Step 2 Infectious Disease

Front 1

Gram stain showing gram (-) cocci with negative culture and single pustular lesions with swelling of joints is a sign of what?

Back 1

Disseminated gonococcal infection has what gram stain and culture results?

Front 2

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT) with PCR is the most sensitive and specific test for what disease?

Back 2

Gonorrhea should be tested for using what method?

Front 3

Treponema Pallidum causes what disease?

Back 3

Syphillis is caused by what organism?

Front 4

A painless lesion with raised indurated margin is diagnostic of what disease?

Back 4

Syphillis has what type of skin lesion?

Front 5

Flat, velvety, gray to white lesions in the perineal area associated with secondary syphillis are also known as what?

Back 5

What do condyloma lata look like? What disease are they associated with?

Front 6

A maculopapular rash on the palms and soles with generalized lymphadenopathy and elevated liver enzymes is due to what disease?

Back 6

Secondary Syphillis may appear with what type of rash?

Front 7

Application of acetic acid can turn which lesions white?

Back 7

Condyloma accuminata- what substance changes their color and what is the color change?

Front 8

What is the first line of treatment for HPV/Condyloma accuminatum in pregnancy?

Back 8

Trichloracetic acid should be used to treat which lesions in pregnant ladies?

Front 9

The release of what substance can cause fever, chills, or HA in a patient being treated for syphillis, also known as the Jarisch Herxheimer reaction?

Back 9

Lipo-polysaccharides released from dying spirochetes can cause fever, chills, or HA in patients being treated for what disease? What is the name for this reaction?

Front 10

A painful ulcer with a soft necrotic base and painful lymphadenopathy is probably due to what organism?

Back 10

Hemophilus ducreyi causes what type of chancroids?

Front 11

What test allows you to see multinucleated giant cells on a patient with herpes?

Back 11

Tzank preparation will show what on a patient with herpes?

Front 12

When is transmission of genital herpes possible? Use daily supressive therapy if > 6 episodes per year.

Back 12

When lesions are present, transmission is possible even with a condom. Transmission is also possible during the asymptomatic period. When should you use daily suppressive therapy?

Front 13

What organism causes Lympho-granuloma Venerium? What does it look like?

Back 13

Chlamydia trachomatis can cause draining sinuses or perirectal fistulas if it progresses to what disease?

Front 14

What organism causes granuloma inguinale? What does it look like?

Back 14

Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis can cause painless large ulcerated lesions with beefy-red/friable base. What is the name for this condition?

Front 15

What is the treatment for Granuloma Inguinale? What characteristic finding is found in the scrapings?

Back 15

Tetracycline or Erythromycin should be used to treat what lesion with donovan bodies in the scrapings?

Front 16

What test do you use to screen for HIV in newborns?

Back 16

HIV DNA PCR should be used instead of RNA PCR to screen what population?

Front 17

When should you start Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 17

Start treatment with Bactrim when CD4<200. What infection are you preventing?

Front 18

When should you start Toxoplasma prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 18

Start treatment with Bactrim (or add Pyrimethamine to Dapsone) when CD4<100. What infection are you preventing?

Front 19

When should you start Pneumocystis Mycobacterium Avium Complex prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 19

Start treatment with weekly Azithromycin/Clarithromycin when CD4<50. What infection are you preventing?

Front 20

When should you start Histoplasma prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 20

Start treatment with Itraconazole when CD4<150. What infection are you preventing?

Front 21

What test do you use to screen for HIV in newborns?

Back 21

HIV DNA PCR should be used instead of RNA PCR to screen what population?

Front 22

When should you start Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 22

Start treatment with Bactrim when CD4<200. What infection are you preventing?

Front 23

When should you start Toxoplasma prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 23

Start treatment with Bactrim (or add Pyrimethamine to Dapsone) when CD4<100. What infection are you preventing?

Front 24

When should you start Pneumocystis Mycobacterium Avium Complex prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 24

Start treatment with weekly Azithromycin/Clarithromycin when CD4<50. What infection are you preventing?

Front 25

When should you start Histoplasma prophylaxis in an HIV patient? What is the DOC?

Back 25

Start treatment with Itraconazole when CD4<150. What infection are you preventing?

Front 26

An HIV patient treated with Aerosolized Pentamidine for PCP are at risk for what 2 conditions?

Back 26

Pneumothorax and apical PCP infection are risks associated with use of what medication?

Front 27

What are the live vaccines?

Back 27

Polio
Yellow Fever
MMR
Varicella

What's special about these vaccines?

Front 28

What medication do you use for multi-drug resistant HIV? How does it work?

Back 28

Enfuviritide is a fusion inhibitor, which blocks entry of HIV into cells. When do you use it?

Front 29

What medication would be good for your HIV patient who also has Hep B?

Back 29

Lamivudine or Tenofovir are good for an HIV infected patient who also has what?

Front 30

When treating an HIV patient for high cholesterol, what should be your first statin? If TG is > 500, what should you start with?

Back 30

Pravistatin (FRA) for patients with HIV and high cholesterol. Gemfibrozil for high TG.

Front 31

Which HIV med can cause neurological disturbances?

Back 31

Efavirenz can cause what side effect?

Front 32

Which HIV med can cause progressive ascending neuromuscular weakness?

Back 32

Stavudine can cause what side effect?

Front 33

Which HIV med can cause liver toxicity?

Back 33

Nevirapine can cause what side effect?

Front 34

What are the CNS enhancing lesions seen in HIV patients?

Back 34

Toxoplasmosis, lymphoma, or brain abscess have what CT appearance?

Front 35

How do you treat a Toxoplasmosis brain lesion in an HIV patient? What if your treatment doesn't work?

Back 35

You treat the lesion first with Sulfadiazine/Clinda with Pyrimethamine and Leukovorin. If it shrinks, you don't have to do the brain biopsy, it's not lymphoma.

Front 36

How do you distinguish community aquired pneumonia from PCP in an HIV patient?

Back 36

A focal infiltrate suggests ___, compared to diffuse infiltrate, which suggests ____ in an HIV patient.

Front 37

What is a non-enhancing lesion in an HIV patient?

Back 37

JC virus can cause progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy (PML) which can have what type of lesion on CT?

Front 38

An HIV patient has CSF with encapsulated yeast. What is it and how do you treat?

Back 38

Amphoteracin B AND Flucytosine both should be used to treat Cryptococcal Meningitis. What will the CSF show?

Front 39

And HIV patient complains of visual loss. Opthalmoscopy shows perivascular hemorrhage and fluffy exudates. What is it and how do you treat?

Back 39

Ganciclovir or Valganciclovir should be used to treat CMV retinitis. What do you see in the ophthalmoscope?

Front 40

How do you treat molluscum contagiosum?

Back 40

Fluconazole should be used to treat which centrally umbilicated papular skin lesion?

Front 41

What is the treatment for a white lesion on the tongue that cannot easily be moved by scraping? What's the lesion?

Back 41

Acyclovir should be used to treat Hairy Leukoplakia. What does the lesion look like?

Front 42

What is the treatment for a white lesion on the tongue that can easily be moved by scraping? What's the lesion?

Back 42

Clotrimazole troches or Nystatin swish and swallow should be used to treat Oral Candidiasis. What does the lesion look like?

Front 43

Contact with soil contaminated with bird/bat droppings will make you highly suspicious of what infection?

Back 43

Histoplasmosis is usually contracted after contact with what?

Front 44

What organism is a multinucleate yeast with thick refractile cell wall? What type of lesion does it leave?

Back 44

Blastomycosis leaves a raised verrucous lesion with central atrophic scarring. What does it look like under the microscope?

Front 45

You suspect TB, but there are partially AF, filamentous, branching, gram (+) rods under the microscope- what is it?

Back 45

Nocardiosis is often mistaken for what infection? What does it look like?

Front 46

What is the treatment for Lyme disease? How does it present?

Back 46

Doxy should be given for what disease with a gradually enlarging rash with central clearing?

Front 47

How do you treat Babesiosis? What does this disease do to the circulating cells?

Back 47

Atovaquone is used to treat what disease with rings in the RBC's?

Front 48

What are the 4 tick diseases?

Back 48

Lyme, Babesiosis, Ehrlichiosis, and RMSF are all caused by what organism?

Front 49

Patient with h/o a tick bite presents with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely cause, and how would you treat it?

Back 49

Ehrlichiosis should be treated with Doxy. How does it present?

Front 50

A patient developes a macular rash on the palms and soles that becomes petechial. What do you suspect, and how do you treat?

Back 50

Treat RMSF with Doxy. What is special about the rash?

Front 51

Coxackie virus primarily causes what two diseases in kids?

Back 51

Hand-Foot-Mouth disease and herpangina are commonly caused by what virus?

Front 52

Posterior cervical and post-auricular lymphadenopathy 5-10 days before a rash is probably due to what virus?

Back 52

Rubella virus causes what type of lymphadenopathy? When does it occur?

Front 53

Scarlet fever is caused by what bacteria? What is the oral lesion?

Back 53

Group A strep can cause what disease with a strawberry tongue?

Front 54

A small red spot with gray/white center on the buccal mucosa, followed by a brick red rash, is probably what disease?

Back 54

Measles (Rubeola) first presents with Koplik's spots. What do they look like, and what follows the spots?

Front 55

A patient with what virus should be put on airborn isolation until the lesions crust?

Back 55

Varicella patients should be put on what type of isolation? For how long?

Front 56

Parvovirus B19 can cause what complication in pregnancy?

Back 56

Fetal loss or hydrops fetalis can occur in pregnant women exposed to what virus?

Front 57

A gray membrane over the tonsils could be a sign of what disease?

Back 57

Diptheria can do what to the tonsils?

Front 58

Large basophilic lymphocytes with vacuolated appearance are indicative of what disease?

Back 58

EBV or infectious mononucleosis has what appearance of cells?

Front 59

What is Reye's Syndrome?

Back 59

Rapidly progressing hepatic failure and encephalopathy in a child who has taken aspirin is also known as what?

Front 60

Which disease is associated with contact with unpastuerized milk/cheese?

Back 60

Brucellosis can be contracted after eating what?

Front 61

Which disease is associated with pig contact? What organism causes it?

Back 61

Cysticercosis, caused by Taenia Solium tapeworm, is associated with what animal?

Front 62

Which disease is associated with sheep contact? What organism causes it?

Back 62

Echinococciosis, caused by Echinococcus granulosus tapeworm, is associated with what animal?

Front 63

Hydatid cysts found in the liver are usually caused by what organism?

Back 63

Echinococcus granulosus causes what type of cysts?

Front 64

Serpiginous skin lesion with GI or Lung complaints can be caused by what organism?

Back 64

Strongyloides Stercoralis can cause what type of skin lesion?

Front 65

Serpiginous skin lesion can most likely be caused by what organism?

Back 65

Cutaneous Larva Migrans, from infection with Ancylostoma Brazilience, can cause what type of skin lesion?