St Review

Front 1

What method of hemostasis are ligatures?

Back 1

internal

Front 2

Absorbable collagen should not be used in the presence of ___?

Back 2

infection

Front 3

what hemostatic agent must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?

Back 3

Avitene

Front 4

what hemostatic agent should not be used on bone?

Back 4

oxidized cellulose

Front 5

is Adaptic an adherent or nonadherent dressing?

Back 5

nonadherent

Front 6

Whistle, Braasch, and Blasucci are all what type of catheters?

Back 6

ureteral

Front 7

A nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine is ___?

Back 7

Miller-Abbott

Front 8

Malecot, mushroom, and sump are all types of ___?

Back 8

surgical drains

Front 9

what type od sponge is a tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?

Back 9

Kittner

Front 10

what can be utilzed for wounds, particularly abdominal surgical wounds, that will require frequent dressing changes and prevent damage to the skin?

Back 10

Montgomery straps

Front 11

most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol-water solution to maintain their ___?

Back 11

pliability

Front 12

the substance that weakly holds wound edges together during the first 5 days of first intention healing is ___?

Back 12

fibroblasts

Front 13

the least inert of all the synthetic meshes is ___?

Back 13

polyester fiber mesh

Front 14

is absorbable or non-absorbable suture generally preferred in suturing periosteum?

Back 14

absorbable

Front 15

a microfibrillar collagen that is either supplied in a compacted nonwoven webform or in loose fibrous form is known as ___?

Back 15

Avitene

Front 16

A suture used in tendon repair is ___?

Back 16

polydiaxanone

Front 17

What type of suture is Ethibond Excel?

Back 17

polyester fiber

Front 18

what is the most widely used nonabsorbable suture?

Back 18

nylon

Front 19

what is the least inert of all synthetic suture materials?

Back 19

polypropylene

Front 20

In how many days is plain gut absorbed?

Back 20

70

Front 21

an excellent substitute that provides strength and nonreactivity in tissues where stainless steel cannot be used is ___?

Back 21

polypropylene

Front 22

when breaking down the setup, the scrub person should place the instruments in what?

Back 22

a basin of water for transport to decontamination

Front 23

a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle and does not have a sac is called ___?

Back 23

a direct hernia

Front 24

the defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the ___ muscle.

Back 24

transversalis

Front 25

the incision commonly used for an appendectomy is ___?

Back 25

McBurney

Front 26

a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used when treating ___?

Back 26

esophageal varices

Front 27

omental flaps, falciform ligament, or Gerota's fascia flaps may be used to ___?

Back 27

control liver hemorrhage

Front 28

the procedure performed for decompression of the cecum due to colonic obstruction is ___?

Back 28

cecostomy

Front 29

pancreaticojejunostomy is performed for ___?

Back 29

pancreatic psuedocysts

Front 30

a Silverman biopsy needle is used to biopsy what?

Back 30

liver

Front 31

choledochotomy is performed to do what?

Back 31

drain the common bile duct

Front 32

what incision is used for a resection of the sigmoid colon?

Back 32

paramedian

Front 33

a type of deep retractor commonly used in an open chole is a ___?

Back 33

Harrington

Front 34

the procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis in the newborn is ___?

Back 34

Fredet-Ramstedt

Front 35

the Heller procedure is performed to correct ___?

Back 35

esophageal obstruction

Front 36

the procedure to correct intrahepatic obstruction is ___?

Back 36

portacaval shunt

Front 37

a forceps commonly used to remove gallstones from the common bile duct during an open chole is ___?

Back 37

Randall

Front 38

the instrument used to grasp the appendix during an open appendectomy is ___?

Back 38

Babcock

Front 39

a herniation of the Douglas' cul-de-sac containing a loop of bowel is called a/an ___?

Back 39

enterocele

Front 40

a HUMI cannula would be used in what procedure?

Back 40

tuboplasty

Front 41

a colposcopy may be performed for suspected ___?

Back 41

carcinoma in situ

Front 42

a diagnostic procedure for suspected ectopic pregnancy is ___?

Back 42

culdocentesis

Front 43

how many sponge, sharp, and instrument counts does a cesarean section require?

Back 43

four

Front 44

if a tumor of an oveary is suspected to be malignant, what other organs will be excised?

Back 44

both fallopian tubes, both ovaries, and uterus,

Front 45

excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called ___?

Back 45

hydrocelectomy

Front 46

female urethral dilation may be accomplished with ___?

Back 46

McCarthy dilators

Front 47

Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the ___?

Back 47

kidney pedicle

Front 48

the anesthesia of choice for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is ___?

Back 48

epidural

Front 49

a diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is ___?

Back 49

needle biopsy

Front 50

what non electrolytic and isosmotic solution is used during a TURP?

Back 50

Glycine

Front 51

why is it important for a patient to void prior to the beginning of a cystoscopy?

Back 51

to rule out residual urine in the bladder

Front 52

what instrument is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?

Back 52

Ellik evacuator

Front 53

the procedure in which the attenuated anterior capsule of the shoulder is reattached to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures is called a/an ___?

Back 53

Bankart

Front 54

Colles' fracture is often treated by ___?

Back 54

closed reduction

Front 55

fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting tools to perform a ___?

Back 55

stapendectomy

Front 56

what instrument would be used to remove the septal cartilage during a rhinoplasty?

Back 56

Jansen-Middleton forceps

Front 57

Freer elevator, Bayonnet forceps, Potts forceps, or Cottle speculum; which is NOT found on a nasal setup?

Back 57

Potts forceps

Front 58

removal of an entire eyeball is called ___?

Back 58

enucleation

Front 59

a type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is ___?

Back 59

intracapsular

Front 60

is vitrectomy a treatment for glaucoma?

Back 60

no

Front 61

which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

Back 61

argon

Front 62

what instrument is used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?

Back 62

ocillating saw

Front 63

the pathology characterized by contraction of the the palmar fascia is ___?

Back 63

Dupuytren's disease

Front 64

after debridement of the stump and severed digit during replantation surgery, the next step is ___?

Back 64

bone to bone attachment

Front 65

the four agents mixed together for injecting during a tumescent liposuction are local anesthetic, epinephrine, saline, and ___?

Back 65

Wydase

Front 66

a procedure performed in pts with empyema is called ___?

Back 66

pulmonary decortication

Front 67

what type of retractor is a Bailey?

Back 67

rib retractor

Front 68

during a bronchoscopy, which solution is preferred for bronchial washing specimens?

Back 68

sterile saline

Front 69

what size of trocar is commonly used during a thoracoscopy?

Back 69

10 mm

Front 70

which synthetic material used for grafts requires preclotting?

Back 70

Dacron knit polyester

Front 71

the commonly used size of suture for peripheral vasculare anastomosis of the popliteal artery is ___?

Back 71

5-0

Front 72

the most common cause of intracerebral hemmorrhage is ___?

Back 72

hypertension

Front 73

Meniere's disease is associated with which cranial nerve?

Back 73

VIII

Front 74

the procedure that involves freeing up a nerve from adhesions for restoration of function is called ___?

Back 74

neurolysis

Front 75

the surgical resection of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is called a ___?

Back 75

rhizotomy

Front 76

a procedure to remove intractable pain due to terminal cancer is ___?

Back 76

cordotomy

Front 77

are burr holes created for dysraphism?

Back 77

no

Front 78

what kind of neurological retractor is a Leyla-Yasargil?

Back 78

self-retaining

Front 79

Thrombin does not control bleeding in the skin and ___?

Back 79

glia

Front 80

the procedure to treat trigeminal neuralgia is ___?

Back 80

decompression

Front 81

to obtain hemostasis in neurosurgery, is monopolar electrosurgery or bipolar electrosurgery used?

Back 81

bipolar

Front 82

the self-retaining retractor used during a lumbar laminectomy is ___?

Back 82

Beckman

Front 83

is a burr used during a laminectomy or a craniotomy?

Back 83

craniotomy

Front 84

the dura mater is closed with what suture?

Back 84

4-0 silk

Front 85

during a craniotomy, the instrument commonly used to separate the dura from the cranium is a ___?

Back 85

penfield dissector

Front 86

where is the catheter placed when performing the procedure to treat hydrocephalus?

Back 86

lateral ventricle

Front 87

how long must a wrapped instrument set be steam sterilized for at 250 degrees?

Back 87

30 minutes

Front 88

Items that are mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected, but not sterile are said to be ___?

Back 88

surgically clean

Front 89

as part of OR decontamination after a procedure, the suction canister containing blood and body fluids should be placed where?

Back 89

biohazard bag

Front 90

is hydrogen peroxide or ethylene oxide used to create gas plasma for sterilization purposes?

Back 90

hydrogen peroxide

Front 91

how long should the EtO biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?

Back 91

48 hours

Front 92

what test is used to check for air entrapment in the prevacuum sterilizer?

Back 92

Bowie-Dick test

Front 93

where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilizing cart?

Back 93

bottom front

Front 94

for EtO sterilized items, how long must they remain in an aerator being operated at 140?

Back 94

8 hours

Front 95

what term describes voltage that is strong enough to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, causing a hole and possibly burning the individual?

Back 95

dielectric breakdown

Front 96

what determines if a laser is solid state, gas, liquid, or semiconductor?

Back 96

gain medium

Front 97

what type of laser has the most power output?

Back 97

solid state

Front 98

generally, where on the OR table is the robotic arm positioned for surgeries of the lower abdomen?

Back 98

by pts head

Front 99

what term refers to the robot's ability to differentiate between two objects?

Back 99

resolution

Front 100

when performing a lap chole, approximately where should the robotic arm be positioned on the OR table?

Back 100

pt's right side, mid thigh

Front 101

when setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the pt's skin surface?

Back 101

1 cm or less

Front 102

when performing a lap chole on an obese pt, what can be done to create additional space between the elbow of the robotic arm and the pt?

Back 102

tilt mechanism

Front 103

during a lap Nissen with access ports along the pt's midline, how should the leg be positioned on the side where the robotic arm is positioned?

Back 103

extended laterally with leg supported

Front 104

during a lap Nissen with access ports along the pt's midline, how is the table positioned after the trocars and manipulator have been placed?

Back 104

reverse t-burg

Front 105

when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor, what is used to create the initial images of the brain?

Back 105

MRI

Front 106

when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor, what piece of equipment is necessary to obtain 3-D coordinates in order to superimpose the scan based images on the head of the pt?

Back 106

laser

Front 107

when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor,what term is used to describe the attainment of a 3-D simulation of the pt's tissues for practice prior to the procedure?

Back 107

deformable modeling

Front 108

which robotic device requires sterilization, the collar or the optics device?

Back 108

collar

Front 109

when performing a lap chole with a robotic arm, what anatomical landmark is used to line up th endoscope?

Back 109

umbilicus

Front 110

what is the area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty called?

Back 110

Ampulla of Vater

Front 111

the process by which glucose is stored in the liver and skeletal muscle cells as glycogen is called ___?

Back 111

glycogenesis

Front 112

When body cells require energy, what molecule is broken down?

Back 112

ATP molecule

Front 113

The fluid within the membranous labyrinth is called ___?

Back 113

endolymph

Front 114

intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on ___?

Back 114

aqueous humor

Front 115

the ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?

Back 115

vascular

Front 116

a capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the ___?

Back 116

glomerulus

Front 117

the most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is ___?

Back 117

sodium

Front 118

the pacemaker of the heart is the ___?

Back 118

SA node

Front 119

which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?

Back 119

iliac

Front 120

the process by which blood cells are formed is known as ___?

Back 120

hemopoiesis

Front 121

the pancreas lies behind the stomach and duodenum in the R and LUQ and is divided into ___ portions

Back 121

3

Front 122

which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?

Back 122

liver

Front 123

do the pulmonary veins empty into the right atrium?

Back 123

no

Front 124

the medial malleolus is part of which bone?

Back 124

tibia

Front 125

the sutures of the skull are examples of what?

Back 125

synarthrosis

Front 126

what kind of joint is the thumb and trapezium?

Back 126

saddle joint

Front 127

smooth, sustained contractions produced by several very rapid stimuli are called ___?

Back 127

tetanus

Front 128

a large, bony process found on the femur is ___?

Back 128

trochanter

Front 129

the cranial bones are an example of what kind of bone?

Back 129

flat

Front 130

the acromium is part of which bone?

Back 130

scapula

Front 131

the olecranon is part of which bone?

Back 131

ulna

Front 132

is the styloid a carpal?

Back 132

no

Front 133

what type of bones are the vertebra?

Back 133

irregular

Front 134

what bones form the greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity?

Back 134

parietal

Front 135

where are the cruciate ligaments found in the knee?

Back 135

lateral and medial

Front 136

the mandible articulates with the ___?

Back 136

temporal bone

Front 137

the funnel-shaped open distal end of each fallopian tube is called ___?

Back 137

infundibulum

Front 138

the cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is ___?

Back 138

VIII vestibulocochlear

Front 139

which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes thru the skull, and descends thru the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?

Back 139

X vagus

Front 140

the cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tounge and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the ___?

Back 140

VII hypoglossal

Front 141

which crainial nerve carries impulses for sense of smell?

Back 141

I olfactory

Front 142

neurons that conduct impulses to the cardiac muscles are part of the ___?

Back 142

autonomic nervous system

Front 143

the contraction of involuntary muscles are controlled by ___?

Back 143

autonomic nervous system

Front 144

the neuroglia are cells that ___?

Back 144

support and protect

Front 145

the cytoplasmic process of a neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body is ___?

Back 145

axon

Front 146

the 5th cranial nerve is also called the ___?

Back 146

trigiminal nerve

Front 147

the inner lining of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of ___?

Back 147

epithelium

Front 148

Which glands are located in the stomach?

Back 148

parietal cells

Front 149

the small intestine is drained by the ___?

Back 149

hepatic portal vein

Front 150

the pouches in the small intestine are called ___?

Back 150

haustra

Front 151

what are the pouches in the large intestine called?

Back 151

haustra

Front 152

the secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of what nerve?

Back 152

vagus(X)cranial nerve

Front 153

what does the left coronary artery divide into?

Back 153

anterior descending and circumflex

Front 154

where are the papillary muscles found?

Back 154

in the ventricles of the heart

Front 155

what vessel delivers blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver?

Back 155

hepatic portal vein

Front 156

which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?

Back 156

Treitz

Front 157

which cranial nerve can be tested for sensations of pain, touch, and temperature with the use of a safety pin and hot and cold objects?

Back 157

trigeminal V

Front 158

the atrioventricular (AV) valve between the left atruim and the left ventricle is the ___?

Back 158

bicuspid (mitral) valve

Front 159

into which chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty?

Back 159

left atrium

Front 160

the simplist form of cell organization is the ___?

Back 160

bacteria

Front 161

is Streptococcus gram-positive or gram-negative?

Back 161

gram-positive

Front 162

what bacteria is freqently found in soil, water, sewage, debris, and air?

Back 162

pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 163

the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called ___?

Back 163

meiosis

Front 164

An acid-fast test is used to identify ___?

Back 164

tuberculosis

Front 165

what is the most common brain disorder?

Back 165

cerebrovascular accidents

Front 166

memory impairments result from lesions in the ___?

Back 166

limbic system

Front 167

what condition affectes the medulla of the adrenal gland and causes the overproduction of adrenaline?

Back 167

pheochromocytoma

Front 168

what enzyme is used before cataract surgery to soften the zonules of the lens?

Back 168

alpha-chymotrypsin

Front 169

balanced anesthesia is sometimes referred to as ___?

Back 169

neuroleptanesthesia

Front 170

Merperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is a/an ___?

Back 170

analgesic

Front 171

an emergency drug useful in stablizing ventricular fibrillation is ___?

Back 171

propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Front 172

the operative stage of anesthesia is the ___?

Back 172

third stage

Front 173

Tetracaine (Pontocaine) is an example of what kind of anesthetic?

Back 173

topical

Front 174

A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for premedication is ___?

Back 174

merperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)

Front 175

what agent is commonly given preoperatively to inhibit the production of gastric acid?

Back 175

climetidine

Front 176

an anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is ___?

Back 176

protamine sulfate

Front 177

the test that determines the ratio of RBCs to whole blood is the ___?

Back 177

hematocrit

Front 178

in a cardiac arrest, atropine might be administered to treat ___?

Back 178

severe bradycardia

Front 179

Mannitol is used in neurosurgery to ___?

Back 179

reduce swelling of brain tissue

Front 180

a mitotic drug used to constrict the pupil to reduce intraocular pressure is ___?

Back 180

pilocarpine hydrochloride

Front 181

a local anesthetic agent employed for filtration anesthesia during ophthalmic surgery is ___?

Back 181

lidocaine

Front 182

a benzodiazepine sedative given intramuscularly for premedication is ___?

Back 182

midazolam (Versed)

Front 183

what drug is a dye used to evaluate the corneal epithelium?

Back 183

fluorescein

Front 184

dilating drops are called ___?

Back 184

mydriatics

Front 185

is synchondrosis containing hyaline cartilage a characteristic of a synovial joint?

Back 185

no

Front 186

vaccination is an example of ___?

Back 186

artificial active immunity

Front 187

what kind of transport mechanism is phagocytosis?

Back 187

active transport

Front 188

when performing the preop shave, nicks and cuts are considered a clean wound for up to ___ minutes?

Back 188

30

Front 189

under what circumstances can the pt's hospital ID bracelet be removed?

Back 189

never

Front 190

how many times is the pt ID confirmed before transporting form the ward room to the surgery dept?

Back 190

5

Front 191

if a descrepancy occurs in the ID of a pt on the hospital ward, what action should be taken?

Back 191

do not transport to OR and inform OR personnel

Front 192

what position is most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia?

Back 192

Fowler's

Front 193

in the lateral chest position, a sandbag or padding is placed under the chest at aillary level to do what?

Back 193

to prevent pressure on the lower arm

Front 194

ulnar nerve damage could reusl from ___?

Back 194

use of an unpadded armboard

Front 195

stirrups that are not padded or are improperly placed on the Or table can cause pressure on the ___?

Back 195

peroneal nerve

Front 196

In the Kraske position, are the arms tucked at the pt's sides?

Back 196

no

Front 197

the femoral nerve can be damaged if ___?

Back 197

retractors are placed improperly during pelvic surgery

Front 198

the surgical poition commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is ___?

Back 198

reverse trendelenburg

Front 199

in the prone position, which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?

Back 199

radial

Front 200

a small pad placed under a pt's head in the supine position allows which muscles to relax?

Back 200

strap

Front 201

what size Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?

Back 201

16 Fr

Front 202

what aqent is commonly used when performing a pt skin prep of the eye?

Back 202

Triclosan

Front 203

What should be prepped last when performing pt skin prep?

Back 203

stoma

Front 204

when draping a prep table, the first scrub surgical tech should drape from ___?

Back 204

front to back

Front 205

in what type of set would Bennett, Hohmann, and Richardson retractors be found in?

Back 205

major orthopedic

Front 206

in what type of set would a Ragnell retractor be found in ?

Back 206

hand tray

Front 207

in what type of procedures is a Joseph elevator used?

Back 207

Rhinologic

Front 208

an Allen clamp is used in what type of surgery?

Back 208

gastrointestinal

Front 209

the Hurd tonsil dissector and Pillar retractor is a double ended instrument used in what procedures?

Back 209

tonsillectomy

Front 210

what type of uterine dilator is shaped like an elongated "S"?

Back 210

Hank uterine dilator

Front 211

what tissue forceps has a row of small teeth at the end of each tip and is ideal for grasping sub-q, tendon, or muscle?

Back 211

Brown tissue forceps

Front 212

what instrument is inserted into the anus and has a groove thru which the surgeon can view the rectal canal and insert instruments?

Back 212

Hill-Ferguson retractor

Front 213

what osteotome is frequently used to cut bone, such as to obtain bone for a graft?

Back 213

Lambotte

Front 214

is it the Frazier suction tip or the Baron suction tip that has an oval portion for the thumb to be placed on?

Back 214

Baron suction tip

Front 215

what instrument can be inserted into the cystic duct to remove gallstones during and open chole?

Back 215

Mayo gallstone scoop

Front 216

what laser is used to coagulate bleeders during an endoscopic procedure?

Back 216

Nd:YAG

Front 217

how often should a tourniquet applied to an adult leg be periodically deflated?

Back 217

every 1.5 hours

Front 218

what laser is used to treat retinopathy?

Back 218

Argon

Front 219

at what pressure should the tourniquet be set for an adult thigh?

Back 219

300-350 mm Hg

Front 220

the most common nosocomial infections are ___?

Back 220

UTI with catheter use

Front 221

a pt who underwent a bronchoscopy is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection, which is traced to this type of infection:

Back 221

cross-contamination

Front 222

what is the proper procedure for turning the gown?

Back 222

hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown

Front 223

if a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the scrub take?

Back 223

circulator pulls off glove; scrub is regloved by another sterile team member.

Front 224

what is the proper procedure to follow when a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges?

Back 224

hand off the field and isolate

Front 225

what type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?

Back 225

transverse drape

Front 226

the recommended number of air exchanges per hour in an OR is ___?

Back 226

20

Front 227

the relative humidity in an OR should be maintained at ___?

Back 227

50%-60%

Front 228

a ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a unidirectional flow is called ___?

Back 228

laminar air flow

Front 229

what does the prostate gland secrete?

Back 229

alkaline fluid

Front 230

what is the most abundant ion in the body?

Back 230

calcium

Front 231

where does the anterior chamber of the eye lie?

Back 231

behind the cornea and in front of the iris

Front 232

where is aqueous humor found?

Back 232

in the anterior chamber of the eye

Front 233

where do the ureters enter the bladder?

Back 233

medially from the posterior aspect

Front 234

the conducting fibers that run from the AV node down the interventricular septum are referred to as what?

Back 234

Bundle of His

Front 235

testosterone is secreted by what?

Back 235

Cells of Leydig

Front 236

inhibin is produced by what?

Back 236

Sertoli's cells

Front 237

the relationship in which organisms occupy the same habitat but do not affect each other is known as ___?

Back 237

neutralism

Front 238

a steroid used topically to diminish inflammation after eye surgery is ___?

Back 238

methylprednisolone acetate (Depo-Medrol)

Front 239

musclear fasciculation refers to ___?

Back 239

involuntary muscle contractions

Front 240

a nonproprietary name for a drug, usually selected by the original developer of the drug, is ___?

Back 240

generic

Front 241

the IV barbituate general anesthesia used for induction most frequently is ___?

Back 241

thiopental sodium (Pentothal

Front 242

intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?

Back 242

induction

Front 243

an emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractility is ___?

Back 243

calcium chloride

Front 244

a drug used to reverse hypotension is ___?

Back 244

levarterenol (Levophed)

Front 245

a barbituate that may be used for sleep the night before surgery is ___?

Back 245

secobarbital (Seconal)

Front 246

the purpose of administering atropine preoperatively is to ___?

Back 246

inhibit secretions

Front 247

one gram equals ___?

Back 247

15 grains

Front 248

what amount is approximately equal to 500 ml?

Back 248

1 pint

Front 249

an anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is ___?

Back 249

protamine sulfate

Front 250

an anticholinergic drug given preoperatively to inhibit mucous secretion is ___?

Back 250

atropine

Front 251

the universal recipient blood type is ___?

Back 251

AB

Front 252

what agent is a radiopaque contrast medium used during operative cholangiograms?

Back 252

Hypaque

Front 253

a cylcoplegic drug used to dilate the pupil is ___?

Back 253

tropicamide (Mydriacyl)

Front 254

an enzyme that is mixed with ophthalmic anesthetic solutions for infiltration anesthesia is ___?

Back 254

hyaluronidase (Wydase)

Front 255

is Versed an antimuscarinic?

Back 255

no

Front 256

what drug is used for irrigating the eye and keeping the cornea moist?

Back 256

balanced salt solution (BSS)

Front 257

ADENEXA REFERS TO

Back 257

ACCESSORY ORGANS

Front 258

A DROP IS DENOTED BY THE ABBREVIATION

Back 258

gt

Front 259

THE ABBREVIATION ung REFERS TO

Back 259

OINTMENT

Front 260

PROXIMAL IS A TERM THAT INDICATES A POINT

Back 260

NEAR TO THE BODY

Front 261

ADDUCTION MEANS

Back 261

MOVEMENT TOWARD MEDIAN PLANE

Front 262

ISCHEMIC CAN BE DEFINED AS

Back 262

A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to the body part or organ

Front 263

A cystocele

Back 263

is a herniation of the urinary bladder

Front 264

Nulli is a prefix that means

Back 264

none

Front 265

False is indicated by the prefix

Back 265

pseudo

Front 266

Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called

Back 266

petechiae

Front 267

Kerato refers to

Back 267

horny or cornea

Front 268

The suffix lysis means

Back 268

breaking down

Front 269

The left eye is indicated by the following letters

Back 269

OS

Front 270

Tissue death is called

Back 270

necrosis

Front 271

The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as

Back 271

diaphoresis

Front 272

Which radiografphic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes

Back 272

MRI

Front 273

The abscence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called

Back 273

Atresia

Front 274

Epistaxis can be defined as

Back 274

bleeding from the nose

Front 275

Blood gas analysis is called

Back 275

ABG

Front 276

A ganglion is

Back 276

collection of nerve endings

Front 277

The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the

Back 277

visceral pleura

Front 278

the passageway for food and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the

Back 278

pharynx

Front 279

The vocal cords are located in the

Back 279

larynx

Front 280

The function of the trachea is to

Back 280

conduct air to and from the lungs

Front 281

The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the

Back 281

septum

Front 282

The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as

Back 282

metacarpals

Front 283

The muscles important in respiration are

Back 283

intercostal

Front 284

The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the

Back 284

pectoralis major

Front 285

The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the

Back 285

deltoid

Front 286

which of the abdominal muscles orginigates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs

Back 286

*RECTUS ABDOMINIS

Front 287

One of the principal muscle of the pelvic floor is the

Back 287

levator ani

Front 288

The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the

Back 288

calf of the leg

Front 289

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called

Back 289

ligament

Front 290

The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the

Back 290

parietal bones

Front 291

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located

Back 291

along the side of the neck

Front 292

The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finer side of the hand is called the

Back 292

ulna

Front 293

The bone that is shaped like butterfly and forms the anterior portion fo the base of the cranium is the

Back 293

Sphenoid

Front 294

The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the

Back 294

occipital

Front 295

The lower jawbone is the

Back 295

mandibule

Front 296

The adult vertebral column has

Back 296

26 bones

Front 297

The conjuntiva is

Back 297

the covering of the anterior globe except the cornea

Front 298

The part of the brain responsible for maintenance of balanced and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle is

Back 298

the cerebellum

Front 299

The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the

Back 299

medulla oblongata

Front 300

The largest part of the brain is the

Back 300

cerebrum

Front 301

The winding cone-shaped tube of the iner ear is the

Back 301

cochlea

Front 302

the vein in the bend of the elbow that is commonly used as a site for veinpuncuture is the

Back 302

median cubital vein

Front 303

The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the

Back 303

intestines

Front 304

the vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and epties into the superior vena cava is the

Back 304

azygos vein

Front 305

The AV node causes

Back 305

ventricular contraction

Front 306

The descending aorta termiantes at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into

Back 306

two common iliac arteries

Front 307

Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called

Back 307

capillaries

Front 308

the reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the

Back 308

large intestine

Front 309

The terminal portion of the large intestine is the

Back 309

anal canal

Front 310

Which structure is known as the "fatty appron"?

Back 310

greater omentum

Front 311

The common bile duct is the union of the

Back 311

cystic duct and hepatic duct

Front 312

the function of the molar teeth is to

Back 312

crush and grind food

Front 313

mumps occur in the

Back 313

parotid glands

Front 314

The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the

Back 314

spermatic cord

Front 315

Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by

Back 315

nose and mouth

Front 316

Rod-like shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as

Back 316

bacili

Front 317

What organism is responsible for a boil

Back 317

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 318

the burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is

Back 318

third degree burn

Front 319

OSHA Is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to

Back 319

execute requirementes designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work enviroment

Front 320

A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by

Back 320

secondary intention

Front 321

the type of wound healing that requires debridement is

Back 321

third

Front 322

a drug that interferes with the blood clotting mechanism is

Back 322

Heparin

Front 323

An mg is a measurement of

Back 323

weight

Front 324

The solutios used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is

Back 324

Dextran

Front 325

a drug that increase blood pressure

Back 325

epinephrine

Front 326

the action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce

Back 326

secretions

Front 327

Nalaxone (Narcan) is an example of a

Back 327

narcotic

Front 328

Avitene is

Back 328

a hemostatic

Front 329

An absorbable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soked in thrombin or epinephrine solution is

Back 329

Gelfoam

Front 330

Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT

Back 330

*GELFOAM, collastat, avitene, helistat

Front 331

An anticoagulant given subcutaneously, intravenously or as a flush is

Back 331

heparin

Front 332

A drug that decreases the tendency of plood platelets to clot is

Back 332

warfarin sodium

Front 333

an antibiotic used intraoperatively is

Back 333

Gentamicin

Front 334

a topical antibiotic is

Back 334

Bacitracin

Front 335

An osmotic diuretic agent used to decrese cerebral edema and intraocular edema is

Back 335

manitol

Front 336

A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is

Back 336

pitocin

Front 337

Solu-Medrol is an

Back 337

anti-inflammatory

Front 338

Tubal patency may be tested by the installation of _________ into the uterine cavity

Back 338

methylene blue

Front 339

A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to

Back 339

dilate the pupil

Front 340

Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facillitated by the use of

Back 340

retrobulbar block

Front 341

Miochol is a

Back 341

miotic

Front 342

Heparin effects are reversed by

Back 342

protamine sulfate

Front 343

Levophed

Back 343

restores and maintains blood pressure

Front 344

A drug used to trear metabolic acidosis is

Back 344

sodium bicarbonate

Front 345

Neuroleptoanalgesia combines

Back 345

a tranquilizer and narcotic

Front 346

The most frequently used barbiturate for intravenous anesthesia is

Back 346

pentothal

Front 347

Halothane is also called

Back 347

Flouthane

Front 348

The indication for an epidural would be

Back 348

anorectal, vaginal, perineal and obstetric procedures

Front 349

Compazine is

Back 349

an antiemetic

Front 350

Pontocaine is

Back 350

tetracaine HCL

Front 351

A drug used to reverse hypotension is

Back 351

Levophed

Front 352

A drug that could be used to reverse the effects of muscle relaxants is

Back 352

Prostigmin

Front 353

Which piece of ewuipment of extreme importnace when anesthesia induction begins

Back 353

suction

Front 354

The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is

Back 354

1 foot

Front 355

Identify which of the following is not safe practice

Back 355

sterile tables may be covered from later use

Front 356

Tables are considered steril

Back 356

only on the top

Front 357

At the end of the case, drapes should be

Back 357

checked for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper

Front 358

if a solution soaks through a sterile drape

Back 358

cover wet area with imprevious sterile drape or towel

Front 359

The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250oF is

Back 359

15 - 17

Front 360

Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through

Back 360

biological control test

Front 361

A wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250oF for

Back 361

30 minutes

Front 362

The minimum exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270oF (132oC) is

Back 362

3 minutes

Front 363

When steam is used to sterilize a rubber tubing or catheter

Back 363

a residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen

Front 364

To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than

Back 364

12 pounds

Front 365

gravity displacement utilizes _______ to destroy microorganisms

Back 365

steam

Front 366

The process called cavitation occurs in the

Back 366

ultrasonic cleaner

Front 367

All of the following statements regarding instruments sets are true EXCEPT

Back 367

instruments must be placed in perforated trays, heavy instruments are placed ont he bottom, *ALL INSTRUMENTS MUST BE CLOSED, all detachable parts must be disassembled

Front 368

all of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT

Back 368

flat packages are placed on the shelf on edge, small packages, placed one on top of the other, are criss-crossed, basins are placed on their sides, * SOLUTIONS MAY BE AUTOCLAVED ALONG WITH OTHER ITEMS AS LONG AS THEY ARE ON A SHELF ALONE

Front 369

Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250oF for a minimum of

Back 369

20 minutes

Front 370

Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is true

Back 370

basins must be separated by a porous material if they are nested

Front 371

Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization

Back 371

it is less damaging to items

Front 372

The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is

Back 372

ethylene oxide

Front 373

What chemical system uses peracetic acid as the sterilant

Back 373

steris

Front 374

The lumen of a tubing undergoing ethylene oxice (EO) sterilization is

Back 374

dried thoroughly

Front 375

Why is ethylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chloroflurocarbon

Back 375

it provides flame retardation

Front 376

In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of

Back 376

3 minutes

Front 377

To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for

Back 377

10 hours

Front 378

"Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for

Back 378

solutions

Front 379

Oil is best sterilized by

Back 379

convection hot air

Front 380

what is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization

Back 380

it is a separate unit used to decrese the aeration time

Front 381

Ethylene oxide destroys cells by

Back 381

interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reporductive precesses

Front 382

Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for

Back 382

20 minutes

Front 383

when using a high-level disinfectant, always

Back 383

rinse items with sterile distilled water before using

Front 384

the chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is

Back 384

peracetic acid

Front 385

The Endoflush system

Back 385

initially cleans reusable channeled instruments

Front 386

Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilizaation

Back 386

nylon

Front 387

Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic that can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper

Back 387

polypropylene

Front 388

an item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if

Back 388

it is enclosed in an imprevious material

Front 389

The room temperature in an OR should be

Back 389

between 68 and 76oF

Front 390

If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses

Back 390

the glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation

Front 391

The most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays is a

Back 391

lead apron

Front 392

It is considered good technique to

Back 392

handle the mask only by the strings

Front 393

sterile gloves

Back 393

should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant

Front 394

electrical cords should be

Back 394

removed from pathways so equipment is not rolled over them

Front 395

Scatter radiation effects are directly related to

Back 395

amount of radiation and length of exposure time

Front 396

when using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently

Back 396

four

Front 397

To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table

Back 397

one person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patien moves over

Front 398

When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR< all of the following are true EXCEPT

Back 398

extra personnel necessary, SUPPORT OF THE EXTREMITY SHOULD ALWAYS BE FROM BELOW THE SITE OF FRACTURE, lifters on the affected side support the fracture, the surgeon should be present

Front 399

To avoid compromising the venous circulation, the restraint or safety strap should be placed:

Back 399

2 inches above the knee

Front 400

A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table, who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fracture site?

Back 400

the physician

Front 401

Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause

Back 401

interference with respiration

Front 402

A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to

Back 402

protect the heels from pressure on the OR table

Front 403

During lateral position a

Back 403

pillow is placed between the legs

Front 404

To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position:

Back 404

the buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge

Front 405

When using an armboard, the most important measure is to

Back 405

avoid hyperextension of the arm

Front 406

Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to

Back 406

allow the circulatory system to adjust

Front 407

If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always

Back 407

see that the ankles and legs are not crossed

Front 408

Diastolic blood pressure refers to

Back 408

the relaxation phase between heartbeats

Front 409

Systolic blood pressure represents

Back 409

the greatest force caused by contraction of the left bentricle of the heart

Front 410

tachycardia is a(n)

Back 410

heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

Front 411

the most common artery used to feel the pulse is the

Back 411

radial artery

Front 412

the body temperature taken orally is 98.6oF what is it in Celsius?

Back 412

37oC

Front 413

which term indicates low or decreased blood volume?

Back 413

hupovolemia

Front 414

If the suregeon wants to assess the patient's ability to void voluntarily via the urethra, yet sees the need for urinary drainage, he could use a

Back 414

Bonanno suprapubic catheter

Front 415

When catheterizing a patient

Back 415

the tip of the catheter must be kept sterile

Front 416

in which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed

Back 416

third

Front 417

Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called

Back 417

mediastinal shift

Front 418

why is the obese patient at greater surgical risk than one of normal weight

Back 418

fat has poor vascularity

Front 419

when drawing a blood sample for ABG's what is considered a safe time laps between blood drawing and analysis

Back 419

10 minutes

Front 420

The preop urinalysis test done on a patient inidicates that the specific gravity is 1.050 this

Back 420

is above normal range and her or she is dehydrated

Front 421

A type and crossmatch is done

Back 421

if the surgeons anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necessary

Front 422

A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volumen. This is

Back 422

within normal range

Front 423

Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is

Back 423

hemophilia

Front 424

Preoperative chest x-rays

Back 424

should be done on all surgical patients

Front 425

An electrocardiogram is

Back 425

an electrical recording of heart activity

Front 426

After being shceduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the nurese checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0gr This reading is

Back 426

below normal range

Front 427

A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell is called a

Back 427

differential blood count

Front 428

Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by

Back 428

JCHO

Front 429

Except for endotracheal tube installation, basic life support cannot be interrupted for more than

Back 429

5 seconds

Front 430

External caridac compression

Back 430

provides oxygen to vital tissues

Front 431

which action is the responsibility of the scrub person during an intraoperative CPR effort?

Back 431

remain sterile, keep track of counted items, and assist as necessary

Front 432

A pt was burned on the lip with a hot mouth gag. Which of the following actions would have prevented this incident

Back 432

the scrub nurse cooled the item in a basin with sterile water

Front 433

a pt signs a permission form for surgery, but because a language barrier he didn't understand what he has signed. This could constitute a liability case for

Back 433

assault and battery

Front 434

If a pt falls because he was left unattended, the OR team member could be cited in a lawsuit for

Back 434

abandonment

Front 435

Which is not considered a safe procedure when caring for dentures inadvertently sent to the OR

Back 435

wrap in a plastic bag and attach to the patient's chart

Front 436

A lack of care or skill that any nurse or tech in the same situation would be expected to use is the leagal definition of

Back 436

negligence

Front 437

The leagal doctrine that mandates every pfordessional nurese and tech to carry out theoir duties according to the nat. standards of care practiced throughout the country is

Back 437

Doctrine of Resonable Man

Front 438

The doctrine of Respondeat Superior refers to

Back 438

employer liability for employee's negligent conduct

Front 439

Liability is a legal rule that

Back 439

holds each individuals responsible for his or her own actions

Front 440

a criteria that identifies, measures, monitors and evaluates patient care is

Back 440

quality assurance programs

Front 441

In which way could a patient's response to impending surgery exchibit itself

Back 441

tension and anxiety, fear and suspicion, anger and hostility, ALL OF THE ABOVE

Front 442

Excessive exposure to radiation can affect the

Back 442

reporductive organs

Front 443

radiation exposure of the staff is monitored with

Back 443

film badges

Front 444

ionizing radiation protection is afforded by the use of

Back 444

lead

Front 445

a potential safety hazard associated with laser surgery is

Back 445

eye injury

Front 446

An OR hazard that has been linked to increased risk of spontaneous abortion in female OR employees is exposure to

Back 446

waste anesthetic gas

Front 447

Which virus can be transmitted by a needle puncture or splash in the eye

Back 447

Hepatitis B

Front 448

While using the mixture, a scavenging system is used to collect and exhaust or absorb its vapors, IT is called

Back 448

methylmethacrylate

Front 449

The best measure for staff protection against HIV is

Back 449

handling all needles and sharps carefully and using barriers to avoid direct contact with blood and body fluids

Front 450

Which body organ is most susceptible to laser injury

Back 450

the eye

Front 451

how is inhalation of the laser plume best prevented

Back 451

with mechanical smoke evacuator or suction with a high efficiency filter

Front 452

When using electrosurgery, what device delivers the current to the patient?

Back 452

active electrode

Front 453

What type of current does electrosurgery utilize?

Back 453

alternating current

Front 454

When the current passes through the active electrode, the energy is converted from electrical to?

Back 454

magnetic

Front 455

What term describes voltage that is strong enough to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, causing a hole and possibly burning the individual?

Back 455

dielectric breakdown

Front 456

Lasers, power drills, and electrosurgical units can produce a?

Back 456

plume of vaporized tissue

Front 457

A small power drill has 60hz. What is the interpretation of 60hz?

Back 457

60 ac cycles per second

Front 458

In the OR, what should never be removed from a 3 prong plug in order to make it fit a 2-prong plug in?

Back 458

ground prong

Front 459

What determines if a laser is solid state, gas, liquid, or semiconductor?

Back 459

gain medium

Front 460

What type of laser has the most power output?

Back 460

solid state

Front 461

Ultrasound is an example of the medical application of the physics principle of?

Back 461

refraction

Front 462

When the arm of a laser hits the OR wall, what is the concern of the surgical team?

Back 462

laser mirrors will be out of alignment

Front 463

In terms of physical principles, how is a laser similar to an endoscope?

Back 463

both emit light

Front 464

What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arm?

Back 464

telesurgery

Front 465

What is the technical term for robotic arm?

Back 465

manipulators

Front 466

What important component of the remote console sends messages to the computer which in turn translates the surgeon's hand movement to the robotic arm?

Back 466

micromanipulators

Front 467

The robotic arm's clockwise and counterclockwise movements around an axis are referred to as?

Back 467

degrees of rotation

Front 468

A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called?

Back 468

yaw

Front 469

Generally, where on the OR table is the robotic arm positioned for surgeries of the lower abdomen?

Back 469

by patient's head

Front 470

What term refers to the robot's ability to differentiate between two objects?

Back 470

resolution

Front 471

What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?

Back 471

telechir

Front 472

What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?

Back 472

roll

Front 473

On a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, where should the robotic arm be positioned?

Back 473

patient's right side, mid-thigh

Front 474

When setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the patient's skin surface?

Back 474

1 centimeter or less

Front 475

When performing a laparascopic cholecystectomy on an obese patient, what can be done to create additional space between the elbow of the robotic arm & patient?

Back 475

tilt mechanism

Front 476

What term refers to the up and down movement of the robotic arm?

Back 476

pitch

Front 477

The complete displacement of a joint is referred to as a?

Back 477

dislocation

Front 478

A cyst in the popliteal fossa is called a?

Back 478

baker's cyst

Front 479

The medical term for a bunion is?

Back 479

hallux valgus

Front 480

Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in?

Back 480

slightly warm

Front 481

A fractured metacarpal would require a?

Back 481

short arm cast

Front 482

Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?

Back 482

compound

Front 483

A Putti-Platt procedure is performed on the?

Back 483

shoulder

Front 484

A fracture of the neck of the femur would require a?

Back 484

cannulated screw

Front 485

A bucket-handle tear in the medial cartilage of the knee is repaired by performing which of the following?

Back 485

meniscectomy

Front 486

A surgical procedure in which a join is fused to prevent movement is called a?

Back 486

arthrodesis

Front 487

The procedure in which the attenuated anterior capsule of the shoulder is reattached to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures is called a?

Back 487

bankart

Front 488

A Keller arthroplasty or McBride procedure is performed to treat?

Back 488

bunions

Front 489

The procedure in which the ulnar nerve is moved from the ulnar groove position on the posterior of the humerus to the anterior of the humeral condyle is called a?

Back 489

transposition

Front 490

Which of the following procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?

Back 490

total hip arthroplasty

Front 491

Which of the following surgical instruments would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?

Back 491

bennett retractor

Front 492

Which of the following anatomical structures is the best site for the removal of cortical bone for grafting purposes?

Back 492

ilium

Front 493

Methyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures?

Back 493

total knee arthroplasty

Front 494

How is the patient positioned for a knee arthroscopy?

Back 494

supine, knee at lower break of OR table

Front 495

Which of the following is not a type of interlocking nail used for a closed intramedullary nailing?

Back 495

austin moore

Front 496

Luque rods are used for?

Back 496

spinal deformities

Front 497

A dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius is called a?

Back 497

smith's fracture

Front 498

Which of the following conditions would be cause for the patient to undergo a total hip arthroplasty?

Back 498

osteoarthritis

Front 499

Femoral shaft fractures in an adult can be repaired by?

Back 499

compression plating

Front 500

Colle's fracture is often treated by?

Back 500

closed reduction

Front 501

Intertrochanteric fractures most often occur in which age population?

Back 501

elderly

Front 502

A Neer prosthesis is used for repair of comminuted fractures of the?

Back 502

humeral head

Front 503

A fracture of the femoral shaft would require a?

Back 503

hip spica cast

Front 504

What procedure is performed to correct talipes valgus or talipes varus?

Back 504

triple arthrodesis

Front 505

What surgical instrument is used to prepare the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?

Back 505

tap

Front 506

Which type of laser is used to remove methyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?

Back 506

carbon dioxide

Front 507

What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?

Back 507

carpal tunnel release

Front 508

What specialized type of retractors is used during a rotator cuff repair that aids in exposure of the surgical site?

Back 508

bankart

Front 509

What item should be available during a total hip arthroplasty to be inserted into the reamed femoral canal that will prevent methyl methacrylate from entering the medullary canal?

Back 509

cement restrictor

Front 510

What is the definition of otosclerosis?

Back 510

hardening of spongy bone in ear

Front 511

Meniere's syndrome involves the?

Back 511

inner ear

Front 512

Untreated acute otitis media may result in?

Back 512

mastoiditis

Front 513

Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of the?

Back 513

ear

Front 514

Fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting tools to perform a?

Back 514

stapedectomy

Front 515

A surgical instrument not used for a nasal fracture?

Back 515

pillar retractor

Front 516

Which surgical instrument would you need to remove the septal cartilage during a rhinoplasty?

Back 516

jansen-middleton forceps

Front 517

An instrument not used in a tonsillectomy setup?

Back 517

freer elevator

Front 518

An instrument not need for a nasal set up?

Back 518

potts forcep

Front 519

In what postoperative position is a patient placed following a tonsillectomy?

Back 519

lateral

Front 520

An accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass destructive to the middle ear is?

Back 520

cholesteatoma

Front 521

The incision for Caldwell-Luc procedure involves the?

Back 521

canine fossa

Front 522

Excision of lymphoid tissue at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to facilitate breathing is a?

Back 522

adenoidectomy

Front 523

Surgical correction of a deviated septum is a?

Back 523

septoplasty

Front 524

A plastic procedure performed to correct protruding ear is?

Back 524

otoplasty

Front 525

Glossectomy is removal of?

Back 525

tongue

Front 526

A surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media is?

Back 526

myringotomy

Front 527

The most common cause of retinal detachment is?

Back 527

trauma

Front 528

A fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea is a?

Back 528

pterygium

Front 529

Blockage of the canal of Schlemm will cause?

Back 529

glaucoma

Front 530

An uneven curvatue of the cornea is known as?

Back 530

astigmatism

Front 531

The procedure of choice for a detached retina is?

Back 531

scleral buckling

Front 532

Removal of an entire eyeball is called?

Back 532

enucleation

Front 533

The inability to direct both eyes at the same object is called?

Back 533

strabismus

Front 534

A type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is?

Back 534

intracapsular

Front 535

Which instrument would not be used during a vitrectomy?

Back 535

trephine

Front 536

Which is not a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?

Back 536

vitrectomy

Front 537

Intraocular pressure is measured with the use for a?

Back 537

tonometer

Front 538

Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty?

Back 538

cottingham punch

Front 539

The procedure performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia is?

Back 539

radial keratotomy

Front 540

A condition that causes the sudden onset of the appearance of floating spots before the eye is?

Back 540

retinal detachment

Front 541

Which instrument is used to make the corneal cut during a keratoplasty?

Back 541

corneal trephine

Front 542

Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?

Back 542

phacoemulsification

Front 543

Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

Back 543

argon

Front 544

Which drug is a miotic?

Back 544

pilocarpine

Front 545

which instrument would be used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?

Back 545

oscillating saw

Front 546

Which muscle is involved in resection for strabismus correction?

Back 546

lateral rectus

Front 547

The layers of the skin included in a full thickness graft is?

Back 547

epidermis and dermis

Front 548

The degree of burn that destroys all layers of the skin and includes subcutaneous tissue is?

Back 548

third

Front 549

Microatia refers to?

Back 549

absence of auricle

Front 550

The medical term rhytidectomy refers to a?

Back 550

facelift

Front 551

What degree of burn is the common sunburn?

Back 551

first

Front 552

The medical term for charred and pearly white appearance of tissue damaged by a third degree burn is?

Back 552

eschar

Front 553

According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk of the body?

Back 553

18%

Front 554

The pathology characterized by contraction of the palmar fascia is?

Back 554

dupuytren's disease

Front 555

The device used to expand the size of a split thichness skin graft is a?

Back 555

mesh graft

Front 556

The sterile liquid placed on the donor skin site as a lubricant when a split thickness skin graft is taken is?

Back 556

mineral oil

Front 557

During a repair of cheiloschisis, the procedure in which tissue from the cheek is used to cover the defect is?

Back 557

triangular flap cheiloplasty

Front 558

During surgery for De Quervain's disease the tendons are released by cutting the?

Back 558

dorsal carpal ligament

Front 559

After debridement of the stump and severed digit during replantation surgery the next step is?

Back 559

bone to bone attachment

Front 560

During a pedicle flap mammoplasty reconstruction a commonly used muscle is the?

Back 560

transverse rectus abdominis

Front 561

The term mentoplasty refers to plastic surgery of the?

Back 561

chin

Front 562

when performing a rhinoplasty, the hum in the nose is removed with a?

Back 562

chisel

Front 563

The four agents mixed together for injecting during a tumescent liposuction are?

Back 563

local anesthetic, epinephrine, wydase, saline

Front 564

the initial incision for an abdominoplasty is a?

Back 564

low transverse

Front 565

A procedure performed in patients with empyema is called?

Back 565

pulmonary decortication

Front 566

Which instrument is a rib contractor?

Back 566

lung biopsy

Front 567

During a bronchoscopy, which solution is preferred for bronchial washing specimens?

Back 567

sterile saline

Front 568

Removal of air and or blood from the pleural cavity by means of an aspiration needle is called?

Back 568

thoracentesis

Front 569

A bronchoscopy procedure allows visualization of the?

Back 569

bronchi

Front 570

Which procedure is removal of an entire lung?

Back 570

pneumonectomy

Front 571

the pathology in which the subclavian artery is compressed resulting in severe ischemia of the arm is a type of?

Back 571

thoracic outlet syndrome

Front 572

What size of trocar is commonly used during a thorascopy?

Back 572

10mm

Front 573

Which node is an imprtant site for metastasis from the lungs and is a frequent site for biopsyy?

Back 573

scalene

Front 574

The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms begin?

Back 574

below the renal arteries

Front 575

Arteriovenous(AV) fistula is eferred over an external shunt for long term dialysis because of a decrease chance of?

Back 575

thrombosis

Front 576

Fatty deposits on the walls of arteries are called?

Back 576

lipodeposits

Front 577

The rupturing of erythrocytes is called?

Back 577

hemolysis

Front 578

The self retaining retractor used during femoral popliteal bypass is?

Back 578

meyerding

Front 579

A diagnostic test that examines blood flow and metabolic funtions of the heart and brain is?

Back 579

positron emission tomography

Front 580

What procedure is performed for chronic cerebral ischemia?

Back 580

carotid endarterectomy

Front 581

The movement of blood through a vessel can be assesed by?

Back 581

doppler device

Front 582

The agent used to flush an artery to preventing clotting is?

Back 582

heparin

Front 583

A vascular clamp used for occluding peripheral vessels is?

Back 583

bulldog

Front 584

The instrument commonly used to clamp the aorta during an abdominal aneurysmectomy is?

Back 584

satinsky

Front 585

The instrument commonly used to remove plaque from the carotid during an endarterectomy is a?

Back 585

freer elevator

Front 586

Which synthetic material used for grafts requires preclotting?

Back 586

dacron* knit polyester

Front 587

The commonly used size of suture for peripheral vascular anastomosis of the popliteal artery is?

Back 587

5-0

Front 588

The scissors commonly used to extend the arteriotomy during an endarterectomy is a?

Back 588

potts-smith

Front 589

The most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is?

Back 589

hypertension

Front 590

A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a?

Back 590

meningioma

Front 591

An encapsulated collection of blood over a cerebral hemisphere, producing intracranial pressure is called a?

Back 591

subdural hematoma

Front 592

Surgical trauma to the first and second cranial nerve would cause the loss of smell and?

Back 592

sight

Front 593

Meniere's disease is associated with which cranial nerve?

Back 593

vestibulocochlear(VIII)

Front 594

The cause of arteriovenous malformation is a?

Back 594

tumor

Front 595

The procedure that involves freeing up a nerve from adhesions for restoration of function is called?

Back 595

neurolysis

Front 596

The incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in the newborn is?

Back 596

spina bifida

Front 597

The surgical resection of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve to relieve pain is called?

Back 597

rhizotomy

Front 598

A procedure to remove intractable pain due to terminal cancer is?

Back 598

cordotomy

Front 599

A Gigly saw is used during a?

Back 599

craniotomy

Front 600

Repair of a cranial defect is called?

Back 600

cranioplasty

Front 601

Burr holes are not created for following pathologies?

Back 601

dysraphism

Front 602

Compression of the median nerve of the wrist is relieved by performing?

Back 602

carpal tunnel release

Front 603

A self retaining neurosurgical retractor is?

Back 603

leyla-yasargil

Front 604

The procedure to treat hydrocephalus is?

Back 604

shunt

Front 605

An agent that does not control bleeding in the skin and galia?

Back 605

thrombin

Front 606

The procedure to treat trigeminal neuralgia is?

Back 606

decompression

Front 607

Posterior fossa exploration is facilitated through a?

Back 607

suboccipital approach

Front 608

Does not obtain hemostasis during neurosurgery?

Back 608

monopolar electrosurgery

Front 609

The self retaining retractor used during a lumbar laminectomy is?

Back 609

beckman

Front 610

A diagnostic study involving the injection of radiopaque dy into the spinal subarachnoid space is?

Back 610

myelogram

Front 611

A type of scalp clips is?

Back 611

raney

Front 612

Can not be used in a laminectomy?

Back 612

burr

Front 613

The dura mater is closed with suture?

Back 613

4-0 silk

Front 614

Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is performed for?

Back 614

pituitary tumor

Front 615

The condition of premature closure of the infant suture lines is called?

Back 615

craniosynostosis

Front 616

During a craniotomy, the instrument commonly used to separate the dura from the cranium is?

Back 616

penfield dissector

Front 617

Where is the catheter placed when performing the procedure to treat hydrocephalus?

Back 617

lateral ventricle

Front 618

Which of the following is an approach to the sella turcica for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy?

Back 618

upper gum margin

Front 619

Cryptorchidism is?

Back 619

undescended testes

Front 620

A nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is called?

Back 620

BPH

Front 621

The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes done to reduce venous plexus congestion is a?

Back 621

varicocelectomy

Front 622

Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called?

Back 622

hydrocelectomy

Front 623

The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is?

Back 623

orchiotomy

Front 624

Filiforms are used to?

Back 624

bypass urethral obstruction

Front 625

Denis-Browne ring retractors may be used for?

Back 625

retropubic prostatectomy

Front 626

A Gomco clamp or Plastibell are used for?

Back 626

circumcision

Front 627

Female urethral dilation may be accomplished with?

Back 627

McCarthy dilators

Front 628

Endoscopic suspension of the besical neck of the bladder for treatment of stress incontinence is known as a?

Back 628

stamey procedure

Front 629

Satinkly, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the?

Back 629

kidney pedicle

Front 630

The anesthesia of choice for extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy is?

Back 630

epidural

Front 631

A procedure performed to overcome contraction of the bladder neck caused by primary or secondary stricture is a?

Back 631

Y-V-plasty

Front 632

A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a?

Back 632

needle biopsy

Front 633

What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove prostate tissue during a TURP?

Back 633

resectoscope

Front 634

A surgical procedure performed to correct the abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the upper side of the penis is called?

Back 634

epispadias repair

Front 635

Which of the following is a non electrolytic and isosmotic solution used during a TURP?

Back 635

glycine

Front 636

Continuous irrigation and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP is accomplished using a?

Back 636

24 fr. 30-cc foley ballon catheter

Front 637

An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?

Back 637

prostatectomy

Front 638

Which of the following instruments would be used during a supranopubic prostatectomy?

Back 638

masson-judd retractor

Front 639

Why is it important for a patient who will be undergoing a cystoscopy to void prior to the beginning of the procedure?

Back 639

rule out residual urine in the bladder

Front 640

Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used in a prostatectomy?

Back 640

harrington

Front 641

What instrument is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?

Back 641

elli evacuator

Front 642

The following are all complications of suprapubic prostatectomy except?

Back 642

phlebitis

Front 643

Which of the following instruments would be used to dilate the urethra?

Back 643

van buren

Front 644

The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a?

Back 644

vasovasostomy

Front 645

An examination of the cervix that uses binocular microscope is called a?

Back 645

colposcopy

Front 646

The medical term for removal of the uterus is?

Back 646

hysterectomy

Front 647

The prolapse of the bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall is called a?

Back 647

cystocele

Front 648

The medical term for painful menstruation?

Back 648

dysmenorrhea

Front 649

A herniation of the Douglas'cul-de-sac containing a loop of bowel is called a?

Back 649

enterocele

Front 650

Which of the following surgical instruments would be in a D&C instrument set?

Back 650

hegar clamps

Front 651

The medical term for the removal of a uterine fibroid is?

Back 651

myomectomy

Front 652

A Rubin's test is performed to confirm?

Back 652

patency of fallopian tubes

Front 653

A HUMI cannula would be used for which of the following procedures?

Back 653

tuboplasty

Front 654

A colposcopy may be performed for suspected?

Back 654

carcinoma in situ

Front 655

Another name for the uterine dressing forceps found in a D&C tray is?

Back 655

bozeman

Front 656

The sharp uterine curettes located in a D&C are called?

Back 656

sims

Front 657

A diagnostic procedure for suspected ectopic pregnancy is?

Back 657

culdocentesis

Front 658

A D&C may be performed for?

Back 658

menorrhagia

Front 659

How many sponge, sharp, and instrument counts does a cesarean section require?

Back 659

three

Front 660

What is the name of the procedure in which a collar suture is placed at the level of the internal cervical os to prevent spontaneous abortion?

Back 660

shirodkar procedure

Front 661

A pneumoperitoneum is established during a laparoscopy through the use of the?

Back 661

verres needle

Front 662

Which of the following surgical instruments is a type of bladder retractor used during a cesarean section?

Back 662

de lee

Front 663

Which of the following would first scrub surgical technologist need to include in the set up for an incomplete abortion?

Back 663

suction curettage

Front 664

What incision is most commonly used for a C-section?

Back 664

pfannenstiel

Front 665

What type of solution is used to stain the cervix while performing a Schiller's test?

Back 665

lugol's

Front 666

The position used when performing an abdominal gynecologic laparoscopy is?

Back 666

lithotomy

Front 667

A radical procedure involving removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum is called?

Back 667

perlvic exenteration

Front 668

Which of the following surgical instruments is a weighted vaginal speculum?

Back 668

auvard

Front 669

An indwelling foley catheter is inserted into a patient prior to the start of a hysterectomy to?

Back 669

avoid injury to the bladder

Front 670

If a tumor of an ovary is supected to be malignan, what other organs will be excised?

Back 670

both fallopian tubes, both ovaries and uterus

Front 671

A postoperative complication in gynecologic surgery resulting from the patient being placed in the lithotomy position is?

Back 671

DIC

Front 672

The pneumoperitoneum is established during a laparoscopic procedure to prevent?

Back 672

perforation of intestine

Front 673

Which of the following is the medical term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus so that it covers the cervical internal os?

Back 673

placentia previa

Front 674

What pathology is a serious obstetrical emergency that is a type of coagulopathy resulting from overstimulation of the clotting and anticlotting processes?

Back 674

disseminated intravascular coagulation

Front 675

A hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle and does not have a sac is called?

Back 675

direct

Front 676

The defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the?

Back 676

transversalis

Front 677

Which of the following is a type of oblique incision?

Back 677

kocher

Front 678

A hemolytic disease of the newborn is known is called?

Back 678

erythroblastosis fetalis

Front 679

Is not an intestinal instrument?

Back 679

heaney forceps

Front 680

The instrument used for common duct exploration during an open cholecystectomy is?

Back 680

baked dilator

Front 681

The incision commonly used for an appendectomy is?

Back 681

mcburney

Front 682

Glisson's capsule is the?

Back 682

external covering of the liver

Front 683

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is performed to?

Back 683

visualize biliary and pancreatic tracts

Front 684

What can be accomplished when postioning the patient for a thyroidectomy to facilitate exposure of the surgical site?

Back 684

rolled sheet placed under shoulder

Front 685

A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used when treating?

Back 685

esophageal varices

Front 686

Omental flaps, falciform ligament, or Gerota's fascia flaps may be used to?

Back 686

control liver hemorrhage

Front 687

If the surgeon's preference card listed a Bookwalter or Omnitract, what type of instrument would be used?

Back 687

self retaining retractor

Front 688

The procedure performed for decompression of the cecum due to colonic obstructionis?

Back 688

cecostomy

Front 689

Pancreatiocojejunostomy is performed for?

Back 689

pancreatic pseudocysts

Front 690

The incision used for splenectomy is?

Back 690

subcostal

Front 691

A Silverman biopsy needle is used for?

Back 691

liver biopsy

Front 692

A cholelithotripsy is performed to fragment?

Back 692

gallstones

Front 693

Choledochotomy is performed to?

Back 693

drain the common bile duct

Front 694

The incision for a resection of the sigmoid colon is a?

Back 694

paramedian

Front 695

A thoracoabdominal incision is used when performing a?

Back 695

open hiatal hernia repair

Front 696

A type of deep retractor commonly used during an open cholecystectomy is?

Back 696

harrington

Front 697

The procedure for a lower rectal malignancy that requires an abdominal and rectal insicion is?

Back 697

abdominoperineal resection

Front 698

Another name for a partial gastrectomy is?

Back 698

billroth 1

Front 699

At the completion of the anastomosis of an intestine, the instruments used on the bowels are placed?

Back 699

in separate basin

Front 700

What other procedure is performed with a vagotomy?

Back 700

pyloroplasty

Front 701

The type of ostomy established when a total colectomy is performed is?

Back 701

ileostomy

Front 702

Another name for Whipple's procedure is?

Back 702

pancreatiocoduodenectomy

Front 703

The procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis in the newborn is?

Back 703

fredet-ramstedt

Front 704

The instrument commonly used to provide traction on the gallbladder during an open cholecystectomy is?

Back 704

kocher clamp

Front 705

A purse string suture is placed in the cecal serosa for an appendectomy to?

Back 705

invert the appendiceal stump

Front 706

The Heller procedure is performed to correct?

Back 706

esophageal obstruction

Front 707

The procedure to correct intrahepatic obstruction is?

Back 707

portacaval shunt

Front 708

A forceps commonly used to remove gallstones from the comon bile duct during an open cholycystectomy is?

Back 708

randall

Front 709

During an appendectomy, the structure that must be dissected free from its attachment to the ecum is called?

Back 709

mesoappendix

Front 710

During a thyroidectomy, the nerve that must be preserved is the?

Back 710

recurrent laryngeal

Front 711

During a mastectomy, which irrigating solution is used on the muscle layer due to its hypotonic properties?

Back 711

sterile water

Front 712

A left subcostal incision indicates surgery of the?

Back 712

spleen

Front 713

An irreducible hernia in which the abdominal contents have become necrotic is called?

Back 713

strangulated

Front 714

Tetany is a possible postoperative complication following an?

Back 714

thyroidectomy

Front 715

Is not an indication for a Splenectomy?

Back 715

biliary obstruction

Front 716

The instrument used to grasp the appendix during an open appendectomy?

Back 716

babcock forceps

Front 717

The structures that must be ligated prior to removal of the gallbladder?

Back 717

cystic artery, hepatic duct

Front 718

A Meckel's diverticulum occurs on the?

Back 718

distal ileum

Front 719

The organ that often sustains an incidental injury during a transverse colectomy is the?

Back 719

spleen

Front 720

During a laparoscopi Nissen fundoplication, the instrumentused to grasp the upper portion of the fundus of the stomach is?

Back 720

endo-babcock

Front 721

During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the laparoscope with attach video camera is inserted through the?

Back 721

umbilical port

Front 722

During a laparoscopic appendectomy, what instrument is commonly used to dissect, free the appendix from its attachment to the mesoappendix?

Back 722

endoscopic linear stapler

Front 723

During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the size of the lateraly placed trocars is?

Back 723

5mm

Front 724

What type of hernia is a combination of direct and indirect inguinal hernai?

Back 724

pantaloon

Front 725

A nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine is?

Back 725

miller-abbott

Front 726

Which is not a type of ureteral catheter tip?

Back 726

pezzer

Front 727

Malecot, Mushroom and Sump are types of?

Back 727

surgical drains

Front 728

Am embolus would be removed by a?

Back 728

fogarty catheter

Front 729

A tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?

Back 729

kittner

Front 730

Two chest tubes are inserted after an open cardiovascular procedure the upper tube is used to evacuate?

Back 730

air

Front 731

What drain system is preffered for a radical neck dissection?

Back 731

hemovac

Front 732

The type of catheter used for infusion of chemotherapeutic agents into abdomen?

Back 732

tenckhopp

Front 733

Which dressing is ideal for neck procedures?

Back 733

stent dressings

Front 734

What layer of the three layer dressing absorbs the secretions of the wound?

Back 734

intermediate

Front 735

What can be utilized in abdominal surgical wounds that will require frequent dressing changes and prevent damage to skin?

Back 735

montgomery straps

Front 736

What type of drain is used or biliary system?

Back 736

t-tube

Front 737

Which is a type of passive drain?

Back 737

penrose drain

Front 738

What tube can be inserted and left in place for continual gastric aspiration?

Back 738

sump tube

Front 739

A suture that provides strength and non reactivity in tissues where stainless steel cannot be used?

Back 739

polypropylene

Front 740

What type of needle is used on tissue of the gastrointestinal tract?

Back 740

taper

Front 741

A characteristic of plain gut is that it absorbs in?

Back 741

70 days

Front 742

the space caused by separation of wound edges is called?

Back 742

dead space

Front 743

If tissue is approximated too tight it can cause?

Back 743

ischemia

Front 744

A protein substance that is the chief constituent of connective tissue is?

Back 744

collagen

Front 745

Which is the least reactive of al synthetic suture materials?

Back 745

polypropylene

Front 746

Ligatures are used to?

Back 746

occlude lumens of blood vessels

Front 747

A cutting needle would not be used on?

Back 747

nerve tissue

Front 748

Another name for polyglactin 910 is?

Back 748

vicryl

Front 749

What type of suture is surgilon?

Back 749

nylon

Front 750

Bolsters are used with retention sutures to?

Back 750

prevent sutures from cutting into skin

Front 751

Which suture is absorbable and offers extended wound support?

Back 751

polydioxanone

Front 752

The most widely used nonabsorbable suture is?

Back 752

nylon

Front 753

Which suture is a polyester fiber suture?

Back 753

ethibond

Front 754

A suture used in tendon repair?

Back 754

polydioxanone

Front 755

A microfibrillar collagen that is either supplied in a compacted nonwoven web form or in loose fibrous form is?

Back 755

avitene

Front 756

The EEA surgical stapler is used for?

Back 756

anastomosis of proximal colon to rectum

Front 757

A specially treated form of surgical gauze that is a hemostatic agent is?

Back 757

surgicel

Front 758

Absorbable suture that is preffered in suturing which tissue?

Back 758

periosteum

Front 759

Which suture is treated with a salt solution to decrease the rate of absorption?

Back 759

chromic

Front 760

Tissue trauma is best minimized using a?

Back 760

swaged on suture

Front 761

A characteristic of polyglycolic acid suture?

Back 761

absorbable

Front 762

A stick tie is a?

Back 762

swaged needle

Front 763

A type of suture that has a high tensile strength and support a wound indefinately is?

Back 763

stainless steel

Front 764

Type of needle point used on peritoneum and intestine is?

Back 764

taper

Front 765

They type of needle used on tendon?

Back 765

cutting

Front 766

The measure of weight required to break a suture is its?

Back 766

tensile strength

Front 767

Which suture would not be used in the presence of infection?

Back 767

silk

Front 768

A stapling device used to perorm low anterior anastomosis?

Back 768

EEA

Front 769

The mess that is not preffered in the presence of infection?

Back 769

mersilene

Front 770

The least inert of all the synthetic mesh is?

Back 770

polyester fiber mesh

Front 771

A curved tapered surgical needle is used mostly on?

Back 771

bowel tissue or subcutaneous tissue

Front 772

The substance that weakly hold wound edges together during the first five days of first intention healing is?

Back 772

fibroblasts

Front 773

The healing process in which a wound is purposely left open and allowed to heal from bottom up is called?

Back 773

secondary intention

Front 774

Which is not part of the inflammatory process?

Back 774

vasocontriction

Front 775

The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as?

Back 775

evisceration

Front 776

Reduced flow to an area is known as?

Back 776

ischemia

Front 777

Most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol water solution to maintain their?

Back 777

pliability

Front 778

Which factor would not decrease the healing capabilities of a patient?

Back 778

early ambulation

Front 779

The healing stage of first intention healing occurs from the?

Back 779

5-14 day

Front 780

Second intention healing involves?

Back 780

wound granulation

Front 781

The power source for all fiberoptic instruments and equipment is?

Back 781

fiber optic light source

Front 782

Orthpedic power equipment is run by?

Back 782

nitrogen

Front 783

What part is responsible for conducting the electrical current back to the electrosurgical unit?

Back 783

inactive electrode

Front 784

The proper pressure setting for the pneumatic tourniquet for an adult?

Back 784

300-350 mm hg

Front 785

Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during an edoscopic procedure?

Back 785

Nd:Yag

Front 786

Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques provides the best imaging of soft tissues?

Back 786

MRI

Front 787

Endometrial laser ablation is most commonly treated by?

Back 787

Nd:Yag

Front 788

How often should a tourniquet applied to an adult leg be periodically deflated?

Back 788

every 1 1/2 hours

Front 789

What is another name for the electro surgical unit's inactive electrode?

Back 789

grounding pad

Front 790

What part of the microscope provides magnification and resolving power?

Back 790

optical lens system

Front 791

What is the name of the latex rolled bandage used to exsanguinate an extemity before a tourniquet cuff is inflated?

Back 791

esmarch

Front 792

Reese and Brown are types of?

Back 792

dermatomes

Front 793

What laser is used to treat retinopathy?

Back 793

argon

Front 794

What is the proper range of intraoperative pressure when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic?

Back 794

12-15mm hg

Front 795

What term is used to describe the side to side action of a power saw blade?

Back 795

oscillating

Front 796

What type of electrosurgical unit does not require the use of a grounding pad?

Back 796

bipolar

Front 797

A patient brought into surgery has previously undergona right total hip arthroplasty. Where should the grounding pad be placed?

Back 797

left thigh

Front 798

At what pressure should the tourniquet be set for an adult thigh?

Back 798

300-350

Front 799

What device would the surgeon use to identify essential nerves during cranial procedures?

Back 799

nerve stimulator

Front 800

Which organism is not associated with wound infection?

Back 800

treponema pallidum

Front 801

The most common nosocomial infections are?

Back 801

urinary infections with catheter use

Front 802

A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of?

Back 802

nosocomial infection

Front 803

The correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?

Back 803

discard pitcher; contaminated

Front 804

When opening a sterile wrapper the unsterile person should first open the?

Back 804

corner farthest from the body

Front 805

Nosocomial refers to?

Back 805

hospital acquired infections

Front 806

Inanimate particles that can be vectors for infection are called?

Back 806

fomite

Front 807

A patient who underwent a broncoscopy is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa.Is traced to what type of infection?

Back 807

cross-contaminated

Front 808

The most prequent means by which infections are spread are?

Back 808

direct contact with infected person

Front 809

The recommended number of air exchanges per hour with in an operating room is?

Back 809

20

Front 810

The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at?

Back 810

50%-60%

Front 811

A ventilation system that proves a rapid air exchange in a undirectional flow is called?

Back 811

laminar air flow

Front 812

The control system in which feedback concerning changes in the body's internal environment causes a response that reverses changes is called?

Back 812

negative feedback

Front 813

The part of the brain responsible for controlling body temperature?

Back 813

hypothalamus

Front 814

The air pressure in OR should be?

Back 814

positive

Front 815

Three safety factors concerning the safety of the surgical tech and ionizing radiation are?

Back 815

time, shielding, distance

Front 816

Which filter is preffered for une in the OR for air exchanges?

Back 816

high efficiency particulate air filters

Front 817

The compression rate for one rescuer adult CPR is?

Back 817

80-100 per minute

Front 818

A common complication as a result of chest compressions during CPR is?

Back 818

fracture ribs

Front 819

The proper rate of providing ventilations to an adult victim during CPR is?

Back 819

12

Front 820

The ratio compressions to ventilations for infants and children during CPR?

Back 820

5 to 1

Front 821

When performing external chest compressions on an adult, the sternum should be pressed?

Back 821

1 1/2 to 2 inches

Front 822

What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record peri operative care?

Back 822

JCAHO

Front 823

Which specimen would not be placed in a preservation solution?

Back 823

renal calculi

Front 824

Anarobic specimens should?

Back 824

not be refreigerated

Front 825

Bullets that are considered a specimen should?

Back 825

not be handed off with forceps

Front 826

A tissure specimen for frozen section is sent to the pathology dept in a specimen container with?

Back 826

no preservative

Front 827

A commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimen is?

Back 827

formalin

Front 828

Which incision would be used to gain access to the spleen?

Back 828

subcostal

Front 829

A curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen used frequently in gynecological?

Back 829

pfannenstiel

Front 830

Which incision is preffered for abdominal surgery?

Back 830

verticle midline

Front 831

A lower oblique incision is known as?

Back 831

inguinal

Front 832

A hemostatic agent that must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves & instruments?

Back 832

avitene

Front 833

What type of scalpel cuts and coagulates tissue with the ue of heat?

Back 833

hemostatic scalpel

Front 834

Which hemostatic agent is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?

Back 834

absorbable collagen

Front 835

Which is an internal method of hemostasis?

Back 835

ligature

Front 836

Before closing a kidney incision the OR table is straightened to?

Back 836

allow closure of wound

Front 837

Which agent is applied to bleeding surface and edges of bone?

Back 837

bone wax

Front 838

Which is a nonadherent dressing?

Back 838

adaptic

Front 839

Which hemostatic agent is not recommended for use on a bone?

Back 839

oxidized cellulose

Front 840

Of the levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which is most applicable to the surgical patient?

Back 840

physiological

Front 841

A major concern when treating geriatric patients requiring additional emotional support by the surgical team is?

Back 841

depression

Front 842

When performing the preoperative shave, nicks and cuts are considered a clean wound ____min.

Back 842

30 min

Front 843

How many times is the patient identification confirmed before transporting from the ward room to the surgery dept.

Back 843

5

Front 844

When transporting a patient to OR. What direction should the gurney be situated?

Back 844

feet first

Front 845

When trasporting a patient to the OR, where should the safety straps be placed?

Back 845

over the thighs

Front 846

How should the patient be transported when using an elevator?

Back 846

enter head first, exit feet first

Front 847

The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?

Back 847

do not transport patient;inform surgeon

Front 848

The ultimate responsibility of obtainin the general consent belongs to?

Back 848

surgeon

Front 849

A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak english and does not fully understand what they signed. This constitutes liability case for?

Back 849

assault and battery

Front 850

A general consent form is to?

Back 850

authorize all routine treatments or procedures

Front 851

When using an armboard on the OR table, the most important measure is?

Back 851

avoid hyperextention of the arm

Front 852

Which procedure would be performed with the patient in the lateral position?

Back 852

nephrectomy

Front 853

The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is?

Back 853

lateral

Front 854

When perorming the skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted from the?

Back 854

incision site to periphery using circular motion

Front 855

The position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement is?

Back 855

supine

Front 856

The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia is?

Back 856

fowler's

Front 857

What position is commonly used for neurosurgical and some otorhinologic procedures?

Back 857

fowler's

Front 858

An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent?

Back 858

cardiovascular complications

Front 859

When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is?

Back 859

prepped last or separately; it's considered contaminated

Front 860

In the lateral chest position, a sand bag or padding is placed under the chest at axillary level to?

Back 860

prevent pressure on lower arm

Front 861

In the prone position the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent?

Back 861

respiratory complication

Front 862

Ulnar nerve damage could result from?

Back 862

use of unpadded armboard

Front 863

Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the OR table can caue pressure on the?

Back 863

peroneal nerve

Front 864

If patient is in supine postion, the circulator must always?

Back 864

make sure ankles and legs are not crossed

Front 865

What is not a requirement for the Kraske position?

Back 865

arms are tucked at eh sides of the patient

Front 866

When moving a patient from the lithotomy position legs should be?

Back 866

lowered together

Front 867

What is not required when a patient is placed in the prone position?

Back 867

safety belt placed below the knee

Front 868

The femoral nerve can be damaged if?

Back 868

retractors are improperly placed during pelvic surgery

Front 869

To avoid foot drop what should be done?

Back 869

padd heels to prevent pressure from OR table

Front 870

The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen of pelvis is:

Back 870

trendelenburg

Front 871

The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is?

Back 871

reverse trendelenburg

Front 872

In the prone position which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?

Back 872

radial nerve

Front 873

When positioning an anesthetized patient supporting the head and neck is the responsibility of the?

Back 873

surgeon

Front 874

When moving a patient with an unsplinted fracture protecting the fracture is the responsibility of the?

Back 874

surgeon

Front 875

Which procedure is performed with the patient in the trendelenburg position?

Back 875

hysterectomy

Front 876

A reverse trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment of a?

Back 876

footboard

Front 877

A small pad placed under a patients head in the supine position allows which muscle to relax?

Back 877

strap muscle

Front 878

Wha position is used for a cesarean section?

Back 878

supine with bolster under left side

Front 879

What device is used when placing a patient in the operative position for a thyroidectomy?

Back 879

shoulder roll

Front 880

What nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in fowler's position?

Back 880

sciatic

Front 881

What size of foley catheter is communly used for adults?

Back 881

14 fr or 16fr

Front 882

Which agents is commonly used when performing a patient skin prep of the eye?

Back 882

triclosan

Front 883

What area should be prepped last when performing a patient skin prep?

Back 883

stoma

Front 884

What is the name of the instrument part located between the box lock and finger rings?

Back 884

shank

Front 885

What is a self retaining retractor?

Back 885

Gelpi

Front 886

A retractor not found in a major orthopedic instrument set?

Back 886

ragnell (for hand cases)

Front 887

What type of instrument is a Lowman?

Back 887

bone holding clamp

Front 888

A Joseph elevator is used in?

Back 888

rhinologic procedures

Front 889

An Allen clamp is used for?

Back 889

gastrointestinal procedures

Front 890

Which suturing forceps are commonly used during ophthalmic procedures?

Back 890

bishop-harmon

Front 891

Which instrument would be found in a gastrointestinal set up?

Back 891

doyen forceps

Front 892

The secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of the?

Back 892

Vagus Nerve (X)

Front 893

The fifth cranial nerve is also called the?

Back 893

Trigeminal Nerve(V)

Front 894

The cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the?

Back 894

Hypoglossal (XII)

Front 895

Which cranial nerve can be tested for sensations of pain, touch, and temperature with the use of a safety pin and hot and cold objects?

Back 895

Trigeminal Nerve (V)

Front 896

In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the ____ and pass on to hit the____?

Back 896

external auditory canal, tympanic membrane

Front 897

Which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes through the skull, and descends through the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?

Back 897

Vagus Nerve (X)

Front 898

The cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is?

Back 898

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (VIII)

Front 899

The anterior chamber of the eye lies?

Back 899

behind cornea and in front of the iris

Front 900

The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmissionof impulses is?

Back 900

sodium

Front 901

Intraocular pressure is primarily dependant on?

Back 901

aqueous humor

Front 902

The function of the small intestine?

Back 902

digestion and absorption of nutrients

Front 903

Athe junction of the sclera nd cornea is a venous sinus know as the?

Back 903

canal of schlemm

Front 904

testosteroneis secred by the?

Back 904

cells of leydig

Front 905

The structure that binds the small instestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the?

Back 905

mesentry

Front 906

The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?

Back 906

vascualr tunic

Front 907

The process by which blood cells are formed is known as?

Back 907

hemopoiesis

Front 908

The sutures of the skull are examples of?

Back 908

Synarthrosis

Front 909

What arises from the left ventricle?

Back 909

Aorta

Front 910

The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the?

Back 910

nephron

Front 911

Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle?

Back 911

pulmonary artery

Front 912

The cytoplasmic processs of a neuron that conducts impulses away fromthe cell body is an?

Back 912

axon

Front 913

The part of the brain that is a continuation of the spinal cord and forms the inferior portion of the rain stem is the?

Back 913

medulla

Front 914

The structure that is located anterior to the esophagus and extends from the larynx to the fifh thoracic vertabrae is the?

Back 914

trachea

Front 915

The are in the duodenum where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct empty is called the?

Back 915

ampulla of vater

Front 916

The diencephalon is composed of the?

Back 916

thalamus and hypothalamus

Front 917

The wisp like roots of the nerves at the end of the spinal cord are called the?

Back 917

cauda equina

Front 918

Neuron axons that are surrounded by a multilayer white, phospholipid segmented covering are called?

Back 918

myelinated neurons

Front 919

Neurons that conduct impulses to the cardiac muscles are part of the?

Back 919

autonomic nervous system

Front 920

The neuroglia are cells that?

Back 920

support and protect

Front 921

Function of the trachea is to?

Back 921

conduct air to and from the lungs

Front 922

The area of the brain that controls respiration is the?

Back 922

medulla oblongata

Front 923

All though takes place in the?

Back 923

cerebral cortex

Front 924

What bones form the greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity?

Back 924

parietal bones

Front 925

Another name for the tympanic membrane is the?

Back 925

eardrum

Front 926

which vessels do not empty into the right atrium?

Back 926

pulmonary veins

Front 927

The foramen magnum is found in which bone?

Back 927

occipital

Front 928

The ovary is attached to the uterus by the?

Back 928

ovarian ligament

Front 929

Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar process?

Back 929

Teeth

Front 930

The portion of the stomach surrounding the lower esophageal sphincter is called the:

Back 930

Cardia

Front 931

The islets of Langerhans secrete:

Back 931

Insulin

Front 932

The area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called the:

Back 932

Ampulla of vater

Front 933

The primary function of the gallbladder is to:

Back 933

Store bile

Front 934

The plicae circulares, microvilli, and villi are:

Back 934

Structures that increase surface absorption area in the small intestine

Front 935

The first part of the small intestine is the:

Back 935

Duodenum

Front 936

The appendix is attached to the:

Back 936

Cecum

Front 937

The double-layered apron-like structure that hangs from the lower border of the stomach is the:

Back 937

Greater Omentum

Front 938

The main function of the large intestine is to:

Back 938

Reabsorb water and electrolytes

Front 939

A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food molecules is called:

Back 939

Catabolism

Front 940

What is the substance that is the body's preffered source of energy?

Back 940

Carbohydrates

Front 941

The process by which glucose is stored in the live and skeletal muscle cells as gylcogen is called:

Back 941

Glycogenesis

Front 942

The structure that binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the:

Back 942

Mesentery

Front 943

The salivary glands located in front of the ear that become inflamed and enlarged during mups is called:

Back 943

Parotid glands

Front 944

The catabolism of fats produces which of the following substances?

Back 944

Ketone bodies

Front 945

Vitamins A,D,E, and K are absorbed in the:

Back 945

Intestine

Front 946

The organ that lies posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach and is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:

Back 946

Pancreas

Front 947

When body cells require energy, what molecule is broken down?

Back 947

ATP molecule

Front 948

The outer layer of the intestine is the:

Back 948

Serosa

Front 949

The cricoid cartilage is a:

Back 949

Leaf-shaped cartilage lying on top of the larynx

Front 950

The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system and for air into the respiratory system is the:

Back 950

Pharynx

Front 951

The larynx is located between the:

Back 951

Pharynx and trachea

Front 952

The vocal chords are located in the:

Back 952

Larynx

Front 953

Which structure has three divisions consisting of naso, oro, and laryngeal?

Back 953

Larynx

Front 954

The function of the trachea is to:

Back 954

Conduct air to and from the lungs

Front 955

The space between the vocal chords is called the:

Back 955

Glottis

Front 956

The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the:

Back 956

Septum

Front 957

The structure that drains excess tears to the nasal cavity, causing the nose to run is the:

Back 957

Nasolacrimal duct

Front 958

The cartilaginous nasal septum lies upon which bone?

Back 958

The vomer

Front 959

The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the:

Back 959

The eustachian tube

Front 960

Another name for the tympanic membrane is the:

Back 960

Eardrum

Front 961

The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:

Back 961

Cochlea

Front 962

The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the:

Back 962

Ethmoid

Front 963

Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?

Back 963

Stapes

Front 964

The large leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a trap door over the layrnx is the:

Back 964

Epiglottis

Front 965

Which part of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?

Back 965

Semicircular canals

Front 966

A term refering to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:

Back 966

Cerumen

Front 967

Which of the following structures is not an ossicle of the ear ? Incus Vestibule Stapes Malleus

Back 967

Vestibule

Front 968

The fluid within the membranous labrinth is called:

Back 968

Endolymph

Front 969

In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the ____ and pass on to hit the _______:

Back 969

External auditory canal, tympanic membrane

Front 970

Striated-voluntary muscle tissue is found in the _____ muscle tissue.

Back 970

Skeletal

Front 971

The white, tough layer of the eye that gives it it's shape is the:

Back 971

Sclera

Front 972

The layer of the eye that is clear, covers the iris, and contains no blood vessels is the:

Back 972

Cornea

Front 973

The layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina through it's numerous blood vessels is the:

Back 973

Choroid

Front 974

Which muscle alters the shape of the lens of the eye to acommodate near or far vision?

Back 974

The ciliary muscle

Front 975

What structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye and assists in obtaining a clear image?

Back 975

Iris

Front 976

Intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on:

Back 976

Aqueous Humor

Front 977

At the junction of the sclera and cornea is a venous sinus known as the:

Back 977

The canal of schlemm

Front 978

The smooth intrinsic muscle that alters the shape of the eye lens is the:

Back 978

Ciliary Body

Front 979

The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?

Back 979

anterior portion of the VASCULAR tunic

Front 980

A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:

Back 980

Glomerulus

Front 981

The triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is known as the:

Back 981

Trigone

Front 982

Gerota's fascia is located:

Back 982

Around the kidney

Front 983

The kidney's are positioned:

Back 983

Retroperitoneally

Front 984

The functional unit of the kidney is responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the:

Back 984

Nephron

Front 985

The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:

Back 985

Sodium

Front 986

The prostate gland secretes:

Back 986

Alkaline fluid

Front 987

The first step of urine production in which fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called:

Back 987

Glomular filtration

Front 988

Sperm are produced by the:

Back 988

Seminiferous tubules

Front 989

The cup-like extensions of the kidney pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:

Back 989

Calyces

Front 990

The notch on the kidney through which the ureters exit is the:

Back 990

Hilum

Front 991

Which of the following is the principal male hormone produced in the testes and responsible for sexual characteristics?

Back 991

Testosterone

Front 992

The comma-shaped organ that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:

Back 992

Epididymis

Front 993

The only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood is the:

Back 993

The pulmonary artery

Front 994

The pacemaker of the heart is the:

Back 994

SA Node

Front 995

Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?

Back 995

Iliac arteries

Front 996

The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:

Back 996

Hemopoiesis

Front 997

Which of the following arises from the left ventricle?

Back 997

Ascending AORTA

Front 998

The pancreas lies behind the stomach and duodenum in the right and left upper quadrants and is didvided into ________ portions.

Back 998

Three portions. (The head, body, and tail)

Front 999

Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?

Back 999

Liver

Front 1000

The atrioventricular (AV) valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the:

Back 1000

Bicuspid valve ( mitral )

Front 1001

The inner layer of an artery is known as the:

Back 1001

Intima

Front 1002

Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle?

Back 1002

The pulmonary artery

Front 1003

Untreated acute otitis media may result in

Back 1003

Mastoiditis

Front 1004

In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the _________ and pass on to hit the ___________.

Back 1004

Auricle, tympanic membrane

Front 1005

Hernia's that occur within Hesselbach's triangle and do not have a sac are:

Back 1005

direct hernias

Front 1006

The defect in a hernia occurs in the

Back 1006

Transversalis muscle

Front 1007

Second intention healing involves:

Back 1007

Wound granulation

Front 1008

The healing stage of first intention healing, when the wound rapidly gains tensile strength, occurs from:

Back 1008

the fifth to fourteenth day

Front 1009

Who advanced the theory that handwashing greatly reduces infection in patients?

Back 1009

Semmelweis

Front 1010

Spiral-shaped bacteria are identified as

Back 1010

Spirilla

Front 1011

Rickettsiae are transmitted by:

Back 1011

insect bites

Front 1012

A valuable laboratory test for determing bacterial identification is an:

Back 1012

gram stain

Front 1013

Microbes that prefer to live without oxygen are called:

Back 1013

Anarobes

Front 1014

The relationship in which organisms occupy the same habitat but do not affect each other is known as:

Back 1014

Commensalism

Front 1015

A relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of the other is:

Back 1015

Parasitism

Front 1016

A disease that occurs quickly and has rapid recovery is known as

Back 1016

an acute disease

Front 1017

Vaccination is an example of :

Back 1017

artificial active immunity

Front 1018

An allergy, such as hay fever, is an example of:

Back 1018

Hypersensitivity

Front 1019

Which of the following organelles of the cell is responsible for the production of ATP?

Back 1019

Lysosomes

Front 1020

Who is resposible for carrying out infection control programs in the patient care enviorment?

Back 1020

Everyone

Front 1021

Which process is an active transport mechanism?

Back 1021

Phagocytosis

Front 1022

Which organism causes gas gangrene?

Back 1022

Clorstridium perfringes

Front 1023

Staphlococcus normally found on skin is an example of:

Back 1023

resident flora

Front 1024

Striated-voluntary muscle tissue is found in the ___________ muscle tissue.

Back 1024

Skeletal

Front 1025

"Strike-through" is used aseptically to describe:

Back 1025

Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers or vice versa

Front 1026

The method most recommended for sterilizing an arthroscope is

Back 1026

ethylene oxide

Front 1027

The simplest form of cell organization is the:

Back 1027

bacterium

Front 1028

Fine, thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion are:

Back 1028

Flagella

Front 1029

Most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol-water solution to maintain their:

Back 1029

Pliability

Front 1030

A bacillus found in the intestine is

Back 1030

Escherichia Coli

Front 1031

The part of the body that has the most abundant and various microbes is the

Back 1031

mouth and throat

Front 1032

The complete destruction of all living organisms is known as:

Back 1032

Sterilization

Front 1033

The most common nosocominal infections are:

Back 1033

Urinary infections associated with catheter use

Front 1034

Which of the following methods of sterilization is the most practical and inexpensive technique to sterilize objects that can withstand high temperatures?

Back 1034

Moist heat under pressure

Front 1035

A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a:

Back 1035

Nosocominal infection

Front 1036

What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and the scrub person notices water droplets on the inside?

Back 1036

Discard the pitcher because it is considered contaminated

Front 1037

Instruments should be placed in perforated trays for sterilization

Back 1037

to allow for steam penetration

Front 1038

Wrapped instrument sets must be sterilized for ____ minutes at 250*F for steam sterilization.

Back 1038

30

Front 1039

Which of the following would be considered a biological monitor?

Back 1039

Spore strip

Front 1040

Which term defines mircroorganisms that are capable of producing disease under favorable conditions?

Back 1040

pathogens

Front 1041

If a sterile package wrapped in muslin falls to the floor, what should you do?

Back 1041

Discard the package

Front 1042

A tradename for activated glutaraldehyde is:

Back 1042

Cidex

Front 1043

Which of the following methods would be used to sterilize a container of lubricating oil?

Back 1043

Dry heat

Front 1044

What radioactive isotope is commonly used for sterilization?

Back 1044

Colbalt 60

Front 1045

Positive assurance of sterility can be accomplished only with the use of:

Back 1045

biologic monitors

Front 1046

Syphilis is caused by:

Back 1046

Treponema pallidum

Front 1047

Malaria and amebic dysentry are caused by:

Back 1047

Protozoa

Front 1048

A bacteria frequently found in soil, water, sewage, debris, and air is:

Back 1048

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 1049

A vegetative resting state of some bacilla is known as:

Back 1049

Spore

Front 1050

Who is responsible for the invention of the first high-powered microscope?

Back 1050

Leeuwenhoek

Front 1051

A passive process in which there is a net or greater movement of molecules or ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called:

Back 1051

diffusion

Front 1052

Packages wrapped in muslin or medium weight nonwoven material must have:

Back 1052

Two layers of wrap

Front 1053

What is the standard safety margin insidesterile package wrappers?

Back 1053

One inch

Front 1054

When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the:

Back 1054

the corner farthest from the body first

Front 1055

Which area on the surigcal gown is not considered sterile?

Back 1055

Upper arms and shoulders

Front 1056

In a gravity displacement sterilizer, steam enters the chamber through the:

Back 1056

Top rack

Front 1057

Ethylene oxide is mixed with carbon dioxide to:

Back 1057

reduce flammability

Front 1058

DNA is contained within the

Back 1058

Nucleus

Front 1059

Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the body's:

Back 1059

Second line of defense

Front 1060

Cell "drinking" is called:

Back 1060

Pinocytosis

Front 1061

Inanimate particles that can be vectors for infection are called:

Back 1061

Fomites

Front 1062

An organelle that contains digestive juices is the:

Back 1062

Golgi complex

Front 1063

The division of a reproductive cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called:

Back 1063

Meiosis

Front 1064

Reduced blood flow to an area is known as:

Back 1064

Ischemia

Front 1065

The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as:

Back 1065

evisceration

Front 1066

A disease that is commonly found in a community is considered:

Back 1066

Endemic

Front 1067

Which bacteria causes rheumatic fever?

Back 1067

Streptococcus

Front 1068

What term describes someone known as a "host of infection" who has a disease but displays no symptoms?

Back 1068

Carrier

Front 1069

An example of an autimmune disease is:

Back 1069

AIDS

Front 1070

The white, tough layer of the eye that gives is it's shape is the:

Back 1070

Sclera

Front 1071

The layer of the eye that is clear, covers the iris, and contains no blood vessels is the:

Back 1071

Cornea

Front 1072

The layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina through its numerous blood vesels is the:

Back 1072

Choroid

Front 1073

Which muscle alters the shape of the lens of the eye to accommodate near or far vision?

Back 1073

Ciliary muscle

Front 1074

What structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye and assists in obtaining a clear image?

Back 1074

Iris

Front 1075

A steriod used typically to diminish inflammation after eye surgery?

Back 1075

Methylprednisolone acetate (depo-Medrol)

Front 1076

Intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on

Back 1076

Aqeous humor

Front 1077

Dilating drops are called:

Back 1077

Mydriatics

Front 1078

At the junction of the sclera and cornea is a venous sinus known as the:

Back 1078

canal of schlemm

Front 1079

On the retina, in line with the visual axis, is a yellow spot reffered to as the:

Back 1079

Macula lutea

Front 1080

The smooth intrinsic muscle that alters the shape of the eye lens is the:

Back 1080

Ciliary body

Front 1081

An enzyme used before cataract surgery to soften the zonula ciliaris holding the lens in place is the:

Back 1081

alpha chymotrypsin

Front 1082

The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?

Back 1082

Vascular

Front 1083

A medicine cup holds 2 ounces. How many millimeters does it hold?

Back 1083

60 ml

Front 1084

What drug may be used to treat an allergy?

Back 1084

Antihistamine

Front 1085

Soda lime is used in mask inhalation anesthesia to:

Back 1085

adjust anesthetic levels

Front 1086

Balanced anesthesia is sometimes referred to as:

Back 1086

neuroleptanesthesia

Front 1087

Most anesthetic agents are:

Back 1087

potentially lethal

Front 1088

During general anesthesia

Back 1088

the patient is unconscious

Front 1089

Cricoid pressure

Back 1089

occludes the esophagus

Front 1090

An antagonist drug

Back 1090

Neutralizes or impedes the action of another drug.

Front 1091

Muscular fasculation refers to:

Back 1091

involuntary muscle contractions

Front 1092

A term reffering to a drug name not protected by a trademark that may describe its chemical strucure is the _______ name.

Back 1092

generic

Front 1093

The acronym MAC stands for:

Back 1093

Monitored anesthesia care

Front 1094

Cephalothin sodium (keflin) is a/an:

Back 1094

antibiotic

Front 1095

Indirect arterial blood pressure is obtained with a :

Back 1095

sphygmomanometer

Front 1096

Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?

Back 1096

Sodium bicarbonate

Front 1097

Hypovolemia is

Back 1097

low blood volume

Front 1098

Intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?

Back 1098

Induction

Front 1099

An emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractability is

Back 1099

calcium chloride

Front 1100

A drug used to reverse hypotension is

Back 1100

Levarterenol ( Levophed ) .

Front 1101

Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is a/an:

Back 1101

analgesic

Front 1102

Another name (trade name) for epinephrine is:

Back 1102

Adrenalin

Front 1103

Cardiac arrythmias of ventricular origin can be treated with:

Back 1103

lidocaine

Front 1104

Dextran is used parenterally to:

Back 1104

expand blood plasma volume

Front 1105

A barbituate that may be used for sleep the night before surgery is:

Back 1105

Secobarbital (seconal)

Front 1106

Steriods are used for the reduction of:

Back 1106

tissue inflammation and swelling

Front 1107

The most widely used local anesthetic is:

Back 1107

Lidocaine (xylocaine)

Front 1108

A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation in short cases is:

Back 1108

Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine).

Front 1109

What amount is approximatly equal to 500 ml?

Back 1109

1 pint

Front 1110

Dark blood in the operative field is a sign of possible:

Back 1110

Hypoxia

Front 1111

The healing process in which a wound is purposely left open and allowed to heal from the bottom up is called:

Back 1111

Secondary intention

Front 1112

The quadrate lobe of the liver is _______ shaped.

Back 1112

Square

Front 1113

An emergency drug useful in stabilizing ventricular fibrillation is:

Back 1113

Propranolol hydrochloride (inderal)

Front 1114

An emergency drug useful in stabilizing ventricular fibrillation is:

Back 1114

Propranolol hydrochloride (inderal)

Front 1115

A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the surbarachnoid space, affecting a portion of the spinal chord, is called:

Back 1115

Intrathecal (spinal) block

Front 1116

===--------------------------------------------------------

Back 1116

third stage

Front 1117

Parental adiministration of a drug refers to:

Back 1117

administration with a needle

Front 1118

The purpose of administering atropine preoperatively is to :

Back 1118

Inhibit secretions

Front 1119

Cocaine and tretracaine (pontocaine) are examples of what kind of anesthetic?

Back 1119

Topical

Front 1120

One gram = ____grains

Back 1120

15

Front 1121

One ml is equal to:

Back 1121

1 cc

Front 1122

At what point during administration of an anesthetic must you refrain from making noise or stimulating the patient?

Back 1122

During induction

Front 1123

The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to:

Back 1123

counteract metabolic acidosis

Front 1124

An anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is

Back 1124

protamine sulfate

Front 1125

A drug used to soothe and relieve anxiety is called:

Back 1125

a sedative

Front 1126

Morphine is used for:

Back 1126

pain

Front 1127

Lidocaine (xylocaine) is used intravenously for:

Back 1127

Cardiac arrhythemias

Front 1128

The root word aterio means:

Back 1128

Artery

Front 1129

Gelfoam,oxidized cellulose(surgicel), and microfibrillar collagen hemostat (avetine) are examples of:

Back 1129

hemostatic agents

Front 1130

What agency establishes standards for drugs?

Back 1130

United states pharmacopeia/national formulary (USP)

Front 1131

Oxytocic drugs cause

Back 1131

uterine contractions

Front 1132

Drugs that draw fluid from the tissues are classified as:

Back 1132

diuretics

Front 1133

Naloxone hydrochloride (narcan) is an:

Back 1133

anitcholinergic

Front 1134

A vasoconstrictor that added to a local anesthetic agent extends its life is:

Back 1134

epinephrine

Front 1135

An anticholinergic drug given preoperativly to inhibit mucous secretion is:

Back 1135

Atropine

Front 1136

What vitamin is essential to the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver and is a valuable hemostatic agent?

Back 1136

Vitamin K

Front 1137

A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:

Back 1137

Glomerulus

Front 1138

The triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is known as the:

Back 1138

trigone

Front 1139

Gerotas fascia is located:

Back 1139

Around the kidney

Front 1140

The kidneys are positioned:

Back 1140

retroperitoneally

Front 1141

The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the:

Back 1141

Nephron

Front 1142

The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:

Back 1142

Sodium

Front 1143

The prostate gland secretes:

Back 1143

alkaline fluid

Front 1144

The first step of urine production in which fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called?

Back 1144

Glomerular filtration

Front 1145

Enuresis is...

Back 1145

bed wetting

Front 1146

Lack of control over urination is called:

Back 1146

incontinence

Front 1147

What is the function of the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and the cowpers gland?

Back 1147

To secrete the liquid portion of the semen

Front 1148

The position used most often for an open ureterolithotomy of the upper third of the ureter is :

Back 1148

Lateral

Front 1149

Sperm is produced by the

Back 1149

seminiferou tubules

Front 1150

Renal calculi are sent as specimens in

Back 1150

a dry jar

Front 1151

Non-explosion-proof electrical outlets must be how high above the OR floor?

Back 1151

Five feet

Front 1152

Hypertension means:

Back 1152

High blood pressure

Front 1153

The recommended number of air exchanges per hour within an operating room is:

Back 1153

20-30

Front 1154

If a patient has recieved medication (sedative) preoperativly, can he or she sign ther operative consent?

Back 1154

No

Front 1155

"dys" means:

Back 1155

bad, difficult

Front 1156

QID refers to..

Back 1156

4 times a day

Front 1157

The first article of OR attire donned is:

Back 1157

Head cover

Front 1158

What is the greatest influencing factor when designing an operating room?

Back 1158

Infection control

Front 1159

Surgical masks should be changed:

Back 1159

after each case

Front 1160

Chole refers to:

Back 1160

gall,bile

Front 1161

Mastectomy means:

Back 1161

removal of the breast

Front 1162

Os means

Back 1162

opening

Front 1163

Aseptic means:

Back 1163

without sepsis

Front 1164

The relative humidity in an operating room is normally:

Back 1164

60%

Front 1165

What team member is responsible for performing the surgical prep of a patient?

Back 1165

Circulator

Front 1166

If a patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?

Back 1166

With an X, and the witness writes "patients mark" next to it.

Front 1167

A semi-sitting position is also known as :

Back 1167

fowler

Front 1168

A hemorrhoidectomy is performed in what position?

Back 1168

kraske

Front 1169

Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy means:

Back 1169

removal of both tubes and ovaries

Front 1170

Tenolysis means:

Back 1170

freeing of a tendon

Front 1171

NPO means nothing by mouth:

Back 1171

nothing by mouth

Front 1172

Bx means:

Back 1172

Biopsy

Front 1173

Mentoplasty means reconstruction of the...

Back 1173

chin

Front 1174

Pnuemonectomy means

Back 1174

removal of the lung

Front 1175

Oscopy means

Back 1175

viewing

Front 1176

Which team member acts as a liasion between both sterile and unsterile members?

Back 1176

Circulator

Front 1177

The ventilation system in the operating room must:

Back 1177

ensure a controlled supply of filtered air.

Front 1178

A jacknife position is also known as:

Back 1178

Kraske

Front 1179

Hepat refers to:

Back 1179

liver

Front 1180

Tachycardia is...

Back 1180

fast heart rate

Front 1181

A telescopic examination of the cervix is known as

Back 1181

Colposcopy

Front 1182

Who assumes full responsibility for all medical acts of judgement for a patient?

Back 1182

Surgeon

Front 1183

Otomy means ..

Back 1183

incision

Front 1184

Ectomy means..

Back 1184

excision

Front 1185

Appendicitis means

Back 1185

inflammation of the appendix

Front 1186

Ideally, sliding doors should be used in the operating room because..

Back 1186

they eliminate air currents.

Front 1187

Inter means..

Back 1187

between

Front 1188

Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of the:

Back 1188

ear

Front 1189

Oopher refers to..

Back 1189

Ovary

Front 1190

A ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a undirectional flow is called:

Back 1190

Laminar air flow

Front 1191

Removal of the uterus is known as

Back 1191

hysterectomy

Front 1192

The ultimate responsibilty of obtaining a surgical consent belongs to the:

Back 1192

surgeon

Front 1193

The patient has the right to withdraw written consent prior to the operation. What is the proper procedure?

Back 1193

The patient is not taken into the operating room and the surgeon is notified.

Front 1194

The hospital committee that monitors routine activities, audits incident reports,and conducts problem-focused studies in an effort to change practices deemed substandard is the:

Back 1194

quality assurance committee

Front 1195

Who is responsible for all nursing care given in the operating room?

Back 1195

OR nurse manager

Front 1196

The most natural position for the body is:

Back 1196

Supine

Front 1197

The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:

Back 1197

Trendelenburg

Front 1198

The knee-chest position would be used for a:

Back 1198

Sigmoindoscopy

Front 1199

In the lateral chest position, the lower leg is,

Back 1199

Straight

Front 1200

The only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood is the:

Back 1200

Pulmonary artery

Front 1201

The universal recipient blood type is..

Back 1201

AB+

Front 1202

Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?

Back 1202

Iliac

Front 1203

Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint? A). Radius and carpals B). Thumb and trapezium C). Femur and hip D). Ulna and radius

Back 1203

B). Thumb and trapezium

Front 1204

A smooth, sustained contraction produced by several very rapid stimuli is called:

Back 1204

a tetanus

Front 1205

The dense white fibrous covering around bone is the:

Back 1205

periosteum

Front 1206

An example of a short bone is the:

Back 1206

wrist

Front 1207

A large, bony process found on the femur is a:

Back 1207

trochanter

Front 1208

The foramen magnum is found in which bone?

Back 1208

Occipital

Front 1209

An example of a flat bone is the:

Back 1209

cranial bones

Front 1210

An exaggeration of the thoracic curve of the spine resulting in a "hunchback" is known as:

Back 1210

Kyphosis

Front 1211

The acromion is part of which bone:

Back 1211

Scapula

Front 1212

The olecranon is part of which bone?

Back 1212

Ulna

Front 1213

Which of the following is not a carpal? -Lunate -Scaphoid -Capitate -Styloid

Back 1213

Styloid

Front 1214

The only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone is the:

Back 1214

Hyoid

Front 1215

The shaft of the bone is known as the..

Back 1215

diaphysis.

Front 1216

The extremity or end of a bone is known as the:

Back 1216

epiphysis

Front 1217

Another name for spongy bone is:

Back 1217

cancellous

Front 1218

The vertebrae are examples of what type of bone?

Back 1218

Irregular

Front 1219

The area of a bone where growth occurs until early adulthood is the

Back 1219

epiphyseal plate

Front 1220

A differential count is the:

Back 1220

calculation of the number of each type of white blood cell

Front 1221

The majority of abdominal aortic anneurysms begin:

Back 1221

below the renal arteries

Front 1222

Emboli may be: -clot particles -foreign bodies -air or fat spaces -all of the above

Back 1222

all of the above

Front 1223

Sodium bicarbonate is used:

Back 1223

to prevent or correct metabolic acidosis

Front 1224

A deliberate reduction of body tempature for therapeutic purposes is known as:

Back 1224

Hypothermia

Front 1225

The test that determines the percentages of each type of white blood cell is the:

Back 1225

differential count

Front 1226

The sutures of the skull are examples of:

Back 1226

synarthrosis

Front 1227

The large artery found behind the knee is the:

Back 1227

Popliteal

Front 1228

Chemical substances that react with the body and cause the formation of antibodies are:

Back 1228

antigens

Front 1229

The muscle that forms the bulk of the upper calf is the:

Back 1229

gastrocnemius

Front 1230

The mandible articulates with the:

Back 1230

temporal bone

Front 1231

The thoracic spine contains how many vertebrae?

Back 1231

12

Front 1232

Another name for a bunion is

Back 1232

hallux valgus

Front 1233

A cyst in the popliteal fossa is a:

Back 1233

Baker's cyst

Front 1234

If a patient signs a consent form for surgery but does not speak english;therefore, he or she does not fully understand what was signed. Surgery on this patient could consitute a liability case for...

Back 1234

assualt and battery

Front 1235

The most effective and efficient procedure for sponge counts is to have them counted by:

Back 1235

two persons, three or more times.

Front 1236

Liability is a legal rule that:

Back 1236

holds each individual responsible for his or her own actions

Front 1237

CPR may be discontinued when

Back 1237

pulse and respiration are restored

Front 1238

The compression rate for one rescuer adult CPR is:

Back 1238

80-100 beats per minute

Front 1239

The walls of the vagina are lined with:

Back 1239

mucous membrane

Front 1240

The perineum is:

Back 1240

the area between the vagina and the anus

Front 1241

Fertilization of the ovum generally occurs in the:

Back 1241

fallopian tubes

Front 1242

The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristics is:

Back 1242

estrogen

Front 1243

A hernial protusion of the bladder that causes a downward bulge in the anterior wall of the vagina, usually associated with surgical trauma, is known as:

Back 1243

rectocele

Front 1244

Painful menstration caused by forceful contractions of the uterus is known as:

Back 1244

dysmenorrhea

Front 1245

A collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs is

Back 1245

pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

Front 1246

In the ovary, a granular yellow body that develops after the extrusion of an ovum is the:

Back 1246

corpus luteum

Front 1247

The finger-like projections on the end of the fallopian tubes are:

Back 1247

fimbrae

Front 1248

The elevated adipose tissue over the symphsis is called the:

Back 1248

mons pubis

Front 1249

The ovary is attached to the uterus by the:

Back 1249

ovarian ligament

Front 1250

The middle layer of the uterus composed of muscle is the:

Back 1250

myometrium

Front 1251

The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the:

Back 1251

dura mater

Front 1252

The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:

Back 1252

ventricles

Front 1253

The area of the brain that controls respirations is the:

Back 1253

Medulla oblongata

Front 1254

All thought takes place:

Back 1254

cerebral cortex

Front 1255

The basic unit of the nervous system is the:

Back 1255

nueron

Front 1256

The cranial nerve that contians special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is the:

Back 1256

VIII

Front 1257

The peripheral nervous system contains?

Back 1257

Cranial and spinal nerves

Front 1258

The largest part of the brain is the:

Back 1258

Cerebellum

Front 1259

The fifth cranial nerve is also called:

Back 1259

the trigeminal nerve

Front 1260

Cephalgia refers to:

Back 1260

headache

Front 1261

Cell "eating" is called:

Back 1261

Phagocytosis

Front 1262

The basic living, structural, and functional unit of the body is known as the:

Back 1262

cell

Front 1263

The rupturing of RBC'S is called:

Back 1263

hemplysis

Front 1264

A good example of filtration in the body is:

Back 1264

Kidneys

Front 1265

The result of fertilization of gametes is a:

Back 1265

zygote

Front 1266

The study of tumors is called:

Back 1266

Oncology

Front 1267

A cancerous growth is said to be:

Back 1267

MALIGNANT

Front 1268

Spores are:

Back 1268

the resting stage of some bacilli

Front 1269

The spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body is referred to as:

Back 1269

metastasis

Front 1270

Nosocominal refers to:

Back 1270

hospital-acquired infection

Front 1271

The bodies first line of defense against infection:

Back 1271

intact skin and mucous membranes

Front 1272

The portion of the stomach above the level of the upper esophageal sphincter is the:

Back 1272

fundus

Front 1273

The main duct of the pancreas is the:

Back 1273

duct of wirsung

Front 1274

The teeth are composed primarily of:

Back 1274

dentin

Front 1275

The large vien that drains the head is the:

Back 1275

Jugular

Front 1276

The portion of the small intestin that joins the large intestine is the:

Back 1276

ileum

Front 1277

Another name for the folds of the stomach:

Back 1277

rugae

Front 1278

Aqueous humor is found within the

Back 1278

anterior cavity

Front 1279

Care of a surgical specimen includes placing it:

Back 1279

in a bag or container with formalin

Front 1280

What position is most often used for vaginal surgery?

Back 1280

lithotomy

Front 1281

What is the recommended tempature in the operating room?

Back 1281

20-24 celcius 68-75 farenhiet

Front 1282

How must basins be positioned for sterilization in the autoclave?

Back 1282

On thier sides

Front 1283

Which of the following instruments is necessary for an open cholecystectomy? -Oschner forceps - Jennings retractor - Mixter clamp - O'sullivan-O'connor retractor

Back 1283

Mixter clamp

Front 1284

A pad-like sac or cavity that preents friction within a joint is known as aL

Back 1284

bursa

Front 1285

Wrinkle free padding is applied to an extremity before application of a tourniquet to avoid:

Back 1285

skin injuries

Front 1286

Procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck is called?

Back 1286

rhytidectomy

Front 1287

Which scissor is most likely found in a basic hysterectomy set-up? A. Potts-smith B. Stevens C. Jorgenson D. Iris

Back 1287

Jorgenson

Front 1288

Which of the following is NOT a sympton of shock? A. tachycardia B. hypertension C. cold, clammy skin D. increased respirations

Back 1288

Hypertension

Front 1289

Which of the following solution can be used to disinfect endoscopic instruments? A. iodophors B. ethyl alcohol 70% C. phenolic compounds D. activated glutaraldehyde

Back 1289

Activated Glutaraldehyde

Front 1290

Glove powder is normally wiped from the gloved hand because it has the potential to cause:

Back 1290

Granulomas

Front 1291

When a cholecystectomy is performed, which of the following anatomical structures must be preserved?

Back 1291

Common duct