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1291 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What method of hemostasis are ligatures?
internal
Absorbable collagen should not be used in the presence of ___?
infection
what hemostatic agent must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?
Avitene
what hemostatic agent should not be used on bone?
oxidized cellulose
is Adaptic an adherent or nonadherent dressing?
nonadherent
Whistle, Braasch, and Blasucci are all what type of catheters?
ureteral
A nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine is ___?
Miller-Abbott
Malecot, mushroom, and sump are all types of ___?
surgical drains
what type od sponge is a tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
Kittner
what can be utilzed for wounds, particularly abdominal surgical wounds, that will require frequent dressing changes and prevent damage to the skin?
Montgomery straps
most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol-water solution to maintain their ___?
pliability
the substance that weakly holds wound edges together during the first 5 days of first intention healing is ___?
fibroblasts
the least inert of all the synthetic meshes is ___?
polyester fiber mesh
is absorbable or non-absorbable suture generally preferred in suturing periosteum?
absorbable
a microfibrillar collagen that is either supplied in a compacted nonwoven webform or in loose fibrous form is known as ___?
Avitene
A suture used in tendon repair is ___?
polydiaxanone
What type of suture is Ethibond Excel?
polyester fiber
what is the most widely used nonabsorbable suture?
nylon
what is the least inert of all synthetic suture materials?
polypropylene
In how many days is plain gut absorbed?
70
an excellent substitute that provides strength and nonreactivity in tissues where stainless steel cannot be used is ___?
polypropylene
when breaking down the setup, the scrub person should place the instruments in what?
a basin of water for transport to decontamination
a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle and does not have a sac is called ___?
a direct hernia
the defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the ___ muscle.
transversalis
the incision commonly used for an appendectomy is ___?
McBurney
a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used when treating ___?
esophageal varices
omental flaps, falciform ligament, or Gerota's fascia flaps may be used to ___?
control liver hemorrhage
the procedure performed for decompression of the cecum due to colonic obstruction is ___?
cecostomy
pancreaticojejunostomy is performed for ___?
pancreatic psuedocysts
a Silverman biopsy needle is used to biopsy what?
liver
choledochotomy is performed to do what?
drain the common bile duct
what incision is used for a resection of the sigmoid colon?
paramedian
a type of deep retractor commonly used in an open chole is a ___?
Harrington
the procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis in the newborn is ___?
Fredet-Ramstedt
the Heller procedure is performed to correct ___?
esophageal obstruction
the procedure to correct intrahepatic obstruction is ___?
portacaval shunt
a forceps commonly used to remove gallstones from the common bile duct during an open chole is ___?
Randall
the instrument used to grasp the appendix during an open appendectomy is ___?
Babcock
a herniation of the Douglas' cul-de-sac containing a loop of bowel is called a/an ___?
enterocele
a HUMI cannula would be used in what procedure?
tuboplasty
a colposcopy may be performed for suspected ___?
carcinoma in situ
a diagnostic procedure for suspected ectopic pregnancy is ___?
culdocentesis
how many sponge, sharp, and instrument counts does a cesarean section require?
four
if a tumor of an oveary is suspected to be malignant, what other organs will be excised?
both fallopian tubes, both ovaries, and uterus,
excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called ___?
hydrocelectomy
female urethral dilation may be accomplished with ___?
McCarthy dilators
Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the ___?
kidney pedicle
the anesthesia of choice for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is ___?
epidural
a diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is ___?
needle biopsy
what non electrolytic and isosmotic solution is used during a TURP?
Glycine
why is it important for a patient to void prior to the beginning of a cystoscopy?
to rule out residual urine in the bladder
what instrument is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
Ellik evacuator
the procedure in which the attenuated anterior capsule of the shoulder is reattached to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures is called a/an ___?
Bankart
Colles' fracture is often treated by ___?
closed reduction
fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting tools to perform a ___?
stapendectomy
what instrument would be used to remove the septal cartilage during a rhinoplasty?
Jansen-Middleton forceps
Freer elevator, Bayonnet forceps, Potts forceps, or Cottle speculum; which is NOT found on a nasal setup?
Potts forceps
removal of an entire eyeball is called ___?
enucleation
a type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is ___?
intracapsular
is vitrectomy a treatment for glaucoma?
no
which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
argon
what instrument is used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?
ocillating saw
the pathology characterized by contraction of the the palmar fascia is ___?
Dupuytren's disease
after debridement of the stump and severed digit during replantation surgery, the next step is ___?
bone to bone attachment
the four agents mixed together for injecting during a tumescent liposuction are local anesthetic, epinephrine, saline, and ___?
Wydase
a procedure performed in pts with empyema is called ___?
pulmonary decortication
what type of retractor is a Bailey?
rib retractor
during a bronchoscopy, which solution is preferred for bronchial washing specimens?
sterile saline
what size of trocar is commonly used during a thoracoscopy?
10 mm
which synthetic material used for grafts requires preclotting?
Dacron knit polyester
the commonly used size of suture for peripheral vasculare anastomosis of the popliteal artery is ___?
5-0
the most common cause of intracerebral hemmorrhage is ___?
hypertension
Meniere's disease is associated with which cranial nerve?
VIII
the procedure that involves freeing up a nerve from adhesions for restoration of function is called ___?
neurolysis
the surgical resection of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is called a ___?
rhizotomy
a procedure to remove intractable pain due to terminal cancer is ___?
cordotomy
are burr holes created for dysraphism?
no
what kind of neurological retractor is a Leyla-Yasargil?
self-retaining
Thrombin does not control bleeding in the skin and ___?
glia
the procedure to treat trigeminal neuralgia is ___?
decompression
to obtain hemostasis in neurosurgery, is monopolar electrosurgery or bipolar electrosurgery used?
bipolar
the self-retaining retractor used during a lumbar laminectomy is ___?
Beckman
is a burr used during a laminectomy or a craniotomy?
craniotomy
the dura mater is closed with what suture?
4-0 silk
during a craniotomy, the instrument commonly used to separate the dura from the cranium is a ___?
penfield dissector
where is the catheter placed when performing the procedure to treat hydrocephalus?
lateral ventricle
how long must a wrapped instrument set be steam sterilized for at 250 degrees?
30 minutes
Items that are mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected, but not sterile are said to be ___?
surgically clean
as part of OR decontamination after a procedure, the suction canister containing blood and body fluids should be placed where?
biohazard bag
is hydrogen peroxide or ethylene oxide used to create gas plasma for sterilization purposes?
hydrogen peroxide
how long should the EtO biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?
48 hours
what test is used to check for air entrapment in the prevacuum sterilizer?
Bowie-Dick test
where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilizing cart?
bottom front
for EtO sterilized items, how long must they remain in an aerator being operated at 140?
8 hours
what term describes voltage that is strong enough to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, causing a hole and possibly burning the individual?
dielectric breakdown
what determines if a laser is solid state, gas, liquid, or semiconductor?
gain medium
what type of laser has the most power output?
solid state
generally, where on the OR table is the robotic arm positioned for surgeries of the lower abdomen?
by pts head
what term refers to the robot's ability to differentiate between two objects?
resolution
when performing a lap chole, approximately where should the robotic arm be positioned on the OR table?
pt's right side, mid thigh
when setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the pt's skin surface?
1 cm or less
when performing a lap chole on an obese pt, what can be done to create additional space between the elbow of the robotic arm and the pt?
tilt mechanism
during a lap Nissen with access ports along the pt's midline, how should the leg be positioned on the side where the robotic arm is positioned?
extended laterally with leg supported
during a lap Nissen with access ports along the pt's midline, how is the table positioned after the trocars and manipulator have been placed?
reverse t-burg
when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor, what is used to create the initial images of the brain?
MRI
when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor, what piece of equipment is necessary to obtain 3-D coordinates in order to superimpose the scan based images on the head of the pt?
laser
when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor,what term is used to describe the attainment of a 3-D simulation of the pt's tissues for practice prior to the procedure?
deformable modeling
which robotic device requires sterilization, the collar or the optics device?
collar
when performing a lap chole with a robotic arm, what anatomical landmark is used to line up th endoscope?
umbilicus
what is the area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty called?
Ampulla of Vater
the process by which glucose is stored in the liver and skeletal muscle cells as glycogen is called ___?
glycogenesis
When body cells require energy, what molecule is broken down?
ATP molecule
The fluid within the membranous labyrinth is called ___?
endolymph
intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on ___?
aqueous humor
the ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
vascular
a capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the ___?
glomerulus
the most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is ___?
sodium
the pacemaker of the heart is the ___?
SA node
which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
iliac
the process by which blood cells are formed is known as ___?
hemopoiesis
the pancreas lies behind the stomach and duodenum in the R and LUQ and is divided into ___ portions
3
which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?
liver
do the pulmonary veins empty into the right atrium?
no
the medial malleolus is part of which bone?
tibia
the sutures of the skull are examples of what?
synarthrosis
what kind of joint is the thumb and trapezium?
saddle joint
smooth, sustained contractions produced by several very rapid stimuli are called ___?
tetanus
a large, bony process found on the femur is ___?
trochanter
the cranial bones are an example of what kind of bone?
flat
the acromium is part of which bone?
scapula
the olecranon is part of which bone?
ulna
is the styloid a carpal?
no
what type of bones are the vertebra?
irregular
what bones form the greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity?
parietal
where are the cruciate ligaments found in the knee?
lateral and medial
the mandible articulates with the ___?
temporal bone
the funnel-shaped open distal end of each fallopian tube is called ___?
infundibulum
the cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is ___?
VIII vestibulocochlear
which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes thru the skull, and descends thru the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?
X vagus
the cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tounge and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the ___?
VII hypoglossal
which crainial nerve carries impulses for sense of smell?
I olfactory
neurons that conduct impulses to the cardiac muscles are part of the ___?
autonomic nervous system
the contraction of involuntary muscles are controlled by ___?
autonomic nervous system
the neuroglia are cells that ___?
support and protect
the cytoplasmic process of a neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body is ___?
axon
the 5th cranial nerve is also called the ___?
trigiminal nerve
the inner lining of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of ___?
epithelium
Which glands are located in the stomach?
parietal cells
the small intestine is drained by the ___?
hepatic portal vein
the pouches in the small intestine are called ___?
haustra
what are the pouches in the large intestine called?
haustra
the secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of what nerve?
vagus(X)cranial nerve
what does the left coronary artery divide into?
anterior descending and circumflex
where are the papillary muscles found?
in the ventricles of the heart
what vessel delivers blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver?
hepatic portal vein
which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?
Treitz
which cranial nerve can be tested for sensations of pain, touch, and temperature with the use of a safety pin and hot and cold objects?
trigeminal V
the atrioventricular (AV) valve between the left atruim and the left ventricle is the ___?
bicuspid (mitral) valve
into which chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty?
left atrium
the simplist form of cell organization is the ___?
bacteria
is Streptococcus gram-positive or gram-negative?
gram-positive
what bacteria is freqently found in soil, water, sewage, debris, and air?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called ___?
meiosis
An acid-fast test is used to identify ___?
tuberculosis
what is the most common brain disorder?
cerebrovascular accidents
memory impairments result from lesions in the ___?
limbic system
what condition affectes the medulla of the adrenal gland and causes the overproduction of adrenaline?
pheochromocytoma
what enzyme is used before cataract surgery to soften the zonules of the lens?
alpha-chymotrypsin
balanced anesthesia is sometimes referred to as ___?
neuroleptanesthesia
Merperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is a/an ___?
analgesic
an emergency drug useful in stablizing ventricular fibrillation is ___?
propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)
the operative stage of anesthesia is the ___?
third stage
Tetracaine (Pontocaine) is an example of what kind of anesthetic?
topical
A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for premedication is ___?
merperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
what agent is commonly given preoperatively to inhibit the production of gastric acid?
climetidine
an anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is ___?
protamine sulfate
the test that determines the ratio of RBCs to whole blood is the ___?
hematocrit
in a cardiac arrest, atropine might be administered to treat ___?
severe bradycardia
Mannitol is used in neurosurgery to ___?
reduce swelling of brain tissue
a mitotic drug used to constrict the pupil to reduce intraocular pressure is ___?
pilocarpine hydrochloride
a local anesthetic agent employed for filtration anesthesia during ophthalmic surgery is ___?
lidocaine
a benzodiazepine sedative given intramuscularly for premedication is ___?
midazolam (Versed)
what drug is a dye used to evaluate the corneal epithelium?
fluorescein
dilating drops are called ___?
mydriatics
is synchondrosis containing hyaline cartilage a characteristic of a synovial joint?
no
vaccination is an example of ___?
artificial active immunity
what kind of transport mechanism is phagocytosis?
active transport
when performing the preop shave, nicks and cuts are considered a clean wound for up to ___ minutes?
30
under what circumstances can the pt's hospital ID bracelet be removed?
never
how many times is the pt ID confirmed before transporting form the ward room to the surgery dept?
5
if a descrepancy occurs in the ID of a pt on the hospital ward, what action should be taken?
do not transport to OR and inform OR personnel
what position is most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia?
Fowler's
in the lateral chest position, a sandbag or padding is placed under the chest at aillary level to do what?
to prevent pressure on the lower arm
ulnar nerve damage could reusl from ___?
use of an unpadded armboard
stirrups that are not padded or are improperly placed on the Or table can cause pressure on the ___?
peroneal nerve
In the Kraske position, are the arms tucked at the pt's sides?
no
the femoral nerve can be damaged if ___?
retractors are placed improperly during pelvic surgery
the surgical poition commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is ___?
reverse trendelenburg
in the prone position, which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?
radial
a small pad placed under a pt's head in the supine position allows which muscles to relax?
strap
what size Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
16 Fr
what aqent is commonly used when performing a pt skin prep of the eye?
Triclosan
What should be prepped last when performing pt skin prep?
stoma
when draping a prep table, the first scrub surgical tech should drape from ___?
front to back
in what type of set would Bennett, Hohmann, and Richardson retractors be found in?
major orthopedic
in what type of set would a Ragnell retractor be found in ?
hand tray
in what type of procedures is a Joseph elevator used?
Rhinologic
an Allen clamp is used in what type of surgery?
gastrointestinal
the Hurd tonsil dissector and Pillar retractor is a double ended instrument used in what procedures?
tonsillectomy
what type of uterine dilator is shaped like an elongated "S"?
Hank uterine dilator
what tissue forceps has a row of small teeth at the end of each tip and is ideal for grasping sub-q, tendon, or muscle?
Brown tissue forceps
what instrument is inserted into the anus and has a groove thru which the surgeon can view the rectal canal and insert instruments?
Hill-Ferguson retractor
what osteotome is frequently used to cut bone, such as to obtain bone for a graft?
Lambotte
is it the Frazier suction tip or the Baron suction tip that has an oval portion for the thumb to be placed on?
Baron suction tip
what instrument can be inserted into the cystic duct to remove gallstones during and open chole?
Mayo gallstone scoop
what laser is used to coagulate bleeders during an endoscopic procedure?
Nd:YAG
how often should a tourniquet applied to an adult leg be periodically deflated?
every 1.5 hours
what laser is used to treat retinopathy?
Argon
at what pressure should the tourniquet be set for an adult thigh?
300-350 mm Hg
the most common nosocomial infections are ___?
UTI with catheter use
a pt who underwent a bronchoscopy is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection, which is traced to this type of infection:
cross-contamination
what is the proper procedure for turning the gown?
hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown
if a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the scrub take?
circulator pulls off glove; scrub is regloved by another sterile team member.
what is the proper procedure to follow when a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges?
hand off the field and isolate
what type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?
transverse drape
the recommended number of air exchanges per hour in an OR is ___?
20
the relative humidity in an OR should be maintained at ___?
50%-60%
a ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a unidirectional flow is called ___?
laminar air flow
what does the prostate gland secrete?
alkaline fluid
what is the most abundant ion in the body?
calcium
where does the anterior chamber of the eye lie?
behind the cornea and in front of the iris
where is aqueous humor found?
in the anterior chamber of the eye
where do the ureters enter the bladder?
medially from the posterior aspect
the conducting fibers that run from the AV node down the interventricular septum are referred to as what?
Bundle of His
testosterone is secreted by what?
Cells of Leydig
inhibin is produced by what?
Sertoli's cells
the relationship in which organisms occupy the same habitat but do not affect each other is known as ___?
neutralism
a steroid used topically to diminish inflammation after eye surgery is ___?
methylprednisolone acetate (Depo-Medrol)
musclear fasciculation refers to ___?
involuntary muscle contractions
a nonproprietary name for a drug, usually selected by the original developer of the drug, is ___?
generic
the IV barbituate general anesthesia used for induction most frequently is ___?
thiopental sodium (Pentothal
intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?
induction
an emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractility is ___?
calcium chloride
a drug used to reverse hypotension is ___?
levarterenol (Levophed)
a barbituate that may be used for sleep the night before surgery is ___?
secobarbital (Seconal)
the purpose of administering atropine preoperatively is to ___?
inhibit secretions
one gram equals ___?
15 grains
what amount is approximately equal to 500 ml?
1 pint
an anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is ___?
protamine sulfate
an anticholinergic drug given preoperatively to inhibit mucous secretion is ___?
atropine
the universal recipient blood type is ___?
AB
what agent is a radiopaque contrast medium used during operative cholangiograms?
Hypaque
a cylcoplegic drug used to dilate the pupil is ___?
tropicamide (Mydriacyl)
an enzyme that is mixed with ophthalmic anesthetic solutions for infiltration anesthesia is ___?
hyaluronidase (Wydase)
is Versed an antimuscarinic?
no
what drug is used for irrigating the eye and keeping the cornea moist?
balanced salt solution (BSS)
ADENEXA REFERS TO
ACCESSORY ORGANS
A DROP IS DENOTED BY THE ABBREVIATION
gt
THE ABBREVIATION ung REFERS TO
OINTMENT
PROXIMAL IS A TERM THAT INDICATES A POINT
NEAR TO THE BODY
ADDUCTION MEANS
MOVEMENT TOWARD MEDIAN PLANE
ISCHEMIC CAN BE DEFINED AS
A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to the body part or organ
A cystocele
is a herniation of the urinary bladder
Nulli is a prefix that means
none
False is indicated by the prefix
pseudo
Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called
petechiae
Kerato refers to
horny or cornea
The suffix lysis means
breaking down
The left eye is indicated by the following letters
OS
Tissue death is called
necrosis
The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as
diaphoresis
Which radiografphic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes
MRI
The abscence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called
Atresia
Epistaxis can be defined as
bleeding from the nose
Blood gas analysis is called
ABG
A ganglion is
collection of nerve endings
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the
visceral pleura
the passageway for food and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the
pharynx
The vocal cords are located in the
larynx
The function of the trachea is to
conduct air to and from the lungs
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the
septum
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as
metacarpals
The muscles important in respiration are
intercostal
The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the
pectoralis major
The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the
deltoid
which of the abdominal muscles orginigates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs
*RECTUS ABDOMINIS
One of the principal muscle of the pelvic floor is the
levator ani
The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the
calf of the leg
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
ligament
The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the
parietal bones
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located
along the side of the neck
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finer side of the hand is called the
ulna
The bone that is shaped like butterfly and forms the anterior portion fo the base of the cranium is the
Sphenoid
The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
occipital
The lower jawbone is the
mandibule
The adult vertebral column has
26 bones
The conjuntiva is
the covering of the anterior globe except the cornea
The part of the brain responsible for maintenance of balanced and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle is
the cerebellum
The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the
medulla oblongata
The largest part of the brain is the
cerebrum
The winding cone-shaped tube of the iner ear is the
cochlea
the vein in the bend of the elbow that is commonly used as a site for veinpuncuture is the
median cubital vein
The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the
intestines
the vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and epties into the superior vena cava is the
azygos vein
The AV node causes
ventricular contraction
The descending aorta termiantes at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into
two common iliac arteries
Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called
capillaries
the reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the
large intestine
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the
anal canal
Which structure is known as the "fatty appron"?
greater omentum
The common bile duct is the union of the
cystic duct and hepatic duct
the function of the molar teeth is to
crush and grind food
mumps occur in the
parotid glands
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the
spermatic cord
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by
nose and mouth
Rod-like shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as
bacili
What organism is responsible for a boil
Staphylococcus aureus
the burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is
third degree burn
OSHA Is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to
execute requirementes designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work enviroment
A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by
secondary intention
the type of wound healing that requires debridement is
third
a drug that interferes with the blood clotting mechanism is
Heparin
An mg is a measurement of
weight
The solutios used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is
Dextran
a drug that increase blood pressure
epinephrine
the action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce
secretions
Nalaxone (Narcan) is an example of a
narcotic
Avitene is
a hemostatic
An absorbable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soked in thrombin or epinephrine solution is
Gelfoam
Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT
*GELFOAM, collastat, avitene, helistat
An anticoagulant given subcutaneously, intravenously or as a flush is
heparin
A drug that decreases the tendency of plood platelets to clot is
warfarin sodium
an antibiotic used intraoperatively is
Gentamicin
a topical antibiotic is
Bacitracin
An osmotic diuretic agent used to decrese cerebral edema and intraocular edema is
manitol
A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is
pitocin
Solu-Medrol is an
anti-inflammatory
Tubal patency may be tested by the installation of _________ into the uterine cavity
methylene blue
A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to
dilate the pupil
Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facillitated by the use of
retrobulbar block
Miochol is a
miotic
Heparin effects are reversed by
protamine sulfate
Levophed
restores and maintains blood pressure
A drug used to trear metabolic acidosis is
sodium bicarbonate
Neuroleptoanalgesia combines
a tranquilizer and narcotic
The most frequently used barbiturate for intravenous anesthesia is
pentothal
Halothane is also called
Flouthane
The indication for an epidural would be
anorectal, vaginal, perineal and obstetric procedures
Compazine is
an antiemetic
Pontocaine is
tetracaine HCL
A drug used to reverse hypotension is
Levophed
A drug that could be used to reverse the effects of muscle relaxants is
Prostigmin
Which piece of ewuipment of extreme importnace when anesthesia induction begins
suction
The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is
1 foot
Identify which of the following is not safe practice
sterile tables may be covered from later use
Tables are considered steril
only on the top
At the end of the case, drapes should be
checked for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper
if a solution soaks through a sterile drape
cover wet area with imprevious sterile drape or towel
The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250oF is
15 - 17
Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through
biological control test
A wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250oF for
30 minutes
The minimum exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270oF (132oC) is
3 minutes
When steam is used to sterilize a rubber tubing or catheter
a residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen
To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than
12 pounds
gravity displacement utilizes _______ to destroy microorganisms
steam
The process called cavitation occurs in the
ultrasonic cleaner
All of the following statements regarding instruments sets are true EXCEPT
instruments must be placed in perforated trays, heavy instruments are placed ont he bottom, *ALL INSTRUMENTS MUST BE CLOSED, all detachable parts must be disassembled
all of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT
flat packages are placed on the shelf on edge, small packages, placed one on top of the other, are criss-crossed, basins are placed on their sides, * SOLUTIONS MAY BE AUTOCLAVED ALONG WITH OTHER ITEMS AS LONG AS THEY ARE ON A SHELF ALONE
Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250oF for a minimum of
20 minutes
Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is true
basins must be separated by a porous material if they are nested
Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization
it is less damaging to items
The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is
ethylene oxide
What chemical system uses peracetic acid as the sterilant
steris
The lumen of a tubing undergoing ethylene oxice (EO) sterilization is
dried thoroughly
Why is ethylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chloroflurocarbon
it provides flame retardation
In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of
3 minutes
To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for
10 hours
"Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for
solutions
Oil is best sterilized by
convection hot air
what is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization
it is a separate unit used to decrese the aeration time
Ethylene oxide destroys cells by
interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reporductive precesses
Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for
20 minutes
when using a high-level disinfectant, always
rinse items with sterile distilled water before using
the chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is
peracetic acid
The Endoflush system
initially cleans reusable channeled instruments
Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilizaation
nylon
Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic that can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper
polypropylene
an item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if
it is enclosed in an imprevious material
The room temperature in an OR should be
between 68 and 76oF
If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses
the glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation
The most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays is a
lead apron
It is considered good technique to
handle the mask only by the strings
sterile gloves
should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant
electrical cords should be
removed from pathways so equipment is not rolled over them
Scatter radiation effects are directly related to
amount of radiation and length of exposure time
when using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently
four
To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table
one person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patien moves over
When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR< all of the following are true EXCEPT
extra personnel necessary, SUPPORT OF THE EXTREMITY SHOULD ALWAYS BE FROM BELOW THE SITE OF FRACTURE, lifters on the affected side support the fracture, the surgeon should be present
To avoid compromising the venous circulation, the restraint or safety strap should be placed:
2 inches above the knee
A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table, who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fracture site?
the physician
Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause
interference with respiration
A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to
protect the heels from pressure on the OR table
During lateral position a
pillow is placed between the legs
To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position:
the buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge
When using an armboard, the most important measure is to
avoid hyperextension of the arm
Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to
allow the circulatory system to adjust
If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always
see that the ankles and legs are not crossed
Diastolic blood pressure refers to
the relaxation phase between heartbeats
Systolic blood pressure represents
the greatest force caused by contraction of the left bentricle of the heart
tachycardia is a(n)
heartbeat over 100 beats per minute
the most common artery used to feel the pulse is the
radial artery
the body temperature taken orally is 98.6oF what is it in Celsius?
37oC
which term indicates low or decreased blood volume?
hupovolemia
If the suregeon wants to assess the patient's ability to void voluntarily via the urethra, yet sees the need for urinary drainage, he could use a
Bonanno suprapubic catheter
When catheterizing a patient
the tip of the catheter must be kept sterile
in which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed
third
Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called
mediastinal shift
why is the obese patient at greater surgical risk than one of normal weight
fat has poor vascularity
when drawing a blood sample for ABG's what is considered a safe time laps between blood drawing and analysis
10 minutes
The preop urinalysis test done on a patient inidicates that the specific gravity is 1.050 this
is above normal range and her or she is dehydrated
A type and crossmatch is done
if the surgeons anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necessary
A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volumen. This is
within normal range
Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is
hemophilia
Preoperative chest x-rays
should be done on all surgical patients
An electrocardiogram is
an electrical recording of heart activity
After being shceduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the nurese checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0gr This reading is
below normal range
A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell is called a
differential blood count
Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by
JCHO
Except for endotracheal tube installation, basic life support cannot be interrupted for more than
5 seconds
External caridac compression
provides oxygen to vital tissues
which action is the responsibility of the scrub person during an intraoperative CPR effort?
remain sterile, keep track of counted items, and assist as necessary
A pt was burned on the lip with a hot mouth gag. Which of the following actions would have prevented this incident
the scrub nurse cooled the item in a basin with sterile water
a pt signs a permission form for surgery, but because a language barrier he didn't understand what he has signed. This could constitute a liability case for
assault and battery
If a pt falls because he was left unattended, the OR team member could be cited in a lawsuit for
abandonment
Which is not considered a safe procedure when caring for dentures inadvertently sent to the OR
wrap in a plastic bag and attach to the patient's chart
A lack of care or skill that any nurse or tech in the same situation would be expected to use is the leagal definition of
negligence
The leagal doctrine that mandates every pfordessional nurese and tech to carry out theoir duties according to the nat. standards of care practiced throughout the country is
Doctrine of Resonable Man
The doctrine of Respondeat Superior refers to
employer liability for employee's negligent conduct
Liability is a legal rule that
holds each individuals responsible for his or her own actions
a criteria that identifies, measures, monitors and evaluates patient care is
quality assurance programs
In which way could a patient's response to impending surgery exchibit itself
tension and anxiety, fear and suspicion, anger and hostility, ALL OF THE ABOVE
Excessive exposure to radiation can affect the
reporductive organs
radiation exposure of the staff is monitored with
film badges
ionizing radiation protection is afforded by the use of
lead
a potential safety hazard associated with laser surgery is
eye injury
An OR hazard that has been linked to increased risk of spontaneous abortion in female OR employees is exposure to
waste anesthetic gas
Which virus can be transmitted by a needle puncture or splash in the eye
Hepatitis B
While using the mixture, a scavenging system is used to collect and exhaust or absorb its vapors, IT is called
methylmethacrylate
The best measure for staff protection against HIV is
handling all needles and sharps carefully and using barriers to avoid direct contact with blood and body fluids
Which body organ is most susceptible to laser injury
the eye
how is inhalation of the laser plume best prevented
with mechanical smoke evacuator or suction with a high efficiency filter
When using electrosurgery, what device delivers the current to the patient?
active electrode
What type of current does electrosurgery utilize?
alternating current
When the current passes through the active electrode, the energy is converted from electrical to?
magnetic
What term describes voltage that is strong enough to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, causing a hole and possibly burning the individual?
dielectric breakdown
Lasers, power drills, and electrosurgical units can produce a?
plume of vaporized tissue
A small power drill has 60hz. What is the interpretation of 60hz?
60 ac cycles per second
In the OR, what should never be removed from a 3 prong plug in order to make it fit a 2-prong plug in?
ground prong
What determines if a laser is solid state, gas, liquid, or semiconductor?
gain medium
What type of laser has the most power output?
solid state
Ultrasound is an example of the medical application of the physics principle of?
refraction
When the arm of a laser hits the OR wall, what is the concern of the surgical team?
laser mirrors will be out of alignment
In terms of physical principles, how is a laser similar to an endoscope?
both emit light
What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arm?
telesurgery
What is the technical term for robotic arm?
manipulators
What important component of the remote console sends messages to the computer which in turn translates the surgeon's hand movement to the robotic arm?
micromanipulators
The robotic arm's clockwise and counterclockwise movements around an axis are referred to as?
degrees of rotation
A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called?
yaw
Generally, where on the OR table is the robotic arm positioned for surgeries of the lower abdomen?
by patient's head
What term refers to the robot's ability to differentiate between two objects?
resolution
What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?
telechir
What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?
roll
On a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, where should the robotic arm be positioned?
patient's right side, mid-thigh
When setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the patient's skin surface?
1 centimeter or less
When performing a laparascopic cholecystectomy on an obese patient, what can be done to create additional space between the elbow of the robotic arm & patient?
tilt mechanism
What term refers to the up and down movement of the robotic arm?
pitch
The complete displacement of a joint is referred to as a?
dislocation
A cyst in the popliteal fossa is called a?
baker's cyst
The medical term for a bunion is?
hallux valgus
Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in?
slightly warm
A fractured metacarpal would require a?
short arm cast
Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
compound
A Putti-Platt procedure is performed on the?
shoulder
A fracture of the neck of the femur would require a?
cannulated screw
A bucket-handle tear in the medial cartilage of the knee is repaired by performing which of the following?
meniscectomy
A surgical procedure in which a join is fused to prevent movement is called a?
arthrodesis
The procedure in which the attenuated anterior capsule of the shoulder is reattached to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures is called a?
bankart
A Keller arthroplasty or McBride procedure is performed to treat?
bunions
The procedure in which the ulnar nerve is moved from the ulnar groove position on the posterior of the humerus to the anterior of the humeral condyle is called a?
transposition
Which of the following procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?
total hip arthroplasty
Which of the following surgical instruments would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?
bennett retractor
Which of the following anatomical structures is the best site for the removal of cortical bone for grafting purposes?
ilium
Methyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures?
total knee arthroplasty
How is the patient positioned for a knee arthroscopy?
supine, knee at lower break of OR table
Which of the following is not a type of interlocking nail used for a closed intramedullary nailing?
austin moore
Luque rods are used for?
spinal deformities
A dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius is called a?
smith's fracture
Which of the following conditions would be cause for the patient to undergo a total hip arthroplasty?
osteoarthritis
Femoral shaft fractures in an adult can be repaired by?
compression plating
Colle's fracture is often treated by?
closed reduction
Intertrochanteric fractures most often occur in which age population?
elderly
A Neer prosthesis is used for repair of comminuted fractures of the?
humeral head
A fracture of the femoral shaft would require a?
hip spica cast
What procedure is performed to correct talipes valgus or talipes varus?
triple arthrodesis
What surgical instrument is used to prepare the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?
tap
Which type of laser is used to remove methyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?
carbon dioxide
What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?
carpal tunnel release
What specialized type of retractors is used during a rotator cuff repair that aids in exposure of the surgical site?
bankart
What item should be available during a total hip arthroplasty to be inserted into the reamed femoral canal that will prevent methyl methacrylate from entering the medullary canal?
cement restrictor
What is the definition of otosclerosis?
hardening of spongy bone in ear
Meniere's syndrome involves the?
inner ear
Untreated acute otitis media may result in?
mastoiditis
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of the?
ear
Fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting tools to perform a?
stapedectomy
A surgical instrument not used for a nasal fracture?
pillar retractor
Which surgical instrument would you need to remove the septal cartilage during a rhinoplasty?
jansen-middleton forceps
An instrument not used in a tonsillectomy setup?
freer elevator
An instrument not need for a nasal set up?
potts forcep
In what postoperative position is a patient placed following a tonsillectomy?
lateral
An accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass destructive to the middle ear is?
cholesteatoma
The incision for Caldwell-Luc procedure involves the?
canine fossa
Excision of lymphoid tissue at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to facilitate breathing is a?
adenoidectomy
Surgical correction of a deviated septum is a?
septoplasty
A plastic procedure performed to correct protruding ear is?
otoplasty
Glossectomy is removal of?
tongue
A surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media is?
myringotomy
The most common cause of retinal detachment is?
trauma
A fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea is a?
pterygium
Blockage of the canal of Schlemm will cause?
glaucoma
An uneven curvatue of the cornea is known as?
astigmatism
The procedure of choice for a detached retina is?
scleral buckling
Removal of an entire eyeball is called?
enucleation
The inability to direct both eyes at the same object is called?
strabismus
A type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is?
intracapsular
Which instrument would not be used during a vitrectomy?
trephine
Which is not a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?
vitrectomy
Intraocular pressure is measured with the use for a?
tonometer
Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty?
cottingham punch
The procedure performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia is?
radial keratotomy
A condition that causes the sudden onset of the appearance of floating spots before the eye is?
retinal detachment
Which instrument is used to make the corneal cut during a keratoplasty?
corneal trephine
Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?
phacoemulsification
Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
argon
Which drug is a miotic?
pilocarpine
which instrument would be used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?
oscillating saw
Which muscle is involved in resection for strabismus correction?
lateral rectus
The layers of the skin included in a full thickness graft is?
epidermis and dermis
The degree of burn that destroys all layers of the skin and includes subcutaneous tissue is?
third
Microatia refers to?
absence of auricle
The medical term rhytidectomy refers to a?
facelift
What degree of burn is the common sunburn?
first
The medical term for charred and pearly white appearance of tissue damaged by a third degree burn is?
eschar
According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk of the body?
18%
The pathology characterized by contraction of the palmar fascia is?
dupuytren's disease
The device used to expand the size of a split thichness skin graft is a?
mesh graft
The sterile liquid placed on the donor skin site as a lubricant when a split thickness skin graft is taken is?
mineral oil
During a repair of cheiloschisis, the procedure in which tissue from the cheek is used to cover the defect is?
triangular flap cheiloplasty
During surgery for De Quervain's disease the tendons are released by cutting the?
dorsal carpal ligament
After debridement of the stump and severed digit during replantation surgery the next step is?
bone to bone attachment
During a pedicle flap mammoplasty reconstruction a commonly used muscle is the?
transverse rectus abdominis
The term mentoplasty refers to plastic surgery of the?
chin
when performing a rhinoplasty, the hum in the nose is removed with a?
chisel
The four agents mixed together for injecting during a tumescent liposuction are?
local anesthetic, epinephrine, wydase, saline
the initial incision for an abdominoplasty is a?
low transverse
A procedure performed in patients with empyema is called?
pulmonary decortication
Which instrument is a rib contractor?
lung biopsy
During a bronchoscopy, which solution is preferred for bronchial washing specimens?
sterile saline
Removal of air and or blood from the pleural cavity by means of an aspiration needle is called?
thoracentesis
A bronchoscopy procedure allows visualization of the?
bronchi
Which procedure is removal of an entire lung?
pneumonectomy
the pathology in which the subclavian artery is compressed resulting in severe ischemia of the arm is a type of?
thoracic outlet syndrome
What size of trocar is commonly used during a thorascopy?
10mm
Which node is an imprtant site for metastasis from the lungs and is a frequent site for biopsyy?
scalene
The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms begin?
below the renal arteries
Arteriovenous(AV) fistula is eferred over an external shunt for long term dialysis because of a decrease chance of?
thrombosis
Fatty deposits on the walls of arteries are called?
lipodeposits
The rupturing of erythrocytes is called?
hemolysis
The self retaining retractor used during femoral popliteal bypass is?
meyerding
A diagnostic test that examines blood flow and metabolic funtions of the heart and brain is?
positron emission tomography
What procedure is performed for chronic cerebral ischemia?
carotid endarterectomy
The movement of blood through a vessel can be assesed by?
doppler device
The agent used to flush an artery to preventing clotting is?
heparin
A vascular clamp used for occluding peripheral vessels is?
bulldog
The instrument commonly used to clamp the aorta during an abdominal aneurysmectomy is?
satinsky
The instrument commonly used to remove plaque from the carotid during an endarterectomy is a?
freer elevator
Which synthetic material used for grafts requires preclotting?
dacron* knit polyester
The commonly used size of suture for peripheral vascular anastomosis of the popliteal artery is?
5-0
The scissors commonly used to extend the arteriotomy during an endarterectomy is a?
potts-smith
The most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is?
hypertension
A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a?
meningioma
An encapsulated collection of blood over a cerebral hemisphere, producing intracranial pressure is called a?
subdural hematoma
Surgical trauma to the first and second cranial nerve would cause the loss of smell and?
sight
Meniere's disease is associated with which cranial nerve?
vestibulocochlear(VIII)
The cause of arteriovenous malformation is a?
tumor
The procedure that involves freeing up a nerve from adhesions for restoration of function is called?
neurolysis
The incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in the newborn is?
spina bifida
The surgical resection of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve to relieve pain is called?
rhizotomy
A procedure to remove intractable pain due to terminal cancer is?
cordotomy
A Gigly saw is used during a?
craniotomy
Repair of a cranial defect is called?
cranioplasty
Burr holes are not created for following pathologies?
dysraphism
Compression of the median nerve of the wrist is relieved by performing?
carpal tunnel release
A self retaining neurosurgical retractor is?
leyla-yasargil
The procedure to treat hydrocephalus is?
shunt
An agent that does not control bleeding in the skin and galia?
thrombin
The procedure to treat trigeminal neuralgia is?
decompression
Posterior fossa exploration is facilitated through a?
suboccipital approach
Does not obtain hemostasis during neurosurgery?
monopolar electrosurgery
The self retaining retractor used during a lumbar laminectomy is?
beckman
A diagnostic study involving the injection of radiopaque dy into the spinal subarachnoid space is?
myelogram
A type of scalp clips is?
raney
Can not be used in a laminectomy?
burr
The dura mater is closed with suture?
4-0 silk
Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is performed for?
pituitary tumor
The condition of premature closure of the infant suture lines is called?
craniosynostosis
During a craniotomy, the instrument commonly used to separate the dura from the cranium is?
penfield dissector
Where is the catheter placed when performing the procedure to treat hydrocephalus?
lateral ventricle
Which of the following is an approach to the sella turcica for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy?
upper gum margin
Cryptorchidism is?
undescended testes
A nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is called?
BPH
The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes done to reduce venous plexus congestion is a?
varicocelectomy
Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called?
hydrocelectomy
The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is?
orchiotomy
Filiforms are used to?
bypass urethral obstruction
Denis-Browne ring retractors may be used for?
retropubic prostatectomy
A Gomco clamp or Plastibell are used for?
circumcision
Female urethral dilation may be accomplished with?
McCarthy dilators
Endoscopic suspension of the besical neck of the bladder for treatment of stress incontinence is known as a?
stamey procedure
Satinkly, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the?
kidney pedicle
The anesthesia of choice for extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy is?
epidural
A procedure performed to overcome contraction of the bladder neck caused by primary or secondary stricture is a?
Y-V-plasty
A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a?
needle biopsy
What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove prostate tissue during a TURP?
resectoscope
A surgical procedure performed to correct the abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the upper side of the penis is called?
epispadias repair
Which of the following is a non electrolytic and isosmotic solution used during a TURP?
glycine
Continuous irrigation and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP is accomplished using a?
24 fr. 30-cc foley ballon catheter
An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?
prostatectomy
Which of the following instruments would be used during a supranopubic prostatectomy?
masson-judd retractor
Why is it important for a patient who will be undergoing a cystoscopy to void prior to the beginning of the procedure?
rule out residual urine in the bladder
Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used in a prostatectomy?
harrington
What instrument is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
elli evacuator
The following are all complications of suprapubic prostatectomy except?
phlebitis
Which of the following instruments would be used to dilate the urethra?
van buren
The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a?
vasovasostomy
An examination of the cervix that uses binocular microscope is called a?
colposcopy
The medical term for removal of the uterus is?
hysterectomy
The prolapse of the bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall is called a?
cystocele
The medical term for painful menstruation?
dysmenorrhea
A herniation of the Douglas'cul-de-sac containing a loop of bowel is called a?
enterocele
Which of the following surgical instruments would be in a D&C instrument set?
hegar clamps
The medical term for the removal of a uterine fibroid is?
myomectomy
A Rubin's test is performed to confirm?
patency of fallopian tubes
A HUMI cannula would be used for which of the following procedures?
tuboplasty
A colposcopy may be performed for suspected?
carcinoma in situ
Another name for the uterine dressing forceps found in a D&C tray is?
bozeman
The sharp uterine curettes located in a D&C are called?
sims
A diagnostic procedure for suspected ectopic pregnancy is?
culdocentesis
A D&C may be performed for?
menorrhagia
How many sponge, sharp, and instrument counts does a cesarean section require?
three
What is the name of the procedure in which a collar suture is placed at the level of the internal cervical os to prevent spontaneous abortion?
shirodkar procedure
A pneumoperitoneum is established during a laparoscopy through the use of the?
verres needle
Which of the following surgical instruments is a type of bladder retractor used during a cesarean section?
de lee
Which of the following would first scrub surgical technologist need to include in the set up for an incomplete abortion?
suction curettage
What incision is most commonly used for a C-section?
pfannenstiel
What type of solution is used to stain the cervix while performing a Schiller's test?
lugol's
The position used when performing an abdominal gynecologic laparoscopy is?
lithotomy
A radical procedure involving removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum is called?
perlvic exenteration
Which of the following surgical instruments is a weighted vaginal speculum?
auvard
An indwelling foley catheter is inserted into a patient prior to the start of a hysterectomy to?
avoid injury to the bladder
If a tumor of an ovary is supected to be malignan, what other organs will be excised?
both fallopian tubes, both ovaries and uterus
A postoperative complication in gynecologic surgery resulting from the patient being placed in the lithotomy position is?
DIC
The pneumoperitoneum is established during a laparoscopic procedure to prevent?
perforation of intestine
Which of the following is the medical term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus so that it covers the cervical internal os?
placentia previa
What pathology is a serious obstetrical emergency that is a type of coagulopathy resulting from overstimulation of the clotting and anticlotting processes?
disseminated intravascular coagulation
A hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle and does not have a sac is called?
direct
The defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the?
transversalis
Which of the following is a type of oblique incision?
kocher
A hemolytic disease of the newborn is known is called?
erythroblastosis fetalis
Is not an intestinal instrument?
heaney forceps
The instrument used for common duct exploration during an open cholecystectomy is?
baked dilator
The incision commonly used for an appendectomy is?
mcburney
Glisson's capsule is the?
external covering of the liver
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is performed to?
visualize biliary and pancreatic tracts
What can be accomplished when postioning the patient for a thyroidectomy to facilitate exposure of the surgical site?
rolled sheet placed under shoulder
A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used when treating?
esophageal varices
Omental flaps, falciform ligament, or Gerota's fascia flaps may be used to?
control liver hemorrhage
If the surgeon's preference card listed a Bookwalter or Omnitract, what type of instrument would be used?
self retaining retractor
The procedure performed for decompression of the cecum due to colonic obstructionis?
cecostomy
Pancreatiocojejunostomy is performed for?
pancreatic pseudocysts
The incision used for splenectomy is?
subcostal
A Silverman biopsy needle is used for?
liver biopsy
A cholelithotripsy is performed to fragment?
gallstones
Choledochotomy is performed to?
drain the common bile duct
The incision for a resection of the sigmoid colon is a?
paramedian
A thoracoabdominal incision is used when performing a?
open hiatal hernia repair
A type of deep retractor commonly used during an open cholecystectomy is?
harrington
The procedure for a lower rectal malignancy that requires an abdominal and rectal insicion is?
abdominoperineal resection
Another name for a partial gastrectomy is?
billroth 1
At the completion of the anastomosis of an intestine, the instruments used on the bowels are placed?
in separate basin
What other procedure is performed with a vagotomy?
pyloroplasty
The type of ostomy established when a total colectomy is performed is?
ileostomy
Another name for Whipple's procedure is?
pancreatiocoduodenectomy
The procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis in the newborn is?
fredet-ramstedt
The instrument commonly used to provide traction on the gallbladder during an open cholecystectomy is?
kocher clamp
A purse string suture is placed in the cecal serosa for an appendectomy to?
invert the appendiceal stump
The Heller procedure is performed to correct?
esophageal obstruction
The procedure to correct intrahepatic obstruction is?
portacaval shunt
A forceps commonly used to remove gallstones from the comon bile duct during an open cholycystectomy is?
randall
During an appendectomy, the structure that must be dissected free from its attachment to the ecum is called?
mesoappendix
During a thyroidectomy, the nerve that must be preserved is the?
recurrent laryngeal
During a mastectomy, which irrigating solution is used on the muscle layer due to its hypotonic properties?
sterile water
A left subcostal incision indicates surgery of the?
spleen
An irreducible hernia in which the abdominal contents have become necrotic is called?
strangulated
Tetany is a possible postoperative complication following an?
thyroidectomy
Is not an indication for a Splenectomy?
biliary obstruction
The instrument used to grasp the appendix during an open appendectomy?
babcock forceps
The structures that must be ligated prior to removal of the gallbladder?
cystic artery, hepatic duct
A Meckel's diverticulum occurs on the?
distal ileum
The organ that often sustains an incidental injury during a transverse colectomy is the?
spleen
During a laparoscopi Nissen fundoplication, the instrumentused to grasp the upper portion of the fundus of the stomach is?
endo-babcock
During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the laparoscope with attach video camera is inserted through the?
umbilical port
During a laparoscopic appendectomy, what instrument is commonly used to dissect, free the appendix from its attachment to the mesoappendix?
endoscopic linear stapler
During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the size of the lateraly placed trocars is?
5mm
What type of hernia is a combination of direct and indirect inguinal hernai?
pantaloon
A nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine is?
miller-abbott
Which is not a type of ureteral catheter tip?
pezzer
Malecot, Mushroom and Sump are types of?
surgical drains
Am embolus would be removed by a?
fogarty catheter
A tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
kittner
Two chest tubes are inserted after an open cardiovascular procedure the upper tube is used to evacuate?
air
What drain system is preffered for a radical neck dissection?
hemovac
The type of catheter used for infusion of chemotherapeutic agents into abdomen?
tenckhopp
Which dressing is ideal for neck procedures?
stent dressings
What layer of the three layer dressing absorbs the secretions of the wound?
intermediate
What can be utilized in abdominal surgical wounds that will require frequent dressing changes and prevent damage to skin?
montgomery straps
What type of drain is used or biliary system?
t-tube
Which is a type of passive drain?
penrose drain
What tube can be inserted and left in place for continual gastric aspiration?
sump tube
A suture that provides strength and non reactivity in tissues where stainless steel cannot be used?
polypropylene
What type of needle is used on tissue of the gastrointestinal tract?
taper
A characteristic of plain gut is that it absorbs in?
70 days
the space caused by separation of wound edges is called?
dead space
If tissue is approximated too tight it can cause?
ischemia
A protein substance that is the chief constituent of connective tissue is?
collagen
Which is the least reactive of al synthetic suture materials?
polypropylene
Ligatures are used to?
occlude lumens of blood vessels
A cutting needle would not be used on?
nerve tissue
Another name for polyglactin 910 is?
vicryl
What type of suture is surgilon?
nylon
Bolsters are used with retention sutures to?
prevent sutures from cutting into skin
Which suture is absorbable and offers extended wound support?
polydioxanone
The most widely used nonabsorbable suture is?
nylon
Which suture is a polyester fiber suture?
ethibond
A suture used in tendon repair?
polydioxanone
A microfibrillar collagen that is either supplied in a compacted nonwoven web form or in loose fibrous form is?
avitene
The EEA surgical stapler is used for?
anastomosis of proximal colon to rectum
A specially treated form of surgical gauze that is a hemostatic agent is?
surgicel
Absorbable suture that is preffered in suturing which tissue?
periosteum
Which suture is treated with a salt solution to decrease the rate of absorption?
chromic
Tissue trauma is best minimized using a?
swaged on suture
A characteristic of polyglycolic acid suture?
absorbable
A stick tie is a?
swaged needle
A type of suture that has a high tensile strength and support a wound indefinately is?
stainless steel
Type of needle point used on peritoneum and intestine is?
taper
They type of needle used on tendon?
cutting
The measure of weight required to break a suture is its?
tensile strength
Which suture would not be used in the presence of infection?
silk
A stapling device used to perorm low anterior anastomosis?
EEA
The mess that is not preffered in the presence of infection?
mersilene
The least inert of all the synthetic mesh is?
polyester fiber mesh
A curved tapered surgical needle is used mostly on?
bowel tissue or subcutaneous tissue
The substance that weakly hold wound edges together during the first five days of first intention healing is?
fibroblasts
The healing process in which a wound is purposely left open and allowed to heal from bottom up is called?
secondary intention
Which is not part of the inflammatory process?
vasocontriction
The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as?
evisceration
Reduced flow to an area is known as?
ischemia
Most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol water solution to maintain their?
pliability
Which factor would not decrease the healing capabilities of a patient?
early ambulation
The healing stage of first intention healing occurs from the?
5-14 day
Second intention healing involves?
wound granulation
The power source for all fiberoptic instruments and equipment is?
fiber optic light source
Orthpedic power equipment is run by?
nitrogen
What part is responsible for conducting the electrical current back to the electrosurgical unit?
inactive electrode
The proper pressure setting for the pneumatic tourniquet for an adult?
300-350 mm hg
Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during an edoscopic procedure?
Nd:Yag
Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques provides the best imaging of soft tissues?
MRI
Endometrial laser ablation is most commonly treated by?
Nd:Yag
How often should a tourniquet applied to an adult leg be periodically deflated?
every 1 1/2 hours
What is another name for the electro surgical unit's inactive electrode?
grounding pad
What part of the microscope provides magnification and resolving power?
optical lens system
What is the name of the latex rolled bandage used to exsanguinate an extemity before a tourniquet cuff is inflated?
esmarch
Reese and Brown are types of?
dermatomes
What laser is used to treat retinopathy?
argon
What is the proper range of intraoperative pressure when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic?
12-15mm hg
What term is used to describe the side to side action of a power saw blade?
oscillating
What type of electrosurgical unit does not require the use of a grounding pad?
bipolar
A patient brought into surgery has previously undergona right total hip arthroplasty. Where should the grounding pad be placed?
left thigh
At what pressure should the tourniquet be set for an adult thigh?
300-350
What device would the surgeon use to identify essential nerves during cranial procedures?
nerve stimulator
Which organism is not associated with wound infection?
treponema pallidum
The most common nosocomial infections are?
urinary infections with catheter use
A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of?
nosocomial infection
The correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?
discard pitcher; contaminated
When opening a sterile wrapper the unsterile person should first open the?
corner farthest from the body
Nosocomial refers to?
hospital acquired infections
Inanimate particles that can be vectors for infection are called?
fomite
A patient who underwent a broncoscopy is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa.Is traced to what type of infection?
cross-contaminated
The most prequent means by which infections are spread are?
direct contact with infected person
The recommended number of air exchanges per hour with in an operating room is?
20
The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at?
50%-60%
A ventilation system that proves a rapid air exchange in a undirectional flow is called?
laminar air flow
The control system in which feedback concerning changes in the body's internal environment causes a response that reverses changes is called?
negative feedback
The part of the brain responsible for controlling body temperature?
hypothalamus
The air pressure in OR should be?
positive
Three safety factors concerning the safety of the surgical tech and ionizing radiation are?
time, shielding, distance
Which filter is preffered for une in the OR for air exchanges?
high efficiency particulate air filters
The compression rate for one rescuer adult CPR is?
80-100 per minute
A common complication as a result of chest compressions during CPR is?
fracture ribs
The proper rate of providing ventilations to an adult victim during CPR is?
12
The ratio compressions to ventilations for infants and children during CPR?
5 to 1
When performing external chest compressions on an adult, the sternum should be pressed?
1 1/2 to 2 inches
What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record peri operative care?
JCAHO
Which specimen would not be placed in a preservation solution?
renal calculi
Anarobic specimens should?
not be refreigerated
Bullets that are considered a specimen should?
not be handed off with forceps
A tissure specimen for frozen section is sent to the pathology dept in a specimen container with?
no preservative
A commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimen is?
formalin
Which incision would be used to gain access to the spleen?
subcostal
A curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen used frequently in gynecological?
pfannenstiel
Which incision is preffered for abdominal surgery?
verticle midline
A lower oblique incision is known as?
inguinal
A hemostatic agent that must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves & instruments?
avitene
What type of scalpel cuts and coagulates tissue with the ue of heat?
hemostatic scalpel
Which hemostatic agent is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?
absorbable collagen
Which is an internal method of hemostasis?
ligature
Before closing a kidney incision the OR table is straightened to?
allow closure of wound
Which agent is applied to bleeding surface and edges of bone?
bone wax
Which is a nonadherent dressing?
adaptic
Which hemostatic agent is not recommended for use on a bone?
oxidized cellulose
Of the levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which is most applicable to the surgical patient?
physiological
A major concern when treating geriatric patients requiring additional emotional support by the surgical team is?
depression
When performing the preoperative shave, nicks and cuts are considered a clean wound ____min.
30 min
How many times is the patient identification confirmed before transporting from the ward room to the surgery dept.
5
When transporting a patient to OR. What direction should the gurney be situated?
feet first
When trasporting a patient to the OR, where should the safety straps be placed?
over the thighs
How should the patient be transported when using an elevator?
enter head first, exit feet first
The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?
do not transport patient;inform surgeon
The ultimate responsibility of obtainin the general consent belongs to?
surgeon
A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak english and does not fully understand what they signed. This constitutes liability case for?
assault and battery
A general consent form is to?
authorize all routine treatments or procedures
When using an armboard on the OR table, the most important measure is?
avoid hyperextention of the arm
Which procedure would be performed with the patient in the lateral position?
nephrectomy
The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is?
lateral
When perorming the skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted from the?
incision site to periphery using circular motion
The position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement is?
supine
The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia is?
fowler's
What position is commonly used for neurosurgical and some otorhinologic procedures?
fowler's
An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent?
cardiovascular complications
When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is?
prepped last or separately; it's considered contaminated
In the lateral chest position, a sand bag or padding is placed under the chest at axillary level to?
prevent pressure on lower arm
In the prone position the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent?
respiratory complication
Ulnar nerve damage could result from?
use of unpadded armboard
Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the OR table can caue pressure on the?
peroneal nerve
If patient is in supine postion, the circulator must always?
make sure ankles and legs are not crossed
What is not a requirement for the Kraske position?
arms are tucked at eh sides of the patient
When moving a patient from the lithotomy position legs should be?
lowered together
What is not required when a patient is placed in the prone position?
safety belt placed below the knee
The femoral nerve can be damaged if?
retractors are improperly placed during pelvic surgery
To avoid foot drop what should be done?
padd heels to prevent pressure from OR table
The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen of pelvis is:
trendelenburg
The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is?
reverse trendelenburg
In the prone position which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?
radial nerve
When positioning an anesthetized patient supporting the head and neck is the responsibility of the?
surgeon
When moving a patient with an unsplinted fracture protecting the fracture is the responsibility of the?
surgeon
Which procedure is performed with the patient in the trendelenburg position?
hysterectomy
A reverse trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment of a?
footboard
A small pad placed under a patients head in the supine position allows which muscle to relax?
strap muscle
Wha position is used for a cesarean section?
supine with bolster under left side
What device is used when placing a patient in the operative position for a thyroidectomy?
shoulder roll
What nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in fowler's position?
sciatic
What size of foley catheter is communly used for adults?
14 fr or 16fr
Which agents is commonly used when performing a patient skin prep of the eye?
triclosan
What area should be prepped last when performing a patient skin prep?
stoma
What is the name of the instrument part located between the box lock and finger rings?
shank
What is a self retaining retractor?
Gelpi
A retractor not found in a major orthopedic instrument set?
ragnell (for hand cases)
What type of instrument is a Lowman?
bone holding clamp
A Joseph elevator is used in?
rhinologic procedures
An Allen clamp is used for?
gastrointestinal procedures
Which suturing forceps are commonly used during ophthalmic procedures?
bishop-harmon
Which instrument would be found in a gastrointestinal set up?
doyen forceps
The secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of the?
Vagus Nerve (X)
The fifth cranial nerve is also called the?
Trigeminal Nerve(V)
The cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the?
Hypoglossal (XII)