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232 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
most common systemic fungal infection in cats?
A. cryptococcidiomycosis
B. blastomycosis.
C. histoplasmosis.
D. coccidiomycosis
E. aspergillosis
C - histoplasmosis
Where is histoplasmosis usually found in the cat?
A. lungs
B. nose
C. disseminated.
D. GI
E. kidneys
A
What is the Tx for histoplasmosis in a cat?
A. ketoconazole
B. fluconazole
C. penicillin
D. itraconazole
E. untreatable
D
where is cryptococcidiosis found in the cat?
A. lungs
B. GI
C. localised
D. disseminated
E. nose
E - nasal

dogs: disseminated, neuro, ocular
which of the following characteristics of feline panleukopenia is incorrect?
A. highly contagious
B. Diarrhea
C. excellent immunity
D. vomiting
E. profound neutrophilia
E - neutropenia NOT neutrophilia
which of the following is an UNLIKELY outcome of an infected queen with panleukopenia?
A. queen shows clinical signs
B. abortion
C. still birth
D. cerebellar hypoplasia of kittens
E. existing kittens get fever, vomiting, abdominal pain etc.
A.. adults are asymptomatic
what test may be used to Dx panleukopenia?
A. fecal parvo ELISA for dogs
B. serology
C. PCR
D. culture
E. cytology
A
when should kittens be vaccinated for panleukopenia?
A. 6w
B. 8w
C. 10w
D. 12w
E there is no current vaccination
D
what is the result of an infection with FIP and a strong immune response?
A. dry form
B. wet form
C. elimination
D. latency
E. both elimination and latency are possible
E
what is the result of an infection with FIP and a weak vs a partial immune response?
A. wet vs latency
B. wet vs dry forms
C. dry vs wet forms
D. elimination vs dry forms
E. latency vs elimination
B
what is FIP?
A. immune mediated vasculitis
B. tumour forming virus
C. pyogranulomatous vasculitis
D. immune suppression
C
which of the following is not typical of the wet form of FIP?
A. insiduous onset
B. pleural fluid
C. abdominal fluid
D. often younger
E. icterus likely
A
which of the following is not typical of FIP dry form?
A. pyogranuloma in tissue
B. insiduous onset
C. icterus likely
D. only abdomen affected
E. often older kitten, young or elderly cat.
D- ANY tissue affected- eye, liver, lung, kidney.
which of the following would be LEAST useful in Dx of FIP?
A. profound hyperglobulinemia
B. protein effusion with few cells
C. histopathology
D. immunohistochemistry
E. PCR and serology
E- these tests only pick up coronavirus and not specifically the mutated form that causes FIP!
which of the following is not a common Tx for FIP?
A. doxycycline
B. drain effusion
C. corticosteroids
D. nutrition
E. therapies- IFN alpha
A- there is no effective therapy, altough some may go into remission occasionally. steriods suppress the damaging immune response and additional 'therapies' are unproven suc as IFN
which of the following is not an effective way of preventing FIP?
A. vaccination
B. minimise fecal contammination
C. remove kittens from queen at 5-6w
D. avoid co mingling
E. not a big problem as most exposed cats are ok
A. usually only used in a cattery during an outbreak but not much use
which of the following is the largest cause of human exposure to rabies?
A. dogs
B. cattles.
C. cats
D. racoons
E. bats
C
what stages of toxo does the cat allow?
A. sexual stage
B. asexual stage
C. both asexual and sexual stages
D. cat is the intermediate host
C
intermediate hosts carry asexual stages only
fill in the blanks of the toxo lifecycle.. cats eat meat with____ then poo out _____which are eaten by other animals that turn into ______
A. tachyzoites, bradyzoites, oocysts
B. bradyzoites, oocyts, tachyzoites
C, oocysts, tachyzoites, bradyzoites.
D. bradyzoites, tachyzoites, oocysts
B
Which is correct about cats with toxo?
A. fever
B. neuro disease
C vomiting or diarrhea
D. anorexia.
E. healthy
E. but some may show fever, anorexia, weight loss, icterus, ocular disease, respiratory disease, vomiting/dia, neuro disease.
what is the most common place of toxo infection in cats, then most common in the abdomen?
A. CNS, liver
B. eyes, liver
C. lung, liver
D. lung, kidney
E. lung, GI
C
what is the most consistent method of Dx of toxo?
A. fecal exam
B, cytology for tachyzoites
C. serology for igG
D. serology for igM
D. although it is possible to perform a fecal if its in the 2w frame of shedding and igG would have to be acute and convalescent titres as will be + from exposure.
Tx for toxo?
A. doxycycline
B. peniccilin
C. clindamycin
D. sulphonamides
E. none
C. although sulphonamide with pyrimethamine are also effective
which of the following statements about toxo is false.
A. asexual schizont stages produce the sexual stages that give rise to the oocysts.
B. cats <1y produce the most numbers of oocysts.
C. oocyts sporulate immediately in the environment making them infectious.
D. oocysts are excreted in the feces for several weeks with high Nos only in the first week of patency.
E. toxo in the cat has a coccidian like cycle in enterocytes that doesn't occur in other spp.
c. oocysts sporulate outside the cat in te envirnment in 2-several days and are infectious to people
which of the following clinical signs is not associated with tularemia due to eating an infected rabbit?
A.depression
B. icterus, sepsis, panleukopenia
C. oral ulceration, abscess formation.
D. lympho/oranomegaly
E. CNS signs
E.
what is the treatment of tularemia?
A. aminoglycosides.
B. fluoroquinalones.
C. b-lactams
D. answers a and b
E. all of the above
D
what is the agent that Cz cat scratch disease?
A. bartonella henselea
B. bartonella canis
C. mycoplasma felis.
D. mycoplasma canis
A
which of the following statements is false about feline bartonellosis?
A. intraerythrocytic organism
B. high seroprevalence in healthy
C. transmission via saliva
D. CS-gingivitis, neuro, splenic Dz
E. Tx- azithromycin
C. transmission via fleas
which of the following statements is true about cytauxzoon felis?
A. bacterial disease in immunosuppressed.
B. CS-fever, icterus, anemia, death <5d
C. Dx- ELISA
D. Tx- doxycycline
B.
is a protozoan Dz, Dx via PCR or demo of piroplasms/shizonts, no Tx proven.
what is the major risk associated with feline hemoplasmosis?
A. FeLV +ve
B. young age
C. cat bite wound
D. unvax
E. lives outside.
A. although ALL are risks.
which of the following is FALSE about feline hemoplasmosis?
A. transmission via blood/arthropods/fights
B. may become carrier
C. consistent anemia
D. anemia maybe immune mediated.
E. may have anorexia and weight loss.
C. anemia may not be present or may cycle.
what is not a Tx of feline hemoplasmosis?
A. immunosuppression drugs
B. metronidazole
C. tetracycline
D. doxycycline
D - doxy
what is the incubation period of rabies?
A. 3-24w
B. 5-10d
C. 1-10w
D. 22-1y
E. 3-10w
A.
max 5-10d between shedding and CS
which best describes rabies?
A. ascending and symmetric paralysis
B ascending and assymetric paralysis
C. descending and symmetric paralysis
D. descending and asymmetric paralysis
B
what is the test for rabies?
A. direct FA on brain
B. indirect FA on brain
C. histopath on brain
D. ELISA pre death
E PCR- pre death
A
which of the following is false about distemper?
A. disseminates via nervous tissue.
B. CNS signs may be delayed by 1-3w
C. adequate immunity stops Dz.
D. partial immunity-CNS infection/mild systemic signs
E. no immunity causes epithelial and CNS infection with severe systemic signs
A
disseminated via respiratory lymphatics
which is not associated with ACUTE distemper?
A. grand mal/ chew gum seizures + myoclonus
B. dental enamel hypoplasia
C. pustular dermatitis
D. retinochoroiditis
E. vestibular Dz
B- comes later
which of the following is not distemper?
A. hypergammaglobulinemia
B. viral inclusions
C. encephalitis
D. CSF IgM
E. CSF IgG
E
what would be the best test for a distemper dog Dx?
A. CSF IgM
B. ELISA
C. urine PCR
D. blood PCR
E. IFA
C
as only +ve in 0-4d after vaccination but can shed virus for 3-4m after infection.
a young puppy comes in with acute diarrhea with some blood in it, anorexia, depression and vomiting. it shares a house with 2 older dogs who are fine. the puppy is vaccinated up to date and dewormed. what is a likely Dx?

A. parvovirus
B. distemper
C. corona virus
D. salmonella
E. leptospirosis
C. as not routinely vaccinated against and older dogs are unlikely to show CS.
how is parvo usually Dx?
A. fecal ELISA
B. serology
C. PCR
D. EM
E. viral isolation
A
what is characteristic of infectious canine hepatitis?
A. hepatitis and nephritis
B. DIC and hepatic necrosis
C. liver, eye, endothelium + kidney affected.
D. hepatic necrosis and protein losing nephropathy
B
although the eye, endothelium and kidney are affected.
how is canine influenza Dx?
A. BAL
B. acute and convalescent serology
C. Cytology
D. ELISA for antigen
B.
takes 10-14d for immune response
what is NOT a clinical sign of pseudorabies?
A. salivation
B. pruritis
C. GI signs
D. behaviour change
E. paralysis
E - paralysis
although can cause encephalitis
pick the 2 most common signs of lepto infection?
A. acute renal failure
B. acute vasculitis
C. acute hepatopathy
D. DIC
E. reproductive loss
A and C
all other signs are also true
which are the 2 most common presentations of lepto?
A. peracture
B. acute-fever, coagulopathy, shock
C. subacute-renal +/or hepatic fail
D. chronic- renal or hepatic involvement
E. subclinical
C and E
what disease is associated with glomerulonephritis, diskospondylitis and uveitis?
A. pythiosis
B. lepto
C. brucella
D. coxiella
E. neosporosis
C
you suspect brucellosis.. how should you start by Dx?
A. ELISA]
B. IFA
C. RSAT
D. AGID
E. TAT
C
what causes pythiosis?
A. oomycete
B. protozoa
C. fungi
D. bacteria
E algae
A
like an algae
its fall and a dog presents with severe weight loss despite a good appetite. history has it that another dog had a similar problem after swimming in a swamp but died. what would you use to Dx what you suspect?
A. ELISA
B. PCR
C. histopathology
D. acute and convalescent titres
E. blood smear
C
pythiosis
a puppy comes in with rear limb stiffness that has turned into paresis. the dogs mother has a history of being fed raw meat.. what are your suspicions and how do you Tx?
A. clindamycin/TMS
B. doxycycline/penicllin
C. enrofloxacin/aminoglycosides
D. irtakonazole/fluconazole
A
neosporosis
which of the following systems does coccidiomycosis not usually affect?
A. lungs
B. bone
C. eyes
D. CNS
E. skin
E
also affects heart though
which of the following systems is not usually affected by histoplasmosis?
A. GI
B. lungs
C. CNS
D. Marrow
E. spleen/liver
C - CNS
also affects eyes
which fungal disease affects the lungs in cats and GI of dogs?
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
A
what fungal Dz can be Dx by a urine Ag ELISA test?
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
D - blastomycosis
what fungal disease affects lungs, skin, bone, eyes, LN, CNS?
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
D - blastomycosis
coccidio: lung, bones, eyes, CNS, heart
histo: cat lungs, dogs GIT; spleen/liver, LNs, eyes, BM
crypto: cats - nasal, dogs - disseminated, CNS, ocular
which fungal infection should you hospitalise the patient for Tx?
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
D - blastomycosis
severe inflammatory reaction during treatment
which fungal infection can be Dx by antibody detection where as the others are all by antigen?
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
C
which fungal infection tends to have more dissemination with CNS more common in dogs and nasal in cats.
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
E
what may be the most useful diagnostic method in Dx nasal Dz?
A. CT
B. rhinoscopy
C. radiographs
D. culture
E. biopsy
E
a cat comes in with stertor, head tilt, nystagmus, discharge, ptosis and meiosis. what is the most likely Cz?
A. lymphoma
B. nasopharyngeal polyps
C. crytpococcosis
D. adenocarcinoma
B
what is the most common cause of chronic discharge in dogs from the nose?
A. aspergillosis
B. cryptococcosis
C. adenocarcinoma
D. SCC
E. fibrosarcoma
C
although A, D and E are also seen in dogs. B is in cats
which of the following is unlikely to cz fungal rhinitis?
A. cryptococcus neoformans
B. aspergillus fumigatus
C. penicillium
D. blastomycosis
E. rhinosporidium seeberi
D
what fungal Dz is associated with nasal signs in cats and neuro/ucular in dogs?
A. histoplasmosis
B. aspergillosis
C. coccidiomycosis
D. blastomycosis
E. cryptococcosis
E
what is the Tx for a german shepherd with nasal pigmentation, with pain on palpation, radiographic signs of destruction of the turbinates and mucopuruent discharge from the nostrils.
A. itraconazole
B. metronidazole
C. clotrimazole
D. enilconazole
E. fluconazole
C and D
Tx for aspergillosis-where BASTE for one hour
which of the following pairing of agent and CS is wrong in FURCC?
A. FCV-dendritic corneal ulcers/lameness
B. B. bronchiseptica- cough
C. mycoplasma-lame
D. C. felis- severe conjunctivitis
A
FCV is associated with oral ulcers and lameness.
FHV is associated with dendritic corneal ulcers and salivation
what is the likely Dx of a cat with nasal Dz after r/out of neoplasia, FB, polyps an infection?
feline chronic rhinosinusitis- idiopathic nasal diease in cats
which of the following is not a key player in CIRDC?
A. B.bronchiseptica
B. influenza/parainfluenza
C. CDV
D. herpes virus
E. adenovirus.
D
herpes is a secondary or less common Cz.
which of the following is not a secondary cause of CIRDC?
A. adenovirus
B. herpes virus
C. strep zooepidemicus
D. mycoplasma
E. respiratory corona virus
A
this is a key player in CIRDC
along with influenza, which of the following is the most likely to Cz a cough and sneeze?
A. mycoplasma
B. CDV
C. herpes virus
D. parainfluenza
E. b. bronchiseptica
B
if a dog presents with laryngeal paralysis which of the following is usually not associated?
A. polymyopathy
B. polyneuropathy
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. hypothyroid
E. neosprosis
E
which of the following is NOT associated with laryngeal neoplasia?
A. SCC
B. melanoma
C. lymphoma
D. fibrosarcoma
E. adenocarcinoma
D
osteochonromas are also seen here
but neoplasia is not very common in general
you Dx a poodle with collapsing trachea.. what other pathological change is also likely to be present?
mitral endocardiosis- look for cardiac enlargement
in tracheal collapse, upon inspiration the ____ airway more likely collapses and on expiration the ____ airway collapses in dynamic Dz.
upper
lower
1. what are you thinking may be the problem with the female spayed 2y old siamese that has complaints of fur balls when ever the owners grandchildren come over?
2. what is the best way to confirm?
3. what may be seen on radiographs?
4. if albuterol is not available in an attack..use?
1. asthma (feline bronchial Dz)
2. Dx- r/out other Cz and do cytology on BAL to see eosinophilic inflammation.
3. possibly-bronchial pattern, collapse of right middle lobe, hyperinflation, flat diaphragm
4. terbutaline
a 11 year old terrier comes in with a cough that has been there for a long time and now the dog does not want to go for very long walks and seems to struggle for breath if pushed to. when you auscultate you hear crackles and wheezes.. Dx?
what is the gold standard for Dx test?
chronic bronchitis
can also be a mild form where there is only a mild cough a few times per week.
BAL- non-degenerative, non septic PMN inflammation, eosinophilic or mixed.
ciliary dyskinesia is associated with what other condition?
situs inversus
what causes bronchectasia?
chronic bronchitis/ ciliary dyskinesia
what are the 3 special fluid evaluations for fluid obtained via thoracocentesis?
pH, glucose, LDH
what are the transudate fluid parameters?
clear, TNCC <1k, TP <1.5g/dl, mostly macrophages and mesothelial cells.
what causes a transudate fluid?
heart failure on right side in dogs, both sides possible in cats, profound hypoproteinemia, obstruction to venous return
parameters for modified transudate?
clear with tint, TNCC <5k, TP 1.5-3 g/dl, mostly macrphages, mesothelial cells and some PMNs
what are the causes of modified transudate?
heart failre, obstruction to venous return, vasculitis, neoplasia
what are the exudate parameters?
coloured, TNCC >5k, TP >3g/dl, various cells. LDH>200 IU/L in cats
what is a chylous exudate?
where triglyceride content is greater than serum with lymphocytes
how does a neoplastic exudate present?
pH >7.4, often bloody, reactive cells
what are the 2 most common mediastinal masses?
lymphoma and thymoma
mediastinal masses cause what 2 syndromes?
precaval and horners syndromes
what is associated with thymomas?
paraneoplastic syndromes-myasthenia gravis
how much pleural effusion is required for radiographic changes?
10ml.kg
how much pleural effusion is required for clinical signs vs severe clinical signs?
30ml/kg vs 60ml/kg
a dog presents with no sounds on auscultation so he has radiographs, which show pleural effusion. should you drain him?
no.. wait until clinical signs especially if chronic
what causes transudates in pleural effusion?
increased hydrostatic or decreased oncotic pressure
pyothorax in cats is NOT associated with which organism?
A. pasteurella
B. bacteriodes
C. actinomyces
D. nocardia
E. clostridium
D
this is in dogs
what 3 agents are associated with pyothorax in dogs?
bacteroides, actinomyces, nocardia
what Tx would you consider for neoplastic pleural effusions?
shunts (especially if mesothelioma), pleurodesis, chemo
what is the major cause of chylothorax in cats?
congestive heart failure
what Tx options are there for chylothorax?
Sx-ligate thoracic duct/pericardectomy.
rutin/octreotide
low fat diet
pleurodesis
intermittent thoracocentesis
what diaphragatic hernia is more in cats?
peritoneal pericardial
when should you do Sx on a pneumothorax?
if its spontaneous!
what are the 2 most common signs of lung disese?
soft cough and dyspnea
what are the 3 most important Dx modalities for lung Dz?
radiographs, cytology and culture
left heart failure is associated with pulmonary_______ and right hear failure with pulmonary_______
edema
effusion
except cats both righ/left heart failure cause pulmonary edema
what pattern is seen on radiographs with pulmonary edema?
interstitial and alveolar 'air bronchograms'
what pathogens cause 50% of bacterial infections in pulmonary oedema?
enteric: e. coli, kleb
25%-anaerobic
what Dx test is done when there is a productive cough Vs a non productive cough in bacterial pneumonia?
trans tracheal wash Vs bronchoalveolar lavage
how does a radiograph of bacterial Vs viral pneumonia appear?
bacterial is usually cranioventral and viral is more diffuse interstitial alveolar patterns
what fungal infection is associated with perhyler lymphadenopathy?
coccidiosis
what parasite is associated with asthma in cats? similar one in dogs is?
aleurostrongylus abstrusus - cats
crenosoma vulpis & filaroides in dogs
where is filaroides hirthi/milksi in dogs found?
trachea, parenchyma, bronchioles
what parasite is associated with cysts in the caudal lung lobe, bronchitis and pneumothorax?
paragonimus kellicotti. cats>dogs
which parasite is associated with the large airways, causes a bronchial pattern and something to do with whip worm?
Eucoleus (capillaria) aerophilia in cats and dogs
a cat presents for PM after it had sudden onset of a cough, dyspnea, vomiting then it died.. any idea what you might find in the lungs on the PM
heartworm.. can also be asymptomatic
what dog breeds does pneumocystis carnii pneumonia affect?
Tx?
young mini dachshunds, king charles cavaliers spaniels - immunodeficiency
Tx-clindamycin with primaquine
a dog presents in lateral recumbency and is aspirating its own pool of serosanguinous discharge.. where will you look to find aspiration pneumonia?
caudal dorsal lung
what is lung lobe torsion associated with ?
effusion
list the eosinophilic lung diseases?
eosinophilic bronchitis, PIE, eosinophilic granulomatosis, hypereosinophilic syndrome
what may cause a V/Q mismatch and pulmonary hypertension and is most commonly associated with IMHA?
pulmonary thromboembolism
a westie comes in with a long term problem of difficulty breathing although you hear crackles there is no evidence of pulmonary edema. what do you suspect right away?
pulmonary fibrosis
what ticks transmit RMSF?
dermacentor andersonii (american wood tick) and dermacentor varabilis (american dog tick
what are the major clinical signs of RMSF?
anorexia, fever, neuro/ortho, lymphadenomegaly, lethargy and ocular.
others are edema, respiratory, arthralgia/myalgia, cutaneous necrosis.
what is RMSF clinical pathology expected?
thrombocytopenia, increased PMNs, decreased albumin, TP and sodium, increased liver enzymes.
how is RMSF Dx?
acute and convalescent IFA Ab titres
what is the Tx of RMSF?
doxycycline, chloramphenicol, enrofolxacin
what cells are infected by E.canis?
monocytes
what is the vector of E.canis?
rhipacephalus sanguineus -brown dog tick
what vector disease has phases?
e.canis (CME)- acute, subclinical carrier and chronic
how long is he incubation period of e.canis?
8-20d
when is morulae most likely seen in e.canis infection?
acute phase
what are the clinical signs of acute e.canis infection?
anorexia, fever, lymphadenomegaly, lethargy, weight loss
what are the clinical signs of chronic e.canis?
bleeding disorder, anorexia, lethargy, weight loss, neurological abnormality, ocular lesions, lympho/spleno/hepatomegaly, lame
what are the severe complications associated with e.canis?
pancytopenia, glomerulonephritis, hyperviscosity syndrome
what does thrombocytopenia and hyperglobulinemia in a dog indicate?
e.canis chronic form
how is e.canis Dx?
IFA Ab titre
morulae
snap
how is e.canis Tx?
tetracycline, chloramphenicol, imidocarb
what cell does e.ewingii infect?
granulocyte
who gets e.ewingii?
male>female
what clinical signs does e.ewingii cause?
non erosive polyarthritis and neuro signs.
what transmits e.ewingii?
amblyomma americanum
what agents cause canine anaplasmosis?
a. phagocytophilum and a. platys
what agent causes a vague illness with arthropathy?
a. phagocyophilum
who is affected by a.pahgocytophilum?
females>males
what clinical path is seen with a.phagocytophilum?
thrombocytopenia
what dieases of dogs do you see morulae in the PMNs?
e.ewingii and a. phagocytophilum
what is the Tx for canine anaplasmosis?
tetracyclines
what vector Cz infection with a.phagocytophilum?
ixodes
what causes canine cyclic thrombocytopenia
A. platys
what does A.platys do ?
replicates in the platelts in one/two week cycles with few clinical signs
what causes potomac horse fever?
neorickettsia risticii
what is the vector for potomac horse fever?
snails and bugs
what is the Tx for neorickettsial infections?
tetracycline
what is the vector of salmon poisoning?
trematode nanophyetus salminocola
how many hosts are required for the salmon poisioning to occur?
3
what cells do rickettsial organisms infect?
monocytes
n.helminthoeca infects them in the GI
a 5 y old dog comes in looking like it has parvo but its vaccinated. what may it be?
salmon poisoning
who does canine haemoplasmosis effect?
immunosuppressed, splenectomized, dogs on chemo
what causes blood culture -ve endocarditis and lymphodenopathy in dogs?
canine bartonellosis
what is the best Dx test for canine bartonellosis?
PCR but serology done as standard
what conditions may canine bartonellosis be associated with ?
IMHA or ITP
Tx for bartonellosis in dog? cat?
dog - TC
cat - azithromycin, doxy
vector for lyme
ixodes
how does lymes disease USUALLY present?
asymptomatic
who suffers a severe form of lyme?
retrievers - lyme nephropathy. PLN with failure
how is lyme Dx?
snap test using C6 peptide as does not cross react with vaccine
Tx for lymes?
doxycycline, amoxicillin for arthropathy
how do dogs get hepatozoonosis?
by eating the gulf coast tick or vertically or eating undercooked meat
what causes onion skin cysts in muscles that rupture to form granulomas?
hepatazoon americanum
what are the clinical signs of hepatozoonosis?
muscle atrophy and cachexia
a dog comes in with pain when walking, periosteal proliferation, muscle atrophy. wasting, mucopurulent ocular discharge and GN.. what is it?
hepatozoonosis
what does the clin path look like in hepatozooosis?
hyperglycemia, increased liver enzymes, leukocytosis huge but CPK normal!!
how is hepatozoonosis Dx and Tx?
muscle biospy. Px guarded.
Tx tms, clindamycin and pyrimethamine all together and decoquinate may prolong remission time
what is the vector for H.canis?
r. sanguineus
what is the clinical signs for H.canis?
subclinical.. possibly anemia
what is the Tx of H.canis?
imidocarb for Hepatozoonosis canis (not to be confused w/Hemoplasmosis canis whose tx is TCs)
what is the best Dx method of babesiosis?
PCR
what is endemic in greyhound kennels?
babesiosis canis
what is the Tx for babesiosis?
imidocarb
what is associated with pitbulls?
babesia gibsonii
what is the Tx for b. gibsonii?
atovaqone and azithromycin
what is b.gibsonii a DDx for?
evans syndrome (IMHA/thrombocytopenia)
clinical signs of leishmania?
alopecia, cutaneous lesions on head, lame, GI, renal, lymph/splenomegaly, emaciation, ocular lesions.
clin path of leishmaniasis?
hyperglobulinemia, poss amastigotes but rare
Tx for leishamaniasis?
pentostam and allopurinol to prevent recurrence
what phase in cytauxzoon felis kills the cat?
what is present in the RBCs?
shizont
piroplasms
what is the clin path findings of c.felis infections?
anemia, leukopenia/leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, organisms, increased liver enzymes, bilirubinemia, hyperglycemia, azotemia, electrolyte and acid base imbalances, increased PTT but normal PT
what does c.felis organism look like?
safety pins
how is c.felis Dx.?
histological ID of piroplasms or schizonts
PCR avail
Tx for c.felis infection?
atovaquone and azithromycin best
list the 3 groups of reverse transcribing viruses?
oncornoviridae, lenteviridae, spumaviridae
give an eg of oncornoviridae?
FeLV, FSV
give an eg of lenteviridae?
FIV, EIA, HIV
give an eg of spumaviridae?
feline syncytia forming virus
what does the subgroup A of FeLV cause?
what about B? C?
A-viremia
B-immune suppression/malignancy
C-non regenerative anemia
what is the FeLV vaccine aimed at?
A. P15E
B. GP70
C. P27
GP70.
p15E causes immune suppression
P27 is detected by ELISA
what are the possible outcomes of FeLV exposure?
virus eliminated,
viremia persists (carrier or Dz)
latent infection
you run a test on a cat for FeLV and it comes back negative.. what does this mean?
the cat is not infected OR it may have a latent infection.
what is FOCMA?
feline oncornoavirus associated cell membrane antigen. Ab from this protect against cancer
how is FeLV Dx?
serum ELISA Ag test
IFA also available
what does it mean if a cat tests ELISA +ve IFA -ve for FeLV?
transient viremia or long term discordant
what immunomodulator is used for FeLV?
rHuIFN-a
what is the likely test you will perform on a male intact DSH 4y that presents with a fever, lymphodenomagaly and stomatitis?
FIV Ab ELISA and if +ve do a confirmatory western blot.
how may terminal FIV infection appear?
malignancies possible, neurological Dz can occur with terminal wasting and cytopenia. gingivitis/stomatitis
what are 2 common clin path findings in FIV?
increased globulin and cytopenia
how is FIV Dx?
ELISA for Ab but +ve for maternal and vax also.
in a cat with FIV and stomatitis/neuro signs, what may be a helpful Tx?
AZT
which other viruses require FIV to replicate and cause disease?
feline sarcoma virus and feline syncytium forming virus
what does feline sarcoma virus have the capacity to cause in an infected cat?
multicentric fibrosarcoma if concurrent FeLV
what are the clinical signs possible with feline syncytium forming virus infection?
if FIV also then immune complex deposition in joints causes progressive polyarthritis but if no FIV then healthy
what measurements of oxygen in a patient indicate hypoxia?
paO2 <80mmHG
SPO2 <94%
what amount of oxygen should respiratory patients recieve?
< 40%
what would be a poor choice of antimicrobial for bronchitis?
penicillin unless pneumonia and barriers broken down
what do beta receptors stimulate?
bronchial, vascular and uterine smooth muscle relaxation
what are the sympathomimetic amines used as bronchodilators?
terbutaline and albuterol
what are methylxanthin derivatives used as bronchodilators?
theophylline, aminophylline
how do methylxanthine derivatives work?
phosphodiesterase inhibitors
what effects do methylxanthine derivatives have?
relax sm in bronchi and pulmonary vasculature, diuretics, increase gastic acid secretion, CNS stimulation, respiratory/cardiac stimulation and antitussive
when must you be cautious in admin theophylline?
dont give parenterally unless IV, has a low therapeutic index-lowered with enrofloxacin
what are the anticholinergic drugs used for bronchodilators?
atropine, glycopyrrolate, ipratropium bromide
when shoudl anticholinergic drugs be used for bronchodilation?
in status asthmaticus that is refractory to other therapy
which centrally acting antitussive has the least side effects?
dextromethorphan
what problems may arise with hyocodan?
dries respiratory secretions and may cause sedation, constipation and vomiting
what mucokinetics/exoectorants are there?
N-acetyl L-cystein and guaifenesin
what is the number one cause of a cough in feline?
asthma
what does deep slow respiration indicate generally?
obstructive or metabolic
what can cause panting (x7)?
anxiety, exercise, thermoregulation, acid/base imbalance, anemia/RBC defects, drug admin, metabolic/endocrine Dz
if there is a mixed effort on inspiration and expiration where is the lesion likely to be?
pulmonary parenchyma
what 4 things cause diminished BV sounds?
low flow, retraction, attenuation and reflection
list 3 causes of crackles?
edema, pneumonia, fibrosis
list 3 causes of wheezes?
asthma, COPD, bronchitis
when are wheezes loudest usually?
expiration
when may an animal have increased CO2 but oxygen be normal?
acute respiratory distress eg FB
what techniques are used to radiograph the lungs?
longer grey scale with short MAS and high KVP