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311 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
an alcoholic vomits and develops foul-smelling sputum. What bug is likely responsible?
Anaerobes
Middle-aged man develops acute pain in one joint and bilateral Bell's Palsy. What is the likely disease?
Lyme Disease
Urine analysis shows white blood cell casts. What disease does the patient have?
pyelonephritis
Patient has a thorn prick, and ulcers along the line of lymphatic drainage. What bug causes this?
Sporothrix schenckii
25-year old patient feels burning after eating, and biopsy shows gram negative rods. What's the bug?
helicobacter pylori
32-year old male has cauliflower skin lesions, tissue biopsy shows broad-based budding yeasts. What's the bug?
blastomyces
breast-feeding woman suddenly develops redness and tenderness, and a mass on one side. What's the disease and bug?
Mastitis caused by s. aureus
20-year-old college student has lymphadenopathy, fever, hepatosplenomegaly. The blood agglutinates sheep RBCs. What cell does this bug infect?
B-cells (this is mono caused by EBV)
3 hours after eating custard at a picnic, a whole family begins to vomit. After 10 hours, they were better. What is the organism?
S. aureus (if makes a pre-formed enterotoxin)
Infant becomes flaccid after eating honey. What's the organism, and the mechanism of action?
clostridium botulinum, which inhibits release of ACh
A guy has squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. What virus was he exposed to?
HPV
Patient develops endocarditis 3 weeks after receiving a prosthetic heart valve. What organism is suspected?
S. epidermidis
55-year-old smoker and heavy drinker has a new cough and flu-like symptoms. Gram stain shows no organisms, silver stain shows gram-negative rods in sputum. What's the diagnosis?
Legionella pneumonia
After taking clindamycin, patient develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. Why?
clindamycin wiped out normal gut flora, which was then overgrown by clostridium difficile
25-year-old man presents with 3 days of fever, chills, and a painful, swollen knee. What's the diagnosis and causative agent?
septic arthritis, caused by gonorrhea
19-year-old female college student has vaginal itching and thick, curdy discharge. What's the bug?
candida albicans
30-year old woman returns from a camping trip and complains of watery diarrhea and cramps. What's the bug?
giardia lamblia
What substance on the surface of gram-positive bacteria induces TNF and IL-1 in the host?
teichoic acid
What substance on the surface of gram-negative bacteria induces TNF and IL-1 in the host?
lipopolysaccharide
What bacteria has no cell wall, and sterols in its membrane?
mycoplasm
Which bacteria contains mycolic acid and lots of lipids in its cell wall?
mycobacteria
What kind of bacteria have a periplasmic space, and what is found there?
gram negative bacteria have it, and it's between the plasma membrane and the cell wall. It contains enzymes (like beta-lactamase)
Which bugs will NOT show up on a gram-stain?
Treponema, Ricksettia, Mycobacteria, Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia
(These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color)
Which stain identifies Mycobacteria?
acid-fast stain
Which stain identifies legionella?
silver stain
What is going on during the lag phase on the bacterial growth curve?
baccies are metabolically active, but not dividing
What causes the stationary phase on the bacterial growth curve?
baccies deplete their nutrients, and either die or form spores
Genes for exotoxin are found, where now?
on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage
Genes for endotoxin are found, where now?
on the bacterial chromosome
What chemical that makes up exotoxin?
polypeptides
What chemical is endotoxin made of?
lipopolysaccharide
Staph aureus produces protein A; what does it do?
binds Fc region of IgA, helps the bug evade our immune system
Some encapsulated baccies produce IgA protease. What does it do?
cuts IgA in half, inactivating it.
Group A strep has M protein on its surface. What does it do?
helps prevent phagocytosis
Staph Aureaus secretes TSST-1. What does it do?
binds MHC-2 and T-cell receptors, activating IFN-gamma and IL-2. Causes toxic shock syndrome.
Strep pyogenes can cause scarlett fever through what mechanism?
secreting a toxin that causes T-cells to release INF-gamma and IL-2
C. Diptheriae releases a toxin that does what?
inactivates EF-2 in cells in the pharynx. Causes pharyngitis and "pseudomembrane"
Vibrio cholera secretes a toxin that does what?
stimulates adenosyl cyclase in enterocytes, which pumps Cl- out. Causes watery diarrhea
E. Coli secretes 2 toxins that do, what?
heat labile = increase cAMP
heat stable = increase cGMP
both cause watery diarrhea
Bordetella pertussi secretes a toxin that does what?
increases cAMP by inhibiting G-alpha, causes whooping cough and lymphocytosis
Clostridium perfringens secretes a toxin that does what?
alpha toxin causes gas gangrene, shows up as a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar
clostridum tetani secretes a toxin that does what?
blocks the release of GABA and glycine from neurons; causes lockjaw and tetanus
clostridum botulinum secretes a toxin that does what?
blocks the release of ACh from neurons, causes paralysis and anti-cholinergic symptoms
Bacillus anthracis secretes a toxin that causes what?
the toxin is an adenosyl cyclase that causes anthrax
Shigella secretes a toxin that does what?
shiga toxin cleaves host cell RNA and causes cytokine release, causes bloody diarrhea and HUS
What bug secretes streptolysin O, and what does it do?
strep pyogenes secretes streptolysin O, and it lyses RBCs
What is the most antigenic part of endotoxin?
lipid A
What is the fermentation difference between N. meningititis and N. gonorrhea?
N. meningitidis ferments maltose and glucose, N. gonorrhea only ferments glucose
Which bacteria produces a yellow pigment?
s. aureus
Which bacteria produces a greenish blue pigment?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which bacteria produces a red pigment?
serratia marcescens
What bugs show up on a gram stain as purple or blue rods?
clostridium
listeria
bacillus
How do you distinguish group A strep from group B strep in the lab?
Group A strep is bacitracin sensitive,
Group B strep is bacitracin resistant
How do you distinguish strep pneumoniae from strep viridans in the lab?
strep pneumoniae is optochin sensitive,
strep viridans is optochin resistant
How do you distinguish staph aureus from staph epidermidis in the lab?
staph aureus is coagulase positive,
staph epidermidis is coagulase negative
How do you distinguish staph saprophyticus from staph epidermidis in the lab?
staph saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant,
staph epidermidis is novobiocin sensitive
What bugs show up as pink coccoid rods on a gram stain?
H. influenzae
Pasteurella
Brucella
B. pertussis
What bugs show up as pink cocci on a gram stain?
N. meningitis,
N. gonorrhea
Which gram-negative rods can ferment lactose?
klebsiella
E coli
Enterobacter
Which gram-negative rods no not ferment lactose, and are oxidase negative?
shigella
salmonella
proteus
Which gram-negative rods do not ferment lactose, but are oxidase positive?
pseudomonas
What special agar does H influenzae grow best on?
chocolate agar with NAD and heme
What special agar does N. gonorrhoae grow best on?
Thayer-Martin agar
What special agar does B pertussis grow best on?
bordet-gengou agar
What special agar does c. diptheriae grow best on?
loffler's media or a tellurite plate
What special agar does M tuberculosis grow best on?
lowenstein-Jensen agar
What kind of bacteria show up as pink colonies on MacConkey's Agar?
lactose-fermenting gram negative rods
What special kind of agar does legionella grow best on?
charcoal yeast extract, with iron and cysteine
What kind of agar do fungi grow best on?
Sabouraud's Agar
what 3 kinds of pathogens show up best on a giemsa stain?
borrelia
plasmodium
chlamydia
What substance shows up on a congo red stain?
amyloid
What substance shows up on a PAS stain?
glycogen, mucopolysaccharides
What bacteria show up on a Ziehl-Neelsen stain?
acid-fast bacteria
What bacteria shows up on an India Ink stain?
cryptococcus neoformans
In terms of bacterial genetics, what does transformation mean?
When the bacteria takes up free-floating DNA from its environment
In terms of bacterial genetics, what does conjugation mean?
plasmid DNA being transferred through a sex pilus
In terms of bacterial genetics, what does transduction mean?
bacteriophages transferring genes from bacteria to bacteria
In terms of bacterial genetics, what does transposition mean?
pathogenicity islands or transposons in the genome can cut themselves out and move themselves around
5 bacterial toxins are coded inside bacteriophages. They are:
Shiga-like toxin
botulinum toxin
cholera toxin
diptheria toxin
erthrogenic toxin (in s. pyogenes)
What are the 4 common obligate aerobes?
Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Mycobacteria Tuberculosis
Bacillus
The 3 common obligate anaerobes are:
actinomyces, bacteroides, clostriodium
What makes obligate anaerobes unable to live in an oxygen-rich environment?
They lack catalase and superoxide dismutase, and so are susceptible to oxidative damage
Which antibiotic is useless against obligate anaerobes, and why is that?
aminoglycosides don't work, because they require oxygen to enter the bacterial cell
Where would you find obligate anaerobes living as normal flora?
in the GI tract. They are pathogenic everywhere else
What are the two common obligate intracellular bacteria?
chlamydia and rickesttsia
What are the 8 facultative intracellular bacteria?
salmonella, neisseria, brucella, mycobacteria, listeria, francisella, legionella, yersinia
What are the 4 encapsulated bacteria?
strep pneumoniae
h influenzae
n meningitidis
klebsiella pneumoniae
What substance is found at the core of bacterial spores?
dipicolinic acid
What 4 bacteria commonly form spores?
bacillus anthracis
clostridum perfringens
clostridium tetani
clostridium botulinum
What 4 bacteria are urease positive?
h pylori
proteus
klebsiella
ureaplasma
What turns certain staph into MRSA?
they have an altered penicillin binding protein
One bug is the most common cause of meningitis in adults, otitis media in children, and pneumonia and sinusitis in all ages. This bug is:
STREP PNEUMONIAE!!! Woo hoo!!!!
What demographic does group B strep cause meningitis, pneumonia, and sepsis in?
newborns, because they get it from their moms during birth
What bugs cause UTI's and subacute endocarditis?
enterococci
What is the most common bacterial infection found on prosthetic devices and catheters?
staph epidermidis
what bacteria causes dental caries and subacute endocarditis?
strep viridans
What are the 4 clostridum species, and what diseases do they cause?
c tetani = tetanus
c botulinum = botulism
c perfringens = gas gangrene
c difficile = colitis
What are some symptoms of anthrax?
painless skin ulcers, black skin lesions, bacteremia, pulmonary hemorrhage, fever, shock, death
What diseases can listeria cause?
infant meningitis, mild gastroenteritis, abortion in pregnant women, bacteremia
What problems can actinomyces cause?
facial/oral abscesses that drain onto the skin. Normal oral flora
What diseases can nocardia cause?
pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients
What do actinomyces and nocardia both look like under a microscope?
They form branching filaments, looks like a fungus but it's not
What drug do you treat nocardia infections with?
sulfa drugs
What drug do you treat actinomyces infections with?
penicillin
Who is likely to have pneumonia caused by klebsiella?
alcoholics and diabetics
How is shigella transmitted between hosts?
food, fingers, feces, flies
What are some symptoms of typhoid fever?
fever, diarrhea, headache, rash. Can lead to gallbladder colonization and intestinal perforation
How is yersenia transmitted?
pet feces, milk, pork. Commonly transmitted at daycare centers
what bug causes food poisoning from eating undercooked shellfish?
vibrio parahemolyticus or vibrio vulnificus
What bug causes food poisoning from eating re-heated rice?
bacillus cereus
What 7 pathogens can cause bloody diarrhea?
campylobacter, salmonella, shigella, EHEC, yersinia, c. difficile, entamoeba
What 5 pathogens can cause watery diarrhea?
ETEC, vibrio cholera, c. perfringens, protozoans, viruses
What 4 bacteria produce toxins that induce cAMP activity?
vibrio cholera, pertussis, e coli, and b anthracis
How is legionnaire's disease transmitted?
aerosol water drops from the environment. Does not spread person-to-person
In what 7 cases would you be likely to see Pseudomonas?
burn/wound infection, pneumonia in cystic fibrosis, sepsis, swimmer's ear, UTI, drug use, diabetic osteomyelitis, hot tub folliculitis
What drugs are good for treating pseudomonas?
aminoglycosides and extended-spectrum penicillins
What should you treat helicobacter pylori infections with?
bismuth, proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole
What animal can transmit bartonella to you?
cat scratches
What animal can transmit borrelia to you?
ticks (borrelia causes Lyme disease)
What can transmit brucella to you?
Unpasteurized dairy milk
What can give you tularemia disease?
francisella tularensis, from tickbites, rabbits, or deer
What can transmit yersenia pestis to you?
flea bites, riding on rodents. This is the Black Plague, people.
What transmit pasteurella to you, causing cellulitis?
cat or dog bites
Nonpainful, grayish-white, fishy-smelling vaginal discharge is sexually transmitted by what organism?
gardnerella vaginalis. Look for vaginal epithelial cells covered in bacteria, treat with metronidazole
What characterizes primary tuberculosis infection?
Ghon focus (TB granuloma) in the lower lobes of the lung, with hilar lymph node involvement
What characterizes a secondary tuberculosis infection?
Caseating granulomas in the upper lobes of the lung
Extra-pulmonary tuberculosis infection in the vertebral bodies is known as.....?
Pott's Disease
What is Miliary Tuberculosis?
tuberculosis bacteremia, leads to DEATH
What are some symptoms of Tuberculosis?
fever, night sweats, weight loss, coughing up blood
How does tuberculosis proceed in immune compromised patients?
primary infection leads to progressive lung disease, and DEATH
In whom would you see mycobacterium avium infection in?
AIDS patients, mostly. Causes a disseminated disease
Mycobacterium Leprae can cause two diseases; which one is worse?
lepromatous is worse, you will DIE
tuberculoid is self-limited, you will get better
What do you treat leprosy (Hansen's Disease) with?
dapsone, or sometimes rifampin and clofazimine
What are some symptoms of mycobacterium leprae infection?
loss of eyebrows, collapse of the nose cartilage, lumpy earlobes, disintegration of skin and superficial nerves
Headache, fever, and rash, due to an arthropod bite, is usually due to what genus of bugs?
rickettsiae
How do coxiella burnetti infections spread, and what are their symptoms?
coxietta spreads through aerosol particles in the air, and causes pneumonia and Q fever
How is the pattern of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever rash different from the Endemic Typhus rash?
RMSF= starts on hands and feet, moves to the center
Typhus = starts in the center, moves to the hands and feet
What 3 diseases cause a rash to appear first on the palms and soles?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, syphilis, and coxsackievirus infection
What is the Weil-Felix reaction?
tests for antibodies to rickettsia bugs.
what diseases do the rickettsia genus of bacteria cause?
R. rickettsii = rocky mt. spotted fever
R. typhi = typhus
ehrlichia = ehrlichiosis
coxiella burnetti = Q fever
How do you treat rickettsiae infections?
tetracycline
Which rickettsiae infection will the Weil-Felix reaction be negative in?
Q fever, caused by coxiella burnetti
What characterizes the life-cycle of chlamydia trachomatis?
small elementary bodies infect cells, multiply inside as reticulate bodies, and bust the cell open, releasing more elementary bodies
From what can you become infected with chlamydia psittaci?
from birds. It causes pneumonia
From what can you become infected with chlamydia pneumoniae?
aerosolized water droplets. Also causes pneumonia
What drug works to clear up chlamydia infections?
tetracycline or erythromycin
There are lots of substypes of chlamydia trachomatis. Which ones cause chronic infection and blindness?
subtypes A,B, and C
There are lots of subtypes of Chlamydia Trachomasis. Which ones cause STI's, PID, and neonatal infections?
subtypes D through K
There are lots of subtypes of Chlamydia Trachomasis. Which ones cause lymphogranuloma venereum?
subtypes L1, L2, and L3
What are the three important pathogenic species of spirochetes?
Borrelia, Leptospira, and Treponema
A person has jaundice, azotemia, liver and kidney failure, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia. What disease do they have, and what bug causes it?
Weil's Disease, caused by leptospirosis infection
From what can you get infected by leptospirosis?
water contamined by animal pee
What bug causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
What characterizes Stage 1 of Lyme disease?
bull's eye looking rash with central pallor, flulike symptoms
What characterizes Stage 2 of Lyme disease?
neurologic and cardiac problems
What characterizes Stage 3 of Lyme Disease?
chronic monoarthritis, migratory polyarthritis
Treponema Pertenue causes what disease? Symptoms please?
Yaws. Non-venereal, ulcers on the arms and legs
What characterizes Stage 1 of syphilis?
painless chancre on the genitals
What characterizes Stage 2 of syphilis?
constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash on soles and palms
What characterizes Stage 3 of syphilis?
gummas, aortitis, tabes dorsalis, pupils that do not constrict in the light, fetal abortion
What bug causes syphilis?
treponema pallidum
What is an Argyll Robertson pupil?
it constricts with accomadation, but not for light. Seen in 3rd stage syphilis
What antibody is the most sensitive and specific for diseases caused by treponemes?
FTA-ABS
What does the VDRL test detect? When is it used?
detects cardiolipin that cross-reacts with syphilis. Not very specific; lupus, rheumatic fever, leprosy, viruses also cause positive results
What is the most common cause of atypical pneumonia?
mycoplasm pneumoniae
What are symptoms of atypical pneumonia?
fast onset, headache, non-productive cough, diffuse lung infiltrate
What lab tests are important for diagnosing atypical pneumonia?
high cold agglutinin titer, chest xray shows non-lobar, diffuse interstitial infiltrate
What drugs work to treat mycoplasm pneumoniae? Which ones don't? Why not?
use tetracycline or erythromycin. Penicillins don't work because they don't have cell walls.
Which 7 viruses do not have lipid envelopes?
Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Rotavirus, Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus
Where do most viruses obtain their envelope? What is the one exception?
plasma membrane. Herpesvirus gets it from the nuclear membrane.
Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate? What is the one exception?
nucleus. Poxvirus replicates in the cytoplasm
Where in the cell do RNA viruses replicate? What are the 2 exceptions?
cytoplasm. infuenza virus and retroviruses replicate in the nucleus
What are the common pathogenic enveloped, DNA viruses?
herpesvirus (HSV, VZV, CMV, EBV), hepatitis B, smallpox
What are the common pathogenic non-enveloped DNA viruses?
adenovirus, papillomavirus, parvovirus
What are the common pathogenic enveloped RNA viruses?
influenza, parainfluenza, RSV, measles, mumps, rubella, rabies, HTLV, HIV
What are the common pathogenic non-enveloped RNA viruses?
enteroviruses, polio, coxsackievirus, echovirus, rhinovirus, rotavirus
What disease does HSV-1 cause?
oral lesions, coldsores, keratoconjunctivitis
What disease does HSV-2 cause?
genital herpes, pharyngitis
What disease does VZV cause?
chickenpox, shingles, zoster
What disease does EBV cause?
mononucleosis, Burkitt's Lymphoma
What disease does CMV cause?
infection in immunosuppressed people
What disease does HHV-6 cause?
roseola
What disease does HHV-8 cause?
Kaposi's sarcoma
What disease does hepadnovirus cause?
hepatitis B
What disease does adenovirus cause?
pharyngitis, pink eye, pneumonia
What disease does parvovirus cause?
aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients, hydrops fetalis and fifths disease in pregnant women
What disease does human papilloma virus cause?
genital warts, cercival cancer
What disease does polyomavirus cause?
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in people with HIV
What disease does poxvirus cause?
smallpox
what disease does coxsackievirus cause?
aseptic meningitis, pharyngitis, foot and mouth disease
What disease does calicivirus cause?
viral gastroenteritis (also known as norovirus)
What disease does reovirus cause?
Colorado tick fever
gastroenteritis (rotavirus)
What disease does flavivirus cause?
yellow fever, dengue fever, west nile
What disease does togavirus cause?
rubella
What disease does HTLV cause?
T-cell leukemia
What disease does HIV cause?
AIDS
What disease does coronavirus cause?
common cold
What disease does orthomyxovirus cause?
influenza
What disease does parainlfuenza virus cause?
croup
what disease does RSV cause?
bronchiolitis in babies
What disease does paramyxovirus cause?
measles, mumps
What disease does rhabdovirus cause?
rabies
What disease does filovirus cause?
ebola, marburg
What disease does arenavirus cause?
Lassa fever, lymphocytic choriomeningitis
What disease does hantavirus cause?
hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia
What disease does bunyavirus cause?
california fever, rift valley fever
Live, attenuated viral vaccines produce what immune response in people?
B-cell and T-cell immunity, but small risk of virulence
Killed virus vaccines produce what immune reponse in people?
B-cell only, but there is no risk of virulence
What common vaccines are made of live, attenuated virus?
MMR, Sabin-polio, VZV, yellow fever, smallpox
What common vaccines are made of killed virus?
Rabies, flu, HAV, Salk-polio
What is recombination, in the world of virus genetics?
gene exchange between 2 chromosomes with similar base pairs
What is reassortment, in the world of virus genetics?
when viruses with segmented genomes mix and match their DNA pieces
What is complementation, in the world of virus genetics?
2 viruses infect a cell; one mutates and makes non-functional proteins, but then uses the functional protein made by the other virus
What is phenotypic mixing, in the world of virus genetics?
2 viruses infect a cell; virus 1's genes are packaged in virus 2's capsid, and vice versa
What are the 7 viruses with negative-stranded RNA?
Arenavirus, bunyavirus, paramyxovirus, orthomyxavirus, filovirus, rhabdovirus, hepatitis delta
What must a negative-RNA virus do to its genome before it can continue its infectious cycle?
Use RNA polymerase to produce the positive-RNA, which can then be the template
What are the 4 viruses with segmented genomes? are they DNA or RNA?
orthomyxovirus, arenavirus, bunyavirus, rotavirus. All are RNA
What is the Tzanck test used for?
detect multinucleated giant cells in skin vesicles. Use it to detect herpes simplex virus
What are the symptoms of mononucleosis?
fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy
What are the lab tests that point to mononucleosis as the diagnosis?
heterophil antibodies present when added to sheep blood
What are some symptoms of Yellow Fever?
high fever, black vomit, jaundice. acidophilic inclusions seen in the liver
How does rotavirus cause diarrhea?
blunts the villi, absorption goes down, diarrhea goes up.
Orthomyxovirus (influenza virus) contains which two important antigens?
neuraminidase, hemagglutinin
What are the symptoms of measles?
cough, head congestion, conjunctivitis, tongue covered in red spots with white centers
What are the symptoms of mumps?
enlargement of the parotid gland, testicles. also causes meningitis
What are the symptoms of rabies virus infection?
seizures, hypersalivation, encephalitis, Negri bodies seen in the cytoplasm of neurons
What characterizes hepatitis A?
asymptomatic, short disease course, spread by fecal-oral route. RNA picornavirus.
What characterizes hepatitis B?
spread through sex, IV's, and mom-to-baby during birth. DNA hepadnavirus.
What characterizes hepatits C?
Transmitted by shared IV needles. RNA flavivirus.
What characterizes hepatitis D?
defective on its own, must co-infect with another hepatits virus.
What characterizes heptatits E?
trasmitted through unsanitized water. dangerous for pregnant mothers. RNA calicivirus.
What does the serological marker IgG HAVAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
prior infection by hepatitis, protected against re-infection
What does the serological marker IgM HAVAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
best test to detect active hepatitis A infection
What does the serological marker HBsAg indicate when found in a patient's blood?
they are a carrier for hepatitis B
What does the serological marker HBsAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
they are immune to hepatitis B
What does the serological marker HBcAg indicate when found in a patient's blood?
antigen to the core region of hepatits B virus
What does the serological marker HBcAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
positive during the Window Period of hepatits B infection
What does the serological marker HBeAg indicate when found in a patient's blood?
Active viral replication and therefore, the person is very contagious for hepatits B
What does the serological marker HBeAb indicate when found in a patient's blood?
low potential for contagiousness for hepatitis B
What protein on HIV binds to what proteins on T-cells, causing infection?
gp41 binds to CD4 and CXCR4
What protein on HIV binds to what proteins on macrophages, causing infection?
gp41 binds to CD4 and CCR5
People with homozygous mutations in CCR5 protein have what special powers?
they are immune to HIV
What is the lab test that shows you are HIV+?
ELISA test to screen, Western Blot test to confirm
What requirements are needed to say an HIV+ person has AIDS?
CD4+ cells of <200
or
presence of AIDS-related infection
or
CD4/CD8 ratio of <1.5
In HIV testing, what do the ELISA and Western Blots actually detect?
antibody to viral protein. May be false negative in early infections, false positive in babies born to HIV+ moms
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the brain?
cryptococcus, toxoplasmosis, CMV encephalitis, PML's
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the eyes?
CMV retinitis
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the mouth and throat?
candida, herpes, oral hairy leukoplakia (from EBV)
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the Lung?
pneumocystis, TB, histoplasmosis
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the GI tract?
cryptosporidiosis, mycobacterium avium, CMV colitis, non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the skin?
shingles, kaposi's sarcoma
In AIDS patients, what opportunistic infections like to show up in the genitals?
herpes, warts, cervical cancer
What is the most common normal flora bug on your skin?
staph epidermidis
What is the most common normal flora bug in your nose?
staph epidermiditis, staph aureus
What is the most common normal flora bug in your oropharnyx?
strep viridians
What is the most common bug found in dental plaque?
strep mutans
What is the most common normal flora bug in the colon?
bacteroides fragilis, e coli
What is the most common normal flora bug in the vagina?
lactobacillus, e coli, and strep agalacticae
what bug causes aspiration pneumonia?
anaerobes
what bugs cause pneumonia in alcoholics and drug users?
strep pneumonia, klebsiella, staph
what bugs cause atypical pneumonia?
mycoplasm, chlamydia, legionella
What bugs are the most common cause of pneumonia in neonates?
strep agalacticae
e coli
What bugs are the most common cause of pneumonia in children?
viruses, strep pneumoniae, atypical pneumoniae bugs
The 3 most common causes of meningitis in newborns, from most common to least:
strep agalacticae
e coli
listeria
The 3 most common causes of meningitis in children, from most common to least:
strep pneumoniae
n. meningitidis
h influenza
The 3 most common causes of meningitis in teens and adults, from most common to least:
n meningitidis
enterviruses
strep pneumoniae
The 3 most common causes of meningitis in old people, from most common to least:
strep pneumoniae
gram-negative rods
listeria
Cell type, protein, and glucose levels in the CSF of a person with bacterial meningitis:
neutrophils, high protein, low sugar
Cell type, protein, and glucose levels in the CSF of a person with fungal meningitis:
lymphocytes, high protein, low sugar
Cell type, protein, and glucose levels in the CSF of a person with viral meningitis:
lymphocytes, normal protein, normal sugar
What bug causes vertebral osteomyelitis?
mycobacterium tuberculosis. Also called Pott's Disease
What bug causes osteolyelitis in people with sickle cell disease?
salmonella
What bug causes osteomyelitis in diabetes and drug addicts?
pseudomonas
What bug causes osteomyelitis in people who've been bitten or scratched by dogs or cats?
pasteurella multocida
What bug causes osteomyelitis in most people, barring any other special circumstances?
staph aureus
What bugs are the most common causes of UTI's, in descending order?
e coli
staph saprophyticus
klebsiella
What are the important infections that can infect fetuses through the placenta?
Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV, HIV, HSV-2, Syphilis
(ToRCHeS)
What can rubella cause in fetuses?
deafness, cataracts, heart defects, mental retardation
What can toxoplasma cause in fetuses?
chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus
What can CMV cause in fetuses?
rash, intracranial calcifications, mental retardation, jaundice
What can HSV-2 cause in fetuses?
vasicular rash, conjunctivitis, encephalitis
What can syphilis cause in fetuses?
skin lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, deafness, weird teeth, bowed tibia, abortion
Painful genital ulcer, inguinal lymphadenopathy. What's the disease, what's the bug?
Chancroid, caused by hemophilus ducreyii
Non-inflammatory discharge from the vagina, smells like fish. What's the bug, what's the disease?
Bacterial Vaginosis, caused by Gardnerella vaginalis
Any pediatric infection is likely to be:
hemophilus influenzae
Any pneumonia in cystic fibrosis, or burn infections, is likely:
pseudomonas aurugenosis
Any infection in a traumatic open wound is likely:
clostridium perfringens
Any infection from a dog or cat bite is likely:
pasteurella multocida
Any branching rods seen in an oral infection is likely due to:
actinomyces israelii
Which antibiotics work by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross linking?
penicillin, cephalosporins, imipenem, aztreonam
Which antibiotics work by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis?
vancomycin, bacitracin
What antibiotics work by disrupting bacterial cell membranes?
polymyxin
What antibiotic works by blocking nucleotide synthesis?
sulfa/trimethoprim
What antibiotic works by blocking DNA topoisomerase/gyrase?
quinolones
What antibiotic works by blocking RNA synthesis?
rifampin
What antibiotics work by blocking protein synthesis at ribosome unit 50s?
macrolides, clindamycin, streptogrammin, chloramphenicol
What antibiotic works by blocking protein synthesis at the ribosome unit 30s?
aminoglycosides, tetracycline
What do you use to treat vancomycin resistant bacteria?
linezolid/streptogrammins
What antifungal works by forming a pore in the cell membrane, letting ions leak out?
amphoterecin
What antifungal works by inactivating microtubules, and deposits in keratin?
griseofulvin
What antifungal works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
the -azoles
What antifungal dirsupts ergosterol synthesis, leading to buildup of squalene?
terbinafine
What antifungal works by inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis?
flucytosine
What antifungal works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
caspofungins
What antiviral works by blocking the M2 pore?
amantadine
What antiviral has the side effect of releasing dopamine from intact nerve terminals?
amantadine
What antiviral works by blocking neuraminidase in the flu?
zanamavir, oseltamavir
What antiviral works by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase, leading to less guanine nucleotides?
ribavarin
What antivirals work by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, by posing as fake nucleotides?
acyclovir, gancyclovir
What antiviral works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase by non-competitive binding?
foscarnet
What 9 antimicrobials should you never give a pregnant woman?
sulfonamides
aminoglycosides
fluoroquinolones
erythromycin
metronidazole
tetracycline
ribavarin
griseofulvin
chloramphenicol
(SAFE Moms Take Really Good Care)