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90 Cards in this Set

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Which antibiotics are commonly used for anaerobic infections?

- Metronidazole


- Clindamycin


- Cefoxitin


- Cefotetan


- Imipenem


- Ticarcillin-Clavulanic Acid


- Unasyn (Ampicillin-Sulbactam)


- Augmentin (Amoxicillin-Clavulanic Acid)

Which antibiotics are commonly used for Gram negative infections?

- Gentamicin and other aminoglycosides


- Ciprofloxacin


- Aztreonam


- 3rd gen cephalosporins (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazadime)


- Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim (Bactrim)

Which antibiotic, if taken with alcohol will produce a disulfiram-like reaction?

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

What is the drug of choice for treating amoebic infections?

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Which antibiotic is associated with cholestasis?

Ceftriaxone (Rocephelin)

Which antibiotic cannot be given to children or pregnant women?

Ciprofloxacin (interferes with the growth plate)

With which common antibiotics must serum levels be determined?

- Aminoglycosides


- Vancomycin

Is rash (only) in response to penicillins a contraindication to cephalosporins?

No, but breathing problems, urticaria, and edema in response to penicillins ARE contraindications to cephalosporins

What is Augmentin?

Amoxicillin and Clavulanate

What is Unasyn?

Ampicillin and Sulbactam

What is Cefazolin? Use?

First-generation cephalosporin, surgical prophylaxis for skin flora

What is Cefoxitin? Use?

Second-generation cephalosporin:


- Used for mixed aerobic/anaerobic infections


- Effective against Bacteroides fragilis and anerobic bacteria

What is Ceftazidime? Use?

Third-generation cephalosporin:


- Strong activity against Pseudomonas

What is Clindamycin used for?

- Strong activity against G- anaerobes (eg, B. fragilis)


- Adequate G+ activity

What is Gentamicin? Use?

Aminoglycoside


- Treat G- bacteria


- Nephrotoxic, ototoxic, blood peak/trough levels should be monitored

What is Imipenem and Cilastatin (Primaxin)?

- Often used as a last resort against serious, multi-resistant organisms


- Usually combined with cilastin, which inhibits renal excretion of imipenem


- Has a very wide spectrum

What is Metronidazole used for?

- Serious anaerobic infections (eg, diverticulitis)


- Amebiasis


- Must abstain from alcohol use during therapy

What is Nafcillin? Use?

Anti-staphylococcal penicillin


- Commonly used for cellulitis

What is Vancomycin used for?

- MRSA


- C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis (poorly absorbed from gut)


- With IV admin, peak/trough levels should be monitored

What is Ciprofloxacin? Use?

Quinolone antibiotic


- Broad-spectrum activity, especially against G- bacteria (including pseudomonas)

What is Aztreonam? Use?

Monobactam


- G- spectrum

What is Amphotericin? Use?

IV antifungal antibiotic associated with renal toxicity, hypokalemia

What is Fluconazole? Use?

Antifungal agent (IV or PO) not associated with renal toxicity

What is Nystatin? Use?

PO and topical antifungal

What are the steroid side effects?

- Adrenal suppression


- Immunosuppression


- Weight gain with central obesity


- Cushingoid facies


- Acne


- Hirsutism


- Purple striae


- Hyperglycemia


- Sodium retenion / hypokalemia


- HTN


- Osteopenia


- Myopathy


- Ischemic bone necrosis (avascular necrosis of hip)


- GI perforations

What are the uses of steroids?

- Immunosuppression (transplant)


- Autoimmune diseases


- Hormone replacement (Addison's disease)


- Spinal cord trauma


- COPD

Can steroids be stopped abruptly?

No, steroids should never be stopped abruptly; always taper

Which patients need stress-dose steroids before surgery?

- Those who are on steroids


- Those who were on steroids in past year


- Those who have suspected hypoadrenalism


- Those who are about to undergo adrenalectomy

What is the "stress dose" for steroids?

100 mg of hydrocortisone IV every 8 hours and then taper (adults)

Which vitamin helps counteract the deleterious effects of steroids on wound healing?

Vitamin A

Describe the action of heparin?

Heparin binds with and activates antithrombin III

What are the uses of heparin?

Prophylaxis/treatment:


- DVT


- PE


- Stroke


- A Fib


- Acute arterial occlusion


- Cardiopulmonary bypass

What are the side effects of heparin?

- Bleeding complications


- Can cause thrombocytopenia

What reverses the effects of heparin?

Protamine IV (1:100, 1 mg of protamine to every 100U of heparin)

What lab test should be used follow effect of heparin?

aPTT - activated partial thromboplastin time

What is the standard lab target for therapeutic heparinization?

1.5-2.5x control or measured antifactor X level

Who is at risk for a protamine anaphylactic reaction?

Patients with type 1 DM, s/p prostate surgery

What is the half-life of heparin?

~90 minutes (1-2 hours)

How long before surgery should heparin be discontinued?

4-6 hours pre-op

Does heparin dissolve clots?

No, it stops the progression of clot formation and allows the body's own fibrinolytic system to dissolve the clot

What is LMWH?

Low Molecular Weight Heparin

What lab test do you need to follow with LMWH?

None, except in children, pts with obesity, and those with renal failure, which is the major advantage (check factor X levels)

Action of Warfarin?

Inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X (ie 2, 7, 9, 10), produced in liver

What are the uses of warfarin?

Long-term anticoagulation (PO)

What are the risks of warfarin?

- Bleeding complications


- Teratogenic in pregnancy


- Skin necrosis


- Dermatitis

What lab test should be used to follow the effects of warfarin?

PT (prothrombin time) as reported as INR

What is INR?

International Normalized Ratio

What is the classic therapeutic INR?

INR of 2-3

What is the half-life of effect?

40 hours; thus, it takes about 2 days to observe a change in the PT

What reverses the cessation of warfarin?

- Cessation


- Vitamin K


- FFP (in emergencies)

How long before surgery should wararin be discontinued? When can it be restarted?

From 3-5 days pre-op and IV heparin should be begun; heparin should be discontinued from 4-6 hours pre-op and can be restarted post-op; Coumadin can be restarted in a few days

How can warfarin cause skin necrosis when first started?

Initially depressed protein C and S result in HYPERcoagulable state! Avoid by using heparin concomitantly when starting

What is Sucralfate (Carafate)? Use?

Treats peptic ulcers by forming an acid-resistant barrier; binds to ulcer craters; needs acid to activate and thus should NOT be used with H2 blockers

What is Cimetidine (Tagamet)? Use?

H2 blocker - treats ulcers/gastritis

What is Ranitidine (Zantac)? Use?

H2 blocker - treats ulcers/gastritis

What is Ondansetron (Zofran) used for? Mechanism?

Serotonin receptor blocker:


- Anti-nausea


- Anti-emetic

What is the mechanism of PPI?

Proton Pump Inhibitor


- Gastric-acid secretion inhibitor


- Inhibits K+/H+ ATPase



Eg, Omeprazole

What is Promethazine (Phenergan)? Use?

Acute anti-nausea agent; used post-op

What is Metoclopramide (Reglan) used for? Mechanism?

- Increases gastric emptying with increase in LES pressure


- Dopamine antagonist


- Used in diabetic gastroparesis and to help move feeding tubes past pylorus

What is Haloperidol (Haldol) used for? Mechanism?

Sedative/anti-psychotic


- Side effects = extra-pyramidal symptoms, QT prolongation

What are the contents of "albumin"?

- 5% albumin OR


- 25% albumin - draws extravascular fluid into intravascular space by oncotic pressure

What is the mechanism/use of Albuterol?

Inhaled beta-2 agonist


- Bronchodilator

What is Octreotide?

Somatostatin analog

Mechanism of Famotidine (Pepcid)?

H2 blocker

Mechanism of Aspirin?

Irreversibly inhibits platelets by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase

Mechanism of Furosemide (Lasix)?

Loop diuretic - watch for hypokalemia

Use of Dantrolene (Dantrium)?

Treats malignant hyperthermia

Mechanism of Misoprostol (Cytotec)? Use?

- Prostaglandin E1 analog


- Gastroduodenal mucosal protection

What is an antibiotic option for colon/appendectomy coverage if the pt is allergic to PCN?

1. IV ciprofloxacin (Cipro) AND


2. IV clindamycin or IV flagyl

If the pt does not respond to a dose of furosemide, should the dose be repeated, increased, or decreased?

Dose should be doubled if there is no response to initial dose

What med is used to treat promethazine-induced dystonia?

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride IV (Benadryl)

What med is classically associated with mesenteric ischemia?

Digitalis

What type of anti-HTN med is contraindicated in pts with renal artery stenosis?

ACE Inhibitors

Does acetaminophen inhibit platelets?

No

What meds are used to stop seizures?

Benzodiazepines (eg, Lorazepam/Ativan, Phenytoin/Dilantin)

What is an example of a pre-op antibiotic used for vascular prosthetic grafts?

Ancef/Cefazolin (G+ coverage)

What is an example of a pre-op antibiotic used for an appendectomy?

Cefoxitin, Unasyn (anaerobic coverage)

What is an example of a pre-op antibiotic used for colon surgery?

Cefoxitin, Unasyn (anaerobic coverage)

What are common post-op IV narcotics?

- Morphine (most common)


- Meperidine (demerol)


- Fentanyl


- Percocet


- Dilaudid

What is Percocet?

PO narcotic pain reliever with acetaminophen and oxycodone

What is Demerol's (Meperidine) claim to fame?

Used commonly with acute pancreatitis / biliary pathology because classically morphine may cause sphyincter of Oddi spasm/constriction

What are the side effects of narcotics?

- Respiratory depression


- Hypotension


- Itching


- Bradycardia


- Nausea

What is the danger of prolonged use of Demerol?

Accumulation of metabolite normperidine (especially with renal/hepatic dysfunction), which may result in oversedation, hallucinations, and seizures!

What med reverses the effects of narcotic overdose?

Naloxone (Narcan), 0.4 mg IV

Narcotic used to decrease post-operative shivering?

Demerol

What reverses the effects of benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil (Romazicon), 0.2 mg IV

What is Toradol?

Ketorolac = IV NSAID

What are the risks of Toradol (Ketorolac)?

- GI bleed


- Renal injury


- Platelet dysfunction

Why give patients IV Cipro if they are eating a regular diet?

No reason - 500 mg of Cipro PO gives the same serum level as 400 mg Cipro IV! And PO is much cheaper!

What is clonidine "rebound"?

Abruptly stopping clonidine can cause the pt to have severe "rebound" HTN (also seen with beta-blockers)