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288 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
"right dominant" heart?
posterior descending artery (supplies inferior portion of left ventricle) from RCA (80%)
"left dominant" heart?
posterior descending artery (supplies inferior portion of left ventricle) from circumflex artery (20%)
coronary artery that supplies posterior left ventricle?
circumflex artery (branch of left main)
coronary artery that supplies apex and anterior interventricular septum?
left anterior descending artery (LAD); branch of left main
coronary artery that supplies right ventricle?
Acute marginal artery (branch of RCA)
coronary artery that supplies posterior septum, AV/SA nodes?
posterior descending artery; branch of RCA (right dominant heart) or circumflex (left dominant)
most common site of coronary artery occlusion?
LAD
MAP formula?
2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure
pulse pressure is proportional to ____________?
stroke volume
three ways to increase stroke volume?
increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility
basic point of starling curve?
force of contraction is proportional to initial length of cardiac muscle fiber (preload)
site of most periperipheral resistance?
arterioles
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", loudest at apex and radiates toward axilla
mitral regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", enhanced by squatting and expiration
mitral regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", loudest at lower left sternal border
tricuspid regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", enhanced by inspiration
tricuspid regurgitation
crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following click
aortic stenosis
holosystolic, harsh sounding murmur, loudest at lower left sternal border
VSD
late systolic crescendo murmur with midsystolic click
mitral prolapse
immediate high pitched blowing diastolic murmur
aortic regurgitation
opening snap with late diastolic murmur
mitral stenosis
continuous machine-like murmur
patent ductus arteriosus
electrolyte current responsible for pacemaker activity
If channels (sodium current)
causes of EKG U wave?
hypokalemia, bradycardia
cause of congenital long QT syndromes?
defects in cardiac sodium or potassium channels
cardiac complication of Lyme disease?
3rd degree heart block
trigger and pathway of aortic arch baroreceptors?
respond only to increased BP; transmits via vagus nerve to medulla
trigger and pathway of carotid sinus baroreceptors?
responds to increased or decreased BP; transmits via glossopharyngeal nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla
organ that receives largest share of systemic cardiac output?
liver
organ with highest blood flow per gram of tissue?
kidney
normal PCWP?
<12
normal right atrial pressure?
<5
normal pulmonary artery pressures?
<25/10
physiologic response to pulmonary hypoxia?
vasoconstriction (shuts off circulation of poorly-ventilated area to prevent VQ mismatch)
four components to tetralogy of fallot?
1. pulmonary stenosis
2. RVH
3. overriding aorta
4. VSD
why does squatting improve symptoms in tetralogy of fallot?
compression of femoral arteries increases total peripheral resistance, thereby decreasing the right-to-left shunt
boot shaped heart on CXR?
tetralogy of fallot (RVH)
valvular problem associated with coartation of aorta?
bicuspid aortic valve
medication given to close PDA?
indomethacin
medication given to maintain open PDA?
prostaglandins (PGE)
cardiac defects associated with 22q11 syndromes?
truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot
cardiac defects associated with Down syndrome?
ASD, VSD, AV septal defect
cardiac defects associated with congenital rubella?
septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis
cardiac defects associated with Turner syndrome
preductal coarctation of aorta
cardiac defects associated with Marfan's syndrome?
aortic insufficiency
cardiac defects associated with infant of diabetic mother?
transposition of great arteries
arcus sinilis?
lipid deposit in cornea; nonspecific sign of hyperlipidemia
early histologic sign of MI?
contraction bands visible after 12-24 hours; early coagulative necrosis after 4 hours; release of contents of necrotic cells into bloodstream and beginning of neutrophil emigration
histology 2-4 days post MI?
acute inflammation in tissue surrounding infarct; dilate vessels (hyperemia), neutrophil emigration, extensive coagulative necrosis in muscle
at what point post MI is there greatest risk for free wall rupture?
5-10 days
at what point post MI is there greatest risk for ventricular aneurysm?
7 weeks
timing of elevated troponin I after MI?
rises after 4 hours; elevated for 7-10 days
what part of myocardium is especially vulnerable to ischemia?
subendocardium
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V1-V4?
anterior wall (LAD)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V1-V2?
anteroseptal (LAD)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V4-V6?
anterolateral (LCX)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads I, aVL?
lateral wall (LCX)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads II, III, aVF?
inferior wall (RCA)
Dressler's syndrome?
autoimune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis
cardiac sequella of Chagas disease?
dilated cardiomyopathy
cardiac pathology associated with Friedreich's ataxia?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
concentric vs. eccentric hypertrophy?
concentric hypertrophy: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
eccentric hypertrophy: dilated cardiomyopathy
systolic murmur and syncopal episodes with normal-sized heart?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophied IV septum obstructs outflow tract)
"heart failure" cells?
hemosiderin-laden macrophages in the lungs due to microhemorrhages from increased pulmonary capillary pressure
nutmeg liver?
histologic finding in hepatomegaly 2/2 congestive heart failure
Roth's spots?
round white spots on retina surrounded by hemorrhage; sign of bacterial endocarditis
Osler's nodes?
tender raised lesions on finger or toe pads; sign of bacterial endocarditis
Janeway lesions?
small erythematous lesions on palm or sole; sign of bacterial endocarditis
splinter hemorrhages on nail bed?
sign of bacterial endocarditis
bacteria known for causing bacterial endocarditis in colon cancer?
S. bovis
bacteria known for causing bacterial endocarditis on prosthetic valves?
S. epidermidis
endocarditis associated with SLE?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis (Sterile vegetations on both sides of valve)
valves most likely to be affected in rheumatic heart disease?
mitral > aortic >> tricuspid
granuloma with giant cells seen in rheumatic fever?
Aschoff bodies
activated histiocytes seen in rheumatic fever?
Anitschkow's cells
pulsus paradoxus?
exaggerated decrease in amplitude of pulse during inspiration. Seen in severe cardiac tamponade, asthma, obstructive sleep apnea, pericarditis, croup
most common primary cardiac tumor in adults, location?
Myxoma; most in left atrium (cause "ball-valve" obstruction, associated with multiple syncopal episodes)
most frequent primary cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyomas; associated with tuberous sclerosis
most common cardiac tumor?
metastases from melanoma and lymphoma
treatment for Wegener's granulomatosis?
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophila?
Churg-Strauss syndrome; pressents with asthma, sinusitis, skin lesions, peripheral neuropathy; p-ANCA
port wine stain on face associated with what congenital vascular disorder?
Sturge-Weber disease; other symptoms include ipsilateral intracerebral AVM, seizures, early-onset glaucoma
childhood systemic vasculitis associated with IgA nephropathy?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
thrombosing vasculitis seen in heavy smokers?
Buerger's disease
immune-complex mediated transmural vasculitis associated with Hep B?
polyarteritis nodosa
fever, arthritis, skin nodules, weak pulses in upper extremities?
Takayasu's arteritis; associated with increased ESR
vasculidities associated with increased ESR?
Takayasu's arteritis
Temporal arteritis
strawberry vs. cherry hemangioma?
strawberry - infancy, spontaneously regresses
cherry - elderly, does not regress
vascular tumor associated with trauma and pregnancy, can ulcerate and bleed?
Pyogenic granuloma
vascular tumor associated with Turner syndrome?
cystic hygroma (cavernous lymphangioma of neck)
benigh, painful, red-blue tumor under fingernails?
glomus tumor
highly lethal vascular tumor of liver?
angiosarcoma; associated with vinyl chloride, arsenic, and ThO2 exposure
lymphatic malignancy associated with persistent lymphedema?
lymphangiosarcoma
MOA of hydralazine?
increases cGMP causing smooth muscle relaxation (arterioles > veins … afterload reduction)
examples of calcium channel blockers?
nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
cardiac drugs used to treat raynaud's?
calcium channel blockers (nifedipine has greatest action on vascular smooth muscle > cardiac)
"right dominant" heart?
posterior descending artery (supplies inferior portion of left ventricle) from RCA (80%)
"left dominant" heart?
posterior descending artery (supplies inferior portion of left ventricle) from circumflex artery (20%)
coronary artery that supplies posterior left ventricle?
circumflex artery (branch of left main)
coronary artery that supplies apex and anterior interventricular septum?
left anterior descending artery (LAD); branch of left main
coronary artery that supplies right ventricle?
Acute marginal artery (branch of RCA)
coronary artery that supplies posterior septum?
posterior descending artery; branch of RCA (right dominant heart) or circumflex (left dominant)
most common site of coronary artery occlusion?
LAD
MAP formula?
2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure
pulse pressure is proportional to ____________?
stroke volume
three ways to increase stroke volume?
increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility
basic point of starling curve?
force of contraction is proportional to initial length of cardiac muscle fiber (preload)
site of most periperipheral resistance?
arterioles
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", loudest at apex and radiates toward axilla
mitral regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", enhanced by squatting and expiration
mitral regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", loudest at lower left sternal border
tricuspid regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", enhanced by inspiration
tricuspid regurgitation
crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following click
aortic stenosis
holosystolic, harsh sounding murmur, loudest at lower left sternal border
VSD
late systolic crescendo murmur with midsystolic click
mitral prolapse
immediate high pitched blowing diastolic murmur
aortic regurgitation
opening snap with late diastolic murmur
mitral stenosis
continuous machine-like murmur
patent ductus arteriosus
electrolyte current responsible for pacemaker activity
If channels (sodium current)
causes of EKG U wave?
hypokalemia, bradycardia
cause of congenital long QT syndromes?
defects in cardiac sodium or potassium channels
cardiac complication of Lyme disease?
3rd degree heart block
trigger and pathway of aortic arch baroreceptors?
respond only to increased BP; transmits via vagus nerve to medulla
trigger and pathway of carotid sinus baroreceptors?
responds to increased or decreased BP; transmits via glossopharyngeal nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla
organ that receives largest share of systemic cardiac output?
liver
organ with highest blood flow per gram of tissue?
kidney
normal PCWP?
<12
normal right atrial pressure?
<5
normal pulmonary artery pressures?
<25/10
physiologic response to pulmonary hypoxia?
vasoconstriction (shuts off circulation of poorly-ventilated area to prevent VQ mismatch)
four components to tetralogy of fallot?
1. pulmonary stenosis
2. RVH
3. overriding aorta
4. VSD
why does squatting improve symptoms in tetralogy of fallot?
compression of femoral arteries increases total peripheral resistance, thereby decreasing the right-to-left shunt
boot shaped heart on CXR?
tetralogy of fallot (RVH)
congenital valvular problem associated with coarctation of aorta?
bicuspid aortic valve
medication given to close PDA?
indomethacin
medication given to maintain open PDA?
prostaglandins (PGE)
cardiac defects associated with 22q11 syndromes?
truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot
cardiac defects associated with Down syndrome?
ASD, VSD, AV septal defect
cardiac defects associated with congenital rubella?
septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis
cardiac defects associated with Turner syndrome
preductal coarctation of aorta
cardiac defects associated with Marfan's syndrome?
aortic insufficiency
cardiac defects associated with infant of diabetic mother?
transposition of great arteries
arcus sinilis?
lipid deposit in cornea; nonspecific sign of hyperlipidemia
early histologic sign of MI?
contraction bands visible after 12-24 hours; early coagulative necrosis after 4 hours; release of contents of necrotic cells into bloodstream and beginning of neutrophil emigration
histology 2-4 days post MI?
acute inflammation in tissue surrounding infarct; dilate vessels (hyperemia), neutrophil emigration, extensive coagulative necrosis in muscle
at what point post MI is there greatest risk for free wall rupture?
5-10 days
at what point post MI is there greatest risk for ventricular aneurysm?
7 weeks
timing of elevated troponin I after MI?
rises after 4 hours; elevated for 7-10 days
what part of myocardium is especially vulnerable to ischemia?
subendocardium
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V1-V4?
anterior wall (LAD)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V1-V2?
anteroseptal (LAD)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V4-V6?
anterolateral (LCX)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads I, aVL?
lateral wall (LCX)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads II, III, aVF?
inferior wall (RCA)
Dressler's syndrome?
autoimune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis
cardiac sequella of Chagas disease?
dilated cardiomyopathy
cardiac pathology associated with Friedreich's ataxia?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
concentric vs. eccentric hypertrophy?
concentric hypertrophy: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
eccentric hypertrophy: dilated cardiomyopathy
systolic murmur and syncopal episodes with normal-sized heart?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophied IV septum obstructs outflow tract)
"heart failure" cells?
hemosiderin-laden macrophages in the lungs due to microhemorrhages from increased pulmonary capillary pressure
nutmeg liver?
histologic finding in hepatomegaly 2/2 congestive heart failure
Roth's spots?
round white spots on retina surrounded by hemorrhage; sign of bacterial endocarditis
Osler's nodes?
tender raised lesions on finger or toe pads; sign of bacterial endocarditis
Janeway lesions?
small erythematous lesions on palm or sole; sign of bacterial endocarditis
splinter hemorrhages on nail bed?
sign of bacterial endocarditis
bacteria known for causing bacterial endocarditis in colon cancer?
S. bovis
bacteria known for causing bacterial endocarditis on prosthetic valves?
S. epidermidis
endocarditis associated with SLE?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis (Sterile vegetations on both sides of valve)
valves most likely to be affected in rheumatic heart disease?
mitral > aortic >> tricuspid
granuloma with giant cells seen in rheumatic fever?
Aschoff bodies
activated histiocytes seen in rheumatic fever?
Anitschkow's cells
pulsus paradoxus?
exaggerated decrease in amplitude of pulse during inspiration. Seen in severe cardiac tamponade, asthma, obstructive sleep apnea, pericarditis, croup
most common primary cardiac tumor in adults, location?
Myxoma; most in left atrium (cause "ball-valve" obstruction, associated with multiple syncopal episodes)
most frequent primary cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyomas; associated with tuberous sclerosis
most common cardiac tumor?
metastases from melanoma and lymphoma
treatment for Wegener's granulomatosis?
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophila?
Churg-Strauss syndrome; pressents with asthma, sinusitis, skin lesions, peripheral neuropathy; p-ANCA
port wine stain on face associated with what congenital vascular disorder?
Sturge-Weber disease; other symptoms include ipsilateral intracerebral AVM, seizures, early-onset glaucoma
childhood systemic vasculitis associated with IgA nephropathy?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
thrombosing vasculitis seen in heavy smokers?
Buerger's disease
immune-complex mediated transmural vasculitis associated with Hep B?
polyarteritis nodosa
fever, arthritis, skin nodules, weak pulses in upper extremities?
Takayasu's arteritis; associated with increased ESR
vasculidities associated with increased ESR?
Takayasu's arteritis
Temporal arteritis
strawberry vs. cherry hemangioma?
strawberry - infancy, spontaneously regresses
cherry - elderly, does not regress
vascular tumor associated with trauma and pregnancy, can ulcerate and bleed?
Pyogenic granuloma
vascular tumor associated with Turner syndrome?
cystic hygroma (cavernous lymphangioma of neck)
benigh, painful, red-blue tumor under fingernails?
glomus tumor
highly lethal vascular tumor of liver?
angiosarcoma; associated with vinyl chloride, arsenic, and ThO2 exposure
lymphatic malignancy associated with persistent lymphedema?
lymphangiosarcoma
MOA of hydralazine?
increases cGMP causing smooth muscle relaxation (arterioles > veins … afterload reduction)
examples of calcium channel blockers?
nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
cardiac drugs used to treat raynaud's?
calcium channel blockers (nifedipine has greatest action on vascular smooth muscle > cardiac)
"right dominant" heart?
posterior descending artery (supplies inferior portion of left ventricle) from RCA (80%)
"left dominant" heart?
posterior descending artery (supplies inferior portion of left ventricle) from circumflex artery (20%)
coronary artery that supplies posterior left ventricle?
circumflex artery (branch of left main)
coronary artery that supplies apex and anterior interventricular septum?
left anterior descending artery (LAD); branch of left main
coronary artery that supplies right ventricle?
Acute marginal artery (branch of RCA)
coronary artery that supplies posterior septum, AV/SA nodes?
posterior descending artery; branch of RCA (right dominant heart) or circumflex (left dominant)
most common site of coronary artery occlusion?
LAD
MAP formula?
2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure
pulse pressure is proportional to ____________?
stroke volume
three ways to increase stroke volume?
increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility
basic point of starling curve?
force of contraction is proportional to initial length of cardiac muscle fiber (preload)
site of most periperipheral resistance?
arterioles
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", loudest at apex and radiates toward axilla
mitral regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", enhanced by squatting and expiration
mitral regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", loudest at lower left sternal border
tricuspid regurgitation
holosystolic high pitched "blowing murmur", enhanced by inspiration
tricuspid regurgitation
crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following click
aortic stenosis
holosystolic, harsh sounding murmur, loudest at lower left sternal border
VSD
late systolic crescendo murmur with midsystolic click
mitral prolapse
immediate high pitched blowing diastolic murmur
aortic regurgitation
opening snap with late diastolic murmur
mitral stenosis
continuous machine-like murmur
patent ductus arteriosus
electrolyte current responsible for pacemaker activity
If channels (sodium current)
causes of EKG U wave?
hypokalemia, bradycardia
cause of congenital long QT syndromes?
defects in cardiac sodium or potassium channels
cardiac complication of Lyme disease?
3rd degree heart block
trigger and pathway of aortic arch baroreceptors?
respond only to increased BP; transmits via vagus nerve to medulla
trigger and pathway of carotid sinus baroreceptors?
responds to increased or decreased BP; transmits via glossopharyngeal nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla
organ that receives largest share of systemic cardiac output?
liver
organ with highest blood flow per gram of tissue?
kidney
normal PCWP?
<12
normal right atrial pressure?
<5
normal pulmonary artery pressures?
<25/10
physiologic response to pulmonary hypoxia?
vasoconstriction (shuts off circulation of poorly-ventilated area to prevent VQ mismatch)
four components to tetralogy of fallot?
1. pulmonary stenosis
2. RVH
3. overriding aorta
4. VSD
why does squatting improve symptoms in tetralogy of fallot?
compression of femoral arteries increases total peripheral resistance, thereby decreasing the right-to-left shunt
boot shaped heart on CXR?
tetralogy of fallot (RVH)
valvular problem associated with coartation of aorta?
bicuspid aortic valve
medication given to close PDA?
indomethacin
medication given to maintain open PDA?
prostaglandins (PGE)
cardiac defects associated with 22q11 syndromes?
truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot
cardiac defects associated with Down syndrome?
ASD, VSD, AV septal defect
cardiac defects associated with congenital rubella?
septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis
cardiac defects associated with Turner syndrome
preductal coarctation of aorta
cardiac defects associated with Marfan's syndrome?
aortic insufficiency
cardiac defects associated with infant of diabetic mother?
transposition of great arteries
arcus sinilis?
lipid deposit in cornea; nonspecific sign of hyperlipidemia
early histologic sign of MI?
contraction bands visible after 12-24 hours; early coagulative necrosis after 4 hours; release of contents of necrotic cells into bloodstream and beginning of neutrophil emigration
histology 2-4 days post MI?
acute inflammation in tissue surrounding infarct; dilate vessels (hyperemia), neutrophil emigration, extensive coagulative necrosis in muscle
at what point post MI is there greatest risk for free wall rupture?
5-10 days
at what point post MI is there greatest risk for ventricular aneurysm?
7 weeks
timing of elevated troponin I after MI?
rises after 4 hours; elevated for 7-10 days
what part of myocardium is especially vulnerable to ischemia?
subendocardium
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V1-V4?
anterior wall (LAD)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V1-V2?
anteroseptal (LAD)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads V4-V6?
anterolateral (LCX)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads I, aVL?
lateral wall (LCX)
where is infarct if Q waves are present in leads II, III, aVF?
inferior wall (RCA)
Dressler's syndrome?
autoimune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis
cardiac sequella of Chagas disease?
dilated cardiomyopathy
cardiac pathology associated with Friedreich's ataxia?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
concentric vs. eccentric hypertrophy?
concentric hypertrophy: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
eccentric hypertrophy: dilated cardiomyopathy
systolic murmur and syncopal episodes with normal-sized heart?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophied IV septum obstructs outflow tract)
"heart failure" cells?
hemosiderin-laden macrophages in the lungs due to microhemorrhages from increased pulmonary capillary pressure
nutmeg liver?
histologic finding in hepatomegaly 2/2 congestive heart failure
Roth's spots?
round white spots on retina surrounded by hemorrhage; sign of bacterial endocarditis
Osler's nodes?
tender raised lesions on finger or toe pads; sign of bacterial endocarditis
Janeway lesions?
small erythematous lesions on palm or sole; sign of bacterial endocarditis
splinter hemorrhages on nail bed?
sign of bacterial endocarditis
bacteria known for causing bacterial endocarditis in colon cancer?
S. bovis
bacteria known for causing bacterial endocarditis on prosthetic valves?
S. epidermidis
endocarditis associated with SLE?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis (Sterile vegetations on both sides of valve)
valves most likely to be affected in rheumatic heart disease?
mitral > aortic >> tricuspid
granuloma with giant cells seen in rheumatic fever?
Aschoff bodies
activated histiocytes seen in rheumatic fever?
Anitschkow's cells
pulsus paradoxus?
exaggerated decrease in amplitude of pulse during inspiration. Seen in severe cardiac tamponade, asthma, obstructive sleep apnea, pericarditis, croup
most common primary cardiac tumor in adults, location?
Myxoma; most in left atrium (cause "ball-valve" obstruction, associated with multiple syncopal episodes)
most frequent primary cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyomas; associated with tuberous sclerosis
most common cardiac tumor?
metastases from melanoma and lymphoma
treatment for Wegener's granulomatosis?
Cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophila?
Churg-Strauss syndrome; pressents with asthma, sinusitis, skin lesions, peripheral neuropathy; p-ANCA
port wine stain on face associated with what congenital vascular disorder?
Sturge-Weber disease; other symptoms include ipsilateral intracerebral AVM, seizures, early-onset glaucoma
childhood systemic vasculitis associated with IgA nephropathy?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
thrombosing vasculitis seen in heavy smokers?
Buerger's disease
immune-complex mediated transmural vasculitis associated with Hep B?
polyarteritis nodosa
fever, arthritis, skin nodules, weak pulses in upper extremities?
Takayasu's arteritis; associated with increased ESR
vasculidities associated with increased ESR?
Takayasu's arteritis
Temporal arteritis
strawberry vs. cherry hemangioma?
strawberry - infancy, spontaneously regresses
cherry - elderly, does not regress
vascular tumor associated with trauma and pregnancy, can ulcerate and bleed?
Pyogenic granuloma
vascular tumor associated with Turner syndrome?
cystic hygroma (cavernous lymphangioma of neck)
benigh, painful, red-blue tumor under fingernails?
glomus tumor
highly lethal vascular tumor of liver?
angiosarcoma; associated with vinyl chloride, arsenic, and ThO2 exposure
lymphatic malignancy associated with persistent lymphedema?
lymphangiosarcoma
MOA of hydralazine?
increases cGMO causing smooth muscle relaxation (arterioles > veins … afterload reduction)
examples of calcium channel blockers?
nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
cardiac drugs used to treat raynaud's?
calcium channel blockers (nifedipine has greatest action on vascular smooth muscle > cardiac)