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114 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The main function of the prostate gland is what?
to secrete a milky, alkaline fluid into the urethra at the point of ejaculation.
The prostate fluid helps to _______ the sperm during intercourse and forms a consistent portion of ejaculate volume
nourish and protect
Male sex _________ tissues
require the continued function of the testes for their development, growth and maintenance of secretions that form the ejaculate
accessory
What are the sex accessory tissues?
Prostate, seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral glands
The main function of the prostate is to
A.Provide fluid during intercourse for prevention of infection during intercourse

B. To secrete a milky, alkaline fluid into the urethra at the point of ejaculation

C. Produce enzymes that facilitate progression and insemination of the sperm to the female genital tract

D. The Prostate has no major function and is vestigal gland

e. To lubricate the female reproductive tract to enhance sperm survival for reproduction
B
It is conical in shape. Size of a _____.
walnut
It has a base, which, superiorly, lies against and is continuous with the ______ neck.
bladder
In fact, the smooth muscle passes without interruption from one organ to the other. The _____ enters the base.
urethra
The apex lies inferiorly on the upper surface of the ______ diaphragm
urogenital
It is a fibromuscular glandular organ, which is ___ cm long
~ 3
It surrounds the urethra and lies between the neck of the bladder above and the ______ diaphragm below
urogenital
The prostate gland is divided into four zones
transition
anterior
central
peripheral
BPH has effect at _____zone
transition
Which zone will you feel a nodule?
peripheral
The prostate gland is comprised of 30–50 glands arranged in _____, which empty into the prostatic urethra
acini
____ capsule: Inner fibrous capsule
True
False capsule: Outer fibrous sheath which is part of the visceral layer of the pelvic fascia (formed of adipose connective tissue containing _______ fibers).
smooth muscle
The false capsule is thickened posteriorly to form the _________ fascia that separates the prostate from the ampulla of the rectum.
Denonvillier's
Anteriorly
Symphysis pubis separated from it by extraperitoneal fat in the retropubic space (Space of Retzius).
________ ligaments: Each lie on either side of the midline.
Puboprostatic
Posteriorly
________'s fascia separating it from the rectum.
The two ejaculatory ducts pierce the upper part of the posterior surface.
Denonvillier
Laterally
It is embraced by the anterior fibers of the _______ as they run posteriorly from the pubis.
levator ani
Which of the following statements regarding prostate anatomic relationships is correct?
A. The prostate is an intraperitoneal organ that lies beneath the bladder and the urogenital diaphragm.
B. The prostate is an extraperitoneal gland that lies beneath the bladder and the urogenital diaphragm.
C. The prostate is an intraperitoneal gland that lies beneath the bladder and above the urogenital diaphragm.
D. The prostate is an extraperitoneal gland that lies beneath the bladder and above the urogenital diaphragm.
?
It is the widest and the most dilatable part of the urethra
Prostatic Urethra
On the summit of the urethral crest (what is known as seminal colliculus) - depression called prostatic ______ which is the analog of the uterus and vagina in the female. On the edge of the utricle are the 2 ejaculatory ducts.
utricle
On each side of the crest there is a groove called the prostatic ______. The ducts of the prostatic glands open into the ______
sinus
On the posterior wall - longitudinal ridge (urethral _____) which runs the whole length of the prostatic urethra.
crest
Arteries of the prostate
Branches of the inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.
Veins of the prostate
Prostatic venous plexus which lies between the true and false capsules. It receives the deep dorsal vein of the penis and numerous vesical veins. It drains into the internal iliac veins.
Nerve Supply
Mainly from the inferior hypogastric plexus (sympathetic and parasympathetic). The sympathetic stimulates the prostatic smooth muscle contraction during ______.
ejaculation
Lymph vessels
Drain into sacral, internal, and mainly external _____ lymph nodes.
These lymph vessels drain the capsule and the glandular tissue.
iliac
During a radical prostatectomy, a surgeon suspects extracapsular disease and decides to perform a pelvic lymph node dissection. Which of the following nodes should she remove?

A. The sacral, internal iliac and especially the external iliac nodes
B. None given the high risk of obturator nerve injury
C. The pelvic nodes alone given the extracapsular disease
D. Femoral, iliac and aortocaval nodes
E. Femoral nodes only
?
______ ducts develop into the:
seminal vesicles, epididymis, vas deferens, ampulla
Wolffian
the Urogenital ______ develops into the prostate!
Occurs via dihydrotestosterone (DHT) stimulation
sinus
Which of the following is true regarding prostate cell function?

The majority of testosterone is free and is bound to proteins in the prostate by dihydrotestosterone and 5-alpha reductase
The minority of testosterone is free and is converted to dihydrotestosterone by the action of 5-alpha reductase on testosterone in the prostate
Testosterone is 50% bound in the bloodstream and changes to its free form based on the amount of sexual activity
The majority of testosterone is bound to albumin, a protein which also converts testosterone to the more potent dihydrotestosterone
?
What itis?

Multifactorial symptoms, overlapping with those of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Multifactorial and often mysterious etiology
Often chronic
Few proven treatments
Low predictability of success with any given treatment
Prostatitis
Acute ____ prostatitis (type 1)
bacterial
_____ bacterial prostatitis (type 2)
Chronic
Chronic ________ prostatitis (type 3)
nonbacterial
“chronic pelvic pain syndrome (CPPS)”

2 types
Inflammatory CPPS
Noninflammatory CPPS
________ inflammatory prostatitis (type 4)
Asymptomatic
Acute/Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis
Generally gram-______ uropathogens
negative

Common pathogens: Escherichia coli; also Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, enterococci; others
Only _% of chronic cases of prostatitis are clearly bacterial
5
Chronic Nonbacterial Prostatitis/CPPS

Etiology remains unclear in most cases
Neurogenic inflammation, chronic organ dysfunction may be involved
Occasionally ejaculatory duct obstruction or seminal vesicle infection is cause
_______ metabolism/reflux may be to blame in some cases
Uric acid
Other putative causes of chronic prostatitis
Chronic pelvic floor muscle tension or spasms
Problem not necessarily in prostate
Autoimmune activity
Evidence of abnormal T-cell activity, inflamma-tory cytokines in sufferers

Hidden, difficult-to-culture bacteria, other microorganisms
Neuro-dysfunction
Effect of Reiter’s syndrome
Chemical irritation
Dysfunctional voiding
Uric acid
Large percentage of CPPS pts suffer from a functional ________ syndrome involving varying symptoms not explainable in terms of conventionally defined disease. Their CPPS symptoms may be related to this syndrome
somatic
Symptoms of prostatitis are multifactorial; may include what?
Pain, discomfort, in pelvic area
Tenderness in prostate
Voiding dysfunction: Frequency, pain, incomplete emptying
Malaise, fever, chills in cases of infection
Diagnosing Prostatitis
Patient history, physical exam, and urinalysis/urine culture in all cases
______ prostatitis may be diagnosed based on symptoms and presence of bacteria (5-day cultures preferred)
Bacterial
Cultures of first voided specimens and ______ prostatic secretion
expressed
For acute bacterial cases, 4 to 12 weeks of _____ eradicates infection in 60 to 80%; often recurs in <6 months
antibiotics
_______ are optimal choice (also sulfas, erythromycins, tetracyclines)
Fluoroquinolones
In refractory cases, suppressive antibiotics may be useful along with _________
prostatic massage
Surgery for prostatitis?
last resort
COX-2 inhibitor for prostatitis?
(rofecoxib) demonstrated some success in a randomized trial
A 38 year-old male presents to you with perineal discomfort, a documented UTI, fevers and chills. You diagnosed him prostatitis. Which are the most likely organisms you should focus antimicrobial treatment towards?

Facultative anaerobes and gram positive organisms
Gram-negative organisms such as E. Coli, Enterococcus and Klebsiella
Gram-positive clustering organisms such as Staph and Strep (groups A and B)
Gram positive cocci in pairs, anaerobes and psuedohyphenated yeasts
?
A 35 year-old male is diagnosed with first episode of prostatitis by a local family physician in rural Georgia. Cultures are not available but your colleague asks how she should treat the patient. You tell her:

Fluoroquinolones for 4 – 6 weeks followed by another culture and assessment for symptom improvement
Penicillin G with Sitz baths
Daily enemas until symptoms improvement and a negative repeat culture
Immediate transfer to you for surgery, i.e. TURP
Elective benign prostatectomy
Fluoro
BPH is now known as what?
BENIGN
PROSTATIC
ENLARGEMENT
LUTS means what? don't call it prostatism
lower urinary tract symptoms
BOO = bladder ______ _____
bladder outlet obstruction
BPH is a ______ enlargement of the prostate gland
histologic
BPH = Histological Presence of Enlarged Prostate Gland
Clinically evident in 50% of men by age 50, in 80% by age ___
80
_______ play a permissive role in BPH
Androgens
Prostatic smooth muscle tone, mediated by ____-adrenergic receptors, can further obstruct the bladder outlet (Dynamic component)
alpha
Both gland enlargement and increased smooth muscle tone can cause ______
lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
The first changes in BPH involve proliferation of glandular tissue in the ________ zone.
transitional
Androgens - Testosterone, DHT play permissive role in BPH.
What about Estrogens?
Significant role in canine model, role in humans is less clear
Symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction caused by BPH include
Hesitancy
Weakness of urinary stream
Intermittent urinary stream
A feeling of incomplete bladder emptying and need for repeat voiding
Bladder ‘irritability,’ as manifested by urinary frequency, nocturia, and urinary urgency
Evaluate urinary symptoms using the _______ Symptom Score to assesses severity
American Urological Association
Potential Complications of BPH
Urinary retention
Renal impairment
Urinary tract infection
Gross hematuria
Bladder decompensation
Overflow incontinence as a result of retention
and what else?
Bladder stones

from proteus (stone formers)
A 62 year-old male has seen a lot of commercials about BPH medications and wants to know if he has it. Which of the following is the correct description/definition of BPH that you can describe for him:

A) Lower urinary tract symptoms due to prostatic urethral narrowing and gland enlargement
B) Lower urinary tract symptoms consisting of prostatic enlargement, bladder dysfunction and lower motor neuron spinal level dysfunction
C) Upper urinary tract symptoms associated with a high-risk of ejaculatory dysfunction and bowel dysfunction
D) Upper urinary tract symptoms due to kidney and bladder dysfunction primarily
E) Asymptomatic condition associated with a high degree of infections, bleeding and ejaculatory disorders
A
What are the trade names of the BPH drugs?
Flomax
Avodart
proscar
The smooth muscle of the ______ and prostatic capsule have an abundance of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
bladder neck
Eighty percent of all receptors in the prostate are of the _____ subtype.
alpha-1A
Alpha-1 antagonism may induce _____ in the prostate.
apoptosis
Prostate smooth muscle tone is mediated via _____ adrenergic receptors
alpha 1
Smooth muscle of bladder neck, prostatic capsule, and adenoma have an abundance of _____ receptors
alpha1-adrenergic
Stimulation of ______ receptors on prostate smooth muscle mediates bladder outlet obstruction
alpha1-adrenergic
80% of all receptors in prostate are ____ subtype
alpha1A
Benefits of treatment with alpha blockers
Rapid improvement of urinary flow
Reduce symptoms of LUTS
Similar efficacy among the various agents in this class
Modest effects on sexual dysfunction
Alpha blockers: Adverse events
Fatigue
Orthostatic hypotension leading to dizziness, vertigo, or syncope upon standing
Impotence
Decreased libido
Edema
Retrograde ejaculation
Rhinitis
Dyspnea or wheezing
Headache
Angina
Arrhythmia
what drugs do the following?
Mechanism of action: Inhibits conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
Shrinks overall gland size, reduces obstruction
Decreases obstructive events
Reduces need for surgical intervention and AUR in glands greater than 40 g
Must be taken for at least 3 months before efficacy can be determined
Adverse events minimal
50% reduction in serum PSA levels
5-alpha reductase inhibitors
Normal mass of prostate and mass with symptoms
20g

40g = symptoms
Important to know day to day about 5 alpha reductase inhibs
50% reduction in serum PSA levels.

If it does not go down, prostate MUST be biopsied.
Selective Type II 5alpha-Reductase Inhibition With what?
Finasteride
P.D. is a 61 y.o. male smoker with a history of mild BPE who develops who develops bronchitis. He is seen by his PCP and given Sudafed (Pseudonephrine) which is an alpha receptor agonist to help is symptoms. After two doses, he is unable to urinate. The cause of his retention is most likely due to:

Undiagnosed adenocarcinoma obstructing the bladder neck resulting increased proliferation of prostatic smooth muscle
Decreased alpha-1a receptor activity at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle
Increased alpha-1a receptor activity at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle
Increased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle
Decreased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle
?
Transurethral ____ ablation (TUNA)
needle
Transurethral _______ therapy (TUMT)
microwave
Transurethral ______ of the prostate (TUIP)
incision
Transurethral _____ of the prostate (TURP)
resection
Gold standard for benign disease
TURP
With TURP, __% experience symptom improvement
Less invasive than open prostatectomy
90% experience symptom improvement
Less invasive than open prostatectomy
Potential complications of TURP
Infection
Bleeding
Reoperation: Rare
Rarely, impotence and incontinence
PERMANENT retrograde ejaculation
Reserved for men with large prostates (>100 g) and those with bladder cancer
Open Prostatectomy
Positives of open prostatectomy
Follow-up surgery rarely necessary
Negatives of open prostatectomy
Abdominal incision, longer convalescence vs. transurethral approaches, hemorrhage potential
PROSTATE CANCER - ______-CARCINOMA
ADENO
Risk Factors for Prostate Cancer
Age
Race---African-American
Family history (~9%) (Shaw thinks this is most important)_
Diet (animal fat)
PSA
ASAP - atypical small acinar ...
Eating ______ increases the risk of developing prostate cancer 2.64 times
red meat
Prostate Cancer Diagnosis
Digital Rectal Exam (DRE) (trumps the others)
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) TREND (not discrete measurement)
Ultrasound-guided biopsy
Check PSA how often?
anually
Highest positive predictive value of any single test, but not specific for CaP:
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
Many men with ___ have PSA > 4.0 ng/ml
BPH
___% of men with CaP have PSA < 4.0 ng/ml
25
Offer PSA testing annually along with DRE, if life expectancy >10 years:
* Caucasian men - start age __ y.o.
* African-American men - 45 y.o.
* With + family history:
--> 45 for Caucasians
--> 40 for African-Americans
50
An asymptomatic 43 year-old African-American male with a father who recently died of prostate cancer presents to you with a PSA of 3.7 ng/ml. His PSA values in 2005 – 1.8 ng/ml and in 2006 was 2.5 ng/ml. Your best recommendation would be:



A) Repeat PSA in one year
B) Radical Prostatectomy
c) Antibiotics for 30 days to treat prostatitis
d) Alpha-1a blocker therapy
e) Prostate biopsy
?
SOC: __ biopsy cores are taken from the peripheral zone to enhance diagnostic sensitivity of the biopsy.
12
Transitional zone = _____
peripheral zone = cancer
BPE
The ______ grading system for classifying prostate abnormalities has been widely adopted
Gleason

1-6 (only diagnose 3-6)
Prostate Cancer: Staging Staging Tools
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)
Bone Scan
CAT Scan
Gleason Grade
Treatment of prostate disease
Conventional Surgery - localized disease
Robotic Surgery - localized disease
Cryoablation – localized or recurrent disease
Radiation – localized, locally advanced and metastatic disease
Hormone Therapy – extensive local disease or metastasis
Chemotherapy – metastatic disease
Watchful Waiting – localized disease
Types of radiation therapy for prostate disease
Brachytherapy
External Beam Radiotherapy
Proton Beam Therapy
Prostate cancer treatment depends on the ____ of the cancer, as well as the ____ and other medical conditions of the patient
stage

age
A 64 y.o. male is diagnosed with Gleason 6 Prostate Cancer. He seeks advice for treatment. Which of the following is not an accepted treatment for localized prostate cancer?
Radical Prostatectomy
Interstitial Brachytherapy
External Beam Radiation Therapy
Watchful Waiting, i.e. expectant management
Nerve-particle scatter neutron therapy
E
If prostate cancer spreads (rare), where does it go?
lymph nodes
bone