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114 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The main function of the prostate gland is what?
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to secrete a milky, alkaline fluid into the urethra at the point of ejaculation.
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The prostate fluid helps to _______ the sperm during intercourse and forms a consistent portion of ejaculate volume
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nourish and protect
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Male sex _________ tissues
require the continued function of the testes for their development, growth and maintenance of secretions that form the ejaculate |
accessory
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What are the sex accessory tissues?
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Prostate, seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral glands
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The main function of the prostate is to
A.Provide fluid during intercourse for prevention of infection during intercourse B. To secrete a milky, alkaline fluid into the urethra at the point of ejaculation C. Produce enzymes that facilitate progression and insemination of the sperm to the female genital tract D. The Prostate has no major function and is vestigal gland e. To lubricate the female reproductive tract to enhance sperm survival for reproduction |
B
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It is conical in shape. Size of a _____.
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walnut
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It has a base, which, superiorly, lies against and is continuous with the ______ neck.
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bladder
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In fact, the smooth muscle passes without interruption from one organ to the other. The _____ enters the base.
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urethra
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The apex lies inferiorly on the upper surface of the ______ diaphragm
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urogenital
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It is a fibromuscular glandular organ, which is ___ cm long
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~ 3
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It surrounds the urethra and lies between the neck of the bladder above and the ______ diaphragm below
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urogenital
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The prostate gland is divided into four zones
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transition
anterior central peripheral |
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BPH has effect at _____zone
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transition
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Which zone will you feel a nodule?
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peripheral
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The prostate gland is comprised of 30–50 glands arranged in _____, which empty into the prostatic urethra
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acini
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____ capsule: Inner fibrous capsule
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True
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False capsule: Outer fibrous sheath which is part of the visceral layer of the pelvic fascia (formed of adipose connective tissue containing _______ fibers).
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smooth muscle
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The false capsule is thickened posteriorly to form the _________ fascia that separates the prostate from the ampulla of the rectum.
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Denonvillier's
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Anteriorly
Symphysis pubis separated from it by extraperitoneal fat in the retropubic space (Space of Retzius). ________ ligaments: Each lie on either side of the midline. |
Puboprostatic
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Posteriorly
________'s fascia separating it from the rectum. The two ejaculatory ducts pierce the upper part of the posterior surface. |
Denonvillier
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Laterally
It is embraced by the anterior fibers of the _______ as they run posteriorly from the pubis. |
levator ani
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Which of the following statements regarding prostate anatomic relationships is correct?
A. The prostate is an intraperitoneal organ that lies beneath the bladder and the urogenital diaphragm. B. The prostate is an extraperitoneal gland that lies beneath the bladder and the urogenital diaphragm. C. The prostate is an intraperitoneal gland that lies beneath the bladder and above the urogenital diaphragm. D. The prostate is an extraperitoneal gland that lies beneath the bladder and above the urogenital diaphragm. |
?
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It is the widest and the most dilatable part of the urethra
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Prostatic Urethra
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On the summit of the urethral crest (what is known as seminal colliculus) - depression called prostatic ______ which is the analog of the uterus and vagina in the female. On the edge of the utricle are the 2 ejaculatory ducts.
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utricle
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On each side of the crest there is a groove called the prostatic ______. The ducts of the prostatic glands open into the ______
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sinus
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On the posterior wall - longitudinal ridge (urethral _____) which runs the whole length of the prostatic urethra.
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crest
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Arteries of the prostate
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Branches of the inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.
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Veins of the prostate
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Prostatic venous plexus which lies between the true and false capsules. It receives the deep dorsal vein of the penis and numerous vesical veins. It drains into the internal iliac veins.
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Nerve Supply
Mainly from the inferior hypogastric plexus (sympathetic and parasympathetic).The sympathetic stimulates the prostatic smooth muscle contraction during ______. |
ejaculation
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Lymph vessels
Drain into sacral, internal, and mainly external _____ lymph nodes. These lymph vessels drain the capsule and the glandular tissue. |
iliac
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During a radical prostatectomy, a surgeon suspects extracapsular disease and decides to perform a pelvic lymph node dissection. Which of the following nodes should she remove?
A. The sacral, internal iliac and especially the external iliac nodes B. None given the high risk of obturator nerve injury C. The pelvic nodes alone given the extracapsular disease D. Femoral, iliac and aortocaval nodes E. Femoral nodes only |
?
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______ ducts develop into the:
seminal vesicles, epididymis, vas deferens, ampulla |
Wolffian
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the Urogenital ______ develops into the prostate!
Occurs via dihydrotestosterone (DHT) stimulation |
sinus
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Which of the following is true regarding prostate cell function?
The majority of testosterone is free and is bound to proteins in the prostate by dihydrotestosterone and 5-alpha reductase The minority of testosterone is free and is converted to dihydrotestosterone by the action of 5-alpha reductase on testosterone in the prostate Testosterone is 50% bound in the bloodstream and changes to its free form based on the amount of sexual activity The majority of testosterone is bound to albumin, a protein which also converts testosterone to the more potent dihydrotestosterone |
?
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What itis?
Multifactorial symptoms, overlapping with those of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) Multifactorial and often mysterious etiology Often chronic Few proven treatments Low predictability of success with any given treatment |
Prostatitis
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Acute ____ prostatitis (type 1)
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bacterial
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_____ bacterial prostatitis (type 2)
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Chronic
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Chronic ________ prostatitis (type 3)
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nonbacterial
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“chronic pelvic pain syndrome (CPPS)”
2 types |
Inflammatory CPPS
Noninflammatory CPPS |
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________ inflammatory prostatitis (type 4)
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Asymptomatic
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Acute/Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis
Generally gram-______ uropathogens |
negative
Common pathogens: Escherichia coli; also Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, enterococci; others |
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Only _% of chronic cases of prostatitis are clearly bacterial
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5
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Chronic Nonbacterial Prostatitis/CPPS
Etiology remains unclear in most cases Neurogenic inflammation, chronic organ dysfunction may be involved Occasionally ejaculatory duct obstruction or seminal vesicle infection is cause _______ metabolism/reflux may be to blame in some cases |
Uric acid
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Other putative causes of chronic prostatitis
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Chronic pelvic floor muscle tension or spasms
Problem not necessarily in prostate Autoimmune activity Evidence of abnormal T-cell activity, inflamma-tory cytokines in sufferers Hidden, difficult-to-culture bacteria, other microorganisms Neuro-dysfunction Effect of Reiter’s syndrome Chemical irritation Dysfunctional voiding Uric acid |
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Large percentage of CPPS pts suffer from a functional ________ syndrome involving varying symptoms not explainable in terms of conventionally defined disease. Their CPPS symptoms may be related to this syndrome
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somatic
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Symptoms of prostatitis are multifactorial; may include what?
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Pain, discomfort, in pelvic area
Tenderness in prostate Voiding dysfunction: Frequency, pain, incomplete emptying Malaise, fever, chills in cases of infection |
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Diagnosing Prostatitis
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Patient history, physical exam, and urinalysis/urine culture in all cases
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______ prostatitis may be diagnosed based on symptoms and presence of bacteria (5-day cultures preferred)
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Bacterial
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Cultures of first voided specimens and ______ prostatic secretion
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expressed
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For acute bacterial cases, 4 to 12 weeks of _____ eradicates infection in 60 to 80%; often recurs in <6 months
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antibiotics
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_______ are optimal choice (also sulfas, erythromycins, tetracyclines)
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Fluoroquinolones
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In refractory cases, suppressive antibiotics may be useful along with _________
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prostatic massage
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Surgery for prostatitis?
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last resort
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COX-2 inhibitor for prostatitis?
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(rofecoxib) demonstrated some success in a randomized trial
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A 38 year-old male presents to you with perineal discomfort, a documented UTI, fevers and chills. You diagnosed him prostatitis. Which are the most likely organisms you should focus antimicrobial treatment towards?
Facultative anaerobes and gram positive organisms Gram-negative organisms such as E. Coli, Enterococcus and Klebsiella Gram-positive clustering organisms such as Staph and Strep (groups A and B) Gram positive cocci in pairs, anaerobes and psuedohyphenated yeasts |
?
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A 35 year-old male is diagnosed with first episode of prostatitis by a local family physician in rural Georgia. Cultures are not available but your colleague asks how she should treat the patient. You tell her:
Fluoroquinolones for 4 – 6 weeks followed by another culture and assessment for symptom improvement Penicillin G with Sitz baths Daily enemas until symptoms improvement and a negative repeat culture Immediate transfer to you for surgery, i.e. TURP Elective benign prostatectomy |
Fluoro
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BPH is now known as what?
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BENIGN
PROSTATIC ENLARGEMENT |
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LUTS means what? don't call it prostatism
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lower urinary tract symptoms
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BOO = bladder ______ _____
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bladder outlet obstruction
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BPH is a ______ enlargement of the prostate gland
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histologic
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BPH = Histological Presence of Enlarged Prostate Gland
Clinically evident in 50% of men by age 50, in 80% by age ___ |
80
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_______ play a permissive role in BPH
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Androgens
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Prostatic smooth muscle tone, mediated by ____-adrenergic receptors, can further obstruct the bladder outlet (Dynamic component)
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alpha
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Both gland enlargement and increased smooth muscle tone can cause ______
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lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
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The first changes in BPH involve proliferation of glandular tissue in the ________ zone.
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transitional
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Androgens - Testosterone, DHT play permissive role in BPH.
What about Estrogens? |
Significant role in canine model, role in humans is less clear
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Symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction caused by BPH include
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Hesitancy
Weakness of urinary stream Intermittent urinary stream A feeling of incomplete bladder emptying and need for repeat voiding Bladder ‘irritability,’ as manifested by urinary frequency, nocturia, and urinary urgency |
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Evaluate urinary symptoms using the _______ Symptom Score to assesses severity
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American Urological Association
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Potential Complications of BPH
Urinary retention Renal impairment Urinary tract infection Gross hematuria Bladder decompensation Overflow incontinence as a result of retention and what else? |
Bladder stones
from proteus (stone formers) |
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A 62 year-old male has seen a lot of commercials about BPH medications and wants to know if he has it. Which of the following is the correct description/definition of BPH that you can describe for him:
A) Lower urinary tract symptoms due to prostatic urethral narrowing and gland enlargement B) Lower urinary tract symptoms consisting of prostatic enlargement, bladder dysfunction and lower motor neuron spinal level dysfunction C) Upper urinary tract symptoms associated with a high-risk of ejaculatory dysfunction and bowel dysfunction D) Upper urinary tract symptoms due to kidney and bladder dysfunction primarily E) Asymptomatic condition associated with a high degree of infections, bleeding and ejaculatory disorders |
A
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What are the trade names of the BPH drugs?
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Flomax
Avodart proscar |
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The smooth muscle of the ______ and prostatic capsule have an abundance of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
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bladder neck
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Eighty percent of all receptors in the prostate are of the _____ subtype.
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alpha-1A
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Alpha-1 antagonism may induce _____ in the prostate.
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apoptosis
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Prostate smooth muscle tone is mediated via _____ adrenergic receptors
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alpha 1
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Smooth muscle of bladder neck, prostatic capsule, and adenoma have an abundance of _____ receptors
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alpha1-adrenergic
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Stimulation of ______ receptors on prostate smooth muscle mediates bladder outlet obstruction
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alpha1-adrenergic
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80% of all receptors in prostate are ____ subtype
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alpha1A
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Benefits of treatment with alpha blockers
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Rapid improvement of urinary flow
Reduce symptoms of LUTS Similar efficacy among the various agents in this class Modest effects on sexual dysfunction |
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Alpha blockers: Adverse events
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Fatigue
Orthostatic hypotension leading to dizziness, vertigo, or syncope upon standing Impotence Decreased libido Edema Retrograde ejaculation Rhinitis Dyspnea or wheezing Headache Angina Arrhythmia |
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what drugs do the following?
Mechanism of action: Inhibits conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone Shrinks overall gland size, reduces obstruction Decreases obstructive events Reduces need for surgical intervention and AUR in glands greater than 40 g Must be taken for at least 3 months before efficacy can be determined Adverse events minimal 50% reduction in serum PSA levels |
5-alpha reductase inhibitors
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Normal mass of prostate and mass with symptoms
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20g
40g = symptoms |
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Important to know day to day about 5 alpha reductase inhibs
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50% reduction in serum PSA levels.
If it does not go down, prostate MUST be biopsied. |
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Selective Type II 5alpha-Reductase Inhibition With what?
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Finasteride
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P.D. is a 61 y.o. male smoker with a history of mild BPE who develops who develops bronchitis. He is seen by his PCP and given Sudafed (Pseudonephrine) which is an alpha receptor agonist to help is symptoms. After two doses, he is unable to urinate. The cause of his retention is most likely due to:
Undiagnosed adenocarcinoma obstructing the bladder neck resulting increased proliferation of prostatic smooth muscle Decreased alpha-1a receptor activity at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle Increased alpha-1a receptor activity at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle Increased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle Decreased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone at the bladder neck and prostatic smooth muscle |
?
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Transurethral ____ ablation (TUNA)
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needle
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Transurethral _______ therapy (TUMT)
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microwave
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Transurethral ______ of the prostate (TUIP)
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incision
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Transurethral _____ of the prostate (TURP)
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resection
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Gold standard for benign disease
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TURP
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With TURP, __% experience symptom improvement
Less invasive than open prostatectomy |
90% experience symptom improvement
Less invasive than open prostatectomy |
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Potential complications of TURP
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Infection
Bleeding Reoperation: Rare Rarely, impotence and incontinence PERMANENT retrograde ejaculation |
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Reserved for men with large prostates (>100 g) and those with bladder cancer
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Open Prostatectomy
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Positives of open prostatectomy
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Follow-up surgery rarely necessary
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Negatives of open prostatectomy
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Abdominal incision, longer convalescence vs. transurethral approaches, hemorrhage potential
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PROSTATE CANCER - ______-CARCINOMA
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ADENO
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Risk Factors for Prostate Cancer
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Age
Race---African-American Family history (~9%) (Shaw thinks this is most important)_ Diet (animal fat) PSA ASAP - atypical small acinar ... |
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Eating ______ increases the risk of developing prostate cancer 2.64 times
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red meat
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Prostate Cancer Diagnosis
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Digital Rectal Exam (DRE) (trumps the others)
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) TREND (not discrete measurement) Ultrasound-guided biopsy |
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Check PSA how often?
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anually
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Highest positive predictive value of any single test, but not specific for CaP:
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Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
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Many men with ___ have PSA > 4.0 ng/ml
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BPH
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___% of men with CaP have PSA < 4.0 ng/ml
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25
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Offer PSA testing annually along with DRE, if life expectancy >10 years:
* Caucasian men - start age __ y.o. * African-American men - 45 y.o. * With + family history: --> 45 for Caucasians --> 40 for African-Americans |
50
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An asymptomatic 43 year-old African-American male with a father who recently died of prostate cancer presents to you with a PSA of 3.7 ng/ml. His PSA values in 2005 – 1.8 ng/ml and in 2006 was 2.5 ng/ml. Your best recommendation would be:
A) Repeat PSA in one year B) Radical Prostatectomy c) Antibiotics for 30 days to treat prostatitis d) Alpha-1a blocker therapy e) Prostate biopsy |
?
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SOC: __ biopsy cores are taken from the peripheral zone to enhance diagnostic sensitivity of the biopsy.
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12
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Transitional zone = _____
peripheral zone = cancer |
BPE
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The ______ grading system for classifying prostate abnormalities has been widely adopted
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Gleason
1-6 (only diagnose 3-6) |
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Prostate Cancer: StagingStaging Tools
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Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
Digital Rectal Exam (DRE) Bone Scan CAT Scan Gleason Grade |
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Treatment of prostate disease
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Conventional Surgery - localized disease
Robotic Surgery - localized disease Cryoablation – localized or recurrent disease Radiation – localized, locally advanced and metastatic disease Hormone Therapy – extensive local disease or metastasis Chemotherapy – metastatic disease Watchful Waiting – localized disease |
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Types of radiation therapy for prostate disease
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Brachytherapy
External Beam Radiotherapy Proton Beam Therapy |
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Prostate cancer treatment depends on the ____ of the cancer, as well as the ____ and other medical conditions of the patient
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stage
age |
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A 64 y.o. male is diagnosed with Gleason 6 Prostate Cancer. He seeks advice for treatment. Which of the following is not an accepted treatment for localized prostate cancer?
Radical Prostatectomy Interstitial Brachytherapy External Beam Radiation Therapy Watchful Waiting, i.e. expectant management Nerve-particle scatter neutron therapy |
E
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If prostate cancer spreads (rare), where does it go?
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lymph nodes
bone |