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413 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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INT-7.1. True-False Type Question
Distension is the only natural stimulus which can increase gastric emptying. |
T
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INT-7.2. True-False Type Questions
Fats are not effective in slowing down gastric emptying. |
F
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INT-7.11.
The following statements are all true for Exanthematous Typhus, EXCEPT: A) a severe drug-resistant headache typically occurs following the 7- to l4-day incubation period B) hypotension occurs in the most seriously ill patients C) exanthema develops at the end of the second week D) splenomegaly occurs in some cases E) small pink macules appear on the 4th to 6th day F) severe diarrhea occurs at the onset of the disease |
F) severe diarrhea occurs at the onset of the disease
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INT-7.12.
All of the following are true for coccidioidomycosis, EXCEPT: A) acute bronchitis B) erythema nodosum C) leukopenia D) arthritis E) a positive complement-binding test and a negative skin-test in cases of a disseminated infection |
C) leukopenia
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INT-7.16.
All of the following can cause osteoporosis, EXCEPT: A) a calcium deficiency B) a phosphate deficiency C) hypercortisonism D) hypogonadism |
B) a phosphate deficiency
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INT-17.
Which of the following can cause demineralization of the bones? A) tumors B) bone marrow diseases C) hyperparathyroidism D) a vitamin D deficiency E) all of the above |
E) all of the above
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INT 7.18.
All of the following are used to treat osteoporosis, EXCEPT: A) calcium B) vitamin D C) sodium fluoride D) calcitonin when estrogen therapy is contraindicated E) potassium |
E) potassium
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INT-7.20.
All of the following are typical of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome EXCEPT: A) chronic eczema B) thrombocytopenic purpura C) a sex-dependent recessive inheritance pattern D) anemia E) thymus aplasia |
E) thymus aplasia
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INT-7.21.
Rheumatoid factor usually occurs together with the following symptoms EXCEPT: A) subcutaneous nodules B) splenomegaly C) vasculitis D) neuropathy E) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis F) Sjorgen's syndrome |
F) Sjorgen's syndrome
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INT-7.26.
Select the most important restricting side-effect of chloroquine, when used for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) therapy: A) cardiotoxicity B) hepatotoxicity C) ocular toxicity D) peripheral neuropathy E) drug fever |
C) ocular toxicity
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INT-7.28.
All of the following are true for osteogenesis imperfecta, EXCEPT: A) progressive deafness B) blue sclerae C) a soft skull with "wormian" bones D) multiple fractures E) cataracts |
E) cataracts
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INT-7.30.
Impetigo is a superficial infection caused by one of the following bacteria: A) hemolytic staphylococcus B) hemolytic streptococcus group A C) both of the above D) none of the above |
C
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INT-7.32.
Streptococcus infections can cause the following diseases EXCEPT: A) lymphangitis B) puerperal infections C) erysipelas D) pyelonephritis |
D) pyelonephritis
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INT-7.33.
Which site (excluding the lung) is mainly affected by childhood pulmonary tuberculosis? A) the mediastinal lymph nodes B) the kidney C) the spine D) the pericardium E) the peritoneum |
A) the mediastinal lymph nodes
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INT-7.34.
All of the following alterations occur in syphilis, EXCEPT: A) condyloma latum B) mucocutaneous pustular lesions C) gumma D) meningitis E) uveitis F) condyloma acuminatum |
F) condyloma acuminatum
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INT-7.35.
All of the following changes are typical of tabes dorsalis, EXCEPT: A) piercing pain B) ataxia C) neurogenic bladder D) Argyll-Robertson's pupil E) most of the serological reactions of the serum and CSF are positive |
E
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INT-7.38.
All of the following are typical of endogenous pyrogens, EXCEPT: A) they are low molecular weight proteins B) they are similar to lysozyme C) they are heat labile D) they elicit fever E) they are inhibited by an endotoxin |
E) they are inhibited by an endotoxin
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INT-7.41.
All of the following are opiate withdrawal symptoms, EXCEPT: A) yawning and rhinorrhea B) sweating and lacrimation C) dilated pupils D) piloerection E) myalgia F) hypothermia |
F) hypothermia
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INT-7.45.
Which of the following ECG findings does not occur in right ventricular hypertrophy? A) ST depression in II, III, aVF B) qR complex in V1 C) SI, QIII D) ST depression in V5-6 E) right axis deviation |
D) ST depression in V5-6
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INT-7.47.
If the mother has measles during the first trimester of pregnancy all of the following can occur in the newborn, EXCEPT. A) cardiac disorders B) cataracts C) thrombocytopenic purpura D) deafness E) the measles virus cannot be identified in newborns |
E) the measles virus cannot be identified in newborns
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INT-7.48.
All of the following are contraindications of the viable measles vaccine, EXCEPT: A) pregnancy B) leukemia C) active tuberculosis D) simultaneous steroid therapy E) polio vaccination performed 4 weeks before |
E) polio vaccination performed 4 weeks before
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INT-7.49.
All of the following are useful symptoms which help to differentiated acute pancreatitis from a perforated peptic ulcer, EXCEPT: A) hypertension develops in acute pancreatitis B) a perforated ulcer is more pressure sensitive C) intestinal sounds are typical of acute pancreatitis D) in perforated peptic ulcer air is visible under the diaphragm, while in acute pancreatitis pleural effusion is typical E) an elevated serum amylase level |
E) an elevated serum amylase level
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INT-7.53.
Which of the following can cause postoperative hypokalemic, hypochloremic alkalosis? A) dehydration due to artificial nutrition B) acute renal insufficiency C) unrecognized diarrhea D) nasogastric catheter E) overnutrition |
D) nasogastric catheter
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INT-7.54.
Select the pCO2 value characteristic of pure metabolic alkalosis if the serum bicarbonate value is 34 mmol/L? A) 20 mmHg B) 30 mmHg C) 40 mmHg D) 60 mmHg E) 70 mmHg |
C) 40 mmHg
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INT-7.55.
In gastric fluid loss, all of the following can occur, EXCEPT: A) an increased urine pH B) a decreased urine potassium level C) an increased urine bicarbonate level D) a decreased urine chloride level E) increased renin secretion |
B) a decreased urine potassium level
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INT 7.56.
Metabolic alkalosis occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) diabetes mellitus B) pyloric stenosis C) Bartter's syndrome D) after administration of calcium carbonate E) as a side-effect of ethacrynic acid therapy |
A) diabetes mellitus
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INT-7.61.
Case Study: A patient with chronic metabolic acidosis treated with alkalic equivalents to correct the acidosis kept hyperventilating for several days. Which of the following is the most typical finding in this case? A) pH 7.4; pCO2 40; HCO3 24 B) pH 7.5; pCO2 40; HCO 3 30 C) pH 7.5; pCO2 20; HCO 3 16 D) pH 7.3; pCO2 30; HCO 3 14 E) pH 7.5; pCO2 50; HCO 3 36 |
C) pH 7.5; pCO2 20; HCO
3 16 |
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INT-7.62.
Which of the following can occur if the pCO2 is 70 mmHg and the bicarbonate level is 33 mmol/L? A) chronic respiratory acidosis B) acute respiratory acidosis C) respiratory and metabolic acute acidosis D) respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis E) none of the above |
A) chronic respiratory acidosis
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INT-7.63.
The anion gap can be increased in: A) ammonium chloride intoxication B) pyloric stenosis C) bromide intoxication D) multiple myeloma E) liver cirrhosis |
B) pyloric stenosis
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INT-7.70.
Which of the following statements about uric acid transport is FALSE? A) uric acid is reabsorbed and secreted by the renal tubules B) transport mainly occurs in the proximal part of the nephron C) changes in glomerular filtration do not significantly regulate the urate clearance D) urate clearance increases with the increase of urine flow E) urate is mainly transported by diffusion |
E) urate is mainly transported by diffusion
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INT-7.71.
According to data obtained in many hospital patients, hyperuricemia is primarily caused by: A) chronic renal insufficiency B) poorly treated hypertension C) chronic diuretic therapy D) obesity and an increased consumption of purines E) diabetes mellitus in adults |
C) chronic diuretic therapy
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INT-7.73. Single Choice Question
Which of the following statements about uric acid transport is FALSE? A) interstitial uric acid concentration is highest in the juxtamedullary region B) in proximal tubuh the uric acid transport occurs in both directions C) hyperthyroidosis increases the uric acid clearance D) pyrazinoate mainly decreases the uric acid secretion E) acetazolamide slightly increases the uric acid excretion |
A) interstitial uric acid concentration is highest in the
juxtamedullary region |
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INT-7.81.
Which of the following is accompanied by a low uric acid level? A) diabetes without glucosuria B) diabetic ketoacidosis C) diabetic nephropathy D) Hodgkin's disease E) none of the above |
D) Hodgkin's disease
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INT-7.86.
Which of the following statements about glucose reabsorption is FALSE? A) glucose is reabsorbed with limited active transport B) the glucose carrier is unknown C) the Tin glucose value is about 300 mg/min D) phlorhizin decreases the glucose/insulin ratio E) under normal conditions only trace amounts of glucose appear in the urine |
D) phlorhizin decreases the glucose/insulin ratio
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INT-7.87.
In diabetic ketoacidosis, the normalization of dehydration affects glucosuria in the following way: A) it increases glucosuria B) it decreases glucosuria C) the glucosuria remains unchanged D) the glucosuria decreases if the blood glucose level decreases E) the glucosuria disappears |
A) it increases glucosuria
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INT-7.89.
Which of the following physiological sequences indicates the effect of a diuretic on the proximal tubule? A) a significant phosphaturia B) adecreased free water clearance C) hyperkalemia D) the fractional bicarbonate excretion is under 0.2 E) a metabolic alkalosis |
A) a significant phosphaturia
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INT-7.93.
Which of the following statements about the antihypertensive effect of diuretics is FALSE? A) a decreased plasma renin level B) . a decreased cardiac output C) decreased extracellular fluid D) decreased peripheral resistance E) a decreased sensitivity to vasoconstrictor agents |
A) a decreased plasma renin level
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INT-7.96.
All of the following are side-effects of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT: A) transient myopia B) hearing loss C) central visual disorders D) agranulocytosis E) thrombocytopenia |
B) hearing loss
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INT-7.99.
The main mechanism of action of the thiazide diuretics is on: A) the thin segment of the loop of Henle B) the pyramids C) the collecting duct D) the whole nephron E) the early portion of the distal tubule |
E) the early portion of the distal tubule
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INT 7.103.
Which of the following agents is not contraindicated in severe renal insufficiency? A) furosemide B) spironolactone C) triamterene D) amiloride E) potassium tablets (with a long-term effect) |
A) furosemide
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INT-7.106.
Chronic thiazide therapy can cause all of the following symptoms, EXCEPT: A) an increased excretion of bicarbonate B) a decreased excretion of calcium C) a decreased excretion of uric acid D) a decreased excretion of potassium E) an increased excretion of chloride |
D) a decreased excretion of potassium
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INT-7.108.
Which of the following statements about furosemide is FALSE? A) in a maximum dose furosemide is more effective than the thiazides B) furosemide is efficient even at very low filtration rates C) it increases RBF and GFR if severe hypovolemia is not present D) it maintains the concentrating capacity of the kidney E) other diuretics potentiate it's effect |
D) it maintains the concentrating capacity of the kidney
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INT 7.110.
The chronic administration of furosemide can cause all of the following symptoms, EXCEPT: A) hypokalemia B) hypochloremia C) hypomagnesiemia D) hypocalcemia E) hyperchloremia |
E) hyperchloremia
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INT-7.111.
Furosemide inhibits: A) chloride transport in the ascending loop of Henle B) potassium transport in the distal tubules C) sodium transport in the collecting ducts D) potassium transport in the proximal tubules E) potassium transport in the collecting duct |
A) chloride transport in the ascending loop of Henle
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INT-7.112.
Furosemide: A) decreases renal blood flow B) increases renal blood flow without increasing the GRF C) can produce a metabolic acidosis D) promotes chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle E) large doses promote uric acid reabsorption |
B) increases renal blood flow without increasing the GRF
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INT-7.114.
Spironolactone-induced full-scale sodium excretion occurs: A) within 10-30 min. B) within 2-4 hours C) within 12-20 hours D) within several days E) none of the above |
D) within several days
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INT-7.116.
Case Study: A 35-year-old male patient complains of a resistant limb edema which has persisted for many years. He spent most of his life in tropical countries. His urine is milk-like. Which of the following explains the pathological changes of his urine? A) lipiduria B) a urinary tract infection C) gonorrhea D) chyluria E) an increased consumption of milk |
D) chyluria
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INT-7.117.
Case Study: A 25-year-old unconscious female patient was admitted to the hospital. No friends or witnesses could give any further information on what had happened Centrifugation of the urine obtained by catheter revealed fat drops in the sample. Which of the following diagnoses is possible? A) eclampsia B) bone fracture C) CO intoxication D) all of the above E) none of the above |
D) all of the above
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INT-7.118.
Case Study: Nephrosis was diagnosed in a 15-year-old boy. A renal biopsy revealed a "minimal change" process. The creatinine clearance determined from a timed urine sample while the patient remained recumbent was 150 ml/min. Select the possible cause of the high creatinine clearance rate: A) an increased permeability of glomeruo-capillary surface B) inaccurate urine sampling C) a decreased plasma osmotic pressure in the glomeruli D) an increased renal blood flow (RBF) E) an increased transcapillary hydrostatic pressure |
C) a decreased plasma osmotic pressure in the glomeruli
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INT-7.121.
Case Study: A 26-year-old female patient is admitted due to a suspected nephrotic syndrome. The determination of the different molecular mass protein clearance indicated an albumin predominance. High molecular-mass globulins were not found in the urine. Select a possible diagnosis: A) membranous glomerulopathy B) proliferative glomerulonephritis C) a "minimal change" process D) membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis E) focal glomerulonephritis |
C) a "minimal change" process
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INT-7.125.
Case Study: A routine test has revealed proteinuria in a 35-year-old male patient. Electrophoresis of the urine proteins showed low molecular proteins at high concentration and only sustained albuminuria. RIA (radioimmunoassay) identifiedthe predominance of beta 2- microglobulins. Which of the following caused the proteinuria? A) cadmium intoxication B) mercury intoxication C) penicillin intoxication D) glomerulonephritis E) none of the above |
A) cadmium intoxication
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INT-7.129.
Case Study: A 47-year-old diabetic patient developed oliguria after intravenous urography. The urine osmolarity was 480 mOsm. The most probable diagnosis is: A) acute renal insufficiency B) prerenal azotemia C) papillary necrosis D) diabetic nephropathy E) obstructive uropathy |
A) acute renal insufficiency
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INT-7.136.
Case Study: In a patient with severe hypertension a normal creatinine level and a 4 g/24h proteinuria were found. Urography revealed an enlarged (16 cm) right kidney and a smaller (7 cm) left kidney with a blurred border. Results of arteriography suggest stenosis of the right renal artery. Which of the following should be the next adequate study? A) a bilateral retrograde urography B) a right-sided percutaneous renal biopsy C) left-sided percutaneous renal biopsy D) a right-side biopsy with surgical approach E) the determination of the renin concentration in the renal veins |
E) the determination of the renin concentration in the renal veins
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INT-7.145.
Case Study: A 45-year-old patient's blood pressure is 140/95 (stage 4); the patient has no other risk factors. Which of the following should be performed after a 6-month observation period? A) propranolol therapy should be started B) potassium chloride therapy should be started C) diuretic therapy combined with a reduced sodium uptake should be started D) the stage-5 diastolic pressure should be checked E) a larger cuff should be used and the patient's ECG should be taken |
D) the stage-5 diastolic pressure should be checked
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INT-7.148.
Which of the following statements about hypertension is FALSE? A) if the diastolic pressure is over 90 mmHg, life expectancy is always reduced in all patients B) the official WHO definition of normotension is: systolic pressure 140-160 mmHg; diastolic pressure 90-95 mmHg C) the rate of pressure increase is higher in pre-existing hypertension D) females tolerate hypertension better than males E) 15-20% of the adult population in the USA is hypertensive |
B) the official WHO definition of normotension is: systolic pressure
140-160 mmHg; diastolic pressure 90-95 mmHg |
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INT-7.149.
Which of the following statements is true for a "borderline" hypertension? A) the cardiac output is usually increased B) the blood volume is usually increased C) the peripheral vascular resistance is usually increased D) there is an increased role of the alpha-adrenergic nervous system E) these patients are usually resistant to beta-blockers |
A) the cardiac output is usually increased
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INT 7.151.
Which of the following pressure ranges is considered "borderline hypertension" in young patients? A) 140/90-160/95 mmHg B) 120/80-140/90 mmHg C) 120/80-165/90 mmHg D) 130/85-140/95 mmHg E) 130/85-139/89 mmHg |
A) 140/90-160/95 mmHg
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INT-7.152.
The blood pressure can increase: A) in obesity B) after consumption of substantial amounts of alcohol C) due to smoking D) in gout E) all of the abov |
E
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INT-7.162.
Which of the following statements about the baroreceptors of the carotid sinus and the aortic arch is FALSE? A) in animals full denervation causes constant hypertension B) the baroreceptor sensitivity slightly decreases in essential hypertension C) the baroreceptor activity can increase in young individuals with "borderline hypertension" D) at decreased baroreceptor activity, the peripheral resistance and diastolic pressure can markedly increase in the orthostatic position E) a higher pressure is necessary to activate baroreceptors in hypertension |
D
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INT-7.163.
All of the following hormones participate in the regulation of blood pressure in humans, EXCEPT: A) adrenaline B) noradrenaline C) renin D) vasopressin E) aldosterone |
C) renin
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INT-7.164.
Catecholamines exhibit all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A) anxiety followed by hyperventilation, palpitation and tremor B) a long-term elevation of blood pressure C) an increased cardiac output D) an increased muscle blood flow E) an increased renal blood flow |
E) an increased renal blood flow
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INT-7.166.
In which of the following diseases does kallikrein secretion decrease? A) essential hypertension B) pheochromocytoma C) primary aldosteronism D) all of the above E) none of the above |
A) essential hypertension
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INT-7.167.
Angiotensin infusion administered to normotensive patients can cause all of the following symptoms, EXCEPT: A) an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) B) a decreased renal salt excretion C) a decreased renal blood flow (RBF) D) antidiuresis E) an increased prostaglandin production |
A) an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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INT-7.168.
Which of the following statements is true for angiotensin I? A) it is the most potent vasoconstrictor known B) it is activated by the liver converting enzymes C) it consists of 10 aminoacids D) it stimulates aldosterone release E) it is formed from the "big renin" |
C) it consists of 10 aminoacids
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INT-7.170.
Which of the following statements about angiotensinogen (renin substrate) is FALSE? A) it is mainly produced in the liver B) its concentration is markedly increased after bilateral adrenalectomy C) its concentration remains unchanged after bilateral adrenalectomy D) its concentration decreases in liver cirrhosis E) estrogens increase its level |
B) its concentration is markedly increased after bilateral
adrenalectomy |
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INT-7.175.
In which of the following is the angiotensinogen (renin substrate) level abnormally high? A) during estrogen therapy B) Hodgkin's disease C) colitis D) essential hypertension E) leukemia |
A
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INT-7.176.
The aldosterone level is always increased in: A) essential hypertension B) malignant hypertension C) pheochromocytoma D) Liddle's syndrome E) polycystic kidney disease |
B) malignant hypertension
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INT-7.185.
In which of the following diseases does the plasma renin level always remain low? A) essential hypertension B) aortic coarctation C) pheochromocytoma D) Conn's syndrome E) Cushing's syndrome |
D) Conn's syndrome
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INT-7.187.
What is the most common cause of cerebral hemorrhage in hypertension? A) atheroma B) berry aneurysm C) Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm D) rupture of arteriosclerotic vessels E) a thrombosis |
C) Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
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INT-7.188.
Which of the following renal biopsy findings is the least probable in a patient with severe hypertension, papilla edema, and uremia? A) glomerular proliferation B) focal necrotizing glomerulonephritis C) marginal leukocytosis D) arteriolar hyaline formation E) fibrinoid deposits and polymorphonucleocytes in the arteriolar wall |
C) marginal leukocytosis
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INT-7.191.
Case Study: A 32-year-old male patient complains of various fits of hypertension and headaches. The repeatedly determined urine and plasma vanillylmandelic acid, catecholamine, and metanephrine values were normal. Select a possible explanation: A) cerebral astrocytoma B) a non-functioning adrenal tumor C) aortic coarctation D) aberrant adrenal tissue E) an inadequate sampling of the urine |
A) cerebral astrocytoma
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INT-7.192.
Case Study: The blood pressure of a pregnant woman (24th week of gestation) was 170/ 100 mmHg. Select a possible explanation: A) borderline or mild hypertension B) pseudohypertension of pregnancy C) hyperkinetic syndrome D) severe hypertension E) sustained hypertension |
D
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INT 7.193.
Which drugs or drug combinations should be avoided in the therapy of pheochromocytoma? A) dibenzyline B) beta-blockade followed by alpha blockade C) alpha-blockade followed by beta blockade D) prazosin E) clonidine |
B) beta-blockade followed by alpha blockade
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INT-7.194.
Which of the following studies will yield pathological values in neurofibromatosis with hypertension? A) the determination of the concentration of metanephrine in a 24-hour urine sample B) the plasma renin activity C) the serum cortisol level D) the determination of the concentration of aldosterone in a 24- hour urine sample E) the fractional potassium excretion |
A) the determination of the concentration of metanephrine in a
24-hour urine sample |
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INT-7.195.
In which of the following diseases, (which are accompanied with orthostatic hypertension), does hyperglycemia, glucosuria, hypermetabolism, and type-II multiple endocrine neoplasm occur? A) Cushing's disease B) essential hypertension C) malignant hypertension D) pheochromocytoma E) cerebellar hemangioblastoma |
D) pheochromocytoma
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NT-7.196.
Which of the following substances can erroneously alter the vanilly1mandelic acid values ? A) methyldopa B) MAO-inhibitors C) clofibrate D) ethanol E) nitroglycerin |
E) nitroglycerin
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INT-7.200.
Foamy cells occur in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) chronic glomerulonephritis B) lipoid nephrosis C) membranous glomerulonephritis D) hereditary nephritis E) nephrosclerosis |
E) nephrosclerosis
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INT-7.202.
Which of the following symptoms does not occur in nephroptosis? A) abdominal seizures in the orthostatic position B) postural hypertension C) postural hyperaldosteronism D) abdominal pain in Trendelenburg's position E) renal insufficiency |
E
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INT-7.203.
All of the following symptoms occur in renal vein thrombosis, EXCEPT: A) severe lumbar pain B) ureter incisure on the intravenous pyelogram C) hematuria D) proteinuria E) medial deviation of the ureter |
E) medial deviation of the ureter
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INT-7.204. Single Choice Question
Renal vein thrombosis can be a complication of all of the following EXCEPT: A) hypernephroma B) congestive cardiac failure C) in a patient in the terminal state of papillary necrosis D) nephrosclerosis E) nephrosis syndrome |
D) nephrosclerosis
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INT 7.206.
Primary renal impairment in disseminated intravascular thrombosis is due to: A) a hyaline thrombus B) swelling of the endothelial cells C) the formation of "half-moon" lesions D) the rupture of basal membrane E) the proliferation of mesangial cells |
B) swelling of the endothelial cells
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INT-7.207.
Which of the following changes is considered a late complication of the hemolytic-uremic syndrome of infants? A) anemia B) thrombocytopenia C) hypertension D) intravascular coagulation E) none of the above |
C) hypertension
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INT-7.215.
Which of the following substances does not occur in the urine in Hartnup disease? A) histidine B) tryptophan C) phenylalanine D) methionine E) arginine |
E) arginine
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INT-7.216.
Which of the following remarks about proximal tubular acidosis is FALSE? A) a decreased proximal maximum bicarbonate reabsorption B) an intact distal acidifying system C) after administration of ammonium chloride the urine pH value becomes less than 5.4 D) an increased bicarbonate excretion in the urine E) an impaired distal acidifying system |
E) an impaired distal acidifying system
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INT-7.221.
Case Study: A 55-year-old patient has a primary carcinoma of unknown origin. Which of the following is totally resistant to therapy? A) adenocarcinima of the prostate B) adenocarcinoma of the lung C) adenocarcinoma of the breast D) germinal cell carcinoma E) carcinoma of the thyroid gland |
B
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INT-7.222.
Eosinophilia primarily occurs in: A) enterobiasis B) diarrhea due to Giardiasis (lambliasis) C) Schistosomiasis D) measles E) corticosteroid therapy |
C) Schistosomiasis
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INT-7.223.
All of the following can occur as a complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease EXCEPT: A) cor pulmonarye B) polycythemia C) respiratory insufficiency D) left ventricular insufficiency E) bronchogenic carcinoma |
D
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INT-7.224.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) can be either emphysematous or bronchitic, depending on the character of the pathological alterations in the lung. Though they rarely occur as autonomous forms, the two diseases can be differentiated on the basis of their clinical manifestation. Select the most common feature characteristic of emphysematous and bronchitic COPD: A) polycythemia B) bronchodilators can improve the airflow C) dyspnea D) a chronic cough E) hypercapnia |
C
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INT-7.226.
Immune deficiency is diagnosed if: A) the functional activity of the T lymphocytes cannot be identified neither in vivo, nor in vitro B) there is a decrease of antibody production C) the T cells cannot change the yellow color of nitro-blue tetrazolium into blue D) neutrophil and macrophage migration is lower than the chemotaxis stimulus E) no hemolysis can occur if the serum of the patient is added to an RBC-anti-RBC antibody system |
A
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INT-7.228.
Case Study: A 50-year-old female patient complains of redness, swelling and rigidity of the distal interphalangeal joints. She has no other arthralgias. The most probable diagnosis is: A) erosion osteoarthritis B) rheumatoid arthritis C) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D) ankylosing spondylitis E) systemic sclerosis |
A
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INT-7.231.
Which of the following findings permits a differentiation between painless thyroiditis and Graves disease? A) an enlarged thyroid gland B) a low serum TSH level C) an increased serum thyroxine level D) a low uptake of radioactive iodine E) pressure tenderness and pain in the thyroid gland |
D
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INT-7.232.
Which of the following statements is the most typical feature of an amebic liver abscess? A) that surgical drainage is necessary B) it can be caused by one of the six ameba types C) in the USA it commonly occurs among homosexuals and hospital patients D) it usually indicates an intestinal amebic infection E) it usually occurs in patients with normal serum alkalic phosphatase levels but elevated transaminase levels |
C
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INT-7.233.
All of the following participate in the pathomechanism of an immediate type hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT: A) serotonin B) bradykinin C) anaphylactic eosinophilic chemotactic factor D) basophilic chemotactic factor E) neutrophilic chemotactic factor |
D
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INT-7.234.
All of the following clinical alterations occur in patients with pulmonary embolism EXCEPT: A) hypoxia B) insufficiency of the right heart C) cyanosis D) deep vein thrombosis E) bradycardia |
E) bradycardia
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INT-7.235.
Case Study: A patient with chronic renal insufficiency due to severe chronic hypertension is examined for chest pain. For the last 2 years the patient has been undergoing hemodialysis twice a week. Hypotensive episodes occurred several times during dialysis. The chest pain is localized above the trapezius muscle; in an orthostatic position it decreases, and during deep inspiration it increases. Select the most probable cause of this chest pain: A) pericarditis B) coronary disease C) diffuse esophageal spasm D) pulmonary embolism E) costochondritis |
A
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INT-7.236.
The cornea is involved in which of the following: A) sarcoidosis B) hypercholesterolemia C) congenital syphilis D) tuberculosis E) pneumocystosis |
A) sarcoidosis
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INT-7.242.
The most common hepatic lesion in cystic fibrosis is: A) postnecrotic cirrhosis B) fat atrophy C) multinodular biliary cirrhosis D) Laennec's cirrhosis E) none of the above |
C
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INT-7.243.
Which of the following cardiac surgical interventions causes jaundice? A) pulmonary valve repair B) aortic valve repair C) mitral valve repair D) tricuspid valve repair |
D) tricuspid valve repair
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INT-7.245.
All of the following can cause mechanical ileus EXCEPT: A) cholera B) hernia C) carcinoma D) volvulus E) gallstones |
A
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INT-7.246.
All of the following can be caused by a gallstone EXCEPT: A) biliary cirrhosis B) acute pancreatic necrosis C) atrophic cirrhosis D) chronic cholecystitis |
C) atrophic cirrhosis
|
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INT-7.247.
Which of the following is affected in Dupuytren's contracture? A) the tendons B) the muscles C) the palmar fascia D) the joint E) the meniscus |
C) the palmar fascia
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INT-7.248.
Dupuytren's contracture: A) is a congenital pathology B) causes extension contracture of the fingers C) occurs in pseudosarcomatous fibromatosis D) is caused only by mechanical factors E) is more common in wome |
C) occurs in pseudosarcomatous fibromatosis
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INT-7.249.
All of the following cause osteoplastic bone metastases, EXCEPT: A) gastric cancer B) breast cancer C) bronchial cancer D) prostate cancer E) hypernephroma |
E) hypernephroma
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INT-7.251.
Select the correct localization of a concretion in case of hydrops vesica felleae: A) the hepatic duct B) the cystic duct C) the common bile duct D) Vater's papilla E) Wirsungian's duct |
B) the cystic duct
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INT-7.252.
Combined tumors of the salivary gland: A) usually have a submaxillary localization B) are usually malignant C) usually develop in the parotid gland D) usually cause facial nerve paralysis E) typically cause sialolithiasi |
C) usually develop in the parotid gland
|
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INT-7.253.
Select the correct term for transplantation of tissue-friendly foreign materials: A) replantation B) alloplasty C) homologous transplantation D) autogenous transplantation E) isologous transplantation |
B) alloplasty
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INT-7.254.
Select the single correct statement: A) preblastomatosis is a pathological alteration preceding skin cancer B) preblastomatosis is a pathological alteration which leads to the development of a tumour C) preblastomatosis is a long-term pathological alteration which does not lead to malignancy D) preblastomatosis means pre-invasive cancer E) hematologic myeloid tumors are defined as preblastomatosis |
B
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INT-255.
Pneumothorax can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT: A) trauma B) bullous emphysema C) damage of the thoracic duct D) intersitial emphysema E) positive pressure artificial ventilation |
C) damage of the thoracic duct
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INT 7.256.
Case Study: A round-shaped shadow of 3 cm in diameterwas found on an X-ray screening of a 65-year-old, complaint-flee, smoking male patient. 15 years ago the patient had undergone a successful operation for colon carcinoma. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) tuberculosis B) carcinoma metastasis C) aspiration pneumonia D) bronchial carcinoma E) pulmonary absces |
D) bronchial carcinoma
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INT-7.257.
All of the following are typical of Graves' disease, EXCEPT: A) obesity B) goiter C) left ventricular hypertrophy D) exophthalmus |
A) obesity
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INT-7.258.
The most common cause of Addison's disease is: A) autoimuune adrenal atrophy B) amyloid accumulation in the adrenals C) tumor metastasis in the adrenals D) bilateral adrenal apoplexia E) adrenal tuberculosis |
A) autoimuune adrenal atrophy
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NT-7.259.
Which of the following hormones is increased in Conn's syndrome? A) cortisol B) adrenaline C) noradrenaline D) aldosterone E) cortisone |
D) aldosterone
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NT-7.260.
Case Study: Marked hypertension and its sequels, as well as polyuria and pplydipsia were found in a middle-aged patient. serum Na: 152 mmol/L; serum K: 2,2mmo1/L. Select the correct diagnosis: A) Cushing's syndrome B) diabetes mellitus C) Addison's disease D) Conn's syndrome E) phaeochromocytoma |
D) Conn's syndrome
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INT-7.261.
Xanthoma is common in: A) diabetes insipidus B) acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis C) diabetes mellitus D) diffuse acute glomerulonephritis E) liver cirrhosis (Laennec's) |
C
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INT-7.262.
Case Study: A patient's auricular cartillage has a brownish color, the urine sample turns brown after a while, and the patient complains of arthralgia. Select a correct diagnosis: A) erythropoietic porphyria B) gout C) ochronosis D) cystinosis E) hemoglobinuria |
C) ochronosis
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INT 7.263
Which of the following statements is not typical of post-hepatic jaundice? A) acholic stool B) direct positive diazo-reaction C) cholemia D) increased bilirubin in the urine E) increased urobilinogen in the urine |
E
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INT-7.264.
In all of the following melanine is accumulated in the skin, EXCEPT: A) Mongolian spot B) vitiligo C) nevus coeruleus (blue nevus) D) ephelis (freckle) E) chloasma (melasma) |
B) vitiligo
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INT-7.265.
Define the term vitiligo: A) a generalized lack of melanin in the skin B) a circumscribed lack of melanin in the skin C) lipopigment D) reaction in the peritraumatic areas E) a degeneration of trophoblasts |
B
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INT-7.266.
Which of the following statements is typical of albinism? A) a,tyrosinase enzyme deficiency B) a decreased level of glucuronide-transferase C) a decreased level of ceruloplasmin D) a Kayser-Fleischer circle E) liver cirrhosis |
A) a,tyrosinase enzyme deficiency
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INT-7.270.
Which of the following can occur in chronic systemic congestion? A) thickening of the alveolar walls B) esophagus varicosity C) pulmonary edema D) spot-like hemorrhages of the gastric mucosa E) kidney micro-infarctions |
D) spot-like hemorrhages of the gastric mucosa
|
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INT-7.275.
Define the term "phlebolith": A) an organized thrombus B) a venous stone C) calcification of the venous wall D) inflammation of the vein wall E) the inflammation of a thrombus |
B
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INT-7.277.
In which of the following should generalized mycosis be suspected? ?r) hypertensive disease B) cardiac decompensation C) gastric ulcer D) long-term antibiotic therapy E) diabetes insipidus |
D) long-term antibiotic therapy
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INT-281.
Hematuria is typical of all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A) acute glomerulonephritis B)acute pyelonephritis C) renal tuberculosis D) renal calculus E) renal cancer |
B)acute pyelonephritis
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INT-7.285.
Initial gonococcemia causes gonorrheal urethritis plus one of the following: A) myocarditis B) endocarditis C) encephalitis D) meningitis E) hepatitis |
B) endocarditis
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INT-7.286.
Initial gonococcemia causes gonorrheal urethritis plus one of the following: A) myocarditis B) osteomyelitis C) arthritis D) parotitis E) meningitis |
C) arthritis
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INT-7.288.
The nephrotic syndrome occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) membranous glomerulonephritis B) thrombosis of the renal vein C) paraproteinemic nephrosis D) cholemic nephrosis E) Kimmelstiel-Wilson's syndrome |
D) cholemic nephrosis
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INT-7.289.
In all of the following renal calculi can be formed, EXCEPT: A) in urinary tract obstruction B) in congenital metabolic disorders C) in constant substantial fluid loss D) along with gallstones E) in pyelitis |
D) along with gallstones
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INT-7.290.
The most pronounced enlargement of the lymph nodes occurs in one of the following types of leukemia: A) acute lymphoid leukemia B) chronic myeloid leukemia C) chronic lymphoid leukemia D) acute myeloid leukemia E) erythroleukemia |
B) chronic myeloid leukemia
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INT-7.292.
Marked splenomegaly occurs in which of the following types of leukemia? A) acute lymphoid leukemia B) acute myeloid leukemia C) chronic lymphoid leukemia D) chronic myeloid leukemia E) polycythemia |
D) chronic myeloid leukemia
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INT-7.294.
Which of the following is typical of Hodgkin's disease stage II? A) the involvement of lymph nodes of a single region and the spleen B) the involvement lymph nodes of a single region on both sides of the diaphragm C) the involvement of lymph nodes of several regions on both sides of the diaphragm D) the involvement of lymph nodes of several regions on both sides of the diaphragm, and alterations in the spleen E) the involvement of lymph nodes of several regions on one side of the diaphragm |
E
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INT-7.297.
Pulmonary emboli originate from: A) the femoral artery B) the femoral vein. C) one of the pulmonary veins D) the brachiocephalic trunk E) none of the above |
B
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INT-7.300.
Which of the following processes can cause serous pleuritis? A) bronchopneumonia B) lobar pneumonia C) tuberculosis D) lung cancer E) pulmonary abscess |
C) tuberculosis
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INT-7.301.
Which of the following can lead to the development of chronic cor pulmonale? A) lobar pneumonia B) thromboembolism of the pulmonary vein C) lung edema D) chronic pulmonary emphysema E) bronchopneumonia |
D) chronic pulmonary emphysema
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INT-7.302.
All of the following occur in Goodpasture's syndrome, EXCEPT: A) focal glomerulonephritis B) septic spleen C) pulmonary fibrosis; induration D) cutaneous purpura E) positive berlin-blue staining in the lung parenchyma |
B
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INT-7.303.
Which of the following can develop after long-term antibiotic therapy? A) esophageal candidiasis B) esophageal stricture C) corrosive esophagitis D) achalasia E) diffuse scleroderma |
A
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INT-7.308.
Which of the following substances causes coagulation necrosis of the gastric mucosa? A) sodium hydroxide (NaOH) B) phosphorus C) lead D) mercury E) arsenic |
D) mercury
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INT-7.309.
Case Study: A patient complains of frequent blushing fits. Asthmatic fits and profuse diarrhea are also frequent. A physical examination revealed a harsh murmur above the heart. Select the correct diagnosis: A) Basedow's disease B) Carcinoid syndrome C) Tetralogy of Fallot D) Polycythemia rubra vera E) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome |
B
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INT-7.310.
The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by: A) an adenoma of the pancreatic beta cells B) an adenoma of the pancreatic alpha cells C) an adenoma of the pancreatic gamma cells D) a carcinoma of the exocrine pancreas E) mucoviscidosis |
C
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INT-7.311.
A dilated, rigid, painless gallbladder (Courvoisier's s sign) and jaundice is typical of one of the following: A) infectious hepatitis B) hepatocellular carcinoma C) cancer of the pancreas head D) cancer of the pancreas tail E) calculus in the Wirsungian's duct |
C
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INT-7.312.
Which of the following cells primarily infiltrate the portal tract in acute viral hepatitis? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) plasma cells E) giant cells |
C) lymphocytes
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INT-7.313.
Coagulopathy developing in obstructive jaundice is due to: A) secondary thrombocytopenia B) thrombocytopenia due to decreased vitamin K absorption C) increased capillary fragility D) thrombasthenia E) a low activity of tissue thromboplastin |
B
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INT-7.314.
Which of the following can cause priapism? A) syphilis B) urethritis C) induratio penis plastica (penal prosthesis) D) increased libido E) epispadiasis |
B) urethritis
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INT-7.315.
Define the term priapism: A) an extrapyramidal disorder B) a mental disease C) pathological erection D) penis inflammation E) penis gangrene |
C
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INT-7.316.
The most important etiological factor of epididymitis is: A) syphilis B) gonorrhea C) brucellosis D) blastomycosis E) listeriosis |
B
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INT-7.317.
Vinyl chloride causes cancer in which organs? A) the liver B) the adrenals C) the colon D) the thyroid E) the thymus |
B) the adrenals
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INT-7.318.
Which of the following substances induces urinary bladder cancer in humans? A) p-aminodiphenyl (aniline dyes) B) benzene C) hydramine D) aflatoxin E) vinyl chloride |
A) p-aminodiphenyl (aniline dyes
|
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INT-7.322.
All of the following drugs can elicit systemic lupus erythematosus, EXCEPT: A) procainamide B) hydralazine C) isoniazide D) chlorpromazine E) gold salts |
E
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INT-7.326.
All of the following comprise different histologic forms of Lupus nephritis, EXCEPT: A) focal glomerulonephritis B) membranous glomerulonephritis C) membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis D) microscopic polyarteritis E) mesangioproliferative nephritis |
D
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NT-7.327.
All of the following are criteria and symptoms of Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD), EXCEPT: A) Raynaud's symptom B) swollen hands and fingers C) myositis D) esophageal dysmotility E) xerostomia |
E) xerostomia
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INT-7.328.
All of the following polysystemic autoimmune diseases contribute to the development of Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD), EXCEPT A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B) rheumatoid arthritis C) progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) D) Sjörgen's syndrome E) polymyositis/dermatomyositis |
D) Sjörgen's syndrome
|
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INT-7.329.
All of the following are among the glandular symptoms of Sjörgen's syndrome, EXCEPT: A) pharyngitis - bronchitis B) vulvitis C) vaginitis D) pyelitis E) conjunctivitis |
D) pyelitis
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INT-7.343.
Which study should be performed if infectious arthritis is suspected? A) X-ray study B) scintigraphy C) articular puncture D) antibiotic therapy |
C) articular puncture
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INT-7.344.
All of the following occur in progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma), EXCEPT: A) pulmonary fibrosis B) the incidence of antinuclear autoantibodies in the serum is about 90% C) chronic active hepatitis D) dysmotility of the lower esophageal segment E) Raynaud's syndrome |
C) chronic active hepatitis
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INT-7.346.
All of the following diseases can occur in the neonatal period, EXCEPT: A) thrombopenia (ITP) B) myasthenia gravis C) Basedow's disease D) pernicious anemia E) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) |
D) pernicious anemia
|
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NT-7.350.
The first heart sound is loud in: A) first degree AV block B) the Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome C) mitral stenosis due to calcification D) aortic stenosis E) hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy |
B) the Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
|
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INT-7.352.
Which of the following ECG changes are typical of Printzmetal's angina during a fit? A) ST depression in a localized area B) ST elevation in a localized area C) diffuse ST depression D) diffuse ST elevation E) none of the above |
B) ST elevation in a localized area
|
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INT-7.353.
Select the most important effect of a normal dose of nitroglycerin in angina pectoris (apart from coronary dilation!): A) relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles B) dilation of the peripheral vessels C) constriction of the peripheral arterioles D) constriction of the peripheral venules E) none of the above |
B
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INT-7.354.
Select the drug of primary choice in supraventricular tachycardia with narrow ventricular QRS complexes: A) digoxin B) procainamide C) dopamine D) verapamil E) propranolol |
D) verapamil
|
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INT-7.355.
Which of the following most probably occured in the history of a 16- year-old boy with diabetes mellitus? A) a recent viral infection B) an insulin response to a glucose load is about 50% of the normal C) a decreased energy uptake is required D) an initiation of biguanide treatment before starting insulin therapy E) the patient can participate in physical training lessons and can participate in other games requiring physical performance |
E
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INT-7.356.
The typical symptom of ischemic colitis in its acute phase is: A) steatorrhea B) a normal X-ray picture after a barium meal C) nausea and vomiting D) symptoms of generalized peritonitis E) hemorrhagic diarrhea |
E) hemorrhagic diarrhea
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INT-7.357.
Which of the following statements is typical of chronic granulomatosis? A) neutrophils cannot phagocyte the bacteria B) chronically enlarged lymph nodes C) recurrent candidiasis D) a dominant inheritance pattern E) hypogammaglobulinemia |
B) chronically enlarged lymph nodes
|
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INT-7.358.
All of the following can increase the normal insulin requirement, EXCEPT: A) pregnancy B) infections, fever, sepsis C) idiopathic spontaneous exacerbations D) hypothyroidosis E) burns due to irradiation and ultraviolet damage of the deep tissues |
D) hypothyroidosis
|
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INT-7.359.
All of the following can induce systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), EXCEPT: A) chlorpromazine B) phenytoin C) aspirin D) procainamide |
C) aspirin
|
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INT-7.361.
Which of the following antibiotics can form unsoluble chelates with the aluminium of antacids, which would then impair their absorption? A) penicillins B) tetracyclines C) erythromycin D) sulfonamides E) none of the above |
B) tetracyclines
|
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INT-7.362.
The occurrence of hemolytic anemia in methyl-dopa therapy is: A) less than 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 15% E) 33% |
A) less than 1%
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INT-7.363.
Case Study: Select the drug of choice in .a 2-year-old girl with fever and polyarthritis (diagnosis: juvenile rheumathoid arthritis): A) cytozan B) prednisolone C) aspirin D) chloroquine E) penicillinamine |
C) aspirin
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INT-7.364.
Which of the following facilitates the antiocoagulant effect of coumarin? A) phenylbutazone B) multivitamins containing vitamin K C) high-dose salicylate D) quinine and quinidin |
B
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INT 7.365.
All of the following increase the blood glucose level, EXCEPT: A) corticosteroids B) clofibrate C) diazoxide D) lithium carbonate |
B) clofibrate
|
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INT-7.366.
Medication recommended for the therapy of pneumococcus pneumonia is: A) erythromycin B) streptomycin C) penicillin G D) ampicillin |
C) penicillin G
|
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INT-7.370.
Where does hypernephroma develop? A) in the glomerular epithelial cells B) in the tubular epithelial cells C) in the epithelial cells of the calyx D) in the glomerular endothelial cells E) in the juxtaglomerular apparatus |
B) in the tubular epithelial cells
|
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INT-7.376.
Which of the following diseases does not usually lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome? A) glomerulonephritis B) polycystic kidney C) renal vein thrombosis D) - lupus nephritis E) Kimmensteil-Wilson syndrome |
B) polycystic kidney
|
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INT-7.385.
In which of the following diseases does pulmonary hemorrhage occur? A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B) Henoch-Sch6nlein purpura C) hypersensitive vasculitis D) Legionnaires' disease E) all of the above F) none of the above |
E) all of the above
|
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INT-7.387.
Case history: A 45-year-old male patient suffers for years from rheumatoid arthritis. Nephrotic edema has recently developed. Urine analysis revealed red blood cells present in the urine; a 2-hour postprandial serum glucose was 11 mmol/L. After a 6-week steroid therapy, the proteinuria remained unchanged. Which of the following diseases is the least probable? A) amyloidosis B) chronic membranous nephropathy C) normal glomeruli as evident by a light microscopic study D) renal vein thrombosis E) nodular glomerulonephritis |
C
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INT-7.389.
Which of the following statements about urinary tract infections in female patients is FALSE? A) the occurrence of bacteriuria increases with age B) a shorter urethra better protects against infections C) urethral discharge increases the occurrence of bacteriuria D) a sedentary life-style promotes infection E) the growing occurrence of bacteriuria with age has no relation to sexual activity |
B
|
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INT-7.390.
Which of the following statements about catheter-induced urinary tract infections is FALSE? A) it is the most common nosocomial infection B) a bladder lavage has a beneficial effect C) in candida infections systemic amphotericin-B therapy is always recommended D) infection induced by short-term catheterization does not require therapy E) in candida infections oral therapy with 5-flucytozin is effective |
C
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INT-7.391.
Which of the following findings indicates analgetic-induced nephropathy? A) red blood cells-casts B) oval adipose bodies C) sterile pyuria D) phenacetine crystals E) pigmented hyaline casts |
C) sterile pyuria
|
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INT-7.392.
Which of the following drugs does not cause renal disease? A) penicillin B) gentamycin C) erythromycin D) sulfonamides E) cephalosporins |
C) erythromycin
|
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INT-7.393.
Plasma or tissue erythropoietin-like substances are accumulated in all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A) hypernephroma B) cerebellar hemangioma C) hepatoma D) solitary renal cyst E) gastric carcinoma |
E) gastric carcinoma
|
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INT-7.394.
Case Study: A 50-year-old agricultural worker was admitted with nausea, vomiting with a peculiar aftertaste of metal, and diarrhea. He had been working with insecticides and disinfectants. The serum urea nitrogen value was 25 mmol/L. The urine volume excreted in 24 h. was 300 ml. Proteinuria, red blood cellsand epithelial cell casts were observed. Select the correct therapy: A) monitoring of fluid and electrolyte balance with fluid and electrolyte replacement therapy if needed B) high dose steroid therapy C) a dimercaptol (BAL) injection (3 mg/kg/24 h.) D) gastric lavage E) dimercaptol (BAL) injection 3 mg/kg followed by hemodyalisis |
E) dimercaptol (BAL) injection 3 mg/kg followed by hemodyalisis
|
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INT-7.401.
Case Study: A 30-year-old male patient suffers from recurrent renal calculi. An abdominal X-ray study revealed bilateral nephrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the least probable? A) hyperparathyroidism B) sarcoidosis C) primary hyperoxaluria (oxalosis) D) renal tubular acidosis E) cystinuria |
E) cystinuria
|
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INT-7.402.
Which of the following renal calculi are the most common? A) urate B) calcium-phosphate C) mixed calcium-oxalate and calcium-phosphate D) magnesium ammonium phosphate E) calcium oxalate |
C
|
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INT-7.403.
Which of the following diseases commonly occurs in pregnant women with renal calculi? A) pre-eclampsia B) urinary tract infections C) spontaneous abortions D) congenital anomalies E) renal insufficiency |
B
|
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INT-7.404.
Which of the following interventions is not correct in the therapy of uremic pericarditis? A) prolonged dialysis B) anticoagulant therapy C) formation of a pericardial "window" D) detachment of the pericardium E) suction of the pericardial fluid |
B) anticoagulant therapy
|
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INT-7.405.
Which of the following drugs causes neuropathy in uremic patients? A) vibramycin B) chloramphenicol C) trimethoprim D) nitrofurantoin E) cephalosporins |
B) chloramphenicol
|
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|
INT-7.409.
Which of the following drugs should be markedly decreased in uremia? A) gentamycin B) lincomycin C) nafcillin D) oxacillin E) novobiocin |
A) gentamycin
|
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INT-7.410.
All of the following occur in pregnancy, EXCEPT: A) an increased body water content B) a decreased blood volume C) an increased cardiac output D) an increased renal blood flow E) an increased GFR |
B
|
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INT-7.411.
In pregnancy, limb edema is due to one of the following: A) salt retention B) hypoalbuminemia C) an increased capillary permeability D) an increased venous pressure E) an increased blood pressure |
D
|
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INT-7.412.
Which of the following usually causes symptom-free bacteriuria during pregnancy? A) anemia B) a premature delivery C) a congenital anomaly D) pyelonephritis E) toxemia |
D
|
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INT-7.415.
Which of the following causes cessation of toxemia after delivery? A) delivery of the placenta B) delivery of the fetus C) uterus decompression D) urether decompression E) the loss of amniotic fluid |
A
|
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INT-7.419.
Which of the following intra-abdominal organs does not move with respiration? A) the kidney B) the pancreas C) the spleen D) the transverse colon E) the stomach |
B) the pancreas
|
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INT-7.422.
Which of the following substances is the most potent stimulant of gastric acid secretion? A) proteins B) fats C) carbohydrates |
A) proteins
|
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NT-7.423.
A 5-fold elevation of serum amylase level strongly suggests: A) parotitis B) pancreatitis C) intestinal obstruction D) pancreatic carcinoma E) penetrating ulcer |
B
|
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INT-7.424.
A characteristic symptom of pyloric obstruction is: A) bile vomiting B) abdominal murmurs C) resonance above Traube's space D) succussion (splashing sound) E) visible peristalsis |
D
|
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INT-7.426.
In which of the following diseases does a massive gastrointestinal hemorrhage rarely occur? A) esophageal varicosity B) reflux esophagitis C) gastric ulcer D) erosive gastritis |
B
|
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INT-7.430.
Aluminium-containing antacids decrease the absorption of: A) atropine B) iron C) tetracycline D) all of the above E) none of the above |
D
|
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INT-7.432.
The diagnosis of malaria is based on: A) a stained blood smear for the identification of the pathogenic agent B) a hemoculture C) identification of the pathogenic agent on the skin D) a fluorescent antibody study |
A
|
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|
INT-7.435.
Liver transplantation is a new method for the therapy of fatal liver diseases. Which of the following markedly improves the post-transplantation survival rate? A) a better selection of patients B) the early recognition of malignant diseases C) a better understanding of the pathomechanism of liver insufficiency D) cyclosporine A |
D
|
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INT-7.436.
Which part of the colon is the largest feces reservoir? A) the cecum B) the transverse colon C) the descending colon D) the sigmoid colon E) the rectum |
D) the sigmoid colon
|
|
|
INT-7.437.
The defecation stimulus is triggered by: A) contraction of the external anal sphincter B) contraction of the internal anal sphincter C) distension of the sigmoid colon D) distension of the rectum E) contraction of the rectum |
D
|
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INT-7.440.
How often (% incidence) does ulcerative colitis affect the rectosigmoidal mucosa? A) 10-20% B) 25-30% C) 50-70% D) 70-85% E) 85-100% |
E) 85-100%
|
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INT-7.441.
Which segment of the colon most commonly shows signs of toxic megacolon or toxic dilation due to ulcerative colitis? A) the cecum B) the transverse colon C) the descending colon D) the sigmoid colon E) the rectum |
B) the transverse colon
|
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INT-7.446.
Case Study: A 40-year-old worker had a massive upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage accompanied by splenomegaly. He never consumed alcohol. Which of the following could have caused this gastrointestinal bleeding? A) a peptic ulcer B) gastritis C) esophageal varices D) gastric carcinoma E) esophagitis |
C) esophageal varices
|
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INT-7.447.
In alcoholic cirrhosis and esophageal varicosities: A) the presence and size of the varices is related to the extent of hypertension B) the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage correlates with the severity of portal hypertension C) the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage correlates with the size of the varices D) all of the above E) none of the above |
C) the risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage correlates with the size
of the varices |
|
|
INT-7.448.
Select the localization of regional enteritis relapsing after surgery: A) the jejunum B) the site of the anastomosis C) the colon D) at any site of the gastrointestinal tract E) the rectum |
B
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INT-7.451.
Which of the following proteins is not produced by the liver? A) albumin B) alphal-globulin C) alpha 2-globulin D) beta-globulin E) gamma-globulin |
E) gamma-globulin
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INT-7.452.
If a patient with classic reflux esophagitis shows no reaction to cimetidine or a therapeutic elevation of his bed then therapy must be supplemented with metoclopramide because: A) it stimulates gastric evacuation, which is impaired in 50% of these patients B) it increases the lower esophageal sphincter tone C) it improves the acid clearance D) it improves gastritis which occurs in 75% of these patients E) all of the above |
E
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INT-7.454.
The most common endocrinopathy occurring in the Zollinger- Ellison Syndrome is: A) pheochromocytoma B) hyperthyroidism C) hypopparathyroidism D) hypoparathyroidism E) Cushing's syndrome |
C) hypopparathyroidism
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INT-7.461.
Which of the following statements supports the diagnosis of hemolytic jaundice? A) an elevated non-conjugated bilirubin level in the plasma B) the presence of bilirubin in the urine C) an elevated reticulocyte count D) both (A) and (C) are true E) none of the above |
D
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INT-7.462.
Case Study: In a patient with primary biliary cirrhosis, polyclonal gammopathy was established by protein-electrpphoresis. The immunoglobulin found is predominantly: A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgD E) IgE |
B) IgM
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INT-7.464.
Which of the following agents inhibits vitamin B12 absorption? A) phenytoin B) methotrexate C) cycloserine D) trimethoprim E) all of the above., |
E) all of the above.,
|
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INT-7.467.
Which of the following endocrine alterations can be accompanied by an exudative ascites? A) hyperparathyroidism B) hyperthyroidism C) hypothyroidism D) Addison's disease E) acromegaly |
C) hypothyroidism
|
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INT-7.471.
Case Study: 2 weeks after a coronary bypass operation the patient's SGOT/SGPT was 30/350 with a normal liver function. 3 months later the patient complained of fatigue and weakness, his SGPT level increased over 300. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? A) delta-hepatitis B) B-type hepatits C) non-A non-B hepatitis D) CMV hepatitis E) activation of a chronic hepatitis |
C) non-A non-B hepatitis
|
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INT-7.473.
All of the following are clinico-pathological symptoms of lead intoxication, EXCEPT: A) anemia with basophilic granules in the red blood cells B) membranous nephropathy with nephrotic syndrome C) increased renal excretion of aminolevulinic acid and coproporphyrin D) lethargy, stupor, mental retardation and encephalopathy |
B) membranous nephropathy with nephrotic syndrome
|
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INT-7.477.
Which of the following alterations is not characteristic of immunodeficient diseases (AIDS)? A) lymphoid depletion in the cortical and paracortical areas of lymph nodes B) viral inclusions in the histiocytes of lymph nodes C) gammaglobulinemia D) an inverted ratio of T-helper/T-inductor cells E) common pneumocystis carni infections |
C) gammaglobulinemia
|
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INT-7.479.
The most common histological type of thyroid carcinoma is: A) medullary carcinoma B) undifferentiated small-cell carcinoma C) undifferentiated large-cell carcinoma D) papillary carcinoma E) follicular carcinoma |
D) papillary carcinoma
|
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INT-7.483.
The incubation period of rabies shows individual differences and is related to the: A) infecting dose of the virus B) type of the vector C) history of vaccination D) distance between the wound and the brain or spinal cord E) clinical form of the vector |
D
|
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INT-7.487.
Case Study: Laboratory findings in a patient with an assumed diagnosis of pertussis showed a 25000 leukocyte count and 75% lymphocytosis. However nasopharyngeal cultivation did not support the diagnosis. Which of the following diagnosis can be assumed? A) an adenovirus infection B) an unidentified viral infection C) Rickettsiosis D) none of the above |
A) an adenovirus infection
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INT-7.491.
Case Study: Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in a 24-year-old male patient suffering from arthritis, conjunctivitis and urethritis? A) rheumatoid arthritis B) Reiter's syndrome C) pseudo-gout D) gonorrhea E) ankylosing spondylitis |
B) Reiter's syndrome
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INT-7.494.
All of the following tissues contain alkaline phosphatase, EXCEPT: A) skin B) bone C) leukocytes D) placenta E) liver |
A
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INT-7.496.
Which of the following is a dead vaccine? A) pertussis immunization B) BCG immunization C) measles immunization D) rubella immunization E) yellow fever immunization |
A) pertussis immunization
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INT-7.501.
Case Study: A 30-year-old patient with chronic active hepatitis (type B) converted from hepatitis E-antigen+ to hepatitis E antibody+. His transaminase values became normal and a liver biopsy showed inactive postnecrotic cirrhosis. What should be done next? A) comfort the patient; inform him that he is in complete remission B) inform the patient that no relationship exists between the E antibodies and the transaminase values C) observe the patient, since spontaneous seroconversion to Eantigen would reactivate the disease D) none of the above |
C
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INT-7.505.
The adequate therapy of anemia developing in the cecal loop syndrome is: A) surgery B) folic acid supplementation C) vitamin B12 supplementation D) wide-spectrum antibiotics E) iron supplementation |
D
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INT-7.509.
Which of the following diseases has the same sigmoidoscopic findings as those in shigellosis? A) amebiasis B) salmonellosis C) granulomatous colitis D) idiopathic ulcerative colitis E) diverticulitis |
D) idiopathic ulcerative colitis
|
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INT-7.512.
Case Study: A 24-year-old female patient has a 2-year history of mild non-erosive arthritis. The patient also suffers from severe depression, which developed when she had started taking oral contraceptive pills. The patient is penicillin-sensitive. At examination a pericardial friction sound and proteinuria (over 3.5g) were found. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) rheumatoid arthritis B) rheumatic fever C) mixed connective tissue disease D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) E) polyarteritis nodosa |
D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
|
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INT-7.514.
In which disease is a pacemaker usually implanted? A) total AV block B) hyperesthesia of the carotid sinus C) sick sinus syndrome D) SA node block E) none of the above |
D) SA node block
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INT-7.520.
Which of the following mitral prolapse-induced arrhythmias (usually occurring at night during increased vagal tone) is the most dangerous? A) ventricular extra-systole B) non-sustained ventricular tachycardia C) sustained ventricular tachycardia D) torsade de points E) atrial tachycardia |
D
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INT-7.525.
Which of the following statements is not typical of membranous glomerulonephritis? A) proteinuria but not so pronounced that it causes edema B) microhematuria C) a normal complement level D) non-selective proteinuria E) hypertonia |
A) proteinuria but not so pronounced that it causes edema
|
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INT-7.527.
Which of the following statements concerning Goodpasture's syndrome is FALSE? A) a synonym for glomerulonephritis caused by antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies B) pulmonary hemorrhage always disappears after a bilateral nephrectomy C) antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies show crossreactivity with alveolar membrane D) pulmonary hemorrhage is sometimes not recognized E) agressive plasma replacement therapy can stop the pathological process in the lung |
B
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INT-7.532.
Which type of renal calculi is the most common? A) apatite concrement B) magnesium-ammonium-phosphate concrement C) urate concrement D) cystine concrement E) calcium oxalate with or without calcium phosphate |
E) calcium oxalate with or without calcium phosphate
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INT-7.533.
70-80% of a renal calculus is comprised of: A) calcium B) phosphate C) uric acid D) oxalic acid E) ammonium |
A
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INT-7.535.
Which of the following should be the drug of choice in idiopathic hypercalciuria? A) ascorbic acid B) trichlormethiazide C) oral orthophosphate D) cortisone E) cellulose phosphate |
B) trichlormethiazide
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INT-7.537.
Cardiovascular complications comprise about 10% of the annual mortality of dialysed patients. Which of the following is another substantial mortality factor in this group of patients? A) sepsis B) neuropathy C) cerebral complications D) metabolic disorders E) anemia |
C) cerebral complications
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INT-7.538.
If a patient with ulcerative colitis develops thromboembolic complications, which of the following statements concerning such related coagulation disorders is true? A) an increased platelet count is a causative factor B) an elevated fibrinogen level is a causative factor C) a decreased factor V is a causative factor D) an elevated factor VII is a causative factor |
C) a decreased factor V is a causative factor
|
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INT-7.540.
Chronic gallbladder inflammation without gall stones comprises: A) a substantial part of all gallbladder diseases B) a moderate part of all gallbladder diseases C) a very small part of all gallbladder diseases |
C) a very small part of all gallbladder diseases
|
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INT-7.541.
Case Study: A 22-year-old male patient has a painless swollen ankle. Swelling developed during a 2 month period. The patient also reported a 9 year history of bilateral pleural pain, and recurrent, 3-9 day-periods of a swollen painful right knee and fever. Select the cause of the edema: A) amyloidosis B) phlebitis C) cor pulmonale D) rheumatic cardiac disease E) chronic glomerulonephritis |
A) amyloidosis
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|
Cerebral metastatic carcinomas usually originate from the:
A) prostate gland B) esophagus C) bones D) lungs E) salivatory glands |
D) lungs
|
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INT-7.544.
Case Study: In a 23-year-old patient with idiopathic ulcerative colitis (in remission due to drug therapy) re-activation of the disease occurred. The patient had hemorrhagic diarrhea with straining. Sigmoidscopy revealed ulceration at 40 cm. Which examination should be performed next? A) cglonoscopy B) air-contrast barium enema C) feces examination for enteric pathogens D) eosinophilic feces examination |
C) feces examination for enteric pathogens
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INT-7.545.
All of the following statements about drugs for iron-deficiency anemia are true, EXCEPT: A) oral iron preparations contain ferrous iron B) iron dextran contains ferric iron C) ferrous sulfate is the drug of choice for iron-deficiency anemia D) ferrous sulfate contains more than 90% elementel iron E) diarrhea or constipation can occur with oral iron preparations |
D) ferrous sulfate contains more than 90% elementel iron
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INT-7.549. MC
Hemochromatosis: A) is more common in women than in men B) is rare before middle age C) results from an autosomal recessive trait D) hepatomas occur with increased frequency in patients with longstanding hemochromatosis E) none of the above |
BCD
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INT-7.559. MC
The fourth heart sound: A) can be physiological if it occurs in young individuals under 30- years-old B) starts simultaneously with the "a" wave of the jugular vein pulse curve C) occurs on the sudden opening of the mitral valve D) is related to ventricular distensibility E) is a sign of systemic hypertension |
BCE
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INT-7.561. MC
A protruding pulmonary artery on the chest X-ray indicates: A) a ventricular septal defect B) valvular pulmonary stenosis C) Tetralogy of Fallot D) severe mitral stenosis E) a massive pulmonary embolism |
ABDE
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INT-7.562. MC
Under normal conditions, the stroke volume increases: A) during increased sympathetic activity B) during increased parasympathetic activity C) in an increased ventricular end-diastolic volume D) in changing from the recumbent position to the upright position E) in high ambient temperatures |
ACE
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INT-7.563. MC
A left ventricular aneurysm: A) is a common sequel of rheumatic fever B) causes recurrent ventricular tachycardia C) causes ST depression on the ECG D) leads to cardiac insufficiency E) correlates with a higher incidence of systemic embolization |
BDE
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INT-7.565. MC
Which of the following is characteristic of mitral stenosis? A) an "opening snap" B) a shifted apical beat C) it is a complication of infective endocarditis D) it is more common in women E) a history of rheumatic fever is frequently found in this disorder |
ADE
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INT-7.567. MC
Typical features of severe aortic stenosis include: A) syncope induced by physical load B) a louder second sound over the aorta C) a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg D) left ventricular hypertrophy on the ECG/Echocardiography E) the systolic gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta exceeds 60 mmHg |
ADE
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INT-7.574. MC
Which of the following ECG changes develop in the early stage of an acute transmural myocardial infarction? A) a dome-like ST-elevation B) a pathological Q wave C) negative T waves D) ST depression in the infarcted area E) none of the above |
AB
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INT-7.577. MC
Drugs inducing goiter include: A) aminosalicylic acid B) digoxin C) lithium D) propylthiouracil E) streptomycin |
ACD
|
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NT-7.580. MC
Typical alterations in Paget's disease include: A) increased bone resorption and bone formation B) stronger than normal bones C) an increased serum parathormone level D) high-output cardiac insufficiency is the usual cause of death E) a high level of urinary hydroxyproline excretion |
AE
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INT-7.585. MC
Which of the following statements are characteristic of pheochromocytoma? A) the intravenous administration of beta-mimetic agents is necessary in an acute hypertensive crisis B) remote metastases have already developed by the time of diagnosis C) the diagnosis is usually based on paroxysmal hypertensive fits D) an excessive renal excretion of 5-hydroxy-indolacetic acid E) the maximum incidence is between the third and fifth decades |
CE
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INT-7.591. MC
Which of the following is observed in severe pyloric stenosis? A) hypokalemia B) an elevated urea concentration C) a low urine pH value D) hypochloremia E) tetany |
ABCDE
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INT-7.600. MC
Characteristic findings in polycythemia vera rubra include: A) a decreased plasma volume B) a tendency to hemorrhage easily C) an increased RBC sedimentation rate D) itching and pruritis E) an increased neutrophilic activity of alkaline phosphatase |
BDE
|
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INT-7.606. MC
Which of the following drugs can cause skin pigmentation as a side-effect? A) chlorpromazine B) phenylbutazone C) chlorochine D) streptomycin E) busulfan |
ACE
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INT-7.607. MC
Which of the following drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis? A) amiodarone B) bleomycin C) colchicine D) phenytoin E) nitrofurantoin |
ABE
|
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INT-7.608. MC
Which of the following drugs can decrease the efficiency of oral contraceptives? A) rifampin B) coumarin derivatives C) phenytoin D) furosemide E) hydralazine |
AC
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INT-7.613. MC
Which of the following drugs can cause hirsutism? A) spironolactone B) phenytoin C) minoxidil D) digoxin E) clomiphene |
BC
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INT-7.617. MC
The most common symptoms of acute ulcer perforation are: A)fever B) vomiting C) shoulder pain D) abdominal pain E) hyperperistalsis |
BCD
|
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INT-7.623. MC
Which pattern of regional enteritis (Crohn's disease) is most often recognized? A)obstruction B) diffuse jejunoileitis C) abscess formation D) inflammation E) fistulas |
ABCDE
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INT-7.624. MC
Mechanical intestinal obstruction is assumed if the physical examination reveals: A) visible peristalsis B) a lack of intestinal sounds C) a "tympanitic" abdomen D) loud peristaltic sounds E) decreased liver dullness |
ACD
|
|
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INT-7.627. MC
Which of the following methods are used in the differential diagnosis of congenital megacolon? A) sigmoidoscopy B) study of the distal rectum C) rectum biopsy D) barium enema E) stool cultivation |
CD
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INT-7.629. MC
A lesion of which of the following parts of the gastrointestinal tract can cause tarry stool? A) the esophagus B) the stomach C) the jejunum D) the cecum E) the sigmoid colon |
ABCD
|
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INT-7.638. MC
An elevated SGOT value can occur in which of the following cases? A) liver necrosis B) myocardial disease C) opiate administration D) muscle lesions E) only (A) and (B) are true |
ABCD
|
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INT-7.642. MC
Typical endoscopic findings in a benign gastric ulcer show: A) sharp regular edges B) a clear, smooth base C) a nodular base D) rigid folds E) none of the above |
AB
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INT-7.645. MC
Which of the following induce formation of anti-nuclear and antinucleolar antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? A) one-string DNA B) double-string DNA C) the ribonucleoprotein (RNP) component of .the extractable nuclear antigen (ENA) D) a component of the extractable nuclear antigen (ENA) - Sin antigen E) nucleolar RNA |
BD
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INT-7.646. MC
Sjörgen's syndrome is suspected if the following occurs: A) lymphocyte infiltration of the salivary glands B) a burning sensation in the eyes C) psychosis D) ectopia lentis E) alopecia |
AB
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INT-7.657. MC
In which of the following does erythema nodosum occur? A) lymphoma B) sarcoidosis C) Streptococcal infections D) ulcerative colitis E) when oral contraceptives are taken over an extended period |
BCDE
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INT-7.663. MC
Which of the following are true for a 0 blood group patient? A) the patient has anti-A antibodies B) the patient has anti-B antibodies C) the patient's parents have blood group A or B D) the patient has a higher risk of developing a duodenal ulcer E) the patient has a higher risk of developing a gastric carcinoma |
ABCD
|
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INT-7.664. MC
Which of the following indicate hemolysis due to an incompatible blood transfusion? A) pulmonary edema B) lumbar pain C) headache D) urticaria E) hemoglobinuria |
BCE
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INT-7.665. MC
Which of the following statements about hemolytic anemia of, newborns are true? A) it occurs if the father is Rh-positive and the mother is Rhnegative B) it is more probable if ABO incompatibility occurs C) it never occurs in the first newborn D) the most frequent pairing resulting in sensitivity is maternal blood group O and fetal blood group A E) it can be prevented by injecting a high-titer anti-Rh gammaglobulin preparation within 72 hours after delivery |
ABDE
|
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INT-7.666. MC
Which of the following causes Coombs-positive hemolysis? A) dapsone B) methyldopa C) penicillin D) Clostridium perfringens sepsis E) cephalosporins |
BCE
|
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INT-7.670. MC
When are specific human immunoglobulins used? A) for hepatitis A B) for hepatitis B C) for rabies D) for varicella zoster E) for diphteria |
BCD
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INT-7.677. MC
Which of the following are associated with pulmonary eosinophilia? A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Ancylostoma braziliense D) nickel carbonate E) chlorpropamide |
ABCDE
|
|
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INT-7.683. MC
Though endoscopic study-induced infections are rare, such a possibility must be considered if postendoscopic fever occurs. Which of the following infections can develop following gastroscopy? A) Salmonella typhi B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Hepatitis B D) Stercoralis E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
ACDE
|
|
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INT-7.690. MC
Pericarditis can develop as a complication of A) polymyositis B) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C) mixed connective tissue disease D) polyarteritis nodosa E) rheumatoid arthritis |
BDE
|
|
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INT-7.697. MC
Which of the following findings occur in Goodpasture's syndrome? A) hematuria quickly followed by renal damage B) hematuria followed by hemoptysis C) electron microscopy reveals electrodense depositis on the basal membrane of the renal capillaries D) iron deficiecy anemia E) a high titer of circulating anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies |
ABDE
|
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INT-7.715.
Secondary osteoporosis can develop in: 1) steroid therapy 2) hyperthyroidism 3) acromegaly 4) postmenopause 5) Cushing's syndrome 6) starvation due to an absorption disorder A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 5 are true C) 4 and 5 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
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INT-7.717.
Which of the following is characteristic of "shock lung"? 1) congestive lung 2) hemorrhage 3) atelectasia 4) edema 5) capillary thrombosis A) 1 and 3 are true B) 2, 4, and 5 are true C) 1 and 4 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.719.
Schistosomiasis has the following characteristic clinical symptoms: 1) fever and allergic symptoms 2) abdominal pain and diarrhea 3) portal hypertension 4) cor pulmonale 5) myocarditis A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 1 and 5 are true D) only 5 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.721.
Which of the following characterizes the cerebrospinal fluid in aseptic meningitis? 1) a turbid fluid 2) a low glucose content 3) a polymorphonuclear reaction at the onset of the disease 4) an elevated protein level A) 1 and 4 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 1 and 3 are true D) 3 and 4 are true E) all of the above F) none of the above |
D
|
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INT-7.722.
Hypothermia occurs in: 1) myxedema 2) high-dose sedatives 3) alcohol intoxication 4) hyperthyroidism A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
A
|
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INT-7.723.
Which of the following methods is used in the therapy of opiate intoxication? 1) gastric lavage in case of an oral opiate intake 2) naloxone iv. 3) meperidine A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1, 2, and 3 are true C) only 2 is true D) only 1 is true |
A
|
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INT-7.725.
Case Study: An elderly patient with severe airway obstruction and chronic bronchitis is treated with digitalis for circulatory insufficiency. During therapy he suddenly develops a supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia (160/min) which was terminated with physical interventions. Which of the following medications should be used for the therapy of this arrhythmia? 1) digoxin iv. 2) pindolol iv. 3) metoprolol (Betaloc, cardioselective beta-blocker) iv. 4) quinidine p.o. 5) verapamil iv. A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 3 and 5 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) 1 and 4 are true E) 2, 4, and 5 are true |
B
|
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INT-7.726.
In which of the following do pulmonary abscesses develop? 1) pneumococcus type-III pneumonia 2) mitral stenosis 3) pulmonary infarction 4) scleroderma 5) regional enteritis A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
B
|
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INT-7.729.
Which of the following methods help in the diagnosis of lung cancer? 1) bronchoscopy 2) a scalene lymph node biopsy 3) a cytological smear from the sputum 4) angiography 5) ultrasound A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
A
|
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INT-7.732.
Case Study: A blood pressure value of 170/120 was found on four occasions in a 25-year-old female patient who takes no antihypertensives. A physical study showed no alterations. What should be done next? 1) nothing, because women are less susceptible to the sequels of hypertension 2) to prescribe a high potassium diet and recheck the patient after 6 weeks 3) measure the sodium content of the red blood cells 4) check for secondary hypertension A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
D
|
|
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INT-7.733.
Case Study: In a weak male patient with sinus bradycardia one doctor repeatedly measured blood pressure values of 170/ 100 mmHg, while an other doctor always obtained 160/ 100 mmHg. Which of the following might have caused this difference? 1) the cuff is too wide 2) digital devices have different accuracies ("silent" range) 3) the emotional liability of the patient 4) the two doctors released the air with different speeds A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 3 and 4 is true E) all of the above |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.734.
Which of the following alterations can be found in the fundus in both hypertension and arteriosclerosis? 1) blurred disk margins 2) narrowed vessels 3) crossing of the vessels 4) copper-wire arteries A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true , E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
NT-7.736.
Select the characteristic features of hypertension in end-stage renal disease: 1) the hypertension is usually volume-dependent 2) the plasma renin level is usually low 3) the hypertension can be controlled with adequate dialysis 4) the hypertension is of a low-volume type A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
A
|
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INT-7.737.
Case Study: A 14-year-old boys blood pressure is 140/ 100 mmHg. Two weeks ago he complained of a sore throat Which ofthe following studies should be performed next? 1) a urine sediment study 2) a urine cultivation for the presence of any microbes 3) a urine study with sulfosalicylic acid 4) the determination of the urine pH value A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
B
|
|
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INT-7.741.
Which of the following pathological states is accompanied by hypertension? 1) aortic insufficiency 2) hyperthyroidism 3) beriberi disease 4) aortic calcification A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.748.
Select the differential criteria of renal and non-renal progressive hypertension: 1) proteinuria 2) red blood cells casts 3) a high serum creatinine level 4) none of the above A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.752.
Case Study: A 55-year-old patient on antihypertensive therapy complains of palpitation and headache. He also has accompanying signs of fluid retention. Which of the followIng antihypertensive agents can cause these symptoms? 1) hydralazine 2) phentolamine 3) minoxidil 4) bumetanide A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
B
|
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|
INT-7.758.
Which of the following statements about calcium channel blocking agents is true? 1) verapamil and diltiazem block the intracellular calcium influx 2) diltiazem enhances calcium outflux from the cell 3) a combination of calcium entry blockers with beta blockers can lead to cardiac insufficiency 4) the direct effect of sublingual nifedipine administration lasts for 3 hours A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.762.
Which of the following statements about antihypertensive drugs is tunie? 1)chlorthalidone, metolazone, and triamterene are ali diuretics and have a similar effect on the potassium balance 2) captopril and saralasin are ACE inhibitors 3) propranolol, timolol, and atenolol are all lipid-soluble betablockers 4) minoxidil, hydralazine, diazoxide, and nitroprusside are all vasodilators and elevate the plasma renin activity A) 1,2, and 3 are true B) l and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.767.
A ball on the foot develops in patients with: 1) a bronchogenic carcinoma 2) a lung abscess 3) bronchiectasia 4) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
A
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|
|
INT-7.771.
Dynamic ileus can be caused by the following: 1) chronic lead intoxication 2) acute diffuse peritonitis 3) biliary colic 4) renal colic 5) intermittant acute porphyria A) 1, 2, and 4 are true B) 2, 3, and 4 are true C) all of the above D) 2, 3, 4, and 5 are true E) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true |
C
|
|
|
INT-7.772.
Early metastases of gastric cancer can develop in the following organs: 1) the axillary lymph nodes 2) the supraclavicular lymph nodes 3) the inguinal lymph nodes 4) the liver 5) the testis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2, 4, and 5 are true C) 1 and 3 are true D) 2 and 4 are true E) 2 and 5 are true |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.773.
Prostatitis can be caused by the following: 1) gonorrhea 2) syphilis 3) tularemia 4) tuberculosis 5) brucellosis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 1 and 4 are true C) 2, 3, and 5 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
B
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|
|
INT-7.784.
In which of the following does hypercalcemia occur? 1) in steatorrhea 2) in an overdose of vitamin D 3) in hypoparathyroidism 4) in hyperparathyroidism 5) in multiple myeloma A) 1, 2, 4. and 5 are true B) all of the above C) 2 and 4 are true D) 1, 3, and 4 are true E) 2, 4, and 5 are true |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.787.
Which of the following can cause an air embolism? 1) damage of the pulmonary veins 2) damage of the systemic veins 3) inhalation of hyperbaric oxygen 4) opened veins following the abruption of the placenta 5) damage of the lymphatic vessels A) 1, 2, and 4 are true B) 3 and 5 are true C) only 3 is true D) 1 and 5 are true E) all of the above |
A
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|
INT-7.791.
Select the dangers of immunosuppressive therapy: 1) the occurrence of intercurrent infections 2) the development of a malignant tumor 3) a decreased titer of auto-antibodies 4) anemia 5) prolonged wound healing A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2 and 3 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true E) only 3 is true |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.794.
Which of the following diseases can lead to the development of chronic cor pulmonale? 1) aortic coarctation 2) mitral insufficiency 3) patent foramen ovale 4) emphysema 5) silicosis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2, 4, and 5 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
B
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|
|
INT-7.795.
Which of the following can cause right-sided heart hypertrophy? 1) emphysema 2) silicosis 3) an old fibrotic tuberculosis infection 4) mitral stenosis 5) kyphoscoliosis A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 3 and 5 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.796.
Secondary cardiomyopathy can be caused by: 1) hyperthyroidism 2) pheochromocytoma 3) beriberi 4) amyloidosis 5) glycogenosis A) 1, 3, and 5 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 4 and 5 are true D) only 3 is true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.797.
Right-sided heart hypertrophy can be caused by: 1) emphysema 2) silicosis 3) mitral stenosis 4) carcinoid syndrome 5) Adams-Stokes syndrome A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1, 2 and 3 are true C) 1, 2 and 4 are true D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true E) all of the above |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.801.
Hydronephrosis can occur in: 1) urethral stricture 2) prostatic hypertrophy 3) diabetes insipidus 4) spinal damage 5) the lodging of a concrement in the urinary tract A) 1, and 2 are true B) 1, 2, and 3 are true C) all of the above D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true E) 2 and 5 are true |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.806.
Where do ulcers typically occur in the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? 1) in the limbs 2) in the soft palate 3) in the stomach 4) in the duodenum 5) in the rectum A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are true B) 2, 3, and 4 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) 3, 4, and 5 are true E) 2 and 3 are true |
C
|
|
|
INT-7.807.
Obstructive jaundice can be caused by: l) carcinoma of Vater's papilla 2) a concrement in the common bile duct 3) obstruction of the Wirsungian duct 4) a carcinoma of the gallbladder 5) a carcinoma of the pancreatic tail A) 1, 2, and 5 are true B) 1 and 2 are true C) 1, 2, 3, and 5 are true D) all of the above E) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true |
B
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INT-7.811.
Which of the following factors markedly contributes to the development of head and neck cancer? 1) alcohol 2) smoking 3) the Epstein-Barr virus 4) the hepatitis B virus A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
A
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INT-7.823.
Which of the following histocompatibility antigens predisposes to rheumatoid arthritis? 1) HLA/DRI 2) HLA/DR2 3) HLA/DR3 4) HLA/DR4 A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 1 and 4 are true D) 2 and 3 are true E) 2 and 4 are true F) 3 and 4 are true |
C
|
|
|
INT-7.833.
Select the cytokines which play a primary role in the activation of endothelial cells: 1) IL-3 2) IL-1 3) TNF-alpha 4) IL-10 5) interferon-gamma A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1, 2 and 4 are true C) 1, 2, and 5 are true D) 1, 3, and 4 are true E) 1, 3 and 5 are true F) 1, 4, and 5 are true G) 2, 3 and 4 are true H) 2, 4, and 5 are true I) 2, 3, and 5 are true J) 3, 4, and 5 are true |
H
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|
INT-7.838.
Which of the following cardiac disorders can elicit cyanosis in the early neonatal period: 1) Tetralogy of Fallot 2) an atrial septal defect 3) transposition of the major vessels 4) endocardial fibroelastosis A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
B
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|
INT-7.839.
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)! A) potassium excreting kidney B) difficulties in the initiation of movements; slow relaxation C) during such a fit the serum potassium level decreases D) athletes 1) Familial hypokalemic paralysis 2) Thomsen's syndrome 3) Primary hyperaldosteroneism 4) Ossifying myositis |
CBAD
|
|
|
INT-7.840.
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)! A) vitamin A intoxication B) it is complicated by sarcoma C) neurologic complications; fractures D) skin pigmentation E) a saddle-nose deformity F) uneven cartilage G) in the differential diagnosis - angina pectoris 1) Paget's disease 2) Hyperostosis 3) Osteoporosis 4) Fibrotic dysplasia 5) Ollier's syndrome 6) Relapsing polychondritis 7) Tietze's syndrome |
BACDFE
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INT-7.843.
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)! A) rash, pruritis, arthritis, neurologic disorders B) hemorrhagic necrosis caused by endotoxins C) deficiency of the inhibitor of the first complement component 1) Schwartzman's reaction 2) Serum disease 3) Inherited angio-edema |
BAC
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INT-7.846.
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)! A) hypertension B) hypotension C) both of the above D) none of the above 1) Vasopressin 2) Prostaglandins 3) Renin 4) Aldosterone 5) Glucagon 6) Bradykinin |
ACDADB
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INT-7.849.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Nephrosclerosis B) Nephrosis C) Chronic pyelonephritis D) Renovascular disease E) Conn's syndrome 1) the 24 hour protein excretion is 3.8 g; normal iv. urogram 2) the 24 hour protein excretion is 400 mg; normal iv. urogram 3) the 24 hour protein excretion is 400 mg; iv. urogram reveals the symmetrically shortened, deformed calyx 4) the 24 hour protein excretion is 800 mg; iv. urogram shows the left kidney to be 7cm long and the right kidney to be 10 cm long |
BACD
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INT-7.850.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) 11-hydroxylase defect B) 3-beta-dehydrogenase defect C) Both of the above D) None of the above 1) hypertension 2) hypokalemia 3) hyperkalemia 4) glucocorticoid therapy 5) metyrapone therapy 6) hypogonadism 7) virilisation 8) usually associated with fatal outcome in pediatric patients |
CCDCDA...
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INT-7.855.
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)! A) cholestyramine has a beneficial effect B) a good response to a gluten-free diet C) a good response to wide-spectrum antibiotics D) a good response to the withdrawal of milk E) the administration of digestive enzymes decreases steatorrhea 1) Lactase deficiency 2) Celiac disease 3) Enteropathy caused by bile acid salts 4) Chronic pancreatitis 5) Whipple's disease |
DBAEC
|
|
|
INT-7.856.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Carcinoma of the pancreas body B) Mild, chronic pancreatitis C) Pancreatitis related to alimentary and metabolic factors D) Carcinoma of the pancreas head with complete obstruction E) Pancreatic disease related to hemochromatosis 1) a lack or markedly decreased amount of fluid, low bicarbonate and amylase level 2) a decreased amount of fluid, with normal bicarbonate and amylase level 3) a normal amount of fluid, with low bicarbonate and normal or low amylase level 4) a normal amount of fluid, with normal bicarbonate and low amylase level 5) an increased amount of fluid, low bicarbonate and normal amylase level |
DABCE
|
|
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INT-7.858.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Pancreas B) Lung C) Kidney D) Muscle E) Breast 1) Zenker's waxy necrosis 2) enzymatic fatty necrosis 3) traumatic fatty necrosis 4) anemic infarction 5) hemorrhagic infarction |
DAECB
|
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INT-7.864.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Digoxin B) Lidocaine C) Propranolol D) Albuterol 1) a sudden withdrawal in patients with angina pectoris can cause angina 2) it is an efficient bronchodilator 3) it should not be given to asthmatic patients 4) it lowers the increased ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation 5) it affects only ventricular arrhythmias |
CDCAB
|
|
|
INT-7.869.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Tubular type colonic polyp B) Intermediate form of colonic polyp C) Villous adenoma 1) a 53% probability of malignancy 2) a 35% probability of malignancy 3) a 46% probability of malignancy |
CAB
|
|
|
INT-7.875.
Glomerulonephritis is common in systemic lupus erythematosus because the circulating antigen-antibody complexes precipitate in the walls of the glomerular capillaries. |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.875.
Glomerulonephritis is common in systemic lupus erythematosus because the circulating antigen-antibody complexes precipitate in the walls of the glomerular capillaries. |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.876.
Prostate hyperplasia leads to the retention of urine, therefore a bacterial infection can easily occur in prostatic hyperplasia. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.877.
The urethral lumen always narrows in nodular prostate hyperplasia, therefore hypertrophy of the bladder's smooth muscles occurs. |
A
|
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INT-7.878.
An embolus is always solid because fluids and gases cannot cause obstruction of the vascular lumen. |
E
|
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|
INT-7.879.
Anaerobic glycolysis is enhanced in the body's tissue during hypoxia, therefore glycogen accumulates in the hypoxic hepatic tissue. |
C
|
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|
INT-7.880.
Melanin accumulation occurs in Addison's disease because hydrocortisone fails to inhibit the pituitary melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) secretion. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.885.
Aortic stenosis markedly contributes to the left ventricular load, therefore left ventricular hypertrophy is a sequel of aortic stenosis. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.888.
Fluid transudation across the lymphatic vessel walls occurs in lymphedema because in lymphedema the permeability of the lymphatic vessels increases. |
C
|
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|
INT-7.889.
Heparin exhibits an antithrombin effect because the heparin molecule is comprised of acidic mucopolysaccharides. |
B
|
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|
INT-7.890.
Inflammatory hyperemia is an active process because the vascular permeability is increased in a focus of inflammation. |
B
|
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INT-7.891.
Anemic infarction does not always develop after an occlusion of the mesenteric artery because an impairment of the venous outflow is another important factor in the development of hemorrhagic infarction. |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.892.
Gelatinous pneumonia is an exudative form of pulmonary tuberculosis because a specific granuloma is the most typical tuberculotic reaction. |
B
|
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|
INT-.895.
The left ventricular blood supply is inadequate in mitral insufficiency, therefore. the left ventricle can exhibit a slight hypertrophy in mitral insufficiency |
E
|
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|
INT-7.897.
In mitral insufficiency the congestion can spread to the pulmonary circulation, therefore the right atrium and ventricle will undergo dilation and hypertrophy in mitral insufficiency. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.899.
Renal papillary necrosis mostly occurs in diabetic patients because the Kimmelstiel- Wilson's syndrome is a typical renal disease in diabetes. |
B
|
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|
INT-7.900.
A marked cell decomposition occurs in leukemic patients following irradiation, therefore the renal accumulation of urate salts is expected in post-radiation therapy in leukemic patients. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.901.
A partial or intermittant urethra occlusion can lead to the development of hydronephrosis because urine retention in the pyelon usually leads to a bacterial infection. |
B
|
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|
INT-7.902.
Acute glomerulonephritis is accompanied by albuminuria, therefore the edema typical of acute glomerulonephritis is due to hypoproteinemia. |
C
|
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|
INT-7.906.
The red blood cells are more vulnerable in the spherocytic-type of anemia because the red blood cells' osmotic resistance is decreased in the spherocytic type of anemia. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.907.
Metaplasia of the bronchial epithelium can occur in bronchiectasis, therefore adeno-carcinoma is common in patients with bronchiectasis. |
C
|
|
|
INT-7.909.
Dyspnea is one of the leading symptoms of emphysema because the surface of the emphysematous lung is decreased. |
A
|
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|
NT-7.910.
Pulmonary alterations elicited by silicosis are irreversible because the lung cannot eliminate the absorbed silicon. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.914.
Male patients with liver cirrhosis frequently develop gynecomastia because the hepatic estrogen inactivation system is progressively destroyed. |
A
|
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|
INT-7.915.
A gallstone can sometimes impact itself in the hepatic duct, therefore acute hemorrhagic pancreatic necrosis can develop as a complication of cholelithiasis. |
B
|
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|
INT-7.916. Relation Analysis
Portal congestion develops due to liver cirrhosis, therefore an intermittant jaundice can occur as a complication of liver cirrhosis. |
B
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|
INT-7.141.
Case Study: A 25-year-old female patient is admitted with metabolic alkalosis. The chloride concentration in the urine exceeds 110 mmol/L. This fording can occur in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) severe vomiting B) diuretic therapy C) severe potassium loss D) Bartter's syndrome E) Cushing's syndrome |
severe vomiting
|
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INT-7.250.
Case Study: A middle-aged male patient is examined for back pain. The X-ray study showed round-shaped hypodense regions in the lumbar vertebra. Laboratory findings also include an increased sedimentation rate and high levels of serum alkaline phosphatase. Select the most probable diagnosis: A) prostate carcinoma metastasis B) gastric carcinoma metastasis C) hypernephroid carcinoma metastasis D) osteolytic osteosarcoma E) benign osteoblastoma |
hypernephroid carcinoma metastasis
|
|
|
INT-7.273.
In all of the following thrombosis can develop, EXCEPT: A) leukemia B) polycythemia C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) potassium chlorate intoxication E) echidnotoxin intoxication |
systemic lupus erythematosus
|
|
|
INT-7.282.
In which of the following does hematuria occur? A) acute pyelonephritis B) chronic pyelonephritis C) acute glomerulonephritis D) membranous glomerulonephritis E) amyloid nephrosis |
acute glomerulonephritis
|
|
|
INT-7.317.
Vinyl chloride causes cancer in which organs? A) the liver B) the adrenals C) the colon D) the thyroid E) the thymus |
the adrenals
|
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|
INT-7.431.
The most common cause of gastrointestinal obstruction by a foreign body is: A) bezoars B) parasites C) intestinal calculi D) iron-containing calculi E) gallstones |
gallstones
|
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|
INT-7.439.
The disease frequently misdiagnosed as regional enteritis is: A) acute pyelonephritis B) irritable colon C) diverticulosis D) appendicitis E) gastritis |
appendicitis
|
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|
INT-7.443.
The most common complaint in carcinoma of the rectum is: A) diarrhea B) anal pain C) abdominal pain D) constipation E) melena |
melena
|
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INT-7.463.
Liver cirrhosis is the most common, but not the sole cause of portal hypertension and esophageal varicosities. Which varices can be treated with a splenectomy? A) schistosomiasis B) thrombosis of the splenic veins C) nodular regenerative hyperplasia D) none of the above |
thrombosis of the splenic veins
|
|
|
INT-7.482.
The initial lesion caused by rheumatoid arthritis: A) remains in the articular cartilage B) remains in the articular cavity C) remains in the synovia D) remains in the bones comprising the joint E) remains in the secondary ligaments and tendons |
remains in the synovia
|
|
|
IINT-7.498.
Case Study: A 48-year-old male patient is treated for Zollinger-Ellison's syndrome with cimetidine and anticholinergic agents. The disease is well maintained with this therapy, however gynecomastia and marked impotence have developed. Due to these side-effects the patient asks for a different therapy. Which of the following can be recommended? A) a total gastrectomy B) a reduced cimetidine dose and an elevation of the anticholinergic dose C) a shift from cimetidine to ranitidine D) to reassure and comfort the patient E) a vagotomy and a decreased cimetidine dose |
a reduced cimetidine dose and an elevation of the anticholinergic dose
|
|
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INT-7.285.
Initial gonococcemia causes gonorrheal urethritis plus one of the following: A) myocarditis B) endocarditis C) encephalitis D) meningitis E) hepatitis |
endocarditis
|
|
|
INT-7.266.
Which of the following statements is typical of albinism? A) a,tyrosinase enzyme deficiency B) a decreased level of glucuronide-transferase C) a decreased level of ceruloplasmin D) a Kayser-Fleischer circle E) liver cirrhosis |
a,tyrosinase enzyme deficiency
|
|
|
INT-7.275.
Define the term "phlebolith": A) an organized thrombus B) a venous stone C) calcification of the venous wall D) inflammation of the vein wall E) the inflammation of a thrombus |
a venous stone
|
|
|
INT-7.483.
The incubation period of rabies shows individual differences and is related to the: A) infecting dose of the virus B) type of the vector C) history of vaccination D) distance between the wound and the brain or spinal cord E) clinical form of the vector |
distance between the wound and the brain or spinal cord
|
|
|
INT-7.468.
The highest secretin secretion occurs in the: A) stomach B) duodenum C) jejunum D) ileum E) none of the above |
none of the above
|
|
|
INT-7.500.
Bacterial overgrowth following extensive intestinal resection can cause: A) hepatic steatosis B) arthritis C) colon pseudo-obstruction D) lactate acidosis E) all of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
INT-7.543.
In which of the following malignancies does parathyroid hormone overload occur? A) oat-cell carcinoma of the lung B) thyroid carcinoma C) epithelial carcinoma of the lung D) fibrosarcoma E) lymphoma |
epithelial carcinoma of the lung
|
|
|
INT-7.757.
Case Study: A 60-year-old female patient is admitted to an intensive care unit for dyspnea. The patient has been treated with digoxin and diuretics. A month later she developed a syncopal episode. What should be done? 1) an ECG should be taken 2) nifedipine therapy should be initiated 3) a determination of the serum potassium level 4) a determination of the serum calcium and magnesium levels A) 1, 2, and 3 are true B) 1 and 3 are true C) 2 and 4 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
B
|
|
|
INT-7.785.
Which of the following hormones can elevate the serum calcium level? 1) thyroxine 2) calcitonin 3) parathyroid hormone 4) glucocorticoids 5) testosterone A) 2, 3, 4, and 5 are true B) only 3 is true C) 1, 2, and 3 are true D) 3 and 4 are true E) all of the above |
C
|
|
|
INT-7.779.
Pathological proteins can accumulate in the plasma in: 1) ochronosis 2) malignant melanoma 3) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia 4) multiple myeloma 5) myeloid leukemia A) 2 and 5 are true B) only 1 is true C) 1, 2, and 5 are true D) 3 and 4 are true E) 4 and 5 are true |
D
|
|
|
INT-7.780.
Steatorrhea can be caused by: 1) decreased lipase production 2) bile secretion disorders 3) damage of the intestinal epithelium 4) celiac disease 5) tropical sprue A) 1, 3, 4, and 5 are true B) 4 and 5 are true C) 1, 2, 4, and 5 are true D) 2 and 5 are true E) all of the above |
E
|
|
|
INT-7.792.
Which of the following states increase the incidence of arteriosclerosis? 1) obesity 2) gastric cancer 3) diabetes mellitus 4) hypothyroidism 5) lymphoid leukemia A) 1, 3, and 4 are true B) 2 and 5 are true C) 2, 3, and 5 are true D) only 4 is true E) all of the above |
A
|
|
|
INT-7.842.
Associate the following statement(s) with their corresponding term(s)! A) macroglobulin, vascular insufficiency, plasmapheresis B) occurs in multiple myeloma, macroglobulinemia, systemic lupus and peripheral vascular insufficiency C) macroglobulin which causes hemolytic anemia 1) Increased viscosity 2) Cryoglobulins 3) Cold agglutinins |
ABC
|
|
|
INT-7.867.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Meckel's diverticulum B) Hirschprung's disease C) Pyloric stenosis D) Cystic fibrosis E) Enteric cyst 1) no ganglion cells are found in a rectal biopsy 2) surgical resection of the involved, non-hypertrophic segment 3) a rudimentary omphalomesenteric duct 4) inflammation elicits symptoms which cannot be differentiated from appendicitis 5) surgical resection of the hypertrophic muscle has a beneficial effect 6) meconium ileus |
BBAACD
|
|
|
INT-7.6. True-False Type Question
In patients with duodenal ulcers the rate of gastric emptying is higher than that ofnormal individuals |
T
|
|
|
INT-7.29.
Which of the following makes the patient more susceptible to herpes zoster? A) a lumbar puncture B) an arsenic injection C) lymphoid leukosis D) a spinal tumor E) all of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
INT-7.46.
Case Study: A 26-year-old primipara patient delivered a 3000 g at-term newborn 4 weeks before admission. 10 days ago she had fever (38,2-38,8 0 C). BLA BLA BLA.... The diagnosis based on the above findings and symptoms is puerperal sepsis with oligo or anuria. Select the correct therapy: A) bed-rest; hepatoprotective diet; vitamins B) transfusion; cultivation of the lochia; aimed antibiotic therapy C) immediate surgery (extirpation of the uterus) D) dialysis. followed by surgery (mentioned in (C) above) E) bed rest; wide-spectrum antibiotics; Heparin therapy |
dialysis. followed by surgery (mentioned in (C) above)
|
|
|
INT-7.65.
The kidney excretes nitrogen in correlation with the following compounds, EXCEPT: A) uric acid B) creatinine C) urea D) amino acids E) ketone bodies |
ketone bodies
|
|
|
INT-7.78.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of a high uric acid level? A) generalized atherosclerosis B) sarcoidosis C) hypoparathyroidism D) anaplastic lung carcinoma E) aseptic necrosis of the femur |
hypoparathyroidism
|
|
|
INT-7.85.
Which of the following statements about renal glucose secretion is true? A) it depends only on the glomerular filtration rate B) the secretion occurs in the proximal tubules C) the Tin glucose value is about 300 mg/min D) glucose does not appear in the urine until the filtration pressure is 50% higher than the reabsorption capacity E) at low serum glucose values, the appearance of glucose in the urine depends on the ratio between filtration and reabsorption |
at low serum glucose values, the appearance of glucose in the
urine depends on the ratio between filtration and reabsorption |
|
|
INT-7.98.
Which of the following is true if the kidney's diluting capacity is impaired, but the concentrating ability remains intact? A) this is due to thiazide diuretics B) this is due to furosemide C) this is due to mercury-containing diuretics D) it is because the medullary part of the loop of Henle is affected E) it is because the proximal tubule is affected |
this is due to thiazide diuretics
|
|
|
INT-7.119.
An iso-osmotic urine usually occurs: A) in acute tubular necrosis B) in the hepatorenal syndrome C) in acute glomerulonephritis D) after a large loss of body fluids E) after intravenous urography |
in acute tubular necrosis
|
|
|
INT-7.120.
A marked deterioration of the concentrating ability of the kidney can occur in: A) hypercalcemic nephropathy B) acute glomerulonephritis C) chronic glomerulonephritis D) after the constant consumption of high-protein food E) an embolism of the renal artery |
hypercalcemic nephropathy
|
|
|
INT-7.123.
An impaired concentrating ability with an intact diluting ability occurs in all of the following cases, EXCEPT: A) sickle cell anemia B) hypokalemia C) adrenal cortex insufficiency D) hyperparathyroidism, E) cystic renal disease |
adrenal cortex insufficiency
|
|
|
INT-7.135.
The urine of healthy individuals is usually more acidic than the body fluids due to the production and renal excretion of endogenous acids. Which of the following is not important in the process of acid excretion? A) the ammonia concentration B) the free hydrogen ion concentration C) the titratable acidity D) all of the above E) none of the above |
the free hydrogen ion concentration
|
|
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INT-7.140.
Case Study: A 24-year-old male patient with oliguria is admitted to the hospital. The urine sodium level is 40 mmol/L. This finding can occur in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) acute renal insufficiency B) incomplete obstruction of the urinary tract C) prerenal azotemia D) furosemide therapy E) therapy with ethacrynic acid |
prerenal azotemia
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INT-7.159.
In essential hypertension: A) the serum sodium level is high B) the serum sodium level is low C) the urine sodium level is high D) the urine sodium level is low E) there is an increased sodium content in the vessel wall |
there is an increased sodium content in the vessel wall
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INT-7.172.
Which of the following mechanisms inhibits renin release? A) a decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole B) an elevated Na or Cl concentration in the macula densa C) stimulation of the sympathetic renal nerves D) hyperkalemia E) adrenaline |
hyperkalemia
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INT-7.179.
Which of the following methods is commonly used for the determination of the renin concentration? A) determination of the angiotensin I level B) determination of the renin with radioimmunoassay (RIA) C) determination of the renin substrate with RIA D) via the aldosterone secretion rate E) determination of the angiotensin II level |
determination of the angiotensin I level
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INT-7.189.
Which of the following alterations does not occur in primary malignant nephrosclerosis? A) proliferative endarteritis of the afferent arterioles B) proliferative endarteritis of the small interlobular arteries C) diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D) necrotizing arteriolitis E) necrotizing glomerulitis |
) diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
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INT-7.196.
Which of the following substances can erroneously alter the vanilly1mandelic acid values ? A) methyldopa B) MAO-inhibitors C) clofibrate D) ethanol E) nitroglycerin |
nitroglycerin
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INT-7.209.
Which of the following is a sex-dependent, dominantly inherited disease? A) Wilson's disease B) cystinuria C) cystinosis D) Hartnup disease E) vitamin D-resistant rickets |
vitamin D-resistant rickets
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INT-7.219.
Case Study: A patient with lung carcinoma becomes weak and lethargic, his serum calcium level is 16.4 mg/ 100 ml. What is the first therapeutic intervention? A) phosphate iv. B) mithramycin iv. C) glucocorticoids iv. D) saline and furosemide iv. E) calcitonin iv. |
saline and furosemide iv.
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INT-7.227.
Osteomalacia developing due to an increased excretion of phosphate is typical of one of the following: A) a vitamin D deficiency B) an inherited vitamin D dependence C) a familial vitamin D resistance D) anti-seizure medication E) severe liver pathology |
a familial vitamin D resistance
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INT-7.239.
All of the following can occur as adverse effects of cimetidine, EXCEPT: A) increased serum transaminase levels and hepatotoxicity B) rebound acid secretion after discontinuation of the drug C) mental confusion D) agranulocytosis E) gynecomastia |
rebound acid secretion after discontinuation of the drug
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INT-7.268.
Which of the following pigments cannot appear in the urine? A) hemoglobin B) myoglobin C) hemosiderin D) porphyrin E) melanin |
hemosiderin
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INT-7.296
Which of the following can be a sequel of bronchiectasis? A) left ventricular dilation B) left atrial dilation C) a pulmonary artery embolism D) a pulmonary vein thrombosis E) secondary amyloidosis |
secondary amyloidosis
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INT-7.299.
Which of the following can be a sequel of chronic emphysema? A) hemothorax B) pulmonary abscess C) secondary amyloidosis D) left ventricular hypertrophy E) pulmonary edema |
secondary amyloidosis
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INT-7.333.
The presence of anti SS-A or anti SS-B autoantibodies indicates that polymyositis/dermatomyositis can be accompanied by one of the following autoimmune diseases: A) progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) B) Sjörgen's syndrome C) Crohn's disease D) rheumatoid arthritis |
progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
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INT-7.335.
Which of the following cytokines stimulates the formation of IgE? A) IL-3 B) IL-4 C) IL-2 D) IL-1 |
IL-4
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INT-7.340.
Which of the following cytokines does not play an important role in the pathomechanism of rheumatoid arthritis? A) IL-1 B) IL-3 C) TNF-alpha D) TNF-beta |
IL-3
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INT-7.342.
Select the correct therapy of rheumatoid artritis (RA) complicated by vasculitis: A) gold salts B) cyclophosphamide C) chloroquine D) sulfasalazine |
cyclophosphamide
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INT-7.348.
All of the following autoimmune diseases can accompany autoimmune adrenalitis, EXCEPT: A) immune thyroiditis B) hypoparathyroidism C) ovarian insufficiency D) pernicious anemia E) multiple sclerosis |
multiple sclerosis
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INT-7.366.
Medication recommended for the therapy of pneumococcus pneumonia is: A) erythromycin B) streptomycin C) penicillin G D) ampicillin |
penicillin G
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INT-7.369.
Which of the following statements is true for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? A) an autosomal dominant inheritance B) an autosomal recessive inheritance C) a low GFR D) a low serum ADH level E) in heterozygous women, the urine concentrating capacity is decreased |
in heterozygous women, the urine concentrating capacity is
decreased |
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INT-7.380.
In acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis: A) streptococcus pharyngitis or impetigo always develop B) male patients are-usually affected C) the nephrotic syndrome is the most common form of this glomerulonephritis D) the AST (antistreptolysin) titer correlates well with the severity and outcome of the disease E) all of the above F) none of the above |
none of the above
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INT-7.386.
Focal segmental glomerulonephritis accompanies all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B) acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis C) polyarteritis nodosa D) Henoch-Sch6nlein purpura E) bacterial endocarditis |
acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
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INT-7.381.
Acute nephritis occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) essential mixed cryoglobulinemia B) Guillain-Barré's syndrome C) acute porphyria D) solid tumors after irradiation E) Coxsackievirus infection |
acute porphyria
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INT-7.383.
The light microscopic histologic picture, similar to that of mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, is observed in all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) B) scleroderma C) Henoch-Sch6nlein purpura D) poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis E) sickle cell anemia |
scleroderma
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INT-7.238. Single Choice Question
The most pronounced gastrointestinal fluid absorption occurs in the: A) duodenum B) jejunum C) ileum D) colon E) none of the above |
jejunum
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INT-7.141.
Case Study: A 25-year-old female patient is admitted with metabolic alkalosis. The chloride concentration in the urine exceeds 110 mmol/L. This fording can occur in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) severe vomiting B) diuretic therapy C) severe potassium loss D) Bartter's syndrome E) Cushing's syndrome |
severe vomiting
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INT-7.373.
Nephrosis occurs in all of the following, EXCEPT: A) right heart insufficiency B) constrictive pericarditis C) obstruction of the inferior caval vein above the renal artery D) polycystic kidney disease E) amyloidosis |
polycystic kidney disease
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INT-7.560. MC
The intensity of cardiac murmurs: A) increases on the right side during expiration B) amyl nitrate increases the murmur in aortic stenosis C) increases during Valsalva's maNEUver in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy D) in mitral stenosis the intensity of the murmur depends on the extent of the stenosis E) increases during a physical load in aortic insufficiency |
BCE
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NT-7.714. MC
Which of the following features are characteristic of Bence-Jones protein? A) it is found in the urine of 70% of patients with myeloma B) it precipitates at 37 0 C and is redissolved at higher temperatures C) it is comprised of both kappa and lambda chains D) the "Albustix" test is positive E) when it is present the risk of renal symptoms is increased |
AE
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