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311 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
an alcoholic vomits and develops foul-smelling sputum. What bug is likely responsible?
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Anaerobes
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Middle-aged man develops acute pain in one joint and bilateral Bell's Palsy. What is the likely disease?
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Lyme Disease
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Urine analysis shows white blood cell casts. What disease does the patient have?
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pyelonephritis
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Patient has a thorn prick, and ulcers along the line of lymphatic drainage. What bug causes this?
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Sporothrix schenckii
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25-year old patient feels burning after eating, and biopsy shows gram negative rods. What's the bug?
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helicobacter pylori
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32-year old male has cauliflower skin lesions, tissue biopsy shows broad-based budding yeasts. What's the bug?
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blastomyces
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breast-feeding woman suddenly develops redness and tenderness, and a mass on one side. What's the disease and bug?
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Mastitis caused by s. aureus
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20-year-old college student has lymphadenopathy, fever, hepatosplenomegaly. The blood agglutinates sheep RBCs. What cell does this bug infect?
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B-cells (this is mono caused by EBV)
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3 hours after eating custard at a picnic, a whole family begins to vomit. After 10 hours, they were better. What is the organism?
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S. aureus (if makes a pre-formed enterotoxin)
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Infant becomes flaccid after eating honey. What's the organism, and the mechanism of action?
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clostridium botulinum, which inhibits release of ACh
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A guy has squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. What virus was he exposed to?
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HPV
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Patient develops endocarditis 3 weeks after receiving a prosthetic heart valve. What organism is suspected?
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S. epidermidis
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55-year-old smoker and heavy drinker has a new cough and flu-like symptoms. Gram stain shows no organisms, silver stain shows gram-negative rods in sputum. What's the diagnosis?
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Legionella pneumonia
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After taking clindamycin, patient develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. Why?
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clindamycin wiped out normal gut flora, which was then overgrown by clostridium difficile
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25-year-old man presents with 3 days of fever, chills, and a painful, swollen knee. What's the diagnosis and causative agent?
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septic arthritis, caused by gonorrhea
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19-year-old female college student has vaginal itching and thick, curdy discharge. What's the bug?
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candida albicans
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30-year old woman returns from a camping trip and complains of watery diarrhea and cramps. What's the bug?
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giardia lamblia
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What substance on the surface of gram-positive bacteria induces TNF and IL-1 in the host?
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teichoic acid
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What substance on the surface of gram-negative bacteria induces TNF and IL-1 in the host?
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lipopolysaccharide
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What bacteria has no cell wall, and sterols in its membrane?
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mycoplasm
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Which bacteria contains mycolic acid and lots of lipids in its cell wall?
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mycobacteria
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What kind of bacteria have a periplasmic space, and what is found there?
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gram negative bacteria have it, and it's between the plasma membrane and the cell wall. It contains enzymes (like beta-lactamase)
|
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Which bugs will NOT show up on a gram-stain?
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Treponema, Ricksettia, Mycobacteria, Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia
(These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color) |
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Which stain identifies Mycobacteria?
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acid-fast stain
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Which stain identifies legionella?
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silver stain
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What is going on during the lag phase on the bacterial growth curve?
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baccies are metabolically active, but not dividing
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What causes the stationary phase on the bacterial growth curve?
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baccies deplete their nutrients, and either die or form spores
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Genes for exotoxin are found, where now?
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on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage
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Genes for endotoxin are found, where now?
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on the bacterial chromosome
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What chemical that makes up exotoxin?
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polypeptides
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What chemical is endotoxin made of?
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lipopolysaccharide
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Staph aureus produces protein A; what does it do?
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binds Fc region of IgA, helps the bug evade our immune system
|
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Some encapsulated baccies produce IgA protease. What does it do?
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cuts IgA in half, inactivating it.
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Group A strep has M protein on its surface. What does it do?
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helps prevent phagocytosis
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Staph Aureaus secretes TSST-1. What does it do?
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binds MHC-2 and T-cell receptors, activating IFN-gamma and IL-2. Causes toxic shock syndrome.
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Strep pyogenes can cause scarlett fever through what mechanism?
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secreting a toxin that causes T-cells to release INF-gamma and IL-2
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C. Diptheriae releases a toxin that does what?
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inactivates EF-2 in cells in the pharynx. Causes pharyngitis and "pseudomembrane"
|
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Vibrio cholera secretes a toxin that does what?
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stimulates adenosyl cyclase in enterocytes, which pumps Cl- out. Causes watery diarrhea
|
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E. Coli secretes 2 toxins that do, what?
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heat labile = increase cAMP
heat stable = increase cGMP both cause watery diarrhea |
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Bordetella pertussi secretes a toxin that does what?
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increases cAMP by inhibiting G-alpha, causes whooping cough and lymphocytosis
|
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Clostridium perfringens secretes a toxin that does what?
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alpha toxin causes gas gangrene, shows up as a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar
|
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clostridum tetani secretes a toxin that does what?
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blocks the release of GABA and glycine from neurons; causes lockjaw and tetanus
|
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clostridum botulinum secretes a toxin that does what?
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blocks the release of ACh from neurons, causes paralysis and anti-cholinergic symptoms
|
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Bacillus anthracis secretes a toxin that causes what?
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the toxin is an adenosyl cyclase that causes anthrax
|
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Shigella secretes a toxin that does what?
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shiga toxin cleaves host cell RNA and causes cytokine release, causes bloody diarrhea and HUS
|
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What bug secretes streptolysin O, and what does it do?
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strep pyogenes secretes streptolysin O, and it lyses RBCs
|
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What is the most antigenic part of endotoxin?
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lipid A
|
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What is the fermentation difference between N. meningititis and N. gonorrhea?
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N. meningitidis ferments maltose and glucose, N. gonorrhea only ferments glucose
|
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Which bacteria produces a yellow pigment?
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s. aureus
|
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Which bacteria produces a greenish blue pigment?
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
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Which bacteria produces a red pigment?
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serratia marcescens
|
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What bugs show up on a gram stain as purple or blue rods?
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clostridium
listeria bacillus |
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How do you distinguish group A strep from group B strep in the lab?
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Group A strep is bacitracin sensitive,
Group B strep is bacitracin resistant |
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How do you distinguish strep pneumoniae from strep viridans in the lab?
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strep pneumoniae is optochin sensitive,
strep viridans is optochin resistant |
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How do you distinguish staph aureus from staph epidermidis in the lab?
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staph aureus is coagulase positive,
staph epidermidis is coagulase negative |
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How do you distinguish staph saprophyticus from staph epidermidis in the lab?
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staph saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant,
staph epidermidis is novobiocin sensitive |
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What bugs show up as pink coccoid rods on a gram stain?
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H. influenzae
Pasteurella Brucella B. pertussis |
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What bugs show up as pink cocci on a gram stain?
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N. meningitis,
N. gonorrhea |
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Which gram-negative rods can ferment lactose?
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klebsiella
E coli Enterobacter |
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Which gram-negative rods no not ferment lactose, and are oxidase negative?
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shigella
salmonella proteus |
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Which gram-negative rods do not ferment lactose, but are oxidase positive?
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pseudomonas
|
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What special agar does H influenzae grow best on?
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chocolate agar with NAD and heme
|
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What special agar does N. gonorrhoae grow best on?
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Thayer-Martin agar
|
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What special agar does B pertussis grow best on?
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bordet-gengou agar
|
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What special agar does c. diptheriae grow best on?
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loffler's media or a tellurite plate
|
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What special agar does M tuberculosis grow best on?
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lowenstein-Jensen agar
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What kind of bacteria show up as pink colonies on MacConkey's Agar?
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lactose-fermenting gram negative rods
|
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What special kind of agar does legionella grow best on?
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charcoal yeast extract, with iron and cysteine
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What kind of agar do fungi grow best on?
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Sabouraud's Agar
|
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what 3 kinds of pathogens show up best on a giemsa stain?
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borrelia
plasmodium chlamydia |
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What substance shows up on a congo red stain?
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amyloid
|
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What substance shows up on a PAS stain?
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glycogen, mucopolysaccharides
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What bacteria show up on a Ziehl-Neelsen stain?
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acid-fast bacteria
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What bacteria shows up on an India Ink stain?
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cryptococcus neoformans
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In terms of bacterial genetics, what does transformation mean?
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When the bacteria takes up free-floating DNA from its environment
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In terms of bacterial genetics, what does conjugation mean?
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plasmid DNA being transferred through a sex pilus
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In terms of bacterial genetics, what does transduction mean?
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bacteriophages transferring genes from bacteria to bacteria
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In terms of bacterial genetics, what does transposition mean?
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pathogenicity islands or transposons in the genome can cut themselves out and move themselves around
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5 bacterial toxins are coded inside bacteriophages. They are:
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Shiga-like toxin
botulinum toxin cholera toxin diptheria toxin erthrogenic toxin (in s. pyogenes) |
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What are the 4 common obligate aerobes?
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Nocardia
Pseudomonas Mycobacteria Tuberculosis Bacillus |
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The 3 common obligate anaerobes are:
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actinomyces, bacteroides, clostriodium
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What makes obligate anaerobes unable to live in an oxygen-rich environment?
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They lack catalase and superoxide dismutase, and so are susceptible to oxidative damage
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Which antibiotic is useless against obligate anaerobes, and why is that?
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aminoglycosides don't work, because they require oxygen to enter the bacterial cell
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Where would you find obligate anaerobes living as normal flora?
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in the GI tract. They are pathogenic everywhere else
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What are the two common obligate intracellular bacteria?
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chlamydia and rickesttsia
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What are the 8 facultative intracellular bacteria?
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salmonella, neisseria, brucella, mycobacteria, listeria, francisella, legionella, yersinia
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What are the 4 encapsulated bacteria?
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strep pneumoniae
h influenzae n meningitidis klebsiella pneumoniae |
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What substance is found at the core of bacterial spores?
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dipicolinic acid
|
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What 4 bacteria commonly form spores?
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bacillus anthracis
clostridum perfringens clostridium tetani clostridium botulinum |
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What 4 bacteria are urease positive?
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h pylori
proteus klebsiella ureaplasma |
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What turns certain staph into MRSA?
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they have an altered penicillin binding protein
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One bug is the most common cause of meningitis in adults, otitis media in children, and pneumonia and sinusitis in all ages. This bug is:
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STREP PNEUMONIAE!!! Woo hoo!!!!
|
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What demographic does group B strep cause meningitis, pneumonia, and sepsis in?
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newborns, because they get it from their moms during birth
|
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What bugs cause UTI's and subacute endocarditis?
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enterococci
|
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What is the most common bacterial infection found on prosthetic devices and catheters?
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staph epidermidis
|
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what bacteria causes dental caries and subacute endocarditis?
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strep viridans
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What are the 4 clostridum species, and what diseases do they cause?
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c tetani = tetanus
c botulinum = botulism c perfringens = gas gangrene c difficile = colitis |
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What are some symptoms of anthrax?
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painless skin ulcers, black skin lesions, bacteremia, pulmonary hemorrhage, fever, shock, death
|
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What diseases can listeria cause?
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infant meningitis, mild gastroenteritis, abortion in pregnant women, bacteremia
|
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What problems can actinomyces cause?
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facial/oral abscesses that drain onto the skin. Normal oral flora
|
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What diseases can nocardia cause?
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pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients
|
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What do actinomyces and nocardia both look like under a microscope?
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They form branching filaments, looks like a fungus but it's not
|
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What drug do you treat nocardia infections with?
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sulfa drugs
|
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What drug do you treat actinomyces infections with?
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penicillin
|
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Who is likely to have pneumonia caused by klebsiella?
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alcoholics and diabetics
|
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How is shigella transmitted between hosts?
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food, fingers, feces, flies
|
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What are some symptoms of typhoid fever?
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fever, diarrhea, headache, rash. Can lead to gallbladder colonization and intestinal perforation
|
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How is yersenia transmitted?
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pet feces, milk, pork. Commonly transmitted at daycare centers
|
|
what bug causes food poisoning from eating undercooked shellfish?
|
vibrio parahemolyticus or vibrio vulnificus
|
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What bug causes food poisoning from eating re-heated rice?
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bacillus cereus
|
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What 7 pathogens can cause bloody diarrhea?
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campylobacter, salmonella, shigella, EHEC, yersinia, c. difficile, entamoeba
|
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What 5 pathogens can cause watery diarrhea?
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ETEC, vibrio cholera, c. perfringens, protozoans, viruses
|
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What 4 bacteria produce toxins that induce cAMP activity?
|
vibrio cholera, pertussis, e coli, and b anthracis
|
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How is legionnaire's disease transmitted?
|
aerosol water drops from the environment. Does not spread person-to-person
|
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In what 7 cases would you be likely to see Pseudomonas?
|
burn/wound infection, pneumonia in cystic fibrosis, sepsis, swimmer's ear, UTI, drug use, diabetic osteomyelitis, hot tub folliculitis
|
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What drugs are good for treating pseudomonas?
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aminoglycosides and extended-spectrum penicillins
|
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What should you treat helicobacter pylori infections with?
|
bismuth, proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole
|
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What animal can transmit bartonella to you?
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cat scratches
|
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What animal can transmit borrelia to you?
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ticks (borrelia causes Lyme disease)
|
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What can transmit brucella to you?
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Unpasteurized dairy milk
|
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What can give you tularemia disease?
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francisella tularensis, from tickbites, rabbits, or deer
|
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What can transmit yersenia pestis to you?
|
flea bites, riding on rodents. This is the Black Plague, people.
|
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What transmit pasteurella to you, causing cellulitis?
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cat or dog bites
|
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Nonpainful, grayish-white, fishy-smelling vaginal discharge is sexually transmitted by what organism?
|
gardnerella vaginalis. Look for vaginal epithelial cells covered in bacteria, treat with metronidazole
|
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What characterizes primary tuberculosis infection?
|
Ghon focus (TB granuloma) in the lower lobes of the lung, with hilar lymph node involvement
|
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What characterizes a secondary tuberculosis infection?
|
Caseating granulomas in the upper lobes of the lung
|
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Extra-pulmonary tuberculosis infection in the vertebral bodies is known as.....?
|
Pott's Disease
|
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What is Miliary Tuberculosis?
|
tuberculosis bacteremia, leads to DEATH
|
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What are some symptoms of Tuberculosis?
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fever, night sweats, weight loss, coughing up blood
|
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How does tuberculosis proceed in immune compromised patients?
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primary infection leads to progressive lung disease, and DEATH
|
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In whom would you see mycobacterium avium infection in?
|
AIDS patients, mostly. Causes a disseminated disease
|
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Mycobacterium Leprae can cause two diseases; which one is worse?
|
lepromatous is worse, you will DIE
tuberculoid is self-limited, you will get better |
|
What do you treat leprosy (Hansen's Disease) with?
|
dapsone, or sometimes rifampin and clofazimine
|
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What are some symptoms of mycobacterium leprae infection?
|
loss of eyebrows, collapse of the nose cartilage, lumpy earlobes, disintegration of skin and superficial nerves
|
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Headache, fever, and rash, due to an arthropod bite, is usually due to what genus of bugs?
|
rickettsiae
|
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How do coxiella burnetti infections spread, and what are their symptoms?
|
coxietta spreads through aerosol particles in the air, and causes pneumonia and Q fever
|
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How is the pattern of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever rash different from the Endemic Typhus rash?
|
RMSF= starts on hands and feet, moves to the center
Typhus = starts in the center, moves to the hands and feet |
|
What 3 diseases cause a rash to appear first on the palms and soles?
|
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, syphilis, and coxsackievirus infection
|
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What is the Weil-Felix reaction?
|
tests for antibodies to rickettsia bugs.
|
|
what diseases do the rickettsia genus of bacteria cause?
|
R. rickettsii = rocky mt. spotted fever
R. typhi = typhus ehrlichia = ehrlichiosis coxiella burnetti = Q fever |
|
How do you treat rickettsiae infections?
|
tetracycline
|
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Which rickettsiae infection will the Weil-Felix reaction be negative in?
|
Q fever, caused by coxiella burnetti
|
|
What characterizes the life-cycle of chlamydia trachomatis?
|
small elementary bodies infect cells, multiply inside as reticulate bodies, and bust the cell open, releasing more elementary bodies
|
|
From what can you become infected with chlamydia psittaci?
|
from birds. It causes pneumonia
|
|
From what can you become infected with chlamydia pneumoniae?
|
aerosolized water droplets. Also causes pneumonia
|
|
What drug works to clear up chlamydia infections?
|
tetracycline or erythromycin
|
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There are lots of substypes of chlamydia trachomatis. Which ones cause chronic infection and blindness?
|
subtypes A,B, and C
|
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There are lots of subtypes of Chlamydia Trachomasis. Which ones cause STI's, PID, and neonatal infections?
|
subtypes D through K
|
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There are lots of subtypes of Chlamydia Trachomasis. Which ones cause lymphogranuloma venereum?
|
subtypes L1, L2, and L3
|
|
What are the three important pathogenic species of spirochetes?
|
Borrelia, Leptospira, and Treponema
|
|
A person has jaundice, azotemia, liver and kidney failure, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia. What disease do they have, and what bug causes it?
|
Weil's Disease, caused by leptospirosis infection
|
|
From what can you get infected by leptospirosis?
|
water contamined by animal pee
|
|
What bug causes Lyme disease?
|
Borrelia burgdorferi
|
|
What characterizes Stage 1 of Lyme disease?
|
bull's eye looking rash with central pallor, flulike symptoms
|
|
What characterizes Stage 2 of Lyme disease?
|
neurologic and cardiac problems
|
|
What characterizes Stage 3 of Lyme Disease?
|
chronic monoarthritis, migratory polyarthritis
|
|
Treponema Pertenue causes what disease? Symptoms please?
|
Yaws. Non-venereal, ulcers on the arms and legs
|
|
What characterizes Stage 1 of syphilis?
|
painless chancre on the genitals
|
|
What characterizes Stage 2 of syphilis?
|
constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash on soles and palms
|
|
What characterizes Stage 3 of syphilis?
|
gummas, aortitis, tabes dorsalis, pupils that do not constrict in the light, fetal abortion
|
|
What bug causes syphilis?
|
treponema pallidum
|
|
What is an Argyll Robertson pupil?
|
it constricts with accomadation, but not for light. Seen in 3rd stage syphilis
|
|
What antibody is the most sensitive and specific for diseases caused by treponemes?
|
FTA-ABS
|
|
What does the VDRL test detect? When is it used?
|
detects cardiolipin that cross-reacts with syphilis. Not very specific; lupus, rheumatic fever, leprosy, viruses also cause positive results
|
|
What is the most common cause of atypical pneumonia?
|
mycoplasm pneumoniae
|
|
What are symptoms of atypical pneumonia?
|
fast onset, headache, non-productive cough, diffuse lung infiltrate
|
|
What lab tests are important for diagnosing atypical pneumonia?
|
high cold agglutinin titer, chest xray shows non-lobar, diffuse interstitial infiltrate
|
|
What drugs work to treat mycoplasm pneumoniae? Which ones don't? Why not?
|
use tetracycline or erythromycin. Penicillins don't work because they don't have cell walls.
|
|
Which 7 viruses do not have lipid envelopes?
|
Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Rotavirus, Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus
|
|
Where do most viruses obtain their envelope? What is the one exception?
|
plasma membrane. Herpesvirus gets it from the nuclear membrane.
|
|
Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate? What is the one exception?
|
nucleus. Poxvirus replicates in the cytoplasm
|
|
Where in the cell do RNA viruses replicate? What are the 2 exceptions?
|
cytoplasm. infuenza virus and retroviruses replicate in the nucleus
|
|
What are the common pathogenic enveloped, DNA viruses?
|
herpesvirus (HSV, VZV, CMV, EBV), hepatitis B, smallpox
|
|
What are the common pathogenic non-enveloped DNA viruses?
|
adenovirus, papillomavirus, parvovirus
|
|
What are the common pathogenic enveloped RNA viruses?
|
influenza, parainfluenza, RSV, measles, mumps, rubella, rabies, HTLV, HIV
|
|
What are the common pathogenic non-enveloped RNA viruses?
|
enteroviruses, polio, coxsackievirus, echovirus, rhinovirus, rotavirus
|
|
What disease does HSV-1 cause?
|
oral lesions, coldsores, keratoconjunctivitis
|
|
What disease does HSV-2 cause?
|
genital herpes, pharyngitis
|
|
What disease does VZV cause?
|
chickenpox, shingles, zoster
|
|
What disease does EBV cause?
|
mononucleosis, Burkitt's Lymphoma
|
|
What disease does CMV cause?
|
infection in immunosuppressed people
|
|
What disease does HHV-6 cause?
|
roseola
|
|
What disease does HHV-8 cause?
|
Kaposi's sarcoma
|
|
What disease does hepadnovirus cause?
|
hepatitis B
|
|
What disease does adenovirus cause?
|
pharyngitis, pink eye, pneumonia
|
|
What disease does parvovirus cause?
|
aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients, hydrops fetalis and fifths disease in pregnant women
|
|
What disease does human papilloma virus cause?
|
genital warts, cercival cancer
|
|
What disease does polyomavirus cause?
|
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in people with HIV
|
|
What disease does poxvirus cause?
|
smallpox
|
|
what disease does coxsackievirus cause?
|
aseptic meningitis, pharyngitis, foot and mouth disease
|
|
What disease does calicivirus cause?
|
viral gastroenteritis (also known as norovirus)
|
|
What disease does reovirus cause?
|
Colorado tick fever
gastroenteritis (rotavirus) |
|
What disease does flavivirus cause?
|
yellow fever, dengue fever, west nile
|
|
What disease does togavirus cause?
|
rubella
|
|
What disease does HTLV cause?
|
T-cell leukemia
|
|
What disease does HIV cause?
|
AIDS
|
|
What disease does coronavirus cause?
|
common cold
|
|
What disease does orthomyxovirus cause?
|
influenza
|
|
What disease does parainlfuenza virus cause?
|
croup
|
|
what disease does RSV cause?
|
bronchiolitis in babies
|
|
What disease does paramyxovirus cause?
|
measles, mumps
|
|
What disease does rhabdovirus cause?
|
rabies
|
|
What disease does filovirus cause?
|
ebola, marburg
|
|
What disease does arenavirus cause?
|
Lassa fever, lymphocytic choriomeningitis
|
|
What disease does hantavirus cause?
|
hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia
|
|
What disease does bunyavirus cause?
|
california fever, rift valley fever
|
|
Live, attenuated viral vaccines produce what immune response in people?
|
B-cell and T-cell immunity, but small risk of virulence
|
|
Killed virus vaccines produce what immune reponse in people?
|
B-cell only, but there is no risk of virulence
|
|
What common vaccines are made of live, attenuated virus?
|
MMR, Sabin-polio, VZV, yellow fever, smallpox
|
|
What common vaccines are made of killed virus?
|
Rabies, flu, HAV, Salk-polio
|
|
What is recombination, in the world of virus genetics?
|
gene exchange between 2 chromosomes with similar base pairs
|
|
What is reassortment, in the world of virus genetics?
|
when viruses with segmented genomes mix and match their DNA pieces
|
|
What is complementation, in the world of virus genetics?
|
2 viruses infect a cell; one mutates and makes non-functional proteins, but then uses the functional protein made by the other virus
|
|
What is phenotypic mixing, in the world of virus genetics?
|
2 viruses infect a cell; virus 1's genes are packaged in virus 2's capsid, and vice versa
|
|
What are the 7 viruses with negative-stranded RNA?
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Arenavirus, bunyavirus, paramyxovirus, orthomyxavirus, filovirus, rhabdovirus, hepatitis delta
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What must a negative-RNA virus do to its genome before it can continue its infectious cycle?
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Use RNA polymerase to produce the positive-RNA, which can then be the template
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What are the 4 viruses with segmented genomes? are they DNA or RNA?
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orthomyxovirus, arenavirus, bunyavirus, rotavirus. All are RNA
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What is the Tzanck test used for?
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detect multinucleated giant cells in skin vesicles. Use it to detect herpes simplex virus
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What are the symptoms of mononucleosis?
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fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy
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What are the lab tests that point to mononucleosis as the diagnosis?
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heterophil antibodies present when added to sheep blood
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What are some symptoms of Yellow Fever?
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high fever, black vomit, jaundice. acidophilic inclusions seen in the liver
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How does rotavirus cause diarrhea?
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blunts the villi, absorption goes down, diarrhea goes up.
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Orthomyxovirus (influenza virus) contains which two important antigens?
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neuraminidase, hemagglutinin
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What are the symptoms of measles?
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cough, head congestion, conjunctivitis, tongue covered in red spots with white centers
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What are the symptoms of mumps?
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enlargement of the parotid gland, testicles. also causes meningitis
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What are the symptoms of rabies virus infection?
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seizures, hypersalivation, encephalitis, Negri bodies seen in the cytoplasm of neurons
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What characterizes hepatitis A?
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asymptomatic, short disease course, spread by fecal-oral route. RNA picornavirus.
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What characterizes hepatitis B?
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spread through sex, IV's, and mom-to-baby during birth. DNA hepadnavirus.
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What characterizes hepatits C?
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Transmitted by shared IV needles. RNA flavivirus.
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What characterizes hepatitis D?
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defective on its own, must co-infect with another hepatits virus.
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What characterizes heptatits E?
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trasmitted through unsanitized water. dangerous for pregnant mothers. RNA calicivirus.
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What does the serological marker IgG HAVAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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prior infection by hepatitis, protected against re-infection
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What does the serological marker IgM HAVAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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best test to detect active hepatitis A infection
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What does the serological marker HBsAg indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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they are a carrier for hepatitis B
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What does the serological marker HBsAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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they are immune to hepatitis B
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What does the serological marker HBcAg indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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antigen to the core region of hepatits B virus
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What does the serological marker HBcAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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positive during the Window Period of hepatits B infection
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What does the serological marker HBeAg indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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Active viral replication and therefore, the person is very contagious for hepatits B
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What does the serological marker HBeAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
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low potential for contagiousness for hepatitis B
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What protein on HIV binds to what proteins on T-cells, causing infection?
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gp41 binds to CD4 and CXCR4
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What protein on HIV binds to what proteins on macrophages, causing infection?
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gp41 binds to CD4 and CCR5
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People with homozygous mutations in CCR5 protein have what special powers?
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they are immune to HIV
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What is the lab test that shows you are HIV+?
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ELISA test to screen, Western Blot test to confirm
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What requirements are needed to say an HIV+ person has AIDS?
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CD4+ cells of <200
or presence of AIDS-related infection or CD4/CD8 ratio of <1.5 |
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In HIV testing, what do the ELISA and Western Blots actually detect?
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antibody to viral protein. May be false negative in early infections, false positive in babies born to HIV+ moms
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the brain?
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cryptococcus, toxoplasmosis, CMV encephalitis, PML's
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the eyes?
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CMV retinitis
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the mouth and throat?
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candida, herpes, oral hairy leukoplakia (from EBV)
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the Lung?
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pneumocystis, TB, histoplasmosis
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the GI tract?
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cryptosporidiosis, mycobacterium avium, CMV colitis, non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the skin?
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shingles, kaposi's sarcoma
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In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the genitals?
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herpes, warts, cervical cancer
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What is the most common normal flora bug on your skin?
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staph epidermidis
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What is the most common normal flora bug in your nose?
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staph epidermiditis, staph aureus
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What is the most common normal flora bug in your oropharnyx?
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strep viridians
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What is the most common bug found in dental plaque?
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strep mutans
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What is the most common normal flora bug in the colon?
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bacteroides fragilis, e coli
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What is the most common normal flora bug in the vagina?
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lactobacillus, e coli, and strep agalacticae
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what bug causes aspiration pneumonia?
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anaerobes
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what bugs cause pneumonia in alcoholics and drug users?
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strep pneumonia, klebsiella, staph
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what bugs cause atypical pneumonia?
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mycoplasm, chlamydia, legionella
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What bugs are the most common cause of pneumonia in neonates?
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strep agalacticae
e coli |
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What bugs are the most common cause of pneumonia in children?
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viruses, strep pneumoniae, atypical pneumoniae bugs
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The 3 most common causes of meningitis in newborns, from most common to least:
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strep agalacticae
e coli listeria |
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The 3 most common causes of meningitis in children, from most common to least:
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strep pneumoniae
n. meningitidis h influenza |
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The 3 most common causes of meningitis in teens and adults, from most common to least:
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n meningitidis
enterviruses strep pneumoniae |
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The 3 most common causes of meningitis in old people, from most common to least:
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strep pneumoniae
gram-negative rods listeria |
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Cell type, protein, and glucose levels in the CSF of a person with bacterial meningitis:
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neutrophils, high protein, low sugar
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Cell type, protein, and glucose levels in the CSF of a person with fungal meningitis:
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lymphocytes, high protein, low sugar
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Cell type, protein, and glucose levels in the CSF of a person with viral meningitis:
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lymphocytes, normal protein, normal sugar
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What bug causes vertebral osteomyelitis?
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mycobacterium tuberculosis. Also called Pott's Disease
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What bug causes osteolyelitis in people with sickle cell disease?
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salmonella
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What bug causes osteomyelitis in diabetes and drug addicts?
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pseudomonas
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What bug causes osteomyelitis in people who've been bitten or scratched by dogs or cats?
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pasteurella multocida
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What bug causes osteomyelitis in most people, barring any other special circumstances?
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staph aureus
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What bugs are the most common causes of UTI's, in descending order?
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e coli
staph saprophyticus klebsiella |
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What are the important infections that can infect fetuses through the placenta?
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Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV, HIV, HSV-2, Syphilis
(ToRCHeS) |
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What can rubella cause in fetuses?
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deafness, cataracts, heart defects, mental retardation
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What can toxoplasma cause in fetuses?
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chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus
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What can CMV cause in fetuses?
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rash, intracranial calcifications, mental retardation, jaundice
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What can HSV-2 cause in fetuses?
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vasicular rash, conjunctivitis, encephalitis
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What can syphilis cause in fetuses?
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skin lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, deafness, weird teeth, bowed tibia, abortion
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Painful genital ulcer, inguinal lymphadenopathy. What's the disease, what's the bug?
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Chancroid, caused by hemophilus ducreyii
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Non-inflammatory discharge from the vagina, smells like fish. What's the bug, what's the disease?
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Bacterial Vaginosis, caused by Gardnerella vaginalis
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Any pediatric infection is likely to be:
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hemophilus influenzae
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Any pneumonia in cystic fibrosis, or burn infections, is likely:
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pseudomonas aurugenosis
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Any infection in a traumatic open wound is likely:
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clostridium perfringens
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Any infection from a dog or cat bite is likely:
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pasteurella multocida
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Any branching rods seen in an oral infection is likely due to:
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actinomyces israelii
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Which antibiotics work by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross linking?
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penicillin, cephalosporins, imipenem, aztreonam
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Which antibiotics work by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis?
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vancomycin, bacitracin
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What antibiotics work by disrupting bacterial cell membranes?
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polymyxin
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What antibiotic works by blocking nucleotide synthesis?
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sulfa/trimethoprim
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What antibiotic works by blocking DNA topoisomerase/gyrase?
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quinolones
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What antibiotic works by blocking RNA synthesis?
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rifampin
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What antibiotics work by blocking protein synthesis at ribosome unit 50s?
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macrolides, clindamycin, streptogrammin, chloramphenicol
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What antibiotic works by blocking protein synthesis at the ribosome unit 30s?
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aminoglycosides, tetracycline
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What do you use to treat vancomycin resistant bacteria?
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linezolid/streptogrammins
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What antifungal works by forming a pore in the cell membrane, letting ions leak out?
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amphoterecin
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What antifungal works by inactivating microtubules, and deposits in keratin?
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griseofulvin
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What antifungal works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
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the -azoles
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What antifungal dirsupts ergosterol synthesis, leading to buildup of squalene?
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terbinafine
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What antifungal works by inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis?
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flucytosine
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What antifungal works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
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caspofungins
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What antiviral works by blocking the M2 pore?
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amantadine
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What antiviral has the side effect of releasing dopamine from intact nerve terminals?
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amantadine
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What antiviral works by blocking neuraminidase in the flu?
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zanamavir, oseltamavir
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What antiviral works by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase, leading to less guanine nucleotides?
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ribavarin
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What antivirals work by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, by posing as fake nucleotides?
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acyclovir, gancyclovir
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What antiviral works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase by non-competitive binding?
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foscarnet
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What 9 antimicrobials should you never give a pregnant woman?
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sulfonamides
aminoglycosides fluoroquinolones erythromycin metronidazole tetracycline ribavarin griseofulvin chloramphenicol (SAFE Moms Take Really Good Care) |