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137 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
venous drainage of left ovary/testis?
left gonadal vein -> left renal vein -> IVC
venous drainage of right ovary/testis?
right gonadal vein -> IVC
lymphatic drainage of ovaries/testes?
para-aortic lymph nodes
lymphatic drainage of scrotum/vulva/distal vagina?
superficial inguinal nodes
lymphatic drainage of uterus/proximal vagina?
obturator, external iliac, ypogastric nodes
which side is varicocele more common on?
left (more complicated venous drainage)
cardinal vs. round vs. broad ligament?
cardinal: cervix to side wall of pelvis, containes uterine vessels
round: uterine fundus to labia majora, no contained structures
broad: connects uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries to pelvic side wall; contains round uterus
histology of ovary?
simple cuboidal epithelium
histology of fallopian tube?
simple columnar epithelium, ciliated
histology of uterus?
simple columnar epithelium, pseudostratified, tubular glands
histology of endocervix?
simple columnar epithelium
histology of ectocervix?
stratified squamous epithelium
histology of vagina?
stratified squamous epithelium, nonkeratinized
opening of urethra on ventral surface of penis?
hypospadias; failure of urethral folds to close (analagous to female labia minora)
opening of urethra on dorsal surface of penis?
epispadias; failure of positioning of genital tubercle (analagous to clitoris in female)
pathway of sperm during ejaculation?
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory ducts
(Nothing)
Urethra
Penis
histology of epididymis?
pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia
histology of vas deferens?
pseudostratified columnar epithelium
MOA of sildenafil and vardenafil?
inhibit cGMP breakdown
nerves involved in male sexual response?
Erection: Parasympathetic (pelvic nerve)
Emission: Sympathetic nervous system (hypogastric)
Ejaculation: visceral and somatic (pudendal)
organelle that developes into sperm's acrosome?
golgi aparatus
organelle that developes into sperm's middle piece?
mitochondria
organelle that developes into sperm's tail?
centrioles
what cells are found in interstitium of the seminiferous tubules?
Leydig cells (stimulated by LH to produce testosterone)
what cells line the seminiferous tubules?
Sertoli cells (stimulated by FSH to make inhibin, androgen binding protein)
what cells make inhibin?
Sertoli cells
what cells make androgen binding protein?
Sertoli cells
what cells make anti-mullerian hormone?
Sertoli cells
what cells make testosterone (in testes)
Leydig cells
what cells in the testes are stimulated by FSH?
Sertoli cells (stimulated by FSH to make inhibin, androgen binding protein)
what cells in the testes are stimulated by LH?
Leydig cells (stimulated by LH to produce testosterone)
what cells make up blood-testes barrier?
Sertoli cells
what cells produce anti-mullerian hormone?
Sertoli cells
what androgens are made in testis?
DHT and testosterone
what androgens are made in adrenal?
androstenedione
comparative potency of androgens?
DHT > testosterone > androstenedione
how is DHT produced?
produced from testosterone by 5-alpha reductase (inhibited by finasteride)
function of enzyme aromatase?
converts testonsterone and androstenedione to estrogen; found in adipose tissue and Sertoli cells
what hormones control development of male internal/external genitalia?
Testosterone: internal
DHT: external + prostate
what hormone controlls growth of prostate?
DHT
what type of estrogen is indicator of fetal well-being?
estriol (produced by placenta)
where in cell are estrogen receptors?
in cytoplasm; translocate to nucleus when bound by ligand
what cell in ovaries is stimulated by FSH?
granulosa cell (produces estrogen from androstenedion)
what cell in ovaries is stimulated by LH?
theca cell (produces androstenedion)
where is prolactin produced?
in anterior pituitary; inhibited by dopamine from hypothalamus
where is progesterone produced?
corpus luteum, placenta, adrenal cortex, testes
what hormone increases body temperature?
progesterone (peak core body temp at time of ovulation)
effect of progesterone on uterine smooth muscle?
relaxes, prevents contractions
effect of progesterone on LH, FSH?
inhibits
what controlls endometrial proliferation?
estrogen stimulates, progesterone maintaines
when during menstrual cycle is progesterone hightest?
during secretory phase (day 21ish)
when during menstrual cycle is estrogen highest?
two peaks
1. right before LH surge (just prior to day 14 and ovulation)
2. broader hump during luteal/secretory phase (day 21ish)
when during menstrual cycle is LH highest?
LH surge just before ovulation (day 14)
corona radiata?
layer of granulosa cells surrounding egg
primary oocytes are arrested in what stage of meiosis?
prophase I (until ovulation)
secondary oocytes are arrested in what stage of meiosis?
metaphase II (until fertilization)
chromomes and genetic material of primary oocyte?
diploid 4N (46 sister chromatids)
chromomes and genetic material of secondary oocyte?
haploid 2N (23 sister chromatids)
what cells secrete beta-hCG?
trophoblasts
at what point is beta-hCG detectible?
detectible in blood 1 week after conception; home urine test 2 weeks after conception
decrease in what hormone induces lactation after delivery?
decrease in progesterone
role of oxytocin in lactation?
helps with milk letdown
hormone that induces and maintains lactation?
prolactin
discriminatory threshold for beta-hCG?
1500-2000; at this point IUP should be visible by transvaginal sonography
what mechanisms prevent double fertilization?
calcium influx causes swelling of space vitelline layer and plasma membrane
inactivation of bindin receptors causes hardening of vitelline layer
best test to confirm menopause?
increased FSH
level of GnRH in menopause?
increased (no negative feedback due to decreased levels of estrogen)
common cause of hypogonadism seen in infertility workup?
Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY male)
hormone levels seen in Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY male)?
• increased FSH (decreased inhibin due to dysgenesis of seminiferous tubules)
• decreased testosterone -> increased LH -> increased estrogen
hormone levels seen in Turner syndrome (XO female)?
decreased estrogen leads to increased LH and FSH
most common cause of primary amenorrhea?
Turner syndrome (XO female)
very tall male with severe acne and antisocial behavior?
XYY male; normal fertility
causes of female pseudohermaphrodism?
exposure to androgens during early gestation (eg congenital adrenal hyperplasia)
most common cause of male pseudohermaphrodism?
androgen insensitivity syndrome (causing testicular feminization)
presentation of 5-alpha reductase deficiency?
inability to convert testosterone to DHT; "penis at 12"
Kallmann syndrome?
decreased synthesis of gonadotropin in anterior pituitary leading to lack of secondary sexual characteristics and anosmia
karyotype of complete mole?
46,XX or 46,XY (all paternal)
karyotype of partial mole?
69,XXY (2 sperm + 1 egg)
preeclampsia symptoms prior to 20 weeks?
suggests molar pregnancy
HELLP syndrome (associated with preeclampsia)?
Hemolysis
Elevated LFTs
Low Platelets
meds used to treat preeclampsia?
IV magnesium sulfate and diazepam to prevent/treat seizures
pregnancy complications associated with DIC?
preeclampsia, placental abruption
environmental factors that increase risk of placental abruption?
smoking, hypertension, cocaine
massive bleeding after delivery?
placenta accretia or retained placental tissue
HPV types associated with cervical pathology?
16, 18
how can cervical cancer cause renal failure?
local invasion blocks ureters
how do leiomyomas respond to pregnancy? Menopause?
increase in size with pregnancy; decrease with menopause
relative incidence of gyn tumors in USA?
endometrial > ovarian > cervical
hormone levels in PCOS?
increased LH
decreased FSH
increased testosterone
germ cell tumor that can develop during pregnancy in mother or baby?
choriocarcinoma of synctiotrophoblastic cells
aggressive yolk gonadal malignancy in young children that resembles glomeruli?
yolk sac tumor; Schiller-Duval bodies
most common ovarian germ cell tumor?
teratoma
dermoid cyst?
mature teratoma
struma ovarii?
teratoma with functional thyroid tissue, presents as hyperthyroidism
Brenner tumor?
benign non-germ cell tumor of ovary; looks like Bladder
ovarian tumer with bundles of spindle shaped fibroblasts?
fibroma
Meig's syndrome?
triad of ovarian fibroma, ascites, and hydrothorax
ovarian pathology associated with hydrothorax?
ovarian fibroma; "Meig's syndrome"
Krukenberg tumor?
stomach cancer that metastasizes to ovaries; mucin-secreting signet cell adenocarcinoma
clear cell adenocarcinoma in vagina?
in women who had in utero exposure to DES
vaginal carcinoma in girls <4 years old?
sarcoma botryoides; spindle-shaped tumor cells, desmin positive
breast tumor with serous or bloody nipple discharge?
ductal; can benign or malignant
Phyllodes tumor?
benign breast tumor; large bulky mass of connective tissue and cysts with leaf-like projections
most important prognostic factor in malignant breast cancer?
axillary lymph node involvement
most common (and most invasive) malignant breast tumor?
invasive ductal
what chromosomes are BRCA genes on?
BRCA1 on chromosome 17
BRCA2 on chromosome 13
most common cause of breast lumps age 25 - menopause?
fibrocystic disease
most common pathogen in acute mastitis?
S. aureus
pathogen associated with acute prostatitis?
E. coli
what part of prostate is involved in BPH?
transitional cell zone
increased PSA?
BPH and prostate cancer; in prostate cancer, increased total PSA with decreased fraction of free PSA
what part of prostate is involved in prostate cancer?
peripheral zone
cause of back pain 2/2 prostate cancer?
bone mets
testicular tumor with large cells in lobules with watery cytoplasm and "fried egg" appearance?
seminoma
testicular tumor that resembles primitive glomeruli on histology?
yolk sac tumor; Schiller-Duval bodies
testicular tumor with disordered synctiotrophoblastic and cytotrophoblastic elements?
choriocarcinoma of synctiotrophoblastic cells
Reinke crystals?
Leydig cell tumor
testicular tumor associated with gynecomastia or precocious puberty in males?
Leydig cell
most common testicular cancer in older men?
testicular lymphoma
testicular masses that can be transilluminated?
1. varicocele
2. hydrocele
3. spermatocele
gray, solitary, crusty plaque on shaft of penis of man in 40s?
Bowen's disease (carcinoma in situ); progresses to invasive SCC in <10%
red velvety plaques on penis?
Erythroplasia of Queyrat (carcinoma in situ)
Bent penis due to acquired fibrous tissue formation?
Peyronie's disease
MOA of leuprolide?
GnRH analog that is agonist if used pulsatile, antagonist if given continuously
MOA of finasteride?
5-alpha reductase inhibitor (decreases conversion of testosterone to DHA)
why is ketoconazole used in PCOS?
prevents hirsutism by inhibiting steroid synthesis
why is spironolactone used in PCOS?
prevents hirsutism by inhibiting steroid binding
Flutamide?
nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at testosterone receptor; used in prostate carcinoma
hormone replacement therapy (HRT) increases risk of what?
• invasive breast cancer
• endometrial cancer (if unopposed)
• heart attack and stroke
hormone replacement therapy (HRT) decreases risk of what?
• osteoporotic fractures
• colorectal cancer
aromatase inhibitors used in postmenopausal women with breast cancer?
anastrozole, exemestane
MOA of clomiphene?
partial agonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus; prevents normal feedback inhibition, increases release of LH, FSH from pituitary
MOA of mifepristone?
competitive inhibitor of progestins at progesterone receptors
dinoprostone?
PGE2 analog used to induce labor
ritodrine, terbutaline?
beta-2 agonists that relax uterus and reduce premature uterine contractions
defect in Kartagener's syndrome?
dyneine defect leading to immotile cilia; results in infertility, bronchiectasis, situs inversus
isolated elevated alpha-fetoprotein?
neural tube defect