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196 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
While operating the TDAFW Pump for STS AL-103, TURBINE DRIVEN AUX FW PUMP IN SERVICE PUMP TEST, annunciator 128C, TD AUX FEED PUMP BEARING OIL TEMPERATURE HIGH alarms.What is NOT a possible cause of the alarm? A. Low bearing oil reserve level.B. Clogged lube oil filter, FFC02.C. Closed valve in cooling lines to lube oil cooler, EFC02.D. Closing recirculation valve CST (AL V-052).
C
On MCB Panel RL005 the red light for TDAFW Pump, FCZL-312DA, "AFP TURB MECH TRIP" is "ENERGIZED".What is causing this condition? A. Mechanical Overspeed Device is RESET.B. Electrical Overspeed Device is TRIPPED.C. Mechanical Overspeed Device is TRIPPED.D. Electrical Overspeed Device is RESET.
C
The unit as at 100% RTP. The Turbine AFW pump is inoperable for work on one of the two steam supply valves. The turbine driven AFW pump was declared inoperable at 0700 on 8/5.What are the required TS Actions? A. Be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.B. Restore AFW train to OPERABLE within 10 days.C. Restore the steam supply valve to OPERABLE within 7 days.D. Restore AFW train to OPERABLE within 72 hours.
C
The unit is at 100% RTP. The Turbine AFW pump is inoperable for work on one steam supply valve. The turbine driven AFW pump was declared inoperable at 0700 on 8/5.At 1200 on 8/5 "A" motor driven AFW (MDAFW) pump is found to be inoperable.What are the required TS Actions? A. Be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.B. Restore "A" MDAFW train to OPERABLE within 72 hours and be in Mode 3 within 6 hours.C. Restore "A" MDAFW train to OPERABLE within 72 hours and the steam supply valve within 7 days.D. Be in Mode 3 within 6 hours, and restore "A" MDAFW train to OPERABLE within 72 hours and the steam supply valve within 7 days.
D
The operating crew is performing STS AL-103 (TDAFW Pump Inservice Pump Test). At step 8.11.6 turbine speed is reported to the Control Room to be 1100 rpm as read on the hand held tachometer.Which of the following correctly describes the ramifications of this report? A. The governor valve has failed to stroke from its initially closed position to the demanded position.B. This is normal for a non-automatic start and the operator must now raise speed manually using FC HIK-313A (AFP TURB SPEED GOV CTRL).C. Limit switch failure (LS-6) has prevented the ramp generator from raising speed automatically.D. Proceed with test and have IC personnel perform INC-S-241 "TURBINE DRIVEN AUX SPEED CHECK" after collection of pump performance data.
C
Wolf Creek is operating at 70% RTP when the normal feeder breaker to NB01 trips open. The diesel generator starts and energizes the bus.What is the current status of the AFW system in this situation? A. AFW flow will be indicated to all four steam generators.B. Only Train "A" AFW pump is running with flow to SGs "B" and "C".C. Train "A" AFW pump is running, but there is no indicated SG AFW flow.D. Both MDAFWPs will have started and are feeding their respective SGs.
A
> A. Trip of the running Main Feed Pump while at 6% Turbine powerB. Low Instrument air system pressure due to a piping ruptureC. Loss of power to bus NB01D. Safety Injection Signal from Lo Pressurizer pressure
C
Which of the following describes the result of an Aux Feed Pump Low Suction Pressure signal coincident with an Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal (AFAS)? A. Service Water to ESW supply and return valves close, and the UHS return valves open.B. An open signal is sent to the AFW Pump Suction valves from the CST.C. A Component Cooling Water Pump in each train starts.D. Service Water to Essential Service Water (ESW) supply valves close.
D
The unit is in MODE 3 following a reactor trip. The turbine driven AFW pump was manually tripped from the Control Room due to an indicated low suction pressure after starting.Which one of the following describes the action required by the local operator to open TDAFW Pump Trip & Throttle Valve (FC HV-312)? A. After the latch is engaged, the handwheel is rotated counter-clockwise until the valve is fully openB. The handwheel is rotated clockwise until the latch mechanism disengagesC. The latch mechanism is fully engaged by extending the rod to the leftD. The handwheel is rotated counter-clockwise until the clutch lever pops up indicating handwheel is in manual
A
A plant startup is in progress per GEN 00-003.The reactor is at 9% power with a Main Feedwater Pump in service.While rolling the Main Turbine, S/G level control malfunctions result in actual NR level in "A" S/G exceeding 78%.Which automatic actions would occur? A. Both motor driven AFW pumps will immediately start.B. All AFW pumps will start following a time delay.C. All AFW pumps will immediately start.D. Both motor driven AFW pumps will start following a time delay.
A
AFW supply line flow transmitter AL FT-2 failed low coincident with an AFW actuation.How would this condition affect AL HV-7 (SG A MD AFP AFW REG VLV CTRL) control? A. Respond in auto or manual.B. Not respond in auto or manual.C. Go full open, throttle in manual only.D. Go closed, throttle in manual only.
A
The Auxiliary Feedwater System is designed to ensure the RCS can be cooled down to less than _________ from normal operating conditions in the event of a ________________. A. 5000F / reactor and turbine tripB. 3500F / safety injection signalC. 5000F / loss of all main feedwater pumpsD. 3500 F / loss of off-site power
D
When would Auxiliary Feedwater Pump suction automatically line up to the Essential Service Water System? A. Motor Driven AFW Pumps are started by the LOCA Sequencer and indicated AFW suction pressure drops below 6.9 psig.B. Both Main Feedwater Pumps trip while at 50% power and a Condensate Storage Tank LO-LO LEVEL 1 in alarm.C. Both Main Feedwater Pumps trip while at 50% power and indicated AFW suction pressure drops to below 2.6 psig.D. Motor Driven AFW Pumps are started by the LOCA Sequencer and Condensate Storage Tank LO-LO LEVEL 2 in alarm.
C
Which one of the following will start Motor Driven AFW Pump "B" with RP HIS-2 "Control Room Isolation Transfer Switch", at the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel in the ISOLATE position? A. Pump Breaker handswitchB. 2/4 lo-lo S/G levelsC. LOCA sequencerD. Main Control Board Handswitch
A
The plant is being controlled from the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel due to a Control Room fire.The following actions have occurred:* Only the transfer of controls at the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel has been completed per procedure.* The TDAFW pump is running and maintaining all steam generators at a normal level of 50%.* Steam Generators have never decreased below 30% during the transient.Steam Generators "A", "B", and "C" narrow range levels now decrease to less than 23%.What automatic actions, if any, will be the result of this condition? A. MDAFW Pump Discharge valve AL HV-5 goes full open.B. No effect on AFW System pump or valve controls.C. MDAFW Pump "A" only automatically starts.D. MDAFW Pump "A" and "B" automatically start.
C
The Motor Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps are powered from the ________________ buses. A. PB01/PG02B. NB01/NB02C. PB01/PB02D. NG01/NG02
B
What is a difference between the "A" MDAFW Pump and the "B" MDAFW Pump? A. "B" MDAFW pump can be lined up to feed all of the S/Gs and the "A" MDAFW pump cannot.B. "B" MDAFW pump can be electrically isolated from the Control Room at the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel.C. Capacity of the "B" MDAFW pump is slightly greater than that of the "A" MDAFW Pump.D. "B" MDAFW pump receives seal water from an external source and "A" MDAFW pump does not.
B
Which of the following is the required minimum recirculation flow for each Motor Driven AFW Pump? A. 120 gpmB. 125 gpmC. 50 gpmD. 75 gpm
D
The MDAFW pumps will automatically trip on: A. underfrequency and load shedB. load shed and phase overcurrentC. overload and overspeedD. load shed and low suction pressure
B
*******See Comments BEFORE using this question!!!*****The plant is in Mode 3 preparing to do a reactor startup. Both Motor Driven Aux Feed Pumps are running and supplying 25,000 lbm/hr to each Steam Generator.What, if any, administrative limits are imposed for this flow rate? A. You should only operate for two hours in a 24 hour period at this flow rate.B. You should only operate for five hours in a 24 hour period at this flow rate.C. One Aux Feed Pump should be stopped and the other one lined up to feed all 4 Steam Generators.D. There are no restrictions at this flow rate.
D
Which signal starts the "A" motor driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump without causing an AFAS-M? A. Trip of both Main Feed PumpsB. Shutdown SequencerC. AMSACD. MSLIS
B
One purpose of the "Smart Valves" feature in the Auxiliary Feedwater System is to ____________________________. A. limit Motor Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump runout during conditions of low S/G pressure.B. ensure only one Auxiliary Feedwater Pump feeds a S/G at a timeC. automatically maintain S/G level at the desired levelD. prevent Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump cavitation
A
The Motor Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump Discharge Valves are powered from __________ . A. NG04C/NG01BB. NK04/NK01C. PK01/PK04D. PG04/PG01
A
Which one of the following describes the Flow Control Valves for the Motor Driven AFW Pumps? A. The valves are air operated and throttle close automatically at high flow rates to limit containment pressure increase caused by steam line rupture in containment.B. The valves are motor operated and throttle to limit runout flow under all secondary pressure conditions.C. The valves are motor operated and throttle closed automatically at high flow rates to limit containment pressure increases caused by a steam line rupture in containment.D. The valves are air operated and throttle close to limit runout flow under all secondary side pressure conditions.
B
The plant is currently at 100% Reactor Power.* The normal feeder breaker to NB01 opens, then* NE01 ("A" EDG) starts and re-energizes NB01* All systems operate as designedThe crew's only action was to reduce reactor power to 100%.What is the position of the MDAFWP discharge valves (smart valves)? A. All smart valves remain open.B. All smart valves throttle close.C. Only "D" S/G smart valve remains open.D. Only "A" S/G smart valve remains open.
D
Which of the following limits the amount of flow an auxiliary feedwater pump will deliver through a break in the discharge line to the SG? A. Flow orifices in the discharge line to the S/GB. Trip to auto feature of the flow control valve on high flowC. AFP discharge valve auto closure on high flow with low pressureD. Automatic closure of the flow control valves on low pressure.
A
Valves AL HV- 6,8,10 & 12 (Turbine Driven Aux Feedwater Discharge valves), have air accumulators to permit the valves to be: A. closed when there is a LOCA in conjunction with a service air failureB. opened when there is a loss of feed in conjunction with an service air failureC. closed when there is a secondary system break in conjunction with an instrument air failureD. opened when there is a secondary system break in conjunction with an instrument air failure
C
The Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump Discharge Valves are normally powered by ____________________. A. Instrument air; backup is from nitrogenB. Nitrogen; backup is from instrument airC. Instrument air; backup is from service airD. Nitrogen; backup is from service air
A
Which one of the following is indicated when the red trip light (FC ZL-312DA) is lit on the Main Control Board panel RL005 for the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump? A. Mechanical overspeed device is RESET.B. Electrical overspeed device is RESET.C. Mechanical overspeed trip device is TRIPPED.D. Electrical overspeed device is TRIPPED.
C
The Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump has tripped on mechanical overspeed.Which actions are necessary to reset the trip? A. Take the Trip and Throttle Valve to "CLOSE" and then "OPEN" at the Main Control Board.B. Take the Trip and Throttle Valve to "CLOSE" and then "OPEN" at local control panel FC-219.C. The overspeed trip reach-rod must be reset at the Trip and Throttle Valve.D. Close the Main Steam supplies to the Turbine.
C
While the Turbine Driven AFW pump is in standby, the _______________________ is open and the _______________________ are closed. A. Trip and Throttle Valve / Main Steam Supply valvesB. Trip and Throttle Valve / Main Steam Supply bypass valvesC. Governor valve / Main Steam Supply bypass valvesD. Governor Valve / Main Steam supply valves
D
Assume the Turbine Driven AFW pump is in standby, when an automatic start signal actuates.How does the Trip and Throttle Valve (TTV) respond to the automatic start? A. Drives the motor in the close direction until the trip pawl engages the trip latch. Then the motor reverses direction and opens the valve.B. Engages the trip pawl with the trip latch via a solenoid. Then the motor energizes in the open direction to open the valve.C. Ramps open until the trip pawl engages the trip latch. Then the electrical trip solenoid engages to maintain the trip latch engaged.D. Deenergizes the electric trip solenoid to engage the trip pawl with the trip latch. Then the motor drives the valve in the open direction to open the valve.
A
When the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump is standing by for an automatic start signal, the Limitorque Operator for the Trip and Throttle Valve actuator is in the 90% _____________ position, and the trip latch is _________________. A. Open / disengagedB. Closed / disengagedC. Closed / engagedD. Open / engaged
B
Steam can be supplied to the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump from _____________ for testing. A. Auxiliary SteamB. Extraction SteamC. Reheat SteamD. Gland Sealing Steam
A
The plant is in Hot Standby when an Auxiliary Feedwater actuation signal-Turbine (AFAS-T) occurs. The AFAS-T signal causes the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump ______________________. A. to start onlyB. to start, its discharge valves to open, and its CST suction valve to openC. to start, its discharge valves to open, its CST suction valve to open, and both Essential Service Water Pumps to startD. to start and discharge valves to open
A
Which one of the following will generate an Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal - Turbine (AFAS-T)? A. 1/4 S/Gs Lo-Lo levelB. Both Main Feedwater Pumps tripC. LOCA or Shutdown Sequencer actuationD. NB02 bus undervoltage
D
Select one of the following that shows the correct speed settings on the TDAFWP.Idle Speed / Normal Operating Speed / Electrical Overspeed A. 1500 rpm / 3850 rpm / 4235 rpmB. 1100 rpm / 3550 rpm / 4435 rpmC. 1100 rpm / 3850 rpm / 4235 rpmD. 1500 rpm / 3550 rpm / 4435 rpm
C
Which of the following conditions will result in the automatic start of both the Motor Driven and the Turbine Driven AFW Pumps? A. Two of Four Low-Low levels in one of four S/Gs.B. Tripping of both Main Feedwater Pumps.C. Interruption of power to both NB busses.D. SI Signal.
C
When PAL02 (turbine driven) Aux feed pump is started, steam supply valves (AB HV-5/6) are opened prior to the TRIP/THROTTLE (FC HV-312) valve opening.Why is this sequence necessary? A. Air operated steam supply valves cannot open with a large differential pressure across them.B. It prevents turbine overspeed.C. The TRIP/THROTTLE valve is interlocked to prevent opening if one steam supply valve is open.D. It prevents inadvertently over feeding steam generators.
B
Surveillance testing is in progress with all AFW controls transferred to the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel using the Control Room Isolation Transfer Switches. The reactor then trips and all four steam generator levels decrease to off-scale low on the narrow range level indicators. The Turbine Driven AFW pump was not running prior to the trip.Which one of the following explains how the TDAFW pump can be started? A. Manually from the Main Control Board at any time.B. Automatically when the operator opens the normal supply breaker to Bus NB01 or NB02.C. Manually from the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel.D. Automatically on steam generator low-low level in any 2 steam generators.
C
The Auxiliary Feedwater to S/G delta-temperature should be maintained less than _________0F while feeding S/Gs with Auxiliary Feedwater. A. 200B. 150C. 250D. 100
C
It has been decided to cross-tie the MDAFW Pump discharge so that "B" MDAFW Pump can supply feedwater to all four S/Gs. What restrictions apply if this is to be done? A. MDAFW flow must be maintained >227,500 lbm/hr.B. The Main Feedwater System must be isolated.C. The plant cannot be in MODES 1-3.D. The "A" MDAFW Pump must be in "Pull-to-Lock".
C
You have been informed of the following conditions:* The Plant is operating at 44% power.* Main Feedwater is supplying S/Gs* No AFW Pumps are running* "A" MDAFP discharge temperature is 1930F* "B" MDAFP discharge temperature is 4050F* The TDAFP discharge Temperature is 1350FBased on these conditions, the _____ MDAFP should be operated in recirculation mode (without first venting the pump) until its discharge temperature is <1000F; and the ______________________________________________________________________. A. "B" / "A" MDAFP should be placed in pull-to-lock (PTL) in preparation for venting. Maintenance is not required to take vibration readings on the "B" MDAFP.B. "A" / "B" MDAFP should be placed in pull-to-lock (PTL) in preparation for venting. Maintenance should take vibration readings on the "B" MDAFP.C. "A" / "B" MDAFP should be placed in pull-to-lock (PTL) in preparation for venting. Maintenance is not required to take vibration readings on the "B" MDAFP.D. "B" / "A" MDAFP should be placed in pull-to-lock (PTL) in preparation for venting. Maintenance should take vibration readings on the "B" MDAFP.
B
According to SYS AL-400 "AFP and Piping Cooldown", how is an Auxiliary Feedwater Pump cooled down if its discharge temperature is 1810F, and slowly increasing due to discharge check valve leakage? A. Run the pump on recirculationB. Isolate and drain water from the pumpC. Jog the pump repeatedlyD. Vent the pump
A
How many AFW Pumps are required to be operable in Mode 3? A. 1B. 3C. 0D. 2
B
With the plant operating at 100% RTP, it is determined that all three Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps (AFPs) are inoperable. Because NO AFPs are operable, what condition should the plant be in? A. Immediately reduce power and take action to restore at least one of the AFP to operable status prior to entering Mode 2.B. Placed in Hot Standby within 1 hour.C. Maintained at power and action taken to restore at least one of the AFP to operable status.D. Tripped and the startup Aux Feedwater Pump started to maintain S/G levels.
C
Monthly surveillance test, STS AL-101, MOTOR DRIVEN AUX FW PUMP A INSERVICE PUMP TEST, was performed satisfactorily by 1200 hours on the following dates:June 30August 1September 5October 10What is the status of operability for the dates given? A. Operable the entire period.B. Inoperable at 0600 on September 5.C. Inoperable at 2400 on July 31.D. Inoperable at 0600 on October 9.
A
Consider each of the following cases separately.Case 1 The "A" EDG is out of service.Case 2 The Aux Feed Pump Room Cooler (SGF092A) is out of service.What is the operability of "A" MDAFP in each of the listed cases? A. The "A" MDAFP is operable is Case 1 but inoperable in Case 2.B. The "A" MDAFP is operable in both cases.C. The "A" MDAFP is inoperable in Case 1 but operable in Case 2.D. The "A" MDAFP is inoperable in both cases.
A
The plant is at 5570F and 2235 psig preparing to startup when AB HV-005, B Main Steam Supply to the TDAFP, is discovered inoperable.What Mode change restrictions, if any, apply? A. LCO 3.0.4 provides exclusion for the TDAFP Mode change restrictions apply.B. No restrictions apply.C. Mode 2 cannot be entered until the valve is repaired.D. AB HV-006, "C" Main Steam Supply to the TDAFP, must be locked open before changing Modes.
C
Which of the following is the RCS temperature above which the Auxiliary Feedwater System is required to be operable? A. 2500FB. 4250FC. 3000FD. 3500F
D
While performing STS CR-001 at 100% power the RO records TD AFW Pump discharge temperature is 1950F and reports that it is increasing.What action is required? A. Restore the pump to operable status within 6 hours or be HOT STANDBY within the next 6 hours.B. The pump should be locally tripped to prevent auto start and declared inoperable until the temperature is reduced to normal.C. Start the pump to reduce the temperature, 25,000 lbm/hr flow should be established to any S/G with a suspected leaking check valve.D. Verify the operability of both EDGs within two hours.
C
With the plant in Mode 2 a fire occurred in the Control Room. After the crew tripped the reactor and transferred controls to the Auxiliary Shutdown Panel (ASP) all four S/G levels drop off-scale low on Narrow Range. The Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feed Pump (TDAFP) was NOT running PRIOR to the trip. How will the TDAFW Pump be started? A. Automatically on low-low S/G level in two S/Gs.B. Automatically when the operator deenergizes NB01 or NB02.C. Manually from the ASP.D. Manually from the MCB.
C
Which Loops are the steam supply to the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump? A. Loops B & DB. Loops A & DC. Loops A & CD. Loops B & C
D
At 100% power operation an inadvertent SIS causes a Reactor Trip and LOCA Sequencer actuation and "B" MDAFW Pump fails to start at step 6 because of a faulty contact in the LOCA Sequencer.How would the MDAFP get started? A. Automatically, after the LOCA Sequencer had timed out.B. Automatically, when AMSAC actuates.C. Automatically, if an undervoltage occurs on NB02.D. Manually
D
> A. Trip of the running Main Feed Pump while at 6% Turbine powerB. Low Instrument air system pressure due to a piping ruptureC. Loss of power to bus NB01D. Safety Injection Signal from Lo Pressurizer pressure
C
Following a Safety Injection Signal (SIS), what describes the position of the Service Water and Essential Service Water systems supply and return cross-connect valves (EF HV-23, 24, 25, 26 and EF HV-39, 40, 41, 42)? A. All supply valves remain open, return valves close.B. These valves are not affected by a SIS.C. All supply and return valves close.D. All supply valves close, return valves remain open.
C
A plant startup is in progress per GEN 00-003.The reactor is at 9% power with a Main Feedwater Pump in service.While rolling the Main Turbine, S/G level control malfunctions result in actual NR level in "A" S/G exceeding 78%.Which automatic actions would occur? A. Both motor driven AFW pumps will immediately start.B. All AFW pumps will start following a time delay.C. All AFW pumps will immediately start.D. Both motor driven AFW pumps will start following a time delay.
A
What does maintaining the minimum Condensate Storage Tank volume required by Technical Specifications ensure? A. Hot Shutdown for 6 hours followed by a controlled cooldown to RHR entry conditions.B. Hot Standby for 6 hours followed by a controlled cooldown to RHR entry conditions.C. Hot Standby for 4 hours followed by a controlled cooldown to RHR entry conditions.D. Hot Shutdown for 4 hours followed by a controlled cooldown to Cold Shutdown.
C
Which of the following describes the normal lineup of the Closed Cooling Water System during normal plant operation? A. Both pumps running with one heat exchanger in service.B. Both pumps running with both heat exchangers in service.C. One pump running with both heat exchangers in service.D. One pump running with one heat exchanger in service.
D
Which of the following statements describes a portion of the Closed Cooling Water System? A. Two series positive displacement pumps followed by a single heat exchanger.B. Two parallel centrifugal pumps followed by two parallel heat exchangers.C. A single centrifugal pump followed by a single heat exchanger.D. Two parallel centrifugal pumps followed by two series heat exchangers.
B
The Closed Cooling Water System is used to provide cooling water to which components of the Main Generator exciter? A. BearingsB. Air CoolersC. BrushesD. Rectifiers
B
Which of the following supplies make-up to the Closed Cooling Water System surge tank? A. Potable Water SystemB. Demineralized Water SystemC. Service Water SystemD. Fire Protection Water Supply System
B
Which of the following is the chemical used in the Closed Cooling Water System to inhibit corrosion of copper metals? A. Nalco 79LB. Nalco 7330C. Sodium MolybdateD. Sodium Tolytriazole
D
When the bypass valve around the Closed Cooling Water System Chemical Addition Tank is open, the flow path through the valve is from _____________________ to ______________________, during normal operations. A. the surge tank / the pump dischargeB. the pump discharge / the surge tankC. the heat exchanger outlet / the surge tankD. the loads return line / the pump suction
B
Initial Conditions:* Plant is at 100% reactor power* One Closed Cooling Water pump is running, with one heat exchanger in service* Alarm "Alternator Air Temp High" has just been received at the local panelWhich of the following is the probable cause of the alarm? A. Cooling flow to the heat exchanger has been increased.B. Air to the Closed Cooling Water heat exchanger bypass valve has been lost.C. Exciter air cooler temperature control valve setpoint has been increased.D. Closed Cooling Water System pump discharge flow has decreased to 350 gpm.
C
Which of the following describe the location of the hand-switches used to control the operation of the Closed Cooling Water System pumps? A. Panel HF-133B. Panel AK-182C. Main Control BoardD. On support stanchions by the pumps
C
The temperature of the Closed Cooling Water System is regulated by a temperature control valve that regulates the flow through the Closed Cooling Water Heat Exchanger.Which of the following temperatures is sensed and used as an input to the temperature control valve? A. Circulating WaterB. Service WaterC. Essential Service WaterD. Closed Cooling Water
D
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of the Closed Cooling Water System? A. The standby pump starts automatically on high surge tank level.B. The standby pump automatically starts on low flow.C. Both pumps automatically trip on high surge tank level.D. Thermal overloads and ground fault devices only provide pump protection.
D
The Closed Cooling Water System serves to remove and dissipate heat from which of the following components? A. Steam Generator Recirculation Pump oil coolersB. Degassified Water Vacuum PumpsC. Main Generator Hydrogen CoolersD. Main Generator output bushings
B
Level in the Closed Cooling Water System surge tank is maintained: A. by making up from the Demineralized water System and by a dump valve arrangement both controlled by their associated level switch.B. by automatically dumping excess water to the Turbine Building drain system via an overflow pipe internal to the Closed Cooling Water Surge Tank.C. by automatically making up for system leakage from the Reactor Makeup Water System via a float controlled globe valve.D. by automatically making up for system leakage from the Demineralized Water System via a lever actuated control valve.
D
The plant is at 100% power when the Turbine Watch reports the inlet piping to the Iso-phase Bus Duct Cooling heat exchanger is ruptured. NPIS computer alarms show the Closed Cooling Water Surge Tank is LOW.What action should the crew take? A. Shutdown the plant within 30 minutesB. Place Bus Duct Cooling in Emergency Operation and secure Closed Cooling Water pumps until leak is isolatedC. Verify makeup to Surge tank open and isolate the leakD. Isolate the leak and place Bus Duct Cooling in Emergency Operation
A
What equipment is covered under AP 21E-001, CLEARANCE ORDERS? A. All equipment in the Owner Controlled Area.B. Only Owner Controlled Area equipment for which Operations is responsible.C. All power block and site related equipment.D. Only Power Block equipment for which Operations is responsible.
D
The TSC HVAC unit has been tagged out in accordance with AP 21E-001, Clearance Orders, and the Shift Manager has released the unit.Prior to the commencement of work, who else must sign? A. Tagging Authority, Clearance Order HolderB. Clearance Order Holder, Work Order HolderC. The craft?s supervisor, Shift Manager/Control Room SupervisorD. Shift Manager/Control Room Supervisor, Work Order Holder
B
A Clearance Order for work requiring isolation of a "pressure vessel or piping" shall also include provisions for which other safety concerns? A. Excessive external cooling for pressurized thermal shock concerns.B. Accommodation of thermal expansion/contraction.C. Double isolation of high pressure systems for personal protection.D. Prevention of foreign material introduction which could block flow paths.
B
The plant is Mode 1 and a valve inside containment is authorized a Local Control tag for a planned maintenance activity. How will the tag will be placed? A. Local Control Holder will place a red seal on the component to be tagged and then the tag will be placed on the board outside containment.B. Operations personnel must place the Local Control tag on the valve authorized for manipulation.C. Operations personnel must place a red seal on the component to be tagged and the tag will be placed on the board outside containment.D. The Local Control Holder will place the Local Control tag on the valve authorized for manipulation.
D
What is a valid statement concerning the Do Not Operate tagging of a 480 VAC molded case Motor Control Center (MCC) breaker? A. The breaker must be padlocked opened when tagged.B. The Tagging Authority must independently verify breaker status when the tags are placed.C. A 480 VAC Qualified Verifier must perform a voltage check to verify that breaker contacts are open.D. The Clearance Order must include a visible break on the power supply.
C
In accordance with AP 21E-001, CLEARANCE ORDERS, independent verification may be accomplished by observing what? A. Valve position indication available on the Main Control Board is positive and directly observed.B. Tagger placing the tag on the correct component.C. Tagged components are done in sequential order.D. Valve position indication lights are de-energized indicating valve is closed.
A
Which individual has the ultimate responsibility for isolation or restoration of equipment through the proper use of a Clearance Order? A. Manager OperationsB. Work Group SupervisorC. Tagging AuthorityD. Shift Manager/Designated SRO
D
What is required when tagging out a valve with a Clearance Order? A. All vent and drain valves opened for system draining shall be Do Not Operate tagged.B. The valve itself should be tagged on valves with reach rods.C. The Control Room handswitch should be tagged even if the breaker is tagged open for a motor operated valve.D. A relief valve shall never be tagged as a boundary valve on a clearance.
C
Which is valid concerning independent verification for Clearance Orders? A. Independent verification requires both Safety Taggers to be present when a component is repositioned.B. Independent verification is only required when placing tags for a Clearance Order.C. Independent verification is required when restoring non-safety related components inside Containment.D. Independent verification may be performed by observation of positive plant indication response.
D
There are a number of people required to verify or validate that DNO tags are properly hung in the field.Who is unaffected by this requirement? A. Safety tagger who hangs the tag.B. Safety tagger who verifies the tag.C. Tagging AuthorityD. Job Lead
C
How are systems/components/equipment restored to service in accordance with AP 21E-001, CLEARANCE ORDERS? A. An independent verifier will independently verify each tag removed and equipment placed in the desired condition. This independent verification must be done in sequential order.B. Restoration of components shall be limited to those components listed on the Clearance Order.C. Restoration shall NOT begin until all grounds are removed, all Clearance Order Holders have released the clearance, and the SM/CRS has determined that the equipment is ready for service.D. Removal of tags and restoration of equipment listed on the Clearance Order may be performed by qualified safety taggers. Removal of tags does not include the red seals for components inside Containment.
C
At 100% power, "A" CCP Room Cooler is being Clearance tagged for repairs. When is the "A" CCP declared inoperable? A. After room temperature exceeds 149 degrees F.B. As soon as the unit is de-energized for the clearance.C. Within 4 hours of the Clearance being authorized.D. When room temperature exceeds 119 degrees F.
B
You have been tasked with performing Tagging Authority duties for a clearance order that was prepared in accordance with AP 21E-001, Clearance Orders. Which list below contains only those buildings/systems that fall under the controls of this specific procedure?a. Service Water in CWSH f. Supply bkr for Shop Bldg gantry craneb. Gen output Bkr 345-60 g. Supply bkr for Admin Bldg HVACc. Lake blowdown valve h. Vent fans in the Warehoused. Lighting at Main Gate North i. Fire Protection yard isolation valvee. TB Sump pmp supply bkr j. Wastewater treatment basin A mixer A. a, b, gB. b, c, hC. b, c, iD. d, i, j
C
Procedure AP 21F-001, EQUIPMENT OUT-OF-SERVICE CONTROL, provides system status tracking for equipment removed from service.Would a Reactor Coolant Filter changeout be tracked using this system? A. No, filters are exempt.B. No, filters are covered under GEN 00-30, SOLID RADWASTE FILTER CHANGE.C. Yes, removing major equipment from service requires an entry.D. Yes, the filter is covered by Technical Specifications.
A
Which kind of action would require an entry in the Equipment Out-Of-Service Log (E.O.L)? A. The "C" Component Cooling Water Pump handswitch is placed in pull-to-lock for surveillance testing.B. The "B" Heater Drain Pump is tagged out to repair the discharge level control valve.C. Containment Atmosphere Process Radiation Monitor, GT RE-31, is disabled for a particulate filter replacement.D. The Fuel Building Cask Handling Crane is tagged out for scheduled breaker Maintenance.
B
Which statement concerning Equipment Out-of-Service Log (E.O.L.) entries is valid? A. Work Request, Temporary Modification, or other applicable document number should be included in the E.O.L. entry?B. An entry in the E.O.L. shall be made for all Technical Specification equipment restored by an operating procedure.C. An entry in the control Room log is required if an entry is made in the E.O.L., concerning a short term Limiting Condition for Operation for surveillance testing.D. The Superintendent Operations shall review the E.O.L. daily.
A
Who ensures the Instrument Out-of-Service Log is maintained per AP 21I-001, EQUIPMENT OUT-OF-SERVICE CONTROL? A. I & E ManagerB. Maintenance SupervisorC. Shift Manager/CRSD. Reactor Operator
C
LF FV-95, CTMT NORM SUMPS TO FDT INSIDE CTMT ISO, is tagged shut to ensure containment integrity during leak rate testing.What describes the minimum required log entries? A. EOL and Call Supervisor LogB. EOL and Radwaste LogC. Control Room Log onlyD. EOL and Control Room Log
D
In what situation would the Shift Manager be REQUIRED to make an entry in the Equipment Out of Service Log? A. The unit is in Mode 3 and "B" RMW Pump is removed from service for bearing replacement.B. The unit is in Mode 5 and "A" EDG is removed from service to replace its turbocharger.C. The unit is in Mode 1 and "A" MDAFW Pump is removed from service to perform its STS.D. The unit is in Mode 1 and GT RE-21B is removed from service to replace a filter.
B
The crew is performing a checklist procedure and find a locked valve in the power block which is not listed in AP 21G-001, CONTROL OF LOCKED COMPONENT STATUS.Can this valve be locked differently than valves listed in the AP procedure? A. No, there are no provisions to use different locking schemes in the power block, therefore it is necessary to treat it the same.B. Yes, valves in checklists are outside the scope of the procedure and therefore control is at the discretion of the Shift Manager.C. No, although it is outside the scope of the AP, the valve should be treated the same.D. Yes, the valve is not controlled by any other means than the checklist and there are no requirement for control means delineated in CKL's.
C
Which is the requirement when locked valves are repositioned by a Clearance Order? A. The restoration section must specify the locked position of the valve.B. The valve must be entered into the Log of Locked Component Manipulations.C. The Manager Operations must approve the Clearance Order.D. The valve must be clearly identified on the Clearance Order as to which attachment the valve is contained within.
A
What kind of manipulation is required to be entered in AP 21G-001, CONTROL OF LOCKED COMPONENT STATUS log? A. A valve locked closed per a step in an approved test procedure.B. A valve required to be locked by a system checklist is unlocked.C. A manual isolation valve required to be locked open to meet ASME code position is changed.D. A breaker required to be locked open is open as required by a Clearance Order with restoration to normal status.
C
Which statement applies to valves listed in AP 21G-001, Control of Locked Component Status"? A. The Manager Operations can exempt any valve from the procedure.B. The Log of Locked Component Manipulations for valves listed in locked component list for Modes 1-4 need not be maintained in Modes 5 or 6.C. Valves repositioned by an approved test or procedure that return the system back to normal are required to be entered in the Log of Locked Component Manipulations.D. For locked throttle valves, independent verification is required.
B
What is the proper method for verifying the position of a LOCKED OPEN valve that is listed in the Log of Locked Component Manipulations? A. Fully close and then reopen the valve until resistance is felt on the handwheel.B. Turn the handwheel in the open direction to fully backseat the valve.C. Attempt to move the handwheel or operator in the closed direction.D. Observe the position of the valve stem or local indicator.
C
What is the purpose of the EHC skid accumulators? A. Provide a storage volume for newly added EHC fluid.B. Provide the normal motive force to the Emergency Trip System.C. Provide an immediate source of high pressure EHC fluid to system to compensate for rapid pressure transients.D. Provide high pressure nitrogen to the Main Turbine Control Valve actuators to trip the turbine.
C
Why are heaters provided on the EHC skid? A. Maintain the reservoir and EHC fluid temperature at or greater than 85 degrees F.B. Maintain the Fuller's Earth Filters at service temperature.C. Maintain the operating pump at the same temperature as the fluid.D. Maintain the pressure in the accumulators above 700 psig.
A
Hydraulic fluid is added to the EHC System reservoir ___________________________________. A. by pouring the fluid in through the reservoir breatherB. only when the EHC skid is securedC. with the skid in operationD. only when the Turbine Control Valves are closed
C
How does the Main Turbine Electrohydraulic Control System Emergency Trip System (ETS) function? A. Switches to electronic operation upon a Turbine Trip Signal and sends an electronic signal to each Turbine Flow Control Valve to dump its EHC fluid.B. Remains pressurized at all times to control the Turbine Flow Control Valves from full open operation to full closed upon a Turbine Trip Signal.C. Allows the EHC System to position the Turbine Flow Control Valves when pressurized and rapidly closing the Turbine Flow Control Valves when depressurized.D. Short circuits EHC fluid if pressurized to cause rapid closure of the Turbine Flow Control Valves.
C
Which condition or action will actuate the EHC "HOLD" circuit? A. Transferring from Load Set to the Load Limiter.B. Tref-Tavg mismatch of 100F (Tref>Tavg) at 60% Generator output.C. Stage Pressure Feedback is selected at EHC Panel.D. RCS Tavg is 5520F with Generator Breakers closed.
D
Where does the seal oil in the Hydrogen Detraining Section normally flow to after passing through the Generator Seal Oil System float trap? A. Vacuum Tank.B. Generator Liquid Detector.C. Auxiliary Detraining Section.D. Generator shaft seals.
C
Where is the Seal Oil System Auxiliary Detraining Section vented? A. Main Generator casingB. Seal Oil System Vacuum TankC. Generator liquid detectorD. Roof of the Turbine Building.
D
The unit is at 100% power when the thermal overloads on the Main Seal Oil Pump (MSOP) trip the breaker.What is the consequence of this condition? A. The Emergency Seal Oil pump starts on low oil flow.B. The Seal Oil Vacuum pump trips.C. The Seal Oil Recirc pump trips.D. The Emergency Seal Oil pump starts on MSOP de-energized.
D
Which of the following describes the expected Generator Seal Oil Pressure with the Main Generator hydrogen pressure at 45 psig? A. 45 psigB. 254 psigC. 61 psigD. 53 psig
D
Hydrogen bubbles released from the seal oil in the Generator Seal Oil System Hydrogen Detraining Tank are vented to where? A. Vacuum TankB. Main GeneratorC. Turbine Building roofD. Lube Oil System
B
In the Generator Seal Oil System, if the Emergency Seal Oil Pump is providing system pressure, what component is bypassed? A. Hydrogen Detraining SectionB. Auxiliary Detraining SectionC. Vacuum TankD. Differential Pressure Regulator
C
What is the expected response to oil level in the Generator Seal Oil System float trap falling below the normal operating level? A. Large amounts of hydrogen will escape to the Auxiliary Detraining Tank.B. Float trap valve will close.C. An automatic generator runback will occur.D. Oil will be educted back up into the generator casing.
B
What is the primary reason hydrogen is used as the cooling medium in the Main Generator? A. Since it is lighter than air, windage losses are low.B. It has a high heat transfer co-efficient.C. It has a small cross section so corona-effect is minimized.D. It has low flammability in high concentrations.
B
In EMG FR-Z1, when hydrogen is > 4% the Hydrogen Recombiners should not be started. Hydrogen concentration in the Main Generator is > 99%.Why is hydrogen concentration treated differently in these two instances? A. Higher radiation levels in CTMT.B. Higher temperature in the Hydrogen Recombiners.C. Lower oxygen concentration in the Main Generator.D. Lower pressure in CTMT.
C
The unit is at 88% and increasing when a generator Core Monitor alarm actuated and the crew is now trying to determine the need for shutdown. The BOP operator pushes the "FILTER" button on the Core Monitor panel and observes no movement of the indicator or recorder, the alarm is still locked in.What action is required? A. Check gas flow present in the Core Monitor meterB. Perform a controlled shutdown in accordance with GEN 00-004C. Shutdown the reactor and turbine within 5 minutesD. Reduce load to 48% within 5 minutes and trip the turbine
A
What activates the Pyrolysate Collector? A. A bistable in the ESFAS cabinetB. An alarm relay in the Core MonitorC. A cam in the Core Monitor RecorderD. A manual pushbutton on RP068
C
Why does the Stator Cooling Water System pressure control valve maintain header pressure below hydrogen pressure in the generator? A. To ensure that the heat transfer takes place from the gas to the water in the heat exchanger.B. To maintain an adequate hydrogen seal along the Generator shaft.C. To prevent arcing and corona effects in the generator.D. To prevent water leaking into the Generator.
D
What Stator Cooling Water System conditions would cause a Generator runback? A. High flow through the deionizer vessel; high Generator bushing cooling water return flow temperatureB. Low Stator Cooling Water System Storage Tank level; low flow to the Generator Alterex SystemC. High Stator Cooling Water System water conductivity; low Stator Cooling Water System pump suction pressureD. Water temperature high at the stator outlet; low Stator Cooling Water System pressure
D
The unit is at 100% when Stator Water Cooling Pump A trips B Stator Water Cooling Pump failed to start. No operator actions have been taken. Two minutes later plant conditions are: * Reactor Power 85%* Turbine Load 81%What is the plant response to this condition? A. Power will stabilize at 20%B. Standby pump starts on backup time delayC. Cooling water isolates to generator rectifiersD. Main Generator output breakers open
D
The unit is at 100% power. During I&C maintenance on CE-TIC0007, Stator Water Temperature Indicating Controller, valve CE-TCV007, Stator Water Temperature Control Valve, goes to full bypass. The I&C technicians are unaware this condition has occurred.I&C maintenance will take 3 hours, if this condition is not changed, what is the probable result? A. Stator Water temperature decreasesB. Generator corona effect increasesC. Generator load decreasesD. Standby pump auto starts
C
The plant is at 88% power increasing to full load when B Stator Water Cooling pump trips on over current. B Stator Water pump pressure switch CE-PS1 and 2 are corroded and do NOT actuate the standby pump on low pressure.How does the plant respond to this failure? A. Reactor Trip and Turbine trip in 2 minutesB. Runback to 79% within 2 minutes and turbine trip after 3.5 minutesC. Turbine trip in 3.5 minutesD. Runback to less than 22%
D
The plant is performing a startup and is at 25% power when I & C inadvertently de-energizes the Stator Water flow transmitter.What (if any) effect will this have on the startup? A. A turbine runback occurs if power ascension continues. B. A turbine runback to less than 22% may occur.C. A turbine trip may occur after 3.5 minutes.D. Runback circuit is unaffected until 37%.
B
What component is cooled by the Stator Cooling Water System? A. Main Generator field rectifiersB. Main Feedwater Pump lube oil conditionerC. Main Turbine bearingsD. Steam packing exhauster
A
Which of the following will occur if the discharge pressure of the running Stator Cooling Water Pump drops to 10 psig less than normal? A. The Main Generator liquid detector will alarm.B. A Main Generator 10% setback will occur.C. A Main Generator trip will occur.D. The standby pump will start.
D
If Stator Cooling Water flow falls 15% below calculated flow, the Generator Protection Circuit will initiate a Turbine runback. What occurs if the condition persists and generator load is not less than 79% within two minutes? A. Standby pump startsB. Runback continues to 22%C. Flow to rectifiers isolatesD. Generator output breakers open
D
Stator Cooling Water System flow to the stator bars is controlled by ____________________, and flow to the Generator Bushings and exciter rectifiers is controlled by __________________. A. an inlet pressure regulating valve; inlet pressure regulating valves.B. a pump suction pressure regulating valve; a flow orifice.C. a pressure control valve; flow control valves in return piping.D. an inlet flow control valve; inlet flow control valve.
C
How is Stator Cooling Water temperature controlled? A. A throttle valve on the Stator Cooling Water Heat Exchanger inlet controls Service Water System flow into the exchangerB. A three way mixing valve on the Stator Cooling Water Heat Exchanger outlet controls the amount of bypass flowC. A throttle valve on the Stator Cooling Water Heat exchanger inlet controls cooling water into the heat exchangerD. A flow orifice at the Stator Cooling Water Heat Exchanger outlet limits flow of Service Water flow through the heat exchanger
B
Which of the following conditions MUST be met in order for a loss of Stator Cooling Water to cause a Main Turbine runback? A. Generator load greater than 6976 ampsB. Generator load less than 6976 ampsC. Generator load greater than 6976 amps for >3.5 minutesD. Generator load greater than 24,958 amps for >2 minutes.
A
Turbine load is at 18% with a power factor of 0.9 and preparations are in progress to begin an increase to 100%. Stator Cooling Water High Outlet Temperature annunciator is received.What is the turbine response? A. The turbine remains at 18% power.B. A turbine trips occurs in two minutes.C. A turbine runback occurs at 3 seconds on (133%/Min) and 12 seconds off until the condition clears.D. A turbine runback occurs at 5 seconds on (200%/min) and 25 seconds off until the condition clears.
A
Monticello Nuclear Power Station had a reactor trip because of a malfunction of Stator Cooling.If operators at Wolf Creek placed Turbine control on the Standby circuit at 85% power while a runback was in progress, what would be the effect on plant operation? A. Tavg increasingB. Reactor tripC. Pressurizer pressure increasingD. Steam dumps trip open
B
The unit is at 100% power and the Turbine Watch is adjusting Stator Water Cooling Inlet Pressure Control Valve (CE-Y63) and unintentionally closes it. Four minutes elapse with flow terminated and the following conditions exist: Turbine runback occurred Reactor Power - 60% RTP and is decreasing slowly Turbine Load is 400 MWe C-7 lights are lit. Condenser Steam Dumps are modulating.What action should the operator take? A. Drive control rods to stabilize T-ave.B. Manually control Steam Dumps.C. Reduce electrical load to 22%.D. Trip the reactor and the turbine.
D
How does the Turbine Runback circuitry work? A. If an OPdeltaT or OTdeltaT runback doesn't reduce the generator load below 79% within 2 minutes, a turbine trip occurs.B. An OPdeltaT or OTdeltaT runback occurs at a faster rate than Stator Cooling Water Runback.C. If a Stator Cooling Water Runback fault does not clear, the turbine will continue to runback until the fault clears or the generator is unloaded to 22%.D. When a Stator Cooling Water Runback fault clears, generator load will return to the pre-event load setpoint.
C
What phase(s) of ductwork does an Iso-Phase Bus Duct Cooling System fan discharge into? A. Phase "A" and "C"B. Phase "C"C. Phase "B"D. Phase "A"
C
Under what condition should the Iso-Phase Bus Duct Cooling System electric heaters be secured? A. Operating at powerB. Turbine Building atmosphere above 80 degreesC. Back draft dampers are closedD. Drip pans free of moisture
A
Service Water piping break upstream of EA-V0017, Turbine Bldg Closed Cooling Water 1A/1B Service Water Return Iso, requires isolation to prevent flooding.When the leak is isolated what is the consequence to plant operation? A. Condenser vacuum decreases from loss of seal cooling B. Iso-Phase Bus Duct temperatures increase from loss of coolingC. Main turbine trip on high lube oil temperatureD. Central Chiller trips on high flow
B
What parameter does the Main Generator AC regulator use to develop control signals for excitation? A. Main Generator field voltageB. DC field flash current outputC. Exciter field (rotor) currentD. Main Generator output voltage
D
A fault in the Main Generator Exciter causes the Main Generator exciter to automatically shift to the DC regulator.Which condition will cause the Main Generator exciter to automatically shift back to the AC regulator when corrected? A. Loss of DC control power.B. Excessive excitation.C. Differential generator loading.D. Exciter field inverse time overcurrent.
A
Which of the following describes conditions that will cause the Main Generator Exciter to shift from AC to DC control automatically? A. Exciter field breaker closed; Exciter minimum excitation; Exciter field breaker instantaneous overcurrent; Differential generator loadingB. Loss of DC control power; Excessive excitation; Exciter field breaker opened; Exciter field instantaneous overcurrentC. Differential generator loading; Low generator output; Excessive excitation; Exciter field breaker closedD. Exciter field breaker opened; increasing load manually by EHC potentiometer; Exciter field inverse time overcurrent; Loss of DC control power
B
Which plant parameter does the Main Generator Alternating Current (AC) regulator monitor? A. Output voltage of the Main GeneratorB. The Main Generator field voltageC. The Exciter field currentD. Output voltage of the Exciter
A
When synchronizing the Main Generator to the grid, the procedure directs the operator to adjust the LOAD SET until the synchroscope is rotating slowly in the FAST direction.What are the two parameters monitored by the synchroscope? A. Frequency and phase difference.B. Frequency and current difference.C. Current and voltage difference.D. Voltage and phase difference.
A
The plant is operating at 80% power with the Main Generator loaded to 80% using automatic voltage regulation with an indicated 250 MVARs out (lagging). (Disregard response by other generators supplying the grid)How do VARs (Volt-Amps-Reactive) respond if a large inductive load is connected to the grid? A. VARs decreaseB. VARs do not change, but load increasesC. VARs do not change, but load decreasesD. VARs increase
D
Main generator load is 1200 MWe; system dispatch requests maximum megavars "IN". Generator Hydrogen pressure is 75 psig.What are the maximum megavars? A. 400 MVARsB. 450 MVARsC. 575 MVARsD. 625 MVARs
B
Using the "Generator Performance Curve", what is the maximum kilowatts allowed if System Operations demands you to set the generator to operate with 600 magavars out?Assume a 0.80 PF and a hydrogen pressure in the generator of 45 psig. A. 650,000 kilowattsB. 800,000 kilowattsC. 875,000 kilowattsD. 900,000 kilowatts
B
The plant is operating at 75% with S/G Water Level Control System (SGWLC) in automatic. "B" Main Feedwater Pump recirculation valves fails open causing a large reduction in feedwater flow to the S/Gs.How does SGWLC System respond? A. Level increases from swell, reg valves close, MFP ?P increases so speed increases.B. SG level increases from swell, reg valves close, MFP ?P decreases so speed increases.C. SG level decreases from loss of flow, reg valves open, MFP ?P increases so speed decreases.D. SG level decreases from loss of flow, reg valves open and MFP ?P decreases so speed increases.
D
What is the minimum feed to steam header differential pressure the Main Feedwater Pump Speed Control System is programmed to maintain in automatic? A. 40 psidB. 50 psidC. 60 psidD. 70 psid
D
What parameter is used to generate the program delta-pressure signal used by the Main Feed Pump Speed Control System? A. Excore Nuclear InstrumentationB. Total Steam FlowC. Main Turbine First Stage PressureD. RCS Loop Delta-T
B
The plant is at 100% power. Steam Generator "D" level control system is in automatic with the following instruments selected for control: Steam Flow AB FT-542 Feedwater Flow AE FT-540 S/G Level AE LT-549If steam pressure transmitter (AB PT-544) begins to fail low (decreasing to 0 over 20 minutes), what is the plant response? A. Feedwater flow increases until S/G "D" stabilizes at a higher level, or a high level trip setpoint is reached.B. Low Steamline Pressure SIS coincidence is reduced to 1/2 pressure channels on protection set 4.C. Steam Generator Feedwater Pump Speed Control System generates a higher reference speed signal.D. Feedwater flow decreases initially until the level error signal dominates and restores S/G level to 50%.
D
The plant is at 100% power. Steam Generator "D" level control system is in automatic with the following instruments selected for control: Steam Flow AB FT-542 Feedwater Flow AE FT-540 S/G Level AE LT-549 Steam Pressure AB PT-544With no operator action, if Steam Pressure channel AB PT-544 begins to fail high (off-scale in 20 minutes), what is the plant response? A. Feedwater flow decreases until S/G "D" stabilizes at a lower level, or a low level trip setpoint is reached.B. Low Steamline Pressure SIS coincidence is reduced to 2/3 pressure channels on Main Steamline "D".C. Feedwater flow increases initially until the level error signal dominates and restores S/G level to 50%.D. Low Steamline Pressure SIS coincidence is reduced to 1/2 pressure channels on the Main Steamline "D".
C
The plant is at 100% power. Steam Generator "D" level control system is in automatic with the following instruments selected for control: Steam Flow AB FT-542 Feedwater Flow AE FT-540 S/G Level AE LT-549 Steam Pressure AB PT-544With no operator action, if Steam Pressure channel AB PT-545 failed low what is the plant response? A. Low Steamline Pressure SIS coincidence is reduced to 1/2 pressure channels.B. Low Steam line Pressure SIS coincidence is reduced to 1/3 pressure channels.C. Feedwater flow decreases until S/G "D" the low level trip setpoint is reached.D. Feedwater flow increases until S/G "D" reaches a high level trip setpoint.
A
What is the expected sequence of events in the Steam Generator Water Level Control System on a step power increase from 75% to 80% power? A. S/G level increases, MFRVs close slightly, MFP speed increasesB. MFP speed increases, S/G level increases, MFRVs close slightlyC. MFRVs open, MFP speed increases, MFRVs close slightlyD. S/G level decreases, MFRVs open, MFP speed decreases
C
There are five level transmitters provided for each S/G, four narrow range and one wide range, each with a range of 0-100% level.How many of these transmitters input directly into each Steam Generator Water Level Control (SGWLC) System? A. One; no alternate availableB. Two; controlling channel may be selected on control boardC. Two; only one channel available for controlD. Four; any channel may be selected for control
B
Four steam pressure transmitters are provided for each steam line and one for the combined steam header. How many steam line transmitters are used for a controlling function regarding the SGWLC for each steam generator? A. Two; either may be selected for controlB. Two; only one has a controlling functionC. Three; the two normally associated with each S/G and then the Steam Header Transmitter PT-507 may be selected to replace any faulty transmitterD. One; no alternate is provided
A
The plant is in MODE 2, at 3.5% power.What is the plant response if the selected narrow range Steam Generator Water Level channel used for control fails low and is NOT selected out? A. S/G level initially increases and returns to 50%B. Feed Pump Speed increasesC. S/G level initially decreases and returns to 50%D. Feed Water Isolation Signal
D
The plant is at 40% power when "C" Steam Generator (S/G) controlling steam pressure channel fails low.How will this failure affect Main Feed Water pump operation? A. Feed pump control must be placed in MANUAL and output decreased to restore program ?P.B. Feed pump control must placed in MANUAL and output increased to restore program ?P.C. Feed pump control may remain in automatic since is NOT affected by this failure.D. Feed pump control may remain in automatic since the ?P will be slight.
D
Which one of the following instrument failures is consistent with the stated indications on RL005?* 'C' FRV is open 10% more than 'A', 'B', and 'D' FRVs.* The S/G level indication on the 'C' FRV recorder is decreasing.* The S/G feed flow indication on the 'C' FRV recorder is increasing.* A. Steam flow channel failing lowB. S/G level channel failing lowC. Feed flow channel failing lowD. Steam header pressure channel failing low
B
What occurs to S/G level following a load rejection of 50%? A. Actual S/G levels decrease (shrink) due to feed flow initially being less than steam flow.B. Indicated S/G levels decrease (shrink), even though feed flow is initially greater than steam flow.C. Actual S/G levels increase (swell) even though feed flow is initially less than steam flow.D. Indicated S/G level increases (swell), due to feed flow initially being greater than steam flow.
B
Main Feedwater Regulating Valves are designed to have a nearly linear relationship between valve position and feedwater flow rate above what percent power? A. 25%B. 50%C. 15%D. 35%
A
Bypass Feedwater Regulating Valves are designed to have a nearly linear relationship between valve position and feedwater flow rate at what percent power? A. 50%B. 35%C. <25%D. 45%
C
The unit is at 100% power steady state conditions. All systems are in automatic except AE-FCV510, "A" Main Feed Regulating Valve controller, due to a control card failure. What (if any) would be the consequences of a 10% load DECREASE with NO OPERATOR ACTION? A. No consequences, SGWLC maintains 50%.B. Reactor trip on Low-Low S/G level.C. Reactor trip on turbine trip.D. Level increase until SGWLC restored to program.
C
The unit is at 100% with control rods in AUTOMATIC.What is the plant response if AC-PT507, Steam Header Pressure Transmitter, failed to 1500 psig? A. Feed pump speed decreases and all Feed Reg Valves throttle open in response to a level error.B. Feed pump speed increases and all Feed Reg Valves throttle closed due to a steam flow-feed flow mismatch.C. Steam dumps arm and open, Feed Reg Valves throttle closed due to level error from swell.D. Steam dumps arm and open to maintain steam header pressure, Feed reg valves open from the steam flow-feed flow mismatch.
B
What is the preferred method of transferring feed flow to the Main Feed Water Regulating Valves (FRV) from the Feed Reg Bypass Valves (FRBV)? A. Place FRBV in MANUAL and close it, then place the FRV in AUTO and verify it responds to level error.B. Place the FRV in MANUAL and slowly open while the FRBV remains in AUTO, when the FRBV is closed, place the FRV in AUTO.C. Place the FRV in AUTO, place the FRBV in MANUAL and slowly close the valve.D. Place the FRBV in MANUAL and the FRV in MANUAL and throttle closed on the FRBV while throttling open on the FRV.
C
The 50% S/G program level was determined based on three conditions of concern for all modes of operation.What were these three conditions? A. Shrink, Swell, Faulted S/GB. Main Turbine water induction, Feedwater Temp reactivity, heat sinkC. Shrink, Swell, SGTRD. SGTR, Faulted S/G, Main Turbine water induction
A
There are no Technical Specifications for SGWLC System, however RPS & ESFAS signals are generated by SGWLC transmitters.What parameter in SGWLC provides an ESFAS input? A. steam flowB. S/G levelC. feedwater flowD. steam pressure
B
The unit is in Mode 3. S/G "A" Narrow Range Water Level - Low Low instrument (Channel 4) is declared inoperable at 0400.What are the Technical Specifications that are entered and the required TS Actions? A. Enter the Actions of TS 3.3.2 only. Restore the inoperable channel to OPERABLE status by 1000.B. Enter the Actions of TS 3.3.1 and TS 3.3.2. Place the inoperable channel in trip by 1000.C. Enter the Actions of TS 3.3.2 only. Place the inoperable channel in trip by 1000.D. Enter the Actions of TS 3.3.1 and TS 3.3.2. Restore the inoperable channel to OPERABLE status by 1000.
C
Concerning Reactivity Management, which of the following would be considered a Reactivity Challenge? A. Following a load reduction the Rod Bank LO Limit Annunciator is received.B. INC miscalibrated the NIS resulting in indicated power being higher than the calorimetric.C. While increasing turbine load from 15% Rx power, pre-heating is lost and Rx power climbs to 18%.D. The operator jogs open AE HV-38 too far open resulting in Thermal Power increasing to 3570 MW on the 10 minute average.
C
Concerning Reactivity Management, which of the following would be considered a Reactivity Challenge? A. During refueling, RCS boron sample indicates 2380 ppm.B. Following a load reduction the Rod Bank LO Limit Annunciator is received.C. INC miscalibrated the NIS resulting in indicated power being higher than the calorimetric.D. During Core Mapping, following refueling, two assemblies are found to be out of place.
D
Concerning Reactivity Management, which of the following would be considered a Reactivity Challenge? A. The ECP for a Reactor Start Up is off by 350 PCMB. INC miscalibrated the NIS resulting in indicated power being higher than the calorimetric.C. During refueling, RCS boron sample indicates 2380 ppm.D. A rod Control Malfunction causes Shutdown Bank D to insert to 216 steps.
D
The RO is opening AE-HV038, HP HTRS BYPASS, to increase reactor power. When he releases the jog switch the valve continues to open. The RO immediately calls the standby person to open the valve breaker. Instantaneous reactor power peaks at 3640 MWth. The 8 hour rolling average never exceeds 3565 MWth.Is this event a Reactivity Challenge as defined in AP 19E-002, REACTIVITY MANAGEMENT PROGRAM? A. Yes, the peak exceeds 102% power.B. Yes, reactor power is never allowed exceed 3565 MWth.C. No, the 8 hour average is within limits per Technical Specifications.D. No, instantaneous power may exceed 3565 MWth while opening the bypass valve.
A
AP 19E-002, REACTIVITY MANAGEMENT PROGRAM, charters the responsibility for implementation of the Reactivity Management Program to: A. Manager Nuclear EngineeringB. Operations PersonnelC. Nuclear Engineering PersonnelD. Plant Manager
B
What are the 5 elements of Reactivity per AP 19E-002, REACTIVITY MANAGEMENT PROGRAM? A. Fuel, Control Rods, Temperature, Boron Concentration, Reactor Power.B. Fuel, Moderator Temperature Co-efficient, Temperature, Reactor power, Control Rods.C. Moderator Temperature Co-efficient, Reactor Power Defect, Poisons, Control Rods, SFP Boron Concentration.D. Fuel, Control Rods, Poisons, Reactor Power, Moderator Temperature Co-efficient.
A
When is fuel damage most likely in an operating reactor? A. When the reactor is tripped from full power.B. When reactor power is rapidly increased.C. When control of reactivity is inadequate.D. During Loss of Coolant Accidents.
C
The plant is performing Low Power Physics Testing following a refueling outage. The plant is at 3% power. Feed pump control is in manual with the bypass feed reg. valves in auto. A special test procedure governing plant operation requires a reactor trip if any NI channel exceed 5%. AE-FV560 bypass valve fails open and the operator takes manual control to stabilize level. Plant conditions are:N41 3% Loop 1 deltaT 3%N42 3% Loop 2 deltaT 4%N43 6% Loop 3 deltaT 5%N44 4% Loop 4 deltaT 4%What action should the RO take and why? A. Do not trip the reactor, the unit did not exceed 5% of RATED THERMAL POWER.B. Do not trip the reactor, power will stabilize below 5%.C. Do not trip the reactor, N43 is mis-adjusted for this power level.D. Trip the reactor, one NI channel exceeded 5% in accordance with the Test Procedure.
D
What is the main purpose of AP 19E-002, REACTIVITY MANAGEMENT PROGRAM? A. Provide specific guidance on reactor operation.B. Provide appropriate delineation of responsibility.C. Ensure conservative, deliberate performance.D. Ensure management oversight.
C
An AFAS-M signal may be manually initiated by a pushbutton on the Main Control Board (one for each MDAFWP) or automatically by which signals?
"* Coincidence on Lo-Lo level at 23.5% narrow range on 1/4 S/Gs. This signal also feeds the Feedwater Isolation Actuation (FWIS) Circuits. * Both Main Feedwater Pumps are tripped (as measured by pressure transmitters on the control oil supply lines to the stop valves). This trip is blockable by handswitches on the Main Control Board: a red train block handswitch and a yellow train block handswitch. * An AMSAC (ATWS Mitigating System Actuation Circuitry) signal. An AMSAC signal is generated when 3/4 S/Gs are <12% narrow range while turbine power is >35%.
What actuations occur upon initiation of an Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal - Motor Driven (AFAS - M)?
1) Starts the associated MDAFWP 2) Enables the associated train Low Suction Pressure (LSP) actuation logic, and 3) Isolates the associated train S/G Blowdown and Sampling valves.
An Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal - Turbine (AFAS-T) can be initiated manually from the Control Room and automatically by what signals?
* Coincidence on Lo-Lo level at 23.5% narrow range on 2/4 S/Gs. * An undervoltage condition sensed on NB01 or NB02 with 2/4 sensors. This ensures that water will be available for the S/Gs should an NB bus not be re-energized by its Diesel Generator and power supplied to the MDAFWP. * An AMSAC signal. An AMSAC signal is generated when 3/4 S/Gs are <12% narrow range while turbine power is >35%.
What component actuations are initiated by an AFAS-T signal?
The AFAS-T sends a signal to: 1) open AB HV-5, AL HV-6, and FC HV-312 to start the turbine, and 2) enable both trains LSP actuation logic.
What changes in valve lineup would have to be made in order to feed all four Steam Generators with only one motor-driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump?
The normally locked closed discharge cross-connect valves must be opened.
What actions are required to initiate Auxiliary Feedwater flow to the Steam Generators, assuming normal system lineup and plant status?
Answer: The only action required to initiate Auxiliary Feedwater flow is to start the Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps.
Where is the Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps' suction lineup switched to if an Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal has been initiated and a low suction pressure is sensed at two suction pressure transmitters located on the normal supply line?
Answer: Suction lineup will be automatically switched to Essential Service Water.
Describe the physical actions necessary to RESET the mechanical overspeed trip device for the Turbine-driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump. Assume the overspeed trip plunger is reset.
Answer: Move the arm that connects the overspeed trip mechanism to the Limitorque Valve in the direction of the Limitorque Valve.
How is the AFW System protected from the affects of a loss of the Instrument Air System?
Answer: There is a 25-cubic foot nitrogen accumulator for each air-operated valve to backup the air supply.
What is required to properly reset a mechanical trip of the Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump? Ensure Tappet Nut freely moves up and down and ensure one of the flat sides is against the Head Lever.
Ensure Tappet Nut freely moves up and down and ensure one of the flat sides is against the Head Lever.
When is power supplied to the motor operated AFW valves to the four S/Gs?
* The valve is not full open, * The respective MDAFWP starts (With exception of AL HV-05 which will have power applied based on AFW flow to the "D" S/G.), or * Manual control is initiated from the Main Control Board or ASP
What is the steam supply for the TDAFWP?
B Steam Generator through AB HV-5. "C" Steam Generator through AB HV-6. These two sources combine and flow through FCHV-312 (Trip Throttle Valve) and FC FV-313 (Governor Control Valve).
How can AB HV-5, AB HV-6 and FCHV-312 be opened to start the TDAFWP?
All three valves can be controlled from the Main Control Board or Auxiliary Shutdown Panel (ASP). All three valves also open on an automatic start signal (AFAS-T).
FC FV-313
Left in Manual both at MCB and ASP
AB HV-5 & AB HV-6
Fail open upon a loss of air
Mechanical overspeed trip
Causes the Trip Throttle Valve to close, 115% of normal (4425 rpm), Must be locally reset
Turbine speed setpoint
3850 rpm
Electrical overspeed trip
110% of normal (4235 rpm), Causes the trip throttle valve to close
When the TDAFWP is in standby waiting for an automatic start signal, what is the condition of the following devices (Figure 10)? 1. FC HV-312 2. FC HV-312 Limitorque operator 3. Trip Latch 4. Mechanical Overspeed Mechanism 5. Electrical Overspeed Trip Solenoid
ANS: 1 - fully closed, 2 - 90% closed, 3 - not engaged with trip pawl, 4 - reset with the tappet nut down, 5 - de-energized.
Arrange the following in the proper sequence for what occurs when an open signal is received (Figure 10): A. As the motor operator stem reaches 95% closed, the trip pawl engages with the trip latch. B. The trip pawl moves down slightly to brace against the trip latch and as the motion of the stem continues, its engagement with the trip pawl's threads causes lifting of the valve stem and opens the valve. C. Trip pawl begins moving upward as the motor operator stem rotates in the closed direction. D. Limitorque operator engages the motor operator's threaded stem and begins rotating the stem, which passes through the threaded trip pawl, in the closed direction (The actual valve does not move since it is already closed). The valve stem is connected to the motor operator stem with a collar that allows rotation of the motor operator stem without rotation of the valve stem. E. When the valve is full open, the Limitorque motor stops and disengages the stem. The stem is held open by the trip pawl and its engagement with the trip latch. F. At 100% travel of the motor operator in the closed direction, the Limitorque motor stops and reverses to the open direction.
ANS: A. - 3, B. - 5, C. -2, D. - 1, E. - 6, F. - 4
What occurs when the Trip Throttle Valve is tripped (Figure 10)?
1. The latch is disengaged from under the trip pawl. 2. Both the motor operator and the valve stems move downward and close the valve because the trip latch is no longer supporting the trip pawl.
For an electrical trip, the Limitorque operator then engages the motor operator stem and rotates it to the 90% closed position, awaiting the next valve open signal (called the Auto Start Relatch Relay Sequence). After a mechanical trip, the mechanism must be locally reset before Limitorque operator will energize. What is required to properly reset the mechanical overspeed trip (Figure 8)?
Ensure Tappet Nut freely moves up and down 2. Ensure one of the flat sides are against the Head Lever.
What is the function of LS5?
Answer: Breaks power circuit to torque motor so valve cannot be re-opened when mechanical overspeed actuates and provides red light indication for mechanical overspeed actuation.
If red light indication is not received on a mechanical overspeed trip, what is the most likely cause based upon plant history?
LS5 misaligned due to excessive pressure exerted during mechanical overspeed reset.
How do the governor valve springs affect valve position (Figure 11)?
The governor valve springs open the valve.
How does a loss of Governor oil affect TDAFWP operation?
The TDAFWP will overspeed because oil pressure is used to close the Governor.
What is the governor valve position when the TDAFWP is in standby?
The TDAFWP will overspeed because oil pressure is used to close the Governor.A spring holds the governor valve wide open.
Arrange the following in the proper sequence for what occurs on a manual or automatic turbine start (Figures 12 & 13): A. AB HV-5 and AB HV-6 open and FC HV-312 (TTV) Operator closes to latch the Trip Pawl then begins opening the valve. B. When LS6 makes up; a ramp generator (which serves to limit turbine speed during startup so as not to overspeed trip the pump) will begin ramping TDAFWP speed up to the Speed set on the Speed Controller (in Control Room or ASP if control is there) in about 19 seconds. C. As Turbine speed begins to increase Oil Pressure begins to build and starts closing FC FV-313 (Governor Valve).
ANS: A. - 1; B. - 3; C. - 2