersed in water, it displaces a mass of water _______ the mass of the object.

Back 2064

equal

Front 2065

When a ship is floating in water what two sets of forces act on it?

Back 2065

Bouyancy and gravity

Front 2066

Weight added causes the center of buoyancy to ______.

Back 2066

Move up

Front 2067

What fire-extinguishing system provides protection for galley deep fat and doughnut fryers and their exhaust systems?

Back 2067

APC

Front 2068

What is the proper Gas Free testing sequence?

Back 2068

Fire Out, Compartment Ventilated, test for Oxygen, Flammable and Toxic gases.

Front 2069

What precautions must be followed prior to entering a space in which CO2 has been discharged?

Back 2069

Space must be ventilated and gas free testing complete

Front 2070

Which method is the last resort for treating serious bleeding?

Back 2070

Tourniquets

Front 2071

What are the procedures to treat an eye wound?

Back 2071

Cover eye with a paper cup, build up the dressing, cover both eyes.

Front 2072

What is the definition of infection?

Back 2072

Contamination with a disease producing organism or matter

Front 2073

Which stretcher is used to transfer injured persons to and from boats?

Back 2073

Stokes

Front 2074

What are symptoms of a second-degree burn?

Back 2074

Blisters mottled appearance severe pain

Front 2075

What are the fundamentals of First Aid?

Back 2075

Save a life, prevent further injury and preserve resistance to infection

Front 2076

Firemain supplies seawater for general firefighting and _______.

Back 2076

magazine sprinklers; cooling; ballasting

Front 2077

What is the final step for aligning the eductor?

Back 2077

Open suction valve

Front 2078

The automatic control system is designed to actuate the magazine sprinkler in response to _______.

Back 2078

a slow rise to a fixed temperature; a rapid rise in temperature

Front 2079

How is displacement calculated?

Back 2079

Using calculative draft marks and draft diagram

Front 2080

The inclination of a ship to one side, normally due to weight distribution, is called _______.

Back 2080

List

Front 2081

What is the volume of the watertight portion of the ship above the waterline?

Back 2081

Reserve buoyancy

Front 2082

Exposure to which chemical agent would show symptoms of drooling and convulsing?

Back 2082

Nerve agent

Front 2083

What actions should you take to help someone who is drooling and convulsing and has possibly been exposed to nerve agents?

Back 2083

"Check his/her mask

Front 2084

Which is true concerning the Counter Measure Washdown system?

Back 2084

"Supplied from the firemain

Front 2085

At what MOPP level will an inventory of CBR-D equipment be done?

Back 2085

MOPP level 1

Front 2086

At what MOPP level will you be required to don CPO suits and boots?

Back 2086

MOPP level 3

Front 2087

What is/are the preferred method(s) of dissemination and delivery of biological agents?

Front 2088

What is the lowest temperature at which sustained combustion will occur without the application of a spark or flame?

Back 2088

Ignition temperature

Front 2089

What are the three ways heat is transferred?

Back 2089

Conduction Convection and Radiation

Front 2090

What are the characteristics of class Alpha fire?

Back 2090

Organic, solids, leaves an ash.

Front 2091

What type of transfer occurs when heat is transferred across an intervening space and no material substance is involved?

Back 2091

Radiation

Front 2092

What is/are the methods for attacking a fire? Check all that apply.

Back 2092

Direct and Indirect

Front 2093

When attacking a fire, who directs the nozzleman in employment of the hose?

Back 2093

Attack team leader

Front 2094

When fighting fires, who determines the method of attack?

Back 2094

Scene Leader and Attack team leader

Front 2095

What best describes positive ventilation?

Back 2095

Suply on high, exhaust on low/off.

Front 2096

Which principle does the investigator follow?

Back 2096

Thoroughly Cautiously and quickly

Front 2097

What list contains the four primary safety procedures that should be observed when accessing a space?

Back 2097

Non-hinged, cracked door, crouched down narrow

Front 2098

What team uses the proximity suit?

Back 2098

Crash and Salvage

Front 2099

What Repair Locker area of responsibility includes the aft part of the ship?

Back 2099

Repair 3

Front 2100

Despite all your efforts, the installed AFFF system fails to operate. How can you provide foam to fight the fire without using the installed AFFF system?

Back 2100

In-line eductor with AFFF bucket.

Front 2101

Which portable fan produces static electricity and must be grounded prior to operation?

Back 2101

Ram Fan 2000

Front 2102

In Compartment 3-120-0-E what does the second zero refer to?

Back 2102

Relationship of space to center line

Front 2103

What is the minimum material condition of readiness required in peacetime, when open-ocean steaming in fair weather?

Back 2103

Yoke

Front 2104

Where are CCOLs located?

Back 2104

Inside main access to space with copies at each exit.

Front 2105

What is a benefit in material condition ZEBRA?

Back 2105

Facilitates rapid transit from one space to another = This is wrong but this is right according to CBT.

Front 2106

The sum of two angles cut for the shoal at the strongback connection points or the shore connections points should not exceed _______.

Front 2107

What is the rule of thumb for the length of shore and wedge?

Front 2108

What is a primary flooding boundary?

Front 2109

What are shoals used for in K-type shoring?

Front 2110

What source of energy normally supplies the S-type and Peri-Jet eductors?

Back 2110

Fire Main

Front 2111

Engineering Fundamentals

Front 2112

Which device is used to move any substance which flows or which can be made to flow?

Back 2112

Pump

Front 2113

Which tanks permit oil to stand while water and other impurities are separating?

Back 2113

Settling

Front 2114

What is a valve in a tank or compartment called that is primarily used to permit air to escape?

Back 2114

vent

Front 2115

Which type of pump is widely used for pumping non-viscous liquids?

Back 2115

Centrifugal…

Front 2116

Which small relief valve is primarily used as a warning device?

Back 2116

Sentinel valve

Front 2117

What is the appropriate color piping for the firemain system?

Back 2117

Red

Front 2118

Which governor is somewhat similar to the constant-speed governor?

Back 2118

Mechanical governor

Front 2119

What type of a governor limits the maximum speed at which an engine will operate?

Back 2119

Speed-limiting

Front 2120

Removing water and/or sediment from an oil tank is referred to as _______.

Back 2120

Stripping

Front 2121

The main relief valve relieves back to the _______.

Back 2121

Sump

Front 2122

What fluid property in the purification process is affected by decreased temperature and higher pressure?

Back 2122

Viscosity

Front 2123

The fuel oil transfer pump supplies unpurified fuel from the storage tank to the fuel oil _______?

Back 2123

Purifier

Front 2124

Where would you be able to locate the specific NSTM chapter that covers important safety precautions for handling fuel?

Back 2124

NSTM 541/542

Front 2125

An air bank is made of one or more _______.

Back 2125

Flasks

Front 2126

What is an engineering science that pertains to liquid pressure and flow?

Back 2126

Hydraulics

Front 2127

Which device converts fluid power to linear, or straight line, force and motion?

Back 2127

Cylinder actuator

Front 2128

The most common liquid contaminant in hydraulic systems is _______.

Front 2129

To which tank is oil transferred in the batch purification method using the purifier pump or transfer pump?

Back 2129

Settling

Front 2130

Which class ships have a coast down pump installed to provide oil to the reduction gear if a loss of system pressure occurs?

Back 2130

FFG

Front 2131

The function of the lube oil pump is to maintain most remote bearing lube oil pressure at _______ psi.

Back 2131

15-25

Front 2132

Which component is a form of coupling that connects or disconnects the engine to the Main Reduction Gear?

Back 2132

Clutch

Front 2133

What is the purpose of the propulsion drive system?

Back 2133

Propel the ship through the water

Front 2134

The Hydraulic Oil Power Module (HOPM) provides power to the _______.

Back 2134

Controllable Pitch Propeller

Front 2135

Manual controls and indications for the CPP are provided on the _______.

Back 2135

OD Box

Front 2136

Strut bearings are lubricated with _______.

Back 2136

Seawater

Front 2137

One of the advantages of the steam propulsion plant is _______.

Back 2137

Usefulness of auxiliary functions

Front 2138

What is one of the advantages of the Gas Turbine propulsion plant?

Back 2138

Quietness

Front 2139

One of the advantages of the diesel propulsion plant is the _______.

Front 2140

Which terms define energy in motion producing work?

Front 2141

What type of orders should be used whenever the plant is placed in operation for a scheduled underway, significant equipment testing, or for prolonged periods of auxiliary steaming?

Back 2141

Light off orders

Front 2142

Who must approve the final qualifications of all EOOW/ Oil King watch standers?

Back 2142

CO

Front 2143

What is the purpose of the MSFD?

Back 2143

Combating main space fires

Front 2144

In which spaces does the MSFD provide immediate actions in case of a major flammable liquid leak and Class Bravo fires?

Back 2144

Engine spaces

Front 2145

What type of orders does the Engineering Officer use to issue instructions to conduct routine and special evolutions that are planned for the evening and night watches, and to provide guidance on plant operations?

Back 2145

Engineering orders

Front 2146

Who supervises placing the ship in the material readiness condition of closure ordered by the Commanding Officer?

Back 2146

DCA

Front 2147

Which label is used if the instrument error is large or inconsistent on a pressure gage?

Back 2147

Out of commission label

Front 2148

What is the responsibility of the Division Officer with respect to the heat stress program?

Back 2148

Limit personnel’s heat exposure per established stay-times, except as approved by CO

Front 2149

With respect to the personal protective equipment program what is the responsibility of the Division Officer.

Back 2149

Ensure that assigned personnel are adequately trained on the type and proper use of PPE required for their work stations and enforce the proper use and wear of protective equipment within the spaces under his/her responsibility.

Front 2150

According to the OPNAVINST 5100.19d what two things must be done before conducting maintenance on installed electrical equipment?

Back 2150

De-energize and tag out

Front 2151

After the completion of hot work, what is required of the posted fire watch?

Back 2151

Ensure that the area where the work was performed is cool to the touch and then return every 3 minutes for a total of 30 minutes to verify the absence of a fire.

Front 2152

What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

Back 2152

Technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling, use, and disposal.

Front 2153

How many gallons of flammable liquid per space may be stored in the "In-use flammable liquid cabinets"?

Back 2153

30

Front 2154

If not an emergency, where is it allowed to discharge oily waste with oil content higher than 15 ppm?

Back 2154

Nowhere

Front 2155

Where is the ship allowed to discharge plastics?

Back 2155

nowhere

Front 2156

Bagged shredded glass and metal waste may be discharged past _______ NM.

Back 2156

12nm

Front 2157

What is the definition of Hazardous Materials (HM)?

Back 2157

Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment.

Front 2158

Which document provides Navy wide guidance for Oil/Hazardous Substance (OHS) spill response?

Back 2158

OPNAVINST 5090.1B

Front 2159

Which valve, similar in construction to a relief valve, is primarily used as a warning device?

Back 2159

Sentinel valve

Front 2160

Removing water and/or sediment from an oil tank is referred to as _______?

Back 2160

Stripping

Front 2161

Which term describes the heat transfer between a solid surface and a moving liquid or gas?

Back 2161

Convection

Front 2162

Which type of pump is used to pump liquids over a wide range of viscosity?

Back 2162

Rotary

Front 2163

A rhythmic variation of speed that can be eliminated by blocking the fuel supply manually or with load limit is called _______.

Back 2163

Hunting

Front 2164

Which term defines a progressive drop in speed as load is picked up by the prime mover from no load to full load without manually changing the speed setting?

Back 2164

Speed droop

Front 2165

What color are handwheels of valves painted in the fuel oil system?

Front 2166

_______ is used to transfer liquid fluids only.

Back 2166

Piping – True or false question improperly copied…

Front 2167

An electrical signal generated by the _______ shifts the electro-hydraulic servo valve.

Back 2167

Control system

Front 2168

As the main servo moves, _______ is ported to one side or the other of the blade positioning pistons internal to the hub.

Back 2168

High pressure oil

Front 2169

The fuel transfer heater raises the _______ of the fuel prior to entering the fuel purifier.

Back 2169

temperature

Front 2170

The fuel overflow/expansion tanks are designed to be used as additional fuel _______.

Back 2170

Storage – Another true or false…

Front 2171

In which test is a sample held up to a bright light and its appearance checked for free water, haziness or cloudiness, and particles?

Back 2171

Clear and Bright

Front 2172

Soluble substances such as _______ cannot be separated from lube oil.

Back 2172

Fuel

Front 2173

During normal purifier operation, centrifugal force causes the _______ to travel farthest from the axis of rotation.

Back 2173

Sediment

Front 2174

The Integrated Fluid Variable Gear (IFVG) transmits engine power to the _______ class ship propellers.

Front 2175

What class of ship uses the turning gear for inspections and maintenance of the reduction gear?

Front 2176

Each Controllable Pitch Propeller (CPP) has five blades whose pitch is changed _______ to provide the ship with ahead or astern movement.

Back 2176

Hydraulically

Front 2177

The primary purpose of propulsion shafting is to transfer the torque generated by the main engine to the _______.

Back 2177

Propeller

Front 2178

A _______ is a form of coupling that connects or disconnects the engine to the Main Reduction Gear.

Back 2178

Flexible coupling

Front 2179

What type of heat transfer occurs by actual contact between substances or from molecule to molecule within a substance?

Back 2179

Conduction

Front 2180

The basic steam cycle is a four-phased open, heated cycle. This means that the fluid _______ reused and water must _______.

Back 2180

Not/be constantly added….Another true false (false)….

Front 2181

The _______ is responsible for the proper care, storage and use of fuels and lubricating oils.

Back 2181

MPA

Front 2182

Approval from the _______ must be obtained prior to taking fuel/ballasting.

Back 2182

CO

Front 2183

What is a Technical Work Document?

Back 2183

Provide the craftsman with clear, concise, and technically correct instructions to complete the maintenance task while conforming to technical specifications

Front 2184

Onboard the ship, what documents are considered legal records?.

Back 2184

Engineering log and Engineer’s Bell Book

Front 2185

What documents provides guidance for shipboard training?

Back 2185

SURFORTRAMAN

Front 2186

EOSS consist of the _______ and _______.

Back 2186

EOP and EOCC

Front 2187

What procedures is a type of EOP?

Back 2187

MLOC, MP, SNOK

Front 2188

The _______ program is designed to protect personnel from the hazards associated with electrical shock.

Back 2188

Electrical safety

Front 2189

The _______ and _______ programs permit early detection of contaminants.

Back 2189

FOQM and LOQM

Front 2190

The Tag Out log is divided in _______ sections.

Back 2190

5

Front 2191

Propulsion plant tag-out audits are performed _______ when in a restricted availability?

Back 2191

Weekly

Front 2192

Who authorizes resumption of normal operations if tampering is evident during a security breech?

Back 2192

CO

Front 2193

The _______ sounds general quarters when a major flammable leak is reported.

Back 2193

OOD

Front 2194

What is a purpose of the MSFD?

Back 2194

Combating main space fires/fire prevention

Front 2195

_______ enhances operational readiness and mission accomplishments by an aggressive safety and occupational health program.

Front 2196

Inhalation of asbestos fibers has been demonstrated to cause at least two distinct disease states, _______ and _______.

Back 2196

Cancer and asbestosis

Front 2197

Who assists the Commanding Officer in conducting a mishap investigation?

Back 2197

Safety officer

Front 2198

Who can authorize the extension of safe stay times?

Back 2198

CO

Front 2199

Personnel included in hearing conservation will receive _______ monitoring hearing tests.

Back 2199

Annual

Front 2200

Single hearing protection (plugs or muffs) is required in all areas where sound levels exceed _______ dB.

Back 2200

84

Front 2201

The deck around an immediate eye hazard shall be marked with a _______ inch black and yellow striped or checkerboard tape.

Back 2201

3

Front 2202

The SCBA is a(n) _______ type respirator.

Back 2202

Atmosphere supplying

Front 2203

Who can grant permission to work on energized equipment?

Back 2203

CO

Front 2204

Oil Content Monitor system discharge must be less than _______ ppm.

Back 2204

15

Front 2205

Which document provides guidelines for Oil/Hazardous Substance (OHS) spill response?

Back 2205

OPNAVINST 5090.1B

Front 2206

The Mark II Oil Spill Kit box and contents are kept on the _______.

Back 2206

Main deck

Front 2207

Specific guidance concerning pollution control is provided by EOSS in the _______.

Back 2207

SNOK

Front 2208

Steam Engineering

Front 2209

The DFT is the dividing line between which two phases of the basic steam cycle?

Back 2209

Condensate and feed

Front 2210

What is the term for the major steam system that operates at boiler pressure?

Back 2210

Main steam

Front 2211

After leaving the superheater a majority of the main steam is piped to the _______.

Back 2211

De super heater

Front 2212

Which principle do condensate pumps use to control hotwell levels?

Back 2212

Submersions control

Front 2213

What components separate air and steam mixtures in main condensers?

Front 2214

When the engineering plant is cold iron, the ship can use _______ for 150 psig dry steam.

Back 2214

Shore steam

Front 2215

What is the purpose of the main circulating pump?

Back 2215

Cooling water for main condenser

Front 2216

What is the function of a steam reducing station?

Back 2216

Reduces pressure, for systems that do not require high presser

Front 2217

Which valves control warm-up of downstream piping?

Back 2217

By pass valves

Front 2218

What should never be used when operating valves?

Back 2218

A monkey, a base ball bat ( Pipe wrench)

Front 2219

What is the purpose of the main air ejector?

Back 2219

Removes non-condensable gasses

Front 2220

Which valve controls the amount of steam to the HP turbine?

Back 2220

Ahead Throttle valve

Front 2221

Which valve is used to isolate the boiler from main steam?

Back 2221

Main steam stop valve

Front 2222

Which valves are used to control steam flow and isolate piping systems from machinery spaces?

Back 2222

Cross connect valves

Front 2223

Which valve is used to provide two valve protection to machinery that uses main steam?

Back 2223

Guarding valve

Front 2224

How does loss of auxiliary steam affect operation of 150 psig steam?

Back 2224

You also loss 150 psi steam

Front 2225

What is the function of the boiler auxiliary steam stop?

Back 2225

To stop flow from the de supper heater

Front 2226

Who or what controls the atmospheric exhaust unloader valve?

Back 2226

The atmospheric unloading valve provides another means of relieving excessive pressure in the AE system. An air operated and non-air operated unloading valves are set to open at 23 psig and are fully open at 25 psig (fails open). It discharges to the atmosphere via escape piping. During start up, shut down, and emergency operations it can be manually operated to stabilize AE line pressure.

Front 2227

What type of bearing takes care of axial thrust?

Back 2227

Thrust bearing

Front 2228

What parts of a reaction steam turbine serve the same purpose as the nozzle of an impulse turbine?

Back 2228

Fixed and moving blades

Front 2229

The labyrinth packing in a turbine serves what purposes?

Back 2229

Minimize pressure drop across the diaphragm

Front 2230

What is a function of a steam turbine?

Back 2230

Converts the energy in the steam to mechanical energy

Front 2231

Which type of seal is used to minimize pressure drop across the diaphragm?

Back 2231

Labyrinth packing rings

Front 2232

Define "impulse" as it applies to a steam turbine.

Back 2232

The force that turns the turbine comes from the impact of the steam on the blades of the turbine.

Front 2233

Where are the moving turbine blades attached?

Back 2233

The rotor

Front 2234

Define reaction as it applies to a steam turbine.

Back 2234

The force that turns the turbine.

Front 2235

Where are the main generating tubes located?

Back 2235

In the boiler behind the supper heater / that are connected to the water drum and steam drum

Front 2236

What term is used to describe steam at the temperature at which water boils at the given pressure?

Back 2236

Saturation temp

Front 2237

Which steam drum component separates incoming feed water and generated steam?

Back 2237

Belly plates in the steam drum

Front 2238

What is superheated steam referred to after some of the superheat has been removed?

Back 2238

Aux steam

Front 2239

What is the purpose of combustion air?

Back 2239

It is used to shape the flame and provide air required for combustion

Front 2240

What system is used to put out fires in the boiler air casing?

Back 2240

Steam smothering

Front 2241

Who must grant permission prior to securing any boiler?

Back 2241

CO/ except as required by EOCC

Front 2242

What is the minimum pressure to surface (or bottom) blow a boiler overboard? 50 PSI

Front 2243

What is the purpose of the steam drum?

Back 2243

Receives feed water and separates steam from water

Front 2244

Which deposit does a bottom blow remove from the lower circuits of the boiler?

Back 2244

Sludge and other impurities

Front 2245

Which term is defined as a short-term decrease in boiler drum water level that results from a change in the firing rate or steam flow without any corresponding change in the feeding rate?

Back 2245

Shrink

Front 2246

What is the heat source for the boiler economizer?

Back 2246

Boiler exhaust

Front 2247

The steam exiting the superheater is referred to as _______.

Back 2247

Main steam

Front 2248

Boilers will expand and contract as the temperature within changes. What is used to compensate for this?

Back 2248

Sliding feet

Front 2249

Which term is defined as a short-term increase in boiler drum water level that results from a change in the firing rate or steam flow without any corresponding change in the feeding rate?

Back 2249

Swell

Front 2250

On the boiler, where are burner assemblies located?

Back 2250

On the burner front

Front 2251

What is the purpose of the gland seal steam system?

Back 2251

It provides a seal between the turbine and the outside air

Front 2252

What is the function of the HP turbine?

Back 2252

Converts the energy in the steam to mechanical energy

Front 2253

Single Axial flow refers to steam flowing in _______.

Back 2253

HP turbine

Front 2254

What is the function of the salinity indicator?

Back 2254

To detect salt and other impurities in the water

Front 2255

What is the purpose of the main circulating pump?

Back 2255

To provide the cooling water for the main condensed at lower ship speeds

Front 2256

Main and auxiliary condensers should not be subjected to seawater pressure in excess of _______ psig.

Back 2256

20 PSI

Front 2257

The condensate flows into what, after leaving the bottom of the main condenser?

Back 2257

Hot well

Front 2258

A condenser changes a gas to a liquid by causing the gas to _______. Condense

Front 2259

When should the duplex fire safe fuel oil strainers be shifted?

Back 2259

The answer is 10 psi, but they have been removed from NAVY ships

Front 2260

How does a relief valve prevent over pressurization of the fuel oil service pump?

Back 2260

When fuel is not needed it relives fuel back to the suction side of the pump to keep from deadheading

Front 2261

What is the purpose of the Fuel Oil Control Valve (FOCV)?

Back 2261

Regulates the fuel as required by demand

Front 2262

Where does the fuel oil unloading valve allow the excess fuel oil to flow?

Back 2262

Back to the service tank on suction

Front 2263

To avoid the risk of losing suction due to ship movement, the fuel oil service tank level should not be allowed to drop below _______%.

Back 2263

50%

Front 2264

The constant pressure regulator monitors the fuel oil pressure on the discharge side of the fuel oil service pump and maintains a constant discharge pressure of _______ psig.

Back 2264

350 to 400 PSI

Front 2265

The Fuel Oil Control Valve (FOCV) has a minimum setting of _______ psig.

Back 2265

35 to 40 PSI

Front 2266

When is the portable fuel oil service pump used?

Back 2266

Light off only

Front 2267

What will shut down the Main Feed Pump when pump suction drops to the near minimum NPSH?

Back 2267

The low suction safety trip

Front 2268

Where does the main feed booster pump take suction?

Back 2268

DFT

Front 2269

What equipment is used to make feed water?

Back 2269

EVAPS

Front 2270

Which component in most boilers can be described as a multi-pass tube bundle that is located in the water drum?

Back 2270

De-supper heater

Front 2271

The bulk of the steam generated by the boiler is formed in the main generating bank because it has the largest heating surface.

Back 2271

TRUE

Front 2272

What component consists of perforated piping that allows steam to smother a fire that may occur in the boiler air casing?

Back 2272

Steam smothering system

Front 2273

Which valve is installed in the boiler fuel oil system line to ensure that fuel oil is isolated from the burner front, quickly and completely when the boiler is secured?

Back 2273

Fuel oil quick closing valve

Front 2274

The purpose of the Automatic Combustion Control (ACC) system is to maintain steam pressure within _______.

Back 2274

+/- 5 psig of setpoint

Front 2275

Who is responsible for inspecting the firebox and which tool should be used?

Back 2275

Space Supervisor/BID

Front 2276

Non-moving blades are either attached directly to the turbine casing or they are located where?

Back 2276

Inside the nozzle diaphragm

Front 2277

A turbine that has more than one pressure drop is classified as what type of turbine?

Back 2277

Pressure Compounded Turbine

Front 2278

What is the first stage of a HP turbine?

Back 2278

Curtis

Front 2279

The Rateau staging of a HP turbine is to be considered velocity compounded because there is a velocity increase and a velocity decrease in each Rateau stage.

Back 2279

FALSE

Front 2280

The LP Turbine is considered a condensing turbine.

Back 2280

True

Front 2281

What controls the amount of steam allowed to flow from the steam chest into the HP turbine?

Back 2281

Throttle Valve Assembly

Front 2282

In the main gland seal system, which component dumps excess gland seal piping pressure to the LP turbine exhaust trunk?

Back 2282

Gland Seal unloader

Front 2283

At what percentage of load on the generator will leakage from the forward end (high pressure end) of the SSTG supply steam for the gland seal system?

Back 2283

60%

Front 2284

Personnel can paint the main shaft while the main engine jacking gear is engaged because the main shaft will be rotating slowly.

Back 2284

False

Front 2285

What is the purpose of the main steam strainer?

Back 2285

Prevents any particles from entering the main turbines

Front 2286

What is the purpose of the main steam bypass valve?

Back 2286

To warm up piping and remove water in piping via the LP drains

Front 2287

Where does the 600 PSIG Auxiliary steam come from?

Back 2287

De-super heater

Front 2288

When performing maintenance on a turbine what component is used to isolate the Auxiliary Exhaust System?

Back 2288

Combination exhaust relief valve

Front 2289

What type of valve is used to prevent uneven thermal expansion or contraction of the piping system?

Back 2289

By pass valve

Front 2290

What happens to the condensate in the DFT?

Back 2290

It de-aerates and heats and converts it to feed water

Front 2291

What shuts the Main Feed Pump (MFP) throttle valve when the pump suction pressure drops to near the minimum Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) required to prevent cavitating the pump?

Back 2291

The low suction safety trip

Front 2292

In theory the steam cycle is a closed loop system where the quantity of _______ is endlessly recycled.

Back 2292

TRUE

Front 2293

What is used to distribute water made from the evaporator?

Back 2293

Feed valve manifold

Front 2294

High Pressure Drain System collects drains from steam systems and equipment that operate at pressures _______ 150 PSIG?

Back 2294

TRUE

Front 2295

After leaving the bottom of the main condenser, the condensate flows into what?

Back 2295

auxiliary cooling water pump

Front 2296

What is the purpose of the main air ejector?

Back 2296

To remove air and no-condensable gasses from the condensate

Front 2297

In a main condenser that is operating on scoop injection, the flow of water is controlled by what means?

Back 2297

The forward speed of the ship

Front 2298

In what position will the burner root valve be on a secured burner?

Back 2298

Fully Closed

Front 2299

Diesel Engineering

Front 2300

What is the name of the barrel or bore where the engine pistons move back and forth?

Back 2300

Cylinder

Front 2301

Name the water passages that allow circulation of cooling water around cylinders.

Back 2301

Water jacket

Front 2302

Which component uses electrical energy that is stored in batteries to start an engine?

Back 2302

Electric starter

Front 2303

Pistons that employ a back-and-forth motion are commonly classified as _______.

Back 2303

Reciprocating engines

Front 2304

What is the rotating shaft of cam lobes that is used to control the operation of valves and fuel pumps through a series of other parts that move against it?

Back 2304

Camshaft

Front 2305

What measuring instrument is used to measure crankcase vacuum or pressure?

Back 2305

Manometer

Front 2306

What cycle of operation is taking place when the exhaust valve is open, the power stroke is finished, and the piston starts back up?

Back 2306

Exhaust stroke

Front 2307

The heavy wheel attached to the crankshaft that stores up energy during the power event and releases it during the remaining events of the operating cycle is referred to as the _______.

Back 2307

Flywheel

Front 2308

Which term refers to the method in which wasted exhaust gases can produce power gains of over 50%?

Back 2308

Turbocharged

Front 2309

Which component has the function of removing small particles of debris from the fuel prior to it entering the fuel injectors?

Back 2309

Fuel filters

Front 2310

As more fuel is burned in an engine, the hotter the exhaust gases will be become. What device measures the temperature of these gases?

Back 2310

Pyrometer

Front 2311

The speed of an engine is measured in _______.

Back 2311

Rotations per minute (RPM)

Front 2312

What is the function of the lube oil cooler?

Back 2312

Keep the lube oil within the most efficient operating range

Front 2313

What will cause lube oil contamination in a diesel engine?

Back 2313

Leaky fuel nozzles or injectors

Front 2314

Gas Turbine Engineering

Front 2315

What are the major components of the gas generator assembly?

Back 2315

COMPRESSOR, COMBUSTOR, HIGH PRESSURE TURBINE

Front 2316

What type of a clutch do CG, DDG, and FFG class gas turbine ships use?

Back 2316

SELF SHIFTING SYNCHRONIZING

Front 2317

Which components make up the intake silencers arrangement?

Back 2317

BAFFLES

Front 2318

What last resort protection is provided by the air intake system if blow in doors open during GTM operation?

Back 2318

FOD SCREENS

Front 2319

The acronym FOD stands for _______.

Back 2319

Foreign Object Damage

Front 2320

The emergency air inlet doors ("blow-in doors") open as a result of _______.

Back 2320

CLOGGED DEMISTER PADS

Front 2321

Approximately how many minutes of fuel does a head tank provide for a Propulsion Gas Turbine Engine to run?

Back 2321

APPROXIMATELY 5 MINUTES

Front 2322

Approximately how many minutes of fuel for gas turbine generator operation does the gravity feed tank provide if the FO service system fails?

Back 2322

APP 30 MINUTES

Front 2323

The stand by fuel oil service tank is placed online when the online service tank decreases to _______.

Back 2323

50%

Front 2324

What can be controlled from the Electric Plant Control Console?

Back 2324

GAS TURBINE GENERATORS

Front 2325

The Propulsion and Auxiliary Control Console is located in the _______.

Back 2325

Central Control Station

Front 2326

The Independent Auxiliaries Panel of the PACC controls which system?

Back 2326

Sea Water Service

Front 2327

Gas turbine generator outputs can be monitored from _______.

Back 2327

EPCC

Front 2328

Which component/device records throttle responses and significant engineering plant events?

Back 2328

Bell/Data Log

Front 2329

Select the description of airflow on an axial flow compressor.

Back 2329

Air flows directed over the axis of the compressor rotation

Front 2330

Customer Bleed Air is extracted from the _______ stage of the GTM (LM2500) Compressor.

Back 2330

16

Front 2331

When the cooling fan is in operation, what also must be open?

Back 2331

Vent damper

Front 2332

Compressor stall occurs when _______.

Back 2332

Disruption of air flow in the compressor.

Front 2333

Where is the gas turbine water wash nozzle located?

Back 2333

Inside Module

Front 2334

The vanes that comprise the first 6 stages on the LM2500 GTM compressor stator are known as _______.

Back 2334

Variable Stator vanes

Front 2335

What is the purpose of the start air system?

Back 2335

Drive the pneumatic starter

Front 2336

How many combustion chambers are in an annular combustor?

Back 2336

1

Front 2337

How many bottles are provided for GTM primary CO2?

Back 2337

2

Front 2338

What refers to the build-up of carbon residue caused by intense heat?

Back 2338

Coking

Front 2339

The scavenge filter poppet-type relief valve opens at _______ psid.

Front 2340

How many sumps are on the LM2500 gas turbine?

Back 2340

4

Front 2341

The accessory drive section is mounted on the _______.

Back 2341

turbine front frame

Front 2342

What is the gas turbine module designed to contain?

Back 2342

Engine Temps and noise.

Front 2343

What component of the module allows personnel to conduct a visual inspection of the center body without entering the module?

Back 2343

Module inlet duct window.

Front 2344

There are _______ ultra-violet flame detectors in the GTM enclosure.

Back 2344

Three

Front 2345

Operating the gas turbine with the _______ open for long periods does not harm the engine.

Back 2345

Blow in door/ False

Front 2346

The _______ provide the same function on different gas turbine platforms.

Back 2346

Intake and Exhaust System

Front 2347

All fuel to the GTM recirculates back to the _______ on DD and CG class ships until the GTM main fuel valves open.

Back 2347

Service pump Suction

Front 2348

The gas turbine generators _______ cannot be operated from the CCS.

Back 2348

Manual Pull Trip Valves

Front 2349

Auxiliary Engineering Systems

Front 2350

What is the definition for condensation?

Back 2350

The change from gaseous (vapor) state to a liquid state

Front 2351

Where is a conventional heater usually installed?

Back 2351

Washrooms and water closets (spaces that receive indirect ventilation from other heated spaces

Front 2352

What are patients' symptoms of exposure to liquid or vaporized refrigerant?

Back 2352

Eye irritation, vomiting, and breathing stops

Front 2353

What is the function of the thermostatic expansion valve?

Back 2353

Meters liquid refrigerant causing a reduction in the refrigerant pressure and temperature

Front 2354

What is the definition of refrigerant?

Back 2354

A liquid capable of vaporizing at a low temperature

Front 2355

What is the definition for dew point?

Back 2355

The amount of heat energy required to change substance from liquid to vapor without a change in temperature

Front 2356

In what type of compartment would you find a gravity coil?

Back 2356

In the wardroom Mess Hall

Front 2357

What is the definition for latent heat of fusion?

Back 2357

Heat that is involved when changing from liquid to a solid

Front 2358

What is the purpose of the Parasense Leak Detector?

Back 2358

Detect R-13A airborne contaminants in a space

Front 2359

Dehydrators are used in compressed air systems to reduce the ___water____ content.

Front 2360

An air flask is a pressure vessel for the storage of air above _____ psig.

Back 2360

600psi

Front 2361

Rapid operation of manual valves in a high-pressure air system may cause _______.

Back 2361

an explosion

Front 2362

The LPAC discharges low pressure air, normally in the range of _______ psi.

Back 2362

100-150

Front 2363

What is a characteristic that is used to classify air compressors?

Front 2364

Oil content of the compressed air

Front 2365

The priority valve on a LP air system closes at approximately _______ psi.

Back 2365

85

Front 2366

Which device installed in a reciprocating compressor is designed to smooth the airflow before entering the next stage of compression?

Back 2366

Pulsation Bottle

Front 2367

What type of pump is the seawater feed pump?

Back 2367

centrifugal

Front 2368

What is the concentrated liquid called that remains when seawater is boiled?

Back 2368

Brine

Front 2369

Self-diffusion through a semi-permeable membrane of a solvent due to the differential pressure between two solutions of differing concentrations is referred to as _______.

Back 2369

Reverse Osmosis

Front 2370

What can be used for disinfecting potable water?

Back 2370

Bromine

Front 2371

Which type of distilling plant uses low-pressure steam to create a vacuum for its operation?

Back 2371

Flash type

Front 2372

What types of water is defined as water that is suitable for human consumption?

Back 2372

Potable water

Front 2373

Which component of the RO unit disinfects the water?

Back 2373

Brominator

Front 2374

What terms refers to the total process of the distilling plant, including evaporation and condensation?

Back 2374

Distillation

Front 2375

Where are the trickwheels located?

Back 2375

In the steering gear room

Front 2376

What type of construction is the ram?

Back 2376

Single fitted piece between two cylinders

Front 2377

Which component allows the Bridge to select and control the steering units?

Back 2377

Steering control cable selector switches

Front 2378

What type of steering gear pumps are utilized onboard Navy ships?

Back 2378

Axial piston, variable displacement, bi-directional pumps

Front 2379

What is the function of the synchro transmitter and receiver for the Rudder Order Indicator system?

Back 2379

Provide rapid and accurate transmission of information between equipment and station in the after steering gear room and the ship’s control console.

Front 2380

What remote reading indicator shows both the physical position and the ordered position of the rudder?

Front 2381

What is the function of the differential control unit for the steering system?

Back 2381

To measure the difference between the helm angle and rudder angle and stroke the swash plate to eliminate the difference

Front 2382

The Copper crush blocks prevent the ram from _______.

Back 2382

Overtravel at 37 degrees port or starboard

Front 2383

The _______ acts as a temporary storage space and surge tank for the liquid refrigerant.

Back 2383

receiver

Front 2384

What function does the compressor serve in the refrigeration cycle?

Back 2384

Essemtially a pump. Forces hot temp liquid refrigerant into superheated gas. Discharges high pressure high temp refrigerant vapor to the condenser.

Front 2385

Gravity cooling coils are used primarily in spaces where the load is small, and where electrical equipment (which could spark) would constitute a hazard. Such a compartment would be the _____ space where air conditioning is required.

Back 2385

magazine compartment

Front 2386

Fan-coil assemblies use _______ for the air conditioning of spaces.

Back 2386

chilled water

Front 2387

Air that is used for pneumatic tools, cleaning blow down hoses, ventilating torpedo tubes, fueling hose blow back is considered _______.

Back 2387

LP air

Front 2388

Which pump is used in the event of electrical power loss to the motors?

Back 2388

Handpump

Front 2389

The _______ is located in the after steering gear room and is used for emergency steering.

Back 2389

trickwheel

Front 2390

Electrical Systems Fundamentals

Front 2391

Which degaussing coil counteracts the magnetic field produced by the permanent vertical and the induced vertical magnetization of the ship?

Back 2391

M-COIL

Front 2392

Where would you find a record of all degaussing actions?

Back 2392

DEGAUSSING FOLDER

Front 2393

A compass-compensating coil is used to compensate for the _______ component of a magnetic field caused by the degaussing coils.

Back 2393

Vertical

Front 2394

What type of information is found in the degaussing folder?

Back 2394

Magnetic Treatment of the ship

Front 2395

The function of the degaussing coils is to produce magnetic fields that are _______ and _______ to the magnetic fields produced by the components of the ship's magnetization.

Back 2395

equal and opposite

Front 2396

What factors affect the strength of a coil's magnetic field?

Back 2396

number of turns of wire, current and type of material

Front 2397

What is the device called that is used to shift the power source automatically to maintain power to vital ship equipment?

Back 2397

AUTOMATIC BUS TRANSFER (ABT)

Front 2398

A unit of current is measured in _______.

Back 2398

AMPS

Front 2399

A unit of resistance is measured in _______.

Back 2399

OHMS

Front 2400

What must be done before safely removing a fuse?

Back 2400

TURN POWER OFF AND DISCHARGE THE CIRCUIT

Front 2401

In electrical systems, what is the meaning of AC?

Back 2401

ALTERNATE CURRENT

Front 2402

What is the simplest circuit protection device?

Back 2402

FUSE

Front 2403

What type of an alarm condition indication does an annunciator device give?

Back 2403

AUDIBLE AND VISUAL

Front 2404

Casualty power must be connected from _______.

Back 2404

LOAD TO SOURCE

Front 2405

Which switch, that is a control device, converts mechanical motion into an electrical signal?

Back 2405

LIMIT SWITCH

Front 2406

According to Ohm's Law, current is _______ proportional to the voltage and _______ is proportional to resistance.

Back 2406

DIRECTLY AND INVERSELY

Front 2407

A motor is a device that converts _______ energy to _______ energy.

Back 2407

ELECTRICAL TO MECHANICAL

Front 2408

What types of supply group loads are located in close proximity to each other?

Back 2408

POWER PANEL

Front 2409

The synchronizing monitor is used during the _______ of generators.

Back 2409

PARALLELING

Front 2410

Which meter indicates generator output current?

Back 2410

AMMETER

Front 2411

The ship service/emergency generator provides three phase electrical power, _______ volts AC, and _______ hertz.

Back 2411

450/60

Front 2412

When more than one phase of a three-phase power supply are grounded it is called _______.

Back 2412

SHORT CIRCUIT

Front 2413

The power that dissipates in the resistance of the circuit or is actually used in the circuit is called the _______.

Back 2413

TRUE POWER

Front 2414

Which types of detectors have sensors that activate an alarm when a flicker rate between 8 Hz and 15 Hz is sensed and are installed in locations susceptible to flash-type combustion?

Back 2414

INFRARED DETECTOR

Front 2415

Why would an audible signal be supplemented by a visual signal?

Back 2415

TO OVERCOME EXCESSIVELY NOISY AREAS AND TO ALLOW THE ALARM TO BE NOTICED FROM A DISTANCE.

Front 2416

Which is the Captain's Command system?

Back 2416

21MC

Front 2417

Which situation would require changing an AN/WSN-2 from NAV to DG mode of operation?

Back 2417

CROSSING 85-DEGREE LATITUDE LINE HEADING NORTH

Front 2418

What is the purpose of alarm systems?

Back 2418

TO ALERT PERSONNEL ABOUT A HAZARDOUS CONDITION, EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTION, OR OTHER ABNORMALITY REQUIRING IMMEDIATE ACTION.

Front 2419

What information does the gyrocompass provide to ship's Navigation and Fire Control Systems?

Back 2419

PRECISION ANALOG DUAL-SPEED ROLL, PITCH, AND HEADING DATA

Front 2420

Which system is the Ship-to-Ship Announcing System used to broadcast to another ship alongside?

Back 2420

6MC

Front 2421

Which circuit breakers are used to connect a generator to the 60-Hertz distribution system?

Back 2421

BUS-TIE BREAKERS

Front 2422

The power used by most of the ship equipment, such as ventilation, fire pumps, galley equipment, and lighting is _______.

Back 2422

60HZ

Front 2423

An ABT that shifts back to the normal power source is called _______.

Back 2423

NORMAL SEEKING

Front 2424

What components are referred to as a main bus?

Back 2424

SWITCHBOARD

Front 2425

Two generators supply the distribution system and share the load equally. What electric plant configuration is this?

Back 2425

RING-BUS PARALLEL

Front 2426

Which are the three constant magnetization components?

Back 2426

LONGITUDINAL, ATHWARTSHIP, VERTICAL

Front 2427

The _______ induced magnetization does not change with heading.

Front 2428

The function of the _______ is to produce magnetic fields that are, equal and opposite to the magnetic fields produced by the components of the ship's magnetization.

Back 2428

DEGAUSSING COIL

Front 2429

Connecting, energizing and testing shore power cables should be under the direct supervision of the _______.

Back 2429

ELECTRICAL OFFICER, A LEADING ELECTRICIAN, AND THE SOURCE ACTIVITY PERSONNEL.

Front 2430

The casualty power distribution system permits the use of temporary connections to equipment for maintenance.

Back 2430

FALSE: TEMPORARY CONNECTIONS ARE USED TO SPAN “DAMAGED PORTIONS OF PERMANENTLY INSTALLED SHIP SERVICE AND EMERGENCY DISTRIBUTION SYSTEMS.

Front 2431

Which types of circuits have black labels on an IC switchboard?

Back 2431

CLASS II CIRCUITS – ESSENTIAL TO SHIP CONTROL (I.E, GYRO, RUDDER ANGLE ORDER INDICATORS).

Front 2432

Ionization detectors are used to sense _______ only.

Back 2432

SMOKE

Front 2433

_______ REaction occurs when two dissimilar metals are immersed in seawater, with the seawater acting as an electrolyte.

Back 2433

ELECTRO-CHEMICAL (THINK: BATTERY)

Front 2434

What material is used for the anodes of the Impressed Current Cathodic Protection System?

Back 2434

PLATINUM