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122 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Icing conditions are defined as what?

GROUND

OAT +10 degrees C or less with:

1. Visible precipitation in any form present.
2. Fog restricting visibility to 1 mile or less.
3. Contaminated ramp or taxiways.

FLIGHT

OAT +5 degrees C to less than -40 degrees C with visible precipitation in any form present.

Prior to entering "Icing Conditions" what systems must be selected to "ON"?
1. Windshield Heat - "NORM"
2. Pilot's side window - "As required"
3. Engine Intake Doors - "OPEN"
4. Wing De-Ice boots - "AUTO" (at the first sign of icing)
5. Ref Speeds switch to "INCREASE" (at the first sign of icing)
6. Propeller De-ice - "ON"
When selecting the propeller de-ice to "ON", what must be verified?
- The advisory lights sequence through the cycles.

- The engine "Oil Temperature" green arc shows 65 - 107 degrees C on the Engine Display.
At what times is it advisable to select the propeller RPM to "MAX" while operating in icing conditions?
Select the Condition Levers to "MAX" when:

1. Moderate or greater icing conditions exist.
2. Propeller vibration is noticed.
3. Ice from the propellers is impacting on the side of the aircraft.
Use of the ice protection systems will increase the "fuel burn" by how much?
About 1%
At what time may severe icing be encountered?
When the OAT is 0 degrees C or below in visible rain!
How can the effectivness of the propeller de-ice system be improved?
By selecting the propellers to 1020 RPM.
At what time should you be cautious of SLD icing?
When operating in temperatures below 0 degrees C and with visible rain!
What are the "cues" to indicate that "severe icing" may be present?
1. Abnormal aileron trim by the autopilot.

2. Significant ice accumulation on the captain's side window.

3. Ice impacting the side of the fuselage.

4. Unusually extensive ice accumulation on areas of the aircraft where icing normally does not occur.

5. Accumulation of ice on the lower portion of the wing which is behind any protected areas.

6. Accumulation of ice on the propeller hub which extends more than 1/2 way back.
What should be accomplished if the "visual cues" for severe icing are apparent?
1. Immediately request "priority handling" from ATC.
2. Request a change in altitude or routing to clear the icing conditions.
3. Avoid abrupt changes in control movements.
4. Do not engage the autopilot!
5. Do not extend the flaps!
6. Reduce the pitch as necessary to avoid a stall.

NOTE:
If the flaps are already extended, do not retract them until the airframe is clear of icing.
Is it permissible to have the "autopilot" engaged during severe icing conditions?
No

The autopilot may "mask" any indications of a Tail Stall.
With regards to icing, at what times are you required to dis-engage the autopilot?
1. During Severe icing conditions.

2. Anytime that you receive abnormal lateral trim or autopilot trim indications.
Is it required to have "functional" windshield ice detector lights on the aircraft?
Only for night operations.
With regards to the "De-Ice Boots", when should they be selected to "OFF" to avoid "Cold Cracking"?
When the OAT is below -40 degrees C.

Operate the boots for a minimum of two (2) cycles prior to selecting to "OFF"
What is the minimum engine oil temperature for takeoff?
No Icing Conditions:
0 degrees C

Icing Conditions prior to 1,000 feet:
55 degrees C
What is the minimum engine oil temperature for enroute operations while in icing conditions?
65 degrees C (within 3 minutes of takeoff).
Is it permissible to takeoff with the oil indication indicating an "amber" color?
Yes

The oil temperature will turn amber at 65 degrees C, but it is still authorized for takeoff.
What is the minimum airspeed allowed during climb out and cruise?
"OPEN BUG" or "CLOSED BUG"

Icing Conditions: Vse(ice)

Non Icing Conditions: Vse
What is the minimum airspeed allowed during descent while in icing conditions?
Flaps 0 degrees or 5 degrees:
Vse (ice)

Flaps 15 degrees or 35 degrees:
Solid Bug
What precaution should be taken when selecting the Ref Speeds switch to the "INCR" position?
Stick shaker may occur at the lower speeds.

Increase the airspeed prior to selecting the "INCR" switch to avoid stick shaker.
At what point may the "REF SPEED" switch be selected to "OFF" once no longer in icing conditions?
When the wings are "Aerodynamically Clean".
At what point may the "Engine Intake" switches be selected to closed once clear of icing conditions?
Wait until the propeller spinners are clear!
If during the approach with the flaps set at 35 degrees, you notice stick force lightening or control irregularities occurring, what should be done?
1. Immediately retract the flaps to a lessor setting.

2. Cycle the wing and tail de-ice boots several times to clear the ice!

Note: A tail stall may be imminent!
What is the minimum holding speed allowed when holding in icing conditions?
200 kts

Gear Up

Flaps Up
If during the approach and less than 1,000 feet AFE, you notice icing starting to accumulate on the aircraft, what should be done?
If above 500 feet AFE:

Increase speed to Vref(ice) if practical.

Never de-stabilize the approach speed below 500 feet AFE!
What is required after landing during icing conditions?
Inspect the engine intakes for ice during the post flight walkaround.

If there is ice accumulation in the engine intakes call Maintenance Control for removal.
Between what temperatures is "severe icing" most likely to occur?
Between 0 degrees C and -18 degrees C.
What weather conditions may be conductive to "Severe Inflight Icing"?
1. Visible rain below 0 degrees C.
2. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact below 0 degrees C.
Is the SAT a valid temperature value to determine the proper operation of the prop heat?
No ... Prop heat is governed by "Total Air Temp" which is not displayed in the cockpit.

The only indication of prop heat failure is the illumination of the "PROP DE-ICE" caution message.
If the aircraft is de-iced or anti-iced what is required prior to takeoff?
Select the "FLUID" box in the Jornada to obtain the speeds to be used for takeoff with de-ice fluid applied!

You may also use the "V-SPEED TABLE" in the performance handbook to obtain the takeoff speeds following de-icing.
At what times is it required to increase the takeoff speeds following de-icing?
TYPE I FLUID

- More than a 50% mixture of glycol is used.

TYPE IV FLUID

- At all times!
Are speed corrections required for climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing when de-ice fluid has been applied to the aircraft?
No

Speed corrections are applied to takeoff only!
What are the "Minimum" airspeeds allowed when operating in icing conditions?
Climb & Cruise:
Flaps 0 degrees = 175 kts

Holding:
Flaps 0 degrees = 200 kts

Descent:
Flaps 0 degrees = 175 kts
Flaps 5 degrees = 165 kts
Flaps 10 degrees = 155 kts

Approach:
Solid Bug
At what time is the captain required to suspend the "inflight passenger service"?
During times of "moderate or greater" turbulence.
All thunderstorms must be avoided by what distance?
Above 23,000 feet MSL:
20 NM

Below 23,000 feet MSL:
0 degrees or Colder:
10 NM

0 degrees or Warmer:
5 NM

- Clear all tops by 5,000 feet!

- Increase distances by 50% for rapidly building cells.

- When navigating between cells, use corridors which are reasonably straight!
What is the "maximum" range that the weather radar should be set when detecting weather returns?
80 nm
What is the maximum speed allowed in "Rough Air"?
210 kts when "severe turbulence" is encountered.
How is the EGPWS system de-activated?
By pressing the "FLAP OVERRRIDE" switch on the captain's side panel.
At what times may the EGPWS system be de-activated?
Only when:

- The system is on MEL and the MEL requires the de-activation.

"or"

- Conducting a 0 degree flap landing.
At what times is it permissible to de-activate "glideslope warnings"?
1. Localizer Approach
2. Backcourse Approach
3. Circling Approach
4. Intentional flight through the glideslope (VMC only)
5. Unreliable glideslope signal (VMC only)
What must the pilots do anytime an "erroneous" GPWS warning occurs?
Make a maintenance log entry which includes:

1. Location
2. Warning observed
3. Aircraft's configuration
4. Aircraft's altitude
What is the description of a "TA" with regards to the TCAS system?
Traffic Advisory

Intruder aircraft is within:
6 NM /1,200 feet
"and"
40 seconds CPA (closest point of approach)
What is the description of a "RA" with regards to the TCAS system?
Resolution Advisory

Intruder aircraft is within:
6 NM /1,200 feet
"and"
25 seconds CPA (closest point of approach)
At what time may the "Elapsed" time on the clock be reset?
Only while on the ground (weight on wheels).
What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed while "inflight"?
600 lbs
What is the minimum oxygen allowed for dispatch?
2-CREW: 1,050 lbs

3-CREW: 1,450 lbs

Note:
We preflight the aircraft to 1,450 psi!
At what temperature is the oxygen quantity read-out the most accurate?
At 21 degrees C (70 degrees F)

Below or above 21 degrees C you must consult the chart located in the FSM Supplementary Procedures for minimum values!
At what time must you reference the "Temperature Compensation" tables to determine if sufficient oxygen exists for dispatch?
Anytime the OAT is below 21 degrees C / 70 degrees F.
Is it normal for hydraulic fluid to migrate between the systems?
Yes

Use of the parking brake and toe brakes will migrate fluid!
To "minimize" hydraulic fluid migration, what should always be done?
Be sure to hold the toe brakes while setting the parking brake!
If you wanted to balance the hydraulic fluid between systems #1 and #2, how would you do it?
SYSTEM 1 TO 2

- Release the Parking Brake "without applying pressure" to the Toe Brakes.

- Repeat the procedure until sufficient fluid has migrated.

SYSTEM 2 TO 1

- Release the Parking Brake "while applying pressure" to the Toe Brakes.

- Repeat the procedure until sufficient fluid has migrated.
What is the minimum hydraulic quantity level you should ever operate with?
40% quantity in all reservoirs!

50% is recommended!
What should be accomplished if the Hydraulic Quantities fall below 40% in one of the reservoirs?
Call for the "HYD QTY LOW" checklist.
If the Parking Brake pressure is below the minimum level for engine start, what are the three (3) procedures for restoring brake pressure in order of preference?
PROCEDURE 1

- Used if a pushback tug is to be used!

1. Attach the tug to the nose wheel to secure the aircraft from moving.
2. Start the right engine during pushback to pressurize the #2 Hydraulic system and restore parking brake pressure.

PROCEDURE 2

- Used if "no pushback" is available!

1. Brief the ground crew to remain clear of the gear doors.
2. Open the "LANDING GEAR ALT RELEASE" door and pull the "MAIN LANDING GEAR RELEASE" handle to open the gear doors.
3. Close the "LANDING GEAR ALT RELEASE" door.
4. Using the pump handle located on the flight deck, actuate the Park Brake Auxiliary Pump located in the right main wheel well until the pressure is sufficient for engine start.

PROCEDURE 3

- Brief the ground crew to chock both the "nose gear" and "left main gear".
- Agree on an alternate signal to be used to remove the "left main gear" chocks only!

1. Start the #2 engine to pressurize the #2 hydraulic system and brakes.
2. The left main gear chocks may be removed when the hydraulic system pressure reaches a minimum of 1,500 PSI.
At what time is the "Battery Start" checklist used?
Only when:

- No external DC ground power is available.

"and"

- No APU power is available.
If a "battery start" is to be accomplished what precaution should be observed?
Do not delay the start once the battery switches are selected to "ON"!
The "Battery Start" checklist is a _______ checklist.
Read and Do
How is MDA referenced on the altimeter tape?
By a "Cyan Line" on the altimeter tape.
What is the MDA bug set to for takeoff?
Acceleration Height rounded up to the next higher 10 feet.
What is the MDA bug set to during a visual approach?
Whatever the pilot prefers.
What is the MDA bug set to on a "Non-Precision" approach?
Set the MDA bug to "minimums" rounded off to the next higher 10 feet.
What is the MDA bug set to on a "CAT III" approach?
The MDA bug is set to the barometric equivalent of the RA altitude rounded to the next higher 10 feet.

The DH bug is set to the RA altitude.
At what times is the use of the autopilot and flight director considered "standard procedure"?
From takeoff to final approach!
Is it permissible to fly "raw data"?
Yes

To maintain proficiency!
What must be accomplished by the "Pilot Monitoring" anytime that a "new" altitude is assigned by ATC?
Set the new altitude in the alerter and press "ALT SEL".
What is the "Pilot Monitoring" required to state when climbing or descending within 1,000 feet of an assigned altitude?
"1,0000 TO GO - ALTITUDE SELECT"
When using the VNav during descent, at what time is the next "let down" restriction entered into the altitude alerter?
1. You must be established on both vertical and lateral nav!

2. All crossing altitudes have been verified in the VNav.

This prevents the VNav from de-activating!
At what time will the "altitude alerter" be set to field elevation when conducting an ILS or FMS based approach?
Only when:

1. Cleared for the approach.
2. Established on both lateral and vertical nav (localizer/glideslope).
3. Crossing restrictions are verified on the FMS flight plan page.
At what time is the "missed approach" altitude set?
When within 1,000 feet above airport elevation (AFE) (chime) or at the initiation of the missed approach, whichever occurs first.
When conducting an FMS approach and a "Go-Around" is required, what is the correct procedure for executing the go-around?
Do not press the "GA" button on the power levers until the "EOA" is in the "NX" (next) position on the FMS.

Select "ALT HOLD" to maintain the current altitude or climb as necessary.

Follow the lateral track until the EOA is in the "NX" position and the GA button is pressed.
What occurs when the "GA" button on the Power Levers is pressed?
1. Disengages the Autopilot.

2. If the LNav was "engaged" prior to selecting the GA button, the Flight Director will enter the "LNav Lateral Mode".

"otherwise"

3. Commands the Flight Director to display 10 degrees Nose Up attitude / Level wings.

NOTE:

If no "lateral" command is engaged the "wings level" will revert to "Heading Hold" after 5 seconds.
At what time is it permissible to delete a "NO LINK" from the flight plan in the FMS?
Anytime that it follows a vector heading the "No Link" should be removed.
At what times is it not allowed to modify or delete a waypoint within the FMS flight plan?
Adding, deleting or modifying waypoint inside the "approach label" is not allowed!
Is it permissible to change a published FMS waypoint from a "Fly-By" to a "Fly-Over" waypoint or Vice-Versa?
No ... It is prohibited!
What is the purpose of the Tactile Control Steering (TCS)?
It allows the pilot to temporarily override the autopilot without dis-engaging it.
What occurs when the Tactile Control Steering (TCS) button is pressed and held?
1. Autopilot control is released.
2. The autopilot is inhibited from engaging (if already engaged).
3. The flight director command bars are removed from view.
4. Manual selections of new vertical or lateral modes are inhibited from engaging.
What modes are updated when "releasing" the Tactile Control Steering button?
1. Roll Mode
2. Pitch Mode
3. ALT
4. IAS
5. Vertical Speed
What is the "default modes" when selecting the autopilot "ON" if no vertical or lateral modes are selected?
"PITCH" and "ROLL"
What will occur with the bank if the autopilot is engaged while in a turn?
Bank angle "less than 6 degrees":

Autopilot rolls wings level


Bank angle "6 degrees or greater":

Autopilot will maintain the current bank angle.
How much control column force is required to overcome and disengage the autopilot?
40 lbs pressure
If the autopilot automatically disengages due to a "AP" or "YD" failure, what should be accomplished?
Call for the "Autopilot or Yaw Damper Fail" checklist!

Wait at least 1 minute before attempting to re-engage the autopilot.

If the autopilot dis-engages a second time a maintenance discrepancy write-up is required.
Is it required to respond to a "FMS message" light during the critical phase of flight?
No

Wait until no longer in the critical phase of flight before responding!
What does the acronym "GNSS" stand for?
Global Navigation Satellite System
What does the acronym "WAAS" stand for?
Wide Area Augmentation System

Note:
An additional sensor on the FMS provides "geostationary" satellite position.
What does the acronym "RAIM" stand for?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
What does the acronym "RNP" stand for?
Required Navigational Performance
What does the acronym "SBAS" stand for?
Space Based Augmentation System
When "initializing" the FMS, what position input provides the greatest accuracy?
GNSS
What is the procedure for "initializing" the FMS?

If "GNSS" is displayed in the "ID FIELD":

1. Press the "ON/OFF/DIM"key on the FMS to power it "ON".
- Allow the FMS to complete its "self-test" cycle (20 seconds).

2. Turn the IRS to "NAV".

3. When "GNSS or WASS" is displayed in the ID field, press "ACCEPT" to complete the initialization.


If "GNSS" is not displayed in the "ID FIELD":

1. Press the "ON/OFF/DIM" key on the FMS to power it "ON".
- Allow the FMS to complete its "self-test" cycle.

2. Press L1 to place the cursor over the "ID FIELD".

3. Enter the airports ICOA identifier into the "ID FIELD".

4. Keep pressing the "ENTER" button to cycle through the fields until the "ACCEPT" field is highlighted.

5. Press "ACCEPT" or "ENTER" to complete the initialization.

What must be programmed into the FMS prior to departure?
1. The flight plan

2. Any anticipated arrival procedure or star may be programmed at any time!
What information "will not" cross fill on the FMS?
1. Holding pattern definitions
2. VNav Profile
3. "DTO" (Direct To Command)
4. Fuel On Board (software error)
Is it required to program both FMS's with the "VNav" profile?
No

The VNav profile is only required to be programmed into the flying pilot's side.
Does the Q-400 utilize Q-Routes?
Yes

Q-Routes require at least one (1) operational GPS sensor!
What equipment is required when flying a RNAV-1 or RNAV-2 Sid or Star?
1. At least one (1) FMS on the flying pilots side.
2. At least one (1) operational GPS sensor.
3. The nav data base must be current in the FMS.
4. The departure or arrival airport must be entered into the flight plan.
5. The flight director must be operational when conducting a RNAV-1 Sid or Star.
Is it permissible to "manually" enter waypoints or change flyover waypoints in the flight plan when accomplishing a RNAV-1 or RNAV-2 Sid or Star?
No
What guidance does a RNAV-1 Sid or Star provide?
- Vertical guidance is provided as low as at least 500 feet AGL.

- Lateral guidance is provided within 1 nm of course centerline.

- Use of the flight director "is required"!
What guidance does a RNAV-2 Sid or Star provide?
- Vertical guidance is provided as low as at least 2,000 feet AGL.

- Lateral guidance is provided within 2 nm of course centerline.

- Use of the flight director "is not required" unless being radar vectored!
What two (2) types of Stars are there in Canada?
1. OPEN

2. CLOSED
What is an "OPEN" star in Canada?
An OPEN star terminates on the downwind leg with a published heading to fly.

Expect radar vectors off the published heading to the FAF.
What is a "CLOSED" star in Canada?
A "CLOSED" star will terminate at the Final Approach Course allowing you seamless access to the approach procedure "when cleared".
What does the following represent when naming a "DME ARC" in the FMS database?

D336O
D = Indicates a DME Arc

336 = Indicates the "Initial" radial to begin the arc.

O = Indicates the 15th letter of the alphabet which is the 15 NM arc.
At what time is it required to delete the "EOA" (End of Approach) from the FMS flight plan?
It is "no longer required" to delete the EOA on any approach!

The FMS has been updated so that it will automatically sequence on an ILS approach!
What type of inoperative fixes may the FMS be used for "substitution"?
VOR's / NDB's / DME's

Any fix with the exception of an ILS!
What restrictions apply to using the FMS to substitute for an inoperative navaid?
1. Only allowed in the U.S. and Canada.

2. Must have at least one (1) operative FMS with the "onside" GPS sensor operational.

3. The navaid must be retrieved from the FMS database and "not manually inputted".
At what times is using the FMS to substitute for an inoperative navaid "not allowed"?
1. Substituting the FAF on a "localizer based approach".

2. When using "pilot defined waypoints".

3. When certain caution messages are present on the FMS.
If an "Emergency Diversion" is required, how can it be accomplished using the FMS?
1. Select "DTO"
2. Select "Divert"

Note:
This feature is "only available" on UNS-1EW equipped aircraft!
The FMS will automatically update the 12 closest airports every 1 minute interval.
At what times is it required to use the HGS for takeoff?
Anytime the reported RVR is below 500/500/500.
All HGS "Low Visibility" takeoffs are conducted at what flap setting?
5 degrees
During a "Low Vis" departure using the FMS the first officer must state what if the aircraft drifts from centerline?
"CENTERLINE - STEER LEFT"

"CENTERLINE - STEER RIGHT"
What must be confirmed prior to conducting an HGS "Low Vis" takeoff?
1. All three (3) navs are set to the localizer frequency.
2. The front course is selected on both PFDs.
3. IRS is selected to "NAV" ("IRS NAV" is indicated on FMS Data Page 2/4).
4. Heading bug is selected to runway heading.
5. Input runway length and TDZE into the HGS Control Panel.
6. Select the Flight Director to the following modes:

- Heading
- ALT SEL
- 10 degrees nose up (use pitch trim wheel).

7. Verify "ToARM" is displayed in the HGS combiner.
At what time is a "Takeoff Abort" required when using the HGS for takeoff?
Loss of symbology below 80 kts with the runway centerline "not in sight" when below 500 RVR.
If a takeoff is aborted when using the HGS what must be accomplished?
Exit the runway and taxi back to the departure end to allow the HGS to "reset" the takeoff guidance.
When using the HGS, what mode should be selected for approach?
Non-Precision? / ILS CAT I? / ILS CAT I+/II/III?
Non-Precision Approach:
"Primary Mode"

ILS CAT I Approach:
"Primary: or "IMC" Mode

ILS CAT I+/II/III Approach:
"AIII Mode"
All approaches below _______ RVR are required to be manually flown by the captain using the HGS in AIII mode.
1,800 RVR
ILS CAT III approaches are authorized as low as what minimums?
50 feet DH

600/400 (Required and Controlling)

Rollout RVR is required but not controlling!
What must be confirmed when using the HGS in the AIII mode for landing?
1. Runway Length is entered.
2. TDZE is entered.
3. Glideslope is entered (2.51 to 3.0 degrees).
4. All three (3) navs are tuned to the localizer frequency.
5. The inbound course is selected on both PFDs.
6. The DH and MDA bugs are set.
7. The airspeed bugs are set.
During an HGS AIII approach, at what time will the AIII mode "activate"?
After "both" the localizer and glideslope have captured.
All HGS AIII approaches are conducted with the flaps selected to what?
15 degrees
What is the maximum wind velocities allowed for conducting an HGS AIII approach?
Headwind: 25 kts

Crosswind: 15 kts

Tailwind: 10 kts
What must the glideslope angle be between when conducting an AIII approach?
2.51 degrees to 3.0 degrees
At what times is a "Missed Approach" required when conducting an AIII approach using the HGS?
ANYTIME:

1. A required piece of "ground equipment" fails.
2. The HGS symbology fails during the approach.

BELOW 1,000' AGL:

1. Engine Failure occurs.

BELOW 500' AGL:

1. A required callout is not made.
2. Approach Warning occurs.

AT DH:

1. Visual reference with the touchdown zone is not made.
2. Visual reference with the touchdown zone is lost.
What is the procedure for accomplishing a "Rapid Re-Align" of the IRS?
1. Turn the IRS to "OFF" for 1 second and then back to "NAV" within 5 seconds.

2. Select the NAV Page 3/3 on FMS #1.

3. Press the "UPDATE SENSOR" button within 30 seconds.

NOTE:

If the IRS is selected to "OFF" for more than 5 seconds it will then require a "FULL" 7 minute alignment.