Surgical Tech Examination

Front 1

What graft must be obtained with a dermatome

Back 1

split-thickness mesh graft

Front 2

A Cavitron unit is used for

Back 2

phacoemulsification

Front 3

The power source for Hall power equipment is

Back 3

nitrogen

Front 4

A neurosurgical drill used for precision cutting, shaping, and repair of bone is the

Back 4

Air Drill 100

Front 5

In what surgery would a small fragment compression set be used

Back 5

olecranon fracture

Front 6

A permanent pacemaker operates on a pulse generator powered by

Back 6

lithium

Front 7

Three dermatomes are

Back 7

Reese, Padgett-Hood, and Brown

Front 8

Hypothermia is employed in cardiac surgery

Back 8

to reduce oxygen consumption

Front 9

The following are components of a cardiopulmonary bypass system

Back 9

oxygenator,heat exchanger, pump

Front 10

What movement in a power instrument drills holes orr inserts screws, wires or pins

Back 10

retary movement

Front 11

The power instrument which is small, light weight, free of vibration, and easy to handle for pinpoint accuracy at high speed is

Back 11

air powered

Front 12

The power source for the Air Drill 100 is

Back 12

compressed nitrogen

Front 13

The powere source for air-powered dermatomes is

Back 13

compressed nitrogen, or air

Front 14

Suction tubing should be processed in the following way

Back 14

residual of distilled water in lumen, steam sterilization, tubing coilded

Front 15

The suction tip which is right angled and is used for small amounts of fluid such as in brain surgery is

Back 15

Ferguson-Frazier

Front 16

The following steps can assist in the immediate determination of intraoperative blood loss

Back 16

visual inspection of blood in sponges, measurement of blood in sponges by weighing, and estimation of blood in suction container

Front 17

When using a cellsaver for autologous blood transfusion, the blood is suctioned through a double lumen tubing and is

Back 17

heparinized

Front 18

During orthopedic surgery the suction tubing should be

Back 18

cleared frequently

Front 19

What type of surgery would require several patent suction cannulas and suction often controlled by a foot pedal

Back 19

ear, nose and throat (ENT)

Front 20

When suctioning in neurosurgery, a precaution taken is to

Back 20

avoid applying vacuum directly on brain or neural tissue

Front 21

A tourniquet is utilized

Back 21

only when hemorrhage is not controlled by other methods

Front 22

The proper setting for a tourniquet applied to an arm is

Back 22

250 to 300 mm Hg

Front 23

Exsanguination of a limb prior to tourniquet inflation is accomplished by wrappin the elevated extremity with

Back 23

Esmarch

Front 24

The amount of pressure used to inflate a tourniquet depends on all of the following

Back 24

patient's age, size of extremity, and depth of surgical incision

Front 25

A regional block which utilizes the tourniquet is a

Back 25

Bier block

Front 26

The tourniquet is contraindicated if the

Back 26

patient's circulation to distal part of extremity is poor

Front 27

What action drains venous blood during tourniquet application

Back 27

eleate exremity before tightening tourniquet

Front 28

At what point should the surgeon be informed of the time of tourniquet application

Back 28

after 1 hour, then every 15 minutes

Front 29

When would the use of Esmarch be contraindicated

Back 29

patient has had recent injury, and patient has had recent cast

Front 30

What agent is used to inflate a pneumatic tourniquet

Back 30

nitrous oxide

Front 31

A precaution necessary when using a pneumatic tourniquet is

Back 31

solutions must be prevented from pooling under tourniquet

Front 32

In what procedure would a tourniquet be contraindicated

Back 32

gangrenous toe amputation

Front 33

A grounding pad is not required for the electrocautery in

Back 33

a bipolar unit

Front 34

The inactive electrode of the cautery is the

Back 34

ground pad

Front 35

The electrical circuit of the electrocautery is completed when

Back 35

currint flows to and from the generator to patient via the active electrode

Front 36

Why must the electrocautery tip be kept clean

Back 36

to ensure electrical contact effectiveness

Front 37

In electrosurgery, "buzzing" refers to

Back 37

coagulation of vessel via a metal instrument touching the active electrode

Front 38

Which elecrosurgical unit provides precise control of the coagulated area

Back 38

bipolar

Front 39

What condition is MOST acceptable when using electrocautery

Back 39

ground pad placed close to operative site

Front 40

The active electrode on the electrocautery is the

Back 40

tip

Front 41

The cautery would NOT be used

Back 41

in neck or nasopharynx surgery if netrous oxide is used

Front 42

Why are only moist sponges utilized during electrocautery use

Back 42

to prevent fire

Front 43

If the electrocautery is used through the colonoscope, carbon dioxide should be available to flush out the colon because

Back 43

gases normally in the colon could cause an explosion

Front 44

Fulguration is utilized primarily in ___________ surgery

Back 44

transurethral resection (TUR) and prostate operations

Front 45

When working in the bladder, why is more or higher electrical current necessary during cautery use

Back 45

more current is needed when working in solution

Front 46

Fulguration via the resectoscope is accomplished by the use of a(n) ____ tip

Back 46

electrode

Front 47

A direct visualization of the common bile duct is done by means of an

Back 47

choledochoscope

Front 48

The following are true of fiberoptic lighting

Back 48

light is conducted through a bundle of coated glass fibers, light is nonglaring, light is of high intensity

Front 49

Complications can occur during endoscopy, such as

Back 49

bleeding and perforation

Front 50

An endoscopy procedure which does not require a sterile set up is

Back 50

bronchoscopy

Front 51

The following are precautions when handling fiberoptic cables

Back 51

light cable should be dropped or swing free when carried, cables are coiled loosely no kinking, heavy items are not laid on cables

Front 52

Fiberoptic cable integrity is questionable when

Back 52

dark spots are evident

Front 53

When using a fiberoptic, burns and fires are prevented by

Back 53

cable is kept away from drapes when disconnected from endoscope, personnel should not lean on cable end which is disconnected but is still on, cable end is kept on a moist towel when disconnected from endoscope

Front 54

An economical, practical, and effective way to initially clean reusable channeled endoscopic instruments is when the

Back 54

Endoflush

Front 55

A sterilant that is used on endoscopes which is bactericidal, funicidal, and sporicidal in 20 to 30 minutes' processing time is

Back 55

peracetic acid

Front 56

What statement is true regarding a STERIS system for endoscope sterilization

Back 56

only one scope or a few instruments can be processed in a cycle

Front 57

The endoscope that provides a view of the middle of the thorax, between the two pleural sacs, is

Back 57

mediastinoscope

Front 58

Loupes are used for

Back 58

magnification

Front 59

Resolving power of an operating microscope means

Back 59

the ability to discern detail

Front 60

What item in the optical lens system is responsible for magnification

Back 60

oculars and objective lens

Front 61

The range of focal lengths of the objective lenses in the operating microscope is

Back 61

100 to 400 mm

Front 62

A continuously variable magnification system is afforded to the eye surgeon by the

Back 62

zoom lens with foot control

Front 63

The purpose of the "slit" lamp in eye surgery is

Back 63

defining depth perception

Front 64

The operating microscope that visually employs fiberoptics for its light source is

Back 64

coaxial illuminators

Front 65

Care of the microscope would include all of the following

Back 65

damp dust external surfaces with detergent-disinfectant before use, enclose in an antistatic plastic cover when not in use, clean casters before each use

Front 66

The purpose of the beam splitter in an operating microscope is to

Back 66

coincide the assistant's field of view with the surgeon's

Front 67

The colpomicroscope affords a view of the

Back 67

cervix

Front 68

The procedure employing the use of a self retaining laryngoscope and microscope is called a

Back 68

suspension microlaryngoscopy

Front 69

The binocular microscope provides stereoscopic vision. This refers to

Back 69

the view afforded by double eyepieces

Front 70

Which magnifying powers are available for the microscope eyepieces

Back 70

10x, 12.5x, 16x, and 20x

Front 71

What procedure is inappropriate when caring for optic lenses

Back 71

oil or fingerprints are removed by soaking in solvent for 10 minutes and drying with a cotton ball

Front 72

The OR bed ay have a metal crossbar between the two upper sections which may be raised to elevate the

Back 72

kidney and gallbladder

Front 73

What is also known as a an "airplane support"

Back 73

double armboard

Front 74

Operative accessibility in thyroid surgery may be aided by the use of

Back 74

a shoulder bridge

Front 75

In what position would shoulder braces be indicated

Back 75

extreme Trendelenburg

Front 76

A precaution necessary when using kidney rests is

Back 76

to press firmly but not too tightly against the body, to pad well, and to place the longer rest beeath the iliac crest

Front 77

Chest rolls (bolsters)

Back 77

facilitate respiration

Front 78

Bakelite orthopedic table attachments are sometimes used because

Back 78

they don't interfere with radiographic studies

Front 79

Sponges and towels used near the laser tissue impact site are kept wet in order to

Back 79

prevent ignition of these materials by reflected beam

Front 80

A laser plume is composed of

Back 80

carbonized particles, water, and odor

Front 81

When using lasers, nonreflective instrumentation

Back 81

decreases accidental direct reflection of the laser beam to another area

Front 82

What laser emission is primarily absorbed in tissue by hemoglobin or melanin

Back 82

argon

Front 83

The fire extinguisher of choice for a laser fire is

Back 83

Halon

Front 84

In a surgical procedure employing the use of the laser, prep solution on the patient's skin should be pat dried because

Back 84

pooled fluids can retain laser heat and subsequently burn tissue

Front 85

Laser surgery performed in the rectal area should be preceded by

Back 85

suctioning of lower bowel to remove methane gas

Front 86

Ebonization refers to

Back 86

coating of instruments to decrease reflectivity

Front 87

The use of each of the following items are measures employed to reduce laser induced injuries

Back 87

ebonized instruments, anodized instruments, and reflective drapes

Front 88

When utilizing the laser, occupational exposure to surgical smoke via the skin, eye, and mucous membranes is best minimized by the use of

Back 88

universal precautions

Front 89

What specialty would employ the use of a slit lamp and the laser

Back 89

ophthalmic

Front 90

The laser used primarily for port-wine stain lessons of the skin is the

Back 90

ruby

Front 91

People who are near the CO2 laser impact area can guard against corneal injuries by

Back 91

wearing amber-tinted lenses

Front 92

The following are measures used to control the effects of the laser plume

Back 92

smoke evacuators, suctions, high-filtration masks

Front 93

What endotracheal tube is contraindicated during laser surgery

Back 93

polyvinyl chloride (PVC) tube

Front 94

What item should be on the scrub person's instrument table while the laser is in use

Back 94

basin of sterile water or saline

Front 95

The laser used most commonly for retinal detachment, tear, or hole is

Back 95

argon

Front 96

The tunable dye laser used to disintegrate kidney stones is the

Back 96

Candela

Front 97

The relationship between organisms who occupy the same space but do not affect eachother is called:

Back 97

Neutralism

Front 98

A relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of the other is known as:

Back 98

Parasitism

Front 99

What process is an active transport mechanism?

Back 99

Phagocytosis

Front 100

Which organism causes GAS GANGRENE?

Back 100

Clostridium perfringes

Front 101

The simplest form of cell organization is the:

Back 101

Bacterium

Front 102

Which term describes microorganisms that are capable of producing disease under favorable conditions?

Back 102

Pathogens

Front 103

Syphilis is caused by:

Back 103

Treponema pallidum

Front 104

Malaria and amoebic dysentary are caused by:

Back 104

Protozoa

Front 105

Tachycardia

Back 105

fast heart rate

Front 106

Bradycardia

Back 106

slow heart rate

Front 107

INTER-

Back 107

between

Front 108

The position most commonly used for a tonsilectomy under local anesthesia is:

Back 108

Fowler's

Front 109

In the lateral chest position, a sandbag or padding is placed under the chest at axillary lever to:

Back 109

prevent pressure on the lower arm

Front 110

Ulnar nerve damage could result from

Back 110

use of an unpadded arm board

Front 111

Femoral nerve can be damaged if

Back 111

retractors are improperly placed during a pelvic surgery

Front 112

In the prone position, which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?

Back 112

Radial nerve

Front 113

A small pad placed under the pts head in the supine position helps relax which muscles?

Back 113

Strap

Front 114

How is the pt positioned for a c-section

Back 114

Supine with a bolster under right side

Front 115

What device is used when placing the pt in the operative position for a thyroidectomy?

Back 115

Shoulder roll

Front 116

What nerve can be damaged when placing the pt in fowler's position?

Back 116

Sciatic