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1165 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What records must the facility retain at the facility?
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A copy of the letter of intent, names of PIC's, most recent hose tests, all exams by COTP for 3 years, DOI within the last 30 days, records of all repairs made to the vapor recovery system within the last three years
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On an MOTF, what type of hose is exempted from the requirement to blank off the ends of hoses not hooked up to a manifold?
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New or unused hoses
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What regulations cover break-bulk hazardous materials?
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49 CFR 170-179
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What regulation addresses specific source waste?
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40 CFR 261.32
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33 CFR 126 covers what?
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Handleing of class 1 materials of other dangerous cargoes within of contiguous to waterfront facilities
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What does 33 CFR 127 cover?
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Waterfront facilities handling liquefied natural gas and liquefied hazardous gas
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Each operator of a passenger terminal subject to 33 CFR 129 shall submit 2 copies of a what at least 60 days before transferring passengers to or from a vessel?
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Terminal Security Plan
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What does 33 CFR 158 cover?
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Reception facilities for oil, noxious liquid substances and garbage
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What must the owner of a LHG/LNG facility provide to the COTP 30 days before transferring product?
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2 copies of the operations manual and 2 copies of the emergency manual
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What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo only?
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Designated Waterfront Facility
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When do permits for handling of designated dangerous cargo terminate?
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At the conclusion of the transaction for which the permit has been issued or whenever the COPT deems necessary
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Ammonia Nitrate (and the like) shall be seperated by a fire resistant wall or by a distance of at least what from organic materials or other flammable materials?
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30 feet
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How many days does the owner of a LHG/LNG facility have to send the COTP a letter of intent?
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60 days before transferring LHG/LNG
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In what regulation is the listing of LHG/LNG?
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33 CFR 127, Table 127.005
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What regulations cover all military explosives?
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46 CFR 146
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What does 33 CFR 154 cover?
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Facilities transferring oil or hazardous materials in bulk
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Category D cargoes are the least toxic chemicals. They have no stripping requirements because they simply require a what dilution prior to discharge?
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10:1
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For a COA for MARPOL V, a facility must be able to receive APHIS regulated garbage within how many hours?
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24
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The regulations that authorize the Commandant to designate waterfront facilities for the handling, storage, loading and discharge of explosives, flammable or combustible liquids in bulk is what?
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33 CFR 6.12
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What can carry cargo of a particular hazard and designated dangerous cargo?
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Facility Of a Particular Hazard
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The most toxic chemical is Category ___ NLS
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A
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How often must a hold containing explosives be checked after being locked?
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24 hours
|
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What are three common heights of containers?
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8, 8.5, 9
|
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What information is contained in an ideal witness statement?
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Name and address of witness
|
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Who has the authority to terminate cleaup operations?
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OSC
|
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Documentation is needed for federal cleanups to ___
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determine cost recovery from the polluter
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Performance of oil booms is greatly affected by ___
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current speed, tides and wave action
|
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Which response information system is run by the NRC?
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HACS
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Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on hazards encountered in the marine safety field?
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Marine Safety Manual Vol. 1
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What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo, cargo of a particular hazard and designated dangerous cargo?
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Facility of a Particular Hazard
|
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What types of facilities need to have a COA for garbage?
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Facilities that handle oceangoing vessels of 400 GT or more, handle NLS, commercial fishing facilities and recreational boating facilities
|
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Which types of facilities may by required to give the COTP advance notice of oil transfers?
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Mobile, remote local, facilities with a history of spills, and facilities that conduct infrequent transfers
|
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Shipments of class A explosives in intermodal freight containers in permitted only by special approval of ___
|
the Commandant (G-NTH-1)
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On a facility which started operation after Nov. 1, 1980, the emergency shutdown system must stop the flow of oil in ___ seconds
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30
|
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What is the MINIMUM distance two cargoes must be seperated when the term "Away From" is used?
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10 feet
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How many feet must a hazardous material be away from walls or the edge of the pier?
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2 feet
|
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How many hours must a PIC have before they can be qualified?
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48 hours
|
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What are the basic requirements for a general permit?
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Maintain the safety condition in 33 CFR 126.15, notify COTP when handling specified amount of particular hazard class of cargo, separate certain hazard classes stowed on the facility
|
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What is the regulation that covers warehouses on designated waterfront facilities?
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33 CFR 126
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At least ___ days before transferring LHG/LNG, the owner or operator of a new or inactive existing facility shall submit two copies of the operations manual and three copies of the Emergency Manual to the COTP
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30
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In a designated waterfront facility, you notice that a yard truck is parked blocking the main gate entrance. Is this a discrepancy?
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Yes
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In a container freight station (CFS Warehouse) on a DWF, how far away from a fire alarm box should cargo be stowed?
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3 feet
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While conducting a spot check of a designated waterfront facility, you notice that the main gate is open but there is not guard there and you are able to drive on unchallenged. Is there a problem and if so what is it?
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Yes, a guard is need to prevent unlawful entry
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Flammable cargo can be stowed to a maximum of ___
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12 feet
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The regulations that covers facilities handling oil, NLS and garbage is ___
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33 CFR 126
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Reception facilities must be able to recieve NLS within ___ of notice
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24 hours
|
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If a designated waterfront facility released a harmful quantity of hazardous substance on the facility but not on the coastal zone, who would be required to notify the NRC?
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The person in charge of the facility
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Each LNG loading flange must be located at least ___ meters fron the general public or railways.
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300
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LNG/LPG storage tanks must have the minimum volume nessecary for ___
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surge protection, pump suction supply, and other pressing needs
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On a LNG waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have atleast two portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of ____
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Methane
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At a LNG waterfront facility, the electrical system must have ___
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a power source and a separate emergency power source
|
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On a LNG waterfront facility, each transfer emergency shut off system is activated automatically when the fixed sensors measure LNG concentrations exceeding ___ of the LEL
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40%
|
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On warning signs at LNG/LHG waterfront facilities, how high must the letters be?
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3 inches
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Each LNG loading flange must be located 300 meters from ___
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each bridge crossinga navigable waterway, and each entrance to any tunnel under a navigable waterway
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Cargo must be stored atleast ___ from sprinkler heads
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12 inches
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During an inspection of a marine oil transfer facility, what equipment must be marked with the producted used or "oil service" and the MAWP?
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hose assemblies
|
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What equipment must have a means of draining oil or be capable of being blanked off prior to disconnect?
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loading arms
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Butterfly valves, wafer-type resilient valves, and blank flanges are what type of equipment?
|
closure devices
|
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Each PIC must be able to communicate with the other in order to ensure the transfer can be ___
|
stopped in case of an emergency
|
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If an applicant held a valid port security card and submits for a new card they must ___
|
hold valid card while application is processed and then surrender the old card when the new card is issued
|
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Who is responsible fore making sure that there is enough water for fire fighting at an ammonium nitrate load?
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the owner
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Each LNG loading flange must be located atleast ___ meters from the general publis or railways
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300
|
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At a waterfront facility handling LNG, the substructures are within 5 meters of any pipe or equipment containing LNG, or are within 15 meters of a loading flange must ___
|
be made of concrete or steel, have a fire endurance rating of not less than 2 hours
|
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On a LNG Waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have atleast ___ portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of methane?
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2
|
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At a LNG waterfront facility the emergency power source must provide enough power for the operation of the ___
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emergency shut down system, communications, firefighting system, and emergency lighting
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How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?
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at least 1
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How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?
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24 months
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|
On an LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?
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a description of pressure checks, dates and results of tests, a description of any corrective actions taken after the tests
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Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have atleast ___ portable gas detectors, or ___ fixed gas detectors in the marine transfer area?
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2,1
|
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How many copies of the operators manual must a LHG/LNG facility send to the COTP?
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2
|
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After the COTP recieves a letter of intent to operate a LHG/LNG facility, what does the COTP send to the owner?
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A letter of recommendation
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When the COTP had directed that access to a waterfront facility be restricted, personnel requiring access to that area must have one or more of the identification credentials listed in ___
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33 CFR125
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What do NFPA pamphlets 10 and 10A provide guidance for?
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fire fighting equipment
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To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person In Charge?
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The Facility Operator
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How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?
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at least 1
|
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To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person In Charge?
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The Facility Operator
|
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How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?
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24 months
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On an LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?
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a description of pressure checks, dates and results of tests, a description of any corrective actions taken after the tests
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Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have atleast ___ portable gas detectors, or ___ fixed gas detectors int he marine transfer area?
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2,1
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How many copies of the operators manual must a LHG/LNG facility send to the COTP?
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2
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Each hose for a transfer of oil must be marked with atleast the maximum allowable working pressure and the phrase ___
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Oil Service
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What regulations cover solid bulk dangerous cargo?
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46 CFR 148
|
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How high must an ammunition magazine be kept off the deck?
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10 cm
|
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What is the inspection form used for facility inspections?
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CG 4200
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What is the primary thing to look for when monitoring a transfer operation?
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that the transfer ops are being followed
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What are the conditions for issuing a permit to handle designated dangerous cargo?
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A facility must meet the safety requirements of 33 CFR 126.19
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While conducting a spot check of MTOF, you notice that there are no watchmen provided to keep the barges secure from unauthorized access. Is this a problem?
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Yes
|
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What things DO NOT have to be marked on all oil transfer hoses?
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Burst pressures
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What classes of explosives require written permits?
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1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5
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Who is required to witness and verify the prewash of any cargo tank?
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prewash surveyor
|
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What equipment is required when a product poses a significant environmental threat?
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discharge removal
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The regulations in 33 CFR 154 apply to a facility or marina which is capable of transferring ___ barrels or more?
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250
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What is the form used for the transaction of designated dangerous cargo?
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CG-4260
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What type of cargo requires a written permit to handle?
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Designated dangerous cargo
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DOI's must be on record for how long?
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1 month
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For what reasons may a letter of adequacy be voided?
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1. Amends operations manual without following procedures in 33 CFR 154 2. Fails to amend the operations manual when required by COTP
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Combustible liquids are those which give off flammable vapors at or above ____?
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60 deg. F
|
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What type of vessel is owned and operated by the government and is used only for non-commercial, government service?
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Public
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Which document does the person in charge complete before starting an oil transfer operation?
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Declaration of Inspection
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The vent system used with pressurized cargo, which protects the cargo tanks from over pressurization, is a ___
|
safety relief valve
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How high must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are more then 2 inches in diameter? 33 CFR 155.310
|
1 barrel
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in order to be able to stop loading quickly in the event of a failure in the transfer system, a facility must have ___
|
an emergency shutdown system
|
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Who is notified in writing when someone is trained to competently transfer each cargo handled by the facility and is designated as person in charge?
|
Captian of the Port
|
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If an applicant is found by a hearing board unfit for PSC, how many days do they have to appeal?
|
20
|
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When conducting a container inspection, what terminal personnel should be present at the time of "popping the container"?
|
yard clerk
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What regulation covers the reception of garbage by visiting vessels?
|
MARPOL V
|
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How big must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are 2 inches or less? 33 CFR 155
|
1/2 barrel
|
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The new labeling requirements addressed under HMR-181 are found in ___
|
49 CFR 172
|
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When does a Port Security Card expire?
|
1st day after 8 years of the issue date
|
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An applicant holds a valid merchant mariners document, if they receive a port security card they must ___
|
surrender MMD to get a PSC
|
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Fixed catchment, curbing, or other fixed means are examples of ___
|
small discharge containment
|
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Where are the regulations for PSC's found?
|
33 CFR 125
|
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The purpose of a facility Interim Certificate of Adequacy is to ___
|
allow operations pending the review of the paperwork and on-scene inspection of the facility
|
|
Cargo pump systems and gauges, cargo hoses and piping, and relief valve operations are required to be tested at least once every ___ months
|
12
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What is the MAXIMUM distance in feet for cargo space between cross aisles?
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75
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What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility with fire truck access?
|
20 feet
|
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What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility without fire truck access?
|
8 feet
|
|
How mch clearance shall be maintained around fire fire fighting appliances surrounded by cargo?
|
3 feet
|
|
How much clearance shal be maintained around fire fighting appliances?
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4 feet
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No cargo shall be tiered closer then 3 feet to a ceiling structure member or ___ inches to a sprinkler head
|
12
|
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When stacking flammable or combustible material, what is the MAXIMUM height?
|
12 feet
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How many feet of clear and open space must be maintained between cargo, freight, merchandise, and other materials piles and both sides of facility walls, fire walls and fire stops, and sides of the pier?
|
2 feet
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Which form is the application and the permit to handle explosives or other dangerous cargo?
|
CG-4260
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What is the first and broadest erm used to describe regulated cargo?
|
Dangerous Cargo
|
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Who is responsible for providing the witness for a prewash?
|
COTP
|
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What other types of cargo can be loaded at the same time as an explosive class 1.1 on board a vessel?
|
none
|
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During the prewash procedure, where are Catergory "A" and high-viscosity Caterogry "B" and "C" NLS's discharged?
|
Reception facility
|
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Once an oil transfer is complete, the person in charge must ___
|
sign the transfer papers
|
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The purpose of a facility Certificate of Adequacy is to ___
|
verify adequacy of the facility to recieve NLS's
|
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Which application form would be used for a facility applying for a Noxious Liquid Substance COA?
|
C
|
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What does a vessel have to have in order for a facility to be able to receive vapors?
|
Valid COI endorsed for vapor recovery
|
|
What is a vapor destruction unit?
|
Incinerator
|
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What must be stenciled on a Vapor Recovery hose?
|
"Vapor"
|
|
What color must the vapor recovery hose be?
|
yellow and red
|
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What is the general color combination used to mark fire fighting appliances in a warehouse?
|
Red and White
|
|
What do facilities with vapor recovery systems have to provide to the Coat Guard?
|
Written certification that the VRS meets the requirements
|
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For vapor recovery systems, who is a certifying agent?
|
Individual or company certified by G-MTH
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|
May the COTP impose any requirements from 33 CFR 154-156 on a Marina Fuel Dock that does not transfer oil or hazmat in bulk to a vessel with a capacity of over 250 barrels?
|
Yes
|
|
Horizontal movement of the water is called ___
|
current
|
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What type of current is generated largely by the continuously changing difference in height of water at two ends?
|
hydraulic current
|
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What is the term for the direction toward which the current flows?
|
set
|
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What is the term for the speed or velocity of the current?
|
drift
|
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What is the term for the movement toward shore or upstream of a current?
|
flood
|
|
What is the term for movement away from the shore or downstream of a current?
|
ebb
|
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What is the term for the type of tides the occur when the moon and the sun oppose each other, as at the quadratures?
|
neap tides
|
|
What is the term for when the current is at a period of little or no movement?
|
slack water
|
|
What type of tide has both diurnal and semidiurnal oscillations and is characterized by a large inequality in the high water heights, low water heights, or in both?
|
Mixed
|
|
What is the term for when a current sets over an irregular bottom, or meets an opposing current?
|
tide rip
|
|
What is the term for the type of tides that occur when the moon and sun are in line and pulling together, as at the new and full moon?
|
spring tides
|
|
What is the for the type of tide that occurs when the moon is farthest from the earth?
|
apogee tides
|
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What is the term for the tide that occurs when the moon is at the point in its orbit nearest the earth and the lunal semidiurnal range is increased?
|
perigee tides
|
|
What is the term for when the advance of the low water trough is so much retarded the the crest of the rising tide overtakes the low, and advances upstream as a churning, foaming wall of water?
|
bore
|
|
What type of tide is the natural period of oscillations of a body of water that may accentuate either the solar or the lunar tidal oscillations?
|
solar tides
|
|
What is the term for the condition that occurs at high tide and low water depth of water is momentarily constant?
|
stand
|
|
What serves as a rapid means of identifying vehicles with the authority to operate and park on the facility?
|
vehicle access control
|
|
What is an unobstructed area that surrounds a facility or installation?
|
clear zone
|
|
What type of lock has the case containing th elocking mechanism installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door?
|
Mortise
|
|
Examples of low, medium and high security doors are ___
|
low-hollow core, med-solid core and high steel
|
|
The most common protective lighting system consists of a series of light fixtures is called what?
|
continuos lighting
|
|
Vegetation is a clear zone will not exceed ___ inches in height
|
8
|
|
What executive order manadates federal agencies establish programs to ensure physical security of facilities?
|
EC 10421
|
|
The standard fence fabric for chain linked fencing will be ___ gauge or heavier zinc or aluminum-coated steel wire.
|
9
|
|
What kind of barrier is most commonly used and recommended for security purposes?
|
chain-linked fence
|
|
When used as a perimeter barrier, masonry walls must have a minimum height of ___ feet and must have a barbed wire top guard
|
7
|
|
Angling light over ares so as not to interfere with adjacent operations is ___ lighting
|
glare protection
|
|
What type of tide has only single high and single low water that occur each tidal day?
|
diurnal
|
|
What is the term for the current where it is offshore, where the direction of flow is not restricted by any barriers and flows continuously with the direction changing through all points of the compass during the tidal period?
|
rotary
|
|
What type of tide occurs at the the time of the new and full moon?
|
spring tide
|
|
What is the term for the period at high or low water during which there is no sensible change of level
|
stand
|
|
The difference in height between consecutive high and low waters is the ___
|
range
|
|
What type of tide has two highs and two lows each tidal day, with relatively small inequality in the high and low water hieghts?
|
semidiurnal
|
|
The height of a security fence should be ___
|
8 feet
|
|
What is a zone to prevent damage to any vessel or waterfront facility from subversive acts or accidents by controlling access or movement of persons, vessels and objects?
|
security zone
|
|
What is the type of lock that contains sylinders that open the locking latch witin the door?
|
key in the knob lock
|
|
In order for a dead bolt lock to be effective it should extend ___
|
1 inch
|
|
An electric scanning device activated by inserting a coded card used for a high security area is a ___
|
card key lock
|
|
A digital push-button combination door locking device used to deny access to any individual not authorized for a specific area is a ___
|
cipher lock
|
|
What is any fixed or man-made structure, other than a vessel, located beyond the territorial sea and off the coast of the US? These are mainly used for the loading of unloading of oil.
|
Deep Water Port
|
|
What is a photoelectric sensor which uses a light source, mirrors and a receiver?
|
Interrupting light beam sensor
|
|
An Id is made of three components: ___
|
sensor unit, control unit and annuciator
|
|
On an IDS, the annuciator is the ___
|
noise maker
|
|
What regulation covers the security of passenger terminals?
|
33 CFR 129
|
|
What type of LAA's are used around certain military installations such as gunnery ranges, submarine basses and naval weapons stations?
|
restricted area
|
|
Foil tape, magnetic contact switch and grid wire are examples of an ___
|
electrical circuit sensor
|
|
Who has the authority to establish a safety zone?
|
COTP or district commander
|
|
What is a sensor that establishes an electrostatic field and any interference actuates the alarm?
|
Electrostatic sensor
|
|
A motion sensor uses ___ and ___ signals to detect motion
|
ultrasonic and microwave
|
|
A ___ alarm notifies the police, guard force and owner when the alarm is activated
|
Central
|
|
Who has the authority to establish a restricted area?
|
COTP or district commander
|
|
Who has the authority to establish DWP safety zone?
|
Commandant
|
|
A securely fastened welded bar is required for drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts and other openings with a cross sectional area greater then ___ square inches
|
96
|
|
On an IDS, the control unit ___
|
recieves and transmits information
|
|
In-service security force training includes ___
|
specific policy on security patrols, use of force, arrest and search
|
|
What is the type of minimum fire fighting equipment used by security force personnel?
|
fire extinguisher
|
|
What are the functions of the facilities security force?
|
protection of life and property, deter crime, enforce rules and regulations
|
|
Ground clearance for fences must be within ___ inches
|
2
|
|
What are types of security core functions?
|
fixed post, mobile patrol and admin support
|
|
What is a 2-point metal fastener secured together by a pin, bolt or padlock?
|
hasp
|
|
What is a water area the requires control of vessel operations?
|
Regulated Navigable area
|
|
What type of LAA protects structures, vessels, water and shore areas by controlling access to activities within the zone?
|
safety zones
|
|
What is the best LAA to use during oil spill response operations when access control is requested?
|
safety zone
|
|
What is used to protect the environment in the area arounda supertanker off-load area?
|
DWP safety zone
|
|
What would be used during wartime or national interest/emergency situations to control access around a strategic harbor area?
|
security zone
|
|
Who establishes RNA for permanent passive traffic?
|
district commander
|
|
RNA (Regulated Navigable Area) are water areas that require control of vessel operations to ___
|
preserve the safety of the waterfront structures, ensure safe transit of other vessels, and protect the marine environment
|
|
RNA (Regulated Navigable Area) are water areas that require control of vessel operations to ___
|
preserve the safety of the waterfront structures, ensure safe transit of other vessels, and protect the marine environment
|
|
What type of LAA's are used to for national security interests rather then strictly safety considerations?
|
Security zones
|
|
What type of LAA's are used to for national security interests rather then strictly safety considerations?
|
Security zones
|
|
What type of LAA's are designated areas of land, water, or land and water which prevent damage to any vessel or waterfront facility?
|
Security zones
|
|
What type of LAA's are designated areas of land, water, or land and water which prevent damage to any vessel or waterfront facility?
|
Security zones
|
|
What type of LAA's are specific to deep water ports but provide the same protection as safety zones?
|
DWP safety zones
|
|
What type of LAA's are specific to deep water ports but provide the same protection as safety zones?
|
DWP safety zones
|
|
A RNA is established by the ___ for permanent passive traffic management
|
district commander
|
|
A RNA is established by the ___ for permanent passive traffic management
|
district commander
|
|
Utility openings more then ___ inches in diameter that pass through perimeter barriers must have security equivalent to that of the barrier.
|
10
|
|
What type of LAA would be used for protection of an artificial island that is a bird sanctuary?
|
OCS safety zone
|
|
What type of LAA would be used to protect the area around an offshore drilling platform?
|
OCS safety zone
|
|
What type of LAA may be used to prohibit oil transferees in an anchorage area due to environmental concerns?
|
RNA
|
|
What type of LAA's are normally used in support of US military ops or areas involved in handling class A explosives?
|
restricted area
|
|
What type of LAA limits access to persons possessing indentification credentials suitable to the Commandant?
|
Restricted area
|
|
A metal plate or box installed on or in a door jamb is a ___
|
strike
|
|
Who has the authority to establish an OCS safety zone?
|
District commander
|
|
What are security support measures designed to detect and announce the entry or attempted entry of a protected area?
|
Intrusion detection system
|
|
What type of LAA is limited to an area within 500 meters of artificial islands and fixed structures on the shelf?
|
Steel
|
|
What kind of door provides high security?
|
Steel
|
|
What is jointed or flexible device that allows the turning or pivoting of a door on a stationary frame?
|
Hinge
|
|
What types of weapons are used by security force members?
|
Impact, chemical and firearms
|
|
What is a metal plate or box installed on or in a door jam, with one or more bolt holes into which the bolt or spring bolt of a lock or latch can be thrown?
|
Strike
|
|
If a building is ___ high, a top guard must be used along the outside coping to deny access to the roof.
|
less then 2 stories
|
|
What kind of lock are portable locks which consist of a case containing the locking mechanism and a shackle which is passed through a hasp permanently affixed to the item ro be fastened?
|
Padlocks
|
|
What device is a lock with a solid bolt which is not spring loaded but must be physically turned to the locked or unlocked positions either by hand or key?
|
Dead bolt lock
|
|
What is a lock in which the case containing the locking mechanism is installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door?
|
Mortise lock
|
|
What type of lock uses a lock with a core (mechanism containing the key tumblers) that can be removed and replaced with another core which uses a different key?
|
Interchangeable cores
|
|
What type of locking device is commonly used in low security areas such as offices or administrative spaces?
|
key in the knob lock
|
|
What type of lock has the tumblers that unlock the cylinders, contained within the knob mounted on the face of the door?
|
Key in the knob lock
|
|
What type of lock contains the cylinders that open the locking hatch within the door?
|
Key in the knob lock
|
|
A securely fastened welded bar is required for openings witha cross-sectional area greater than ___ sq. inches and the smallest dimension of that cross-section greater than ___ inches.
|
96,6
|
|
A ___ alarm is monitored and located at the facility and the annucator is located at the security office.
|
Proprietary
|
|
A RNA is covered under what regulations?
|
33 CFR 165
|
|
A restricted area is covered under what regulation?
|
33 CFR 6 and 125
|
|
A security zone is covered under what regulation?
|
33 CFR 6 and 165
|
|
A DWP safety zone is covered under what regulations?
|
33 CFR 150
|
|
A OCS safety zone is covered under waht regulations?
|
33 CFR 147
|
|
A safety zone is covered under what regulations?
|
33 CFR 165
|
|
Physical security surveys are ___ for facilities
|
Voluntary
|
|
What does 33 CFR 128 cover?
|
Security of passenger terminals
|
|
33 CFR 125 covers what information?
|
identification credentials for persons requiring access to waterfront facilities or vessels
|
|
When a body of water is used as a barrier, it must be supplemented by ___ and ___
|
structural barriers and boat patrols
|
|
During a corodn operation, how many outer perimeters should be established?
|
2
|
|
Masonry walls must have a minimum height of ___ feet and a top guard.
|
7
|
|
Who normally establishes the inner perimeter?
|
The first person on scene
|
|
Chain linked fence must be ___ gauge or heavier with mesh openings not larger than ___ inches and twisted and barbed at the top and bottom.
|
9, 2
|
|
Standard height of a security fence is ___ feet plus ___ inches of a top guard.
|
7 and 12
|
|
Where should the on scene command poist be located?
|
Outside the inner perimeter
|
|
When building walls and roofs serve as perimeter barriers, they must provide protection equivalent to that of a ___
|
Chain link fence
|
|
Once an adversary has penetrated a facility, immediate steps to containment should be taken by establishing an ___
|
inner perimeter
|
|
The three groups of structural barriers are ___
|
building surfaces, masonry walls and fences
|
|
Utility openings more then ___ inches in diameter that pass through perimeter barriers must have security equivalent to that of the barrier
|
10
|
|
What are six types of LAA's used by the Coast Guard?
|
Safety zone, OCS safety zone, DWP safety zone, security zone, restricted area and regulated navigation area
|
|
What kind of lighting system is only used when needed?
|
standby lighting
|
|
What kind of lighting is used when it is neccessary to limit the width of the lighted strip outside the permimeter because of adjoining property or nearby environmental activities such as navigable water, airports, highways, ect.?
|
controlled lighting
|
|
What consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area continuously with overlapping cones of light during the hours of darkness?
|
continuous lighting
|
|
What is the most common protective lighting system?
|
continuous lighting
|
|
What kind of door provides medium security?
|
solid core
|
|
What king of door provides no security?
|
hollow core
|
|
What is part of a locking mechanism and when the door closes, it temporarily retracts into the door on contact with the lip of the strike?
|
Locking latch bolt
|
|
What type of lock is an electronic scanning device attivated by inserting a coded card into a designated slot?
|
Card key lock
|
|
What type of zone is usedto protect environmentally sensitive areas by limiting activities which would create an unusually high risk of harm?
|
RNA
|
|
What type of LAA limits access during a responce to an emergency and can be set for an indefinite period of time?
|
Safety zone
|
|
Which manual provides the coast guard member with information on the control of hazards in the marine safety field?
|
MSM vol.1
|
|
Who developed the units comprehensive safety program?
|
Safety and Occupational Health Coordinator
|
|
The maximum 15 minute short term exposure limit for benzene is ___
|
5 ppm
|
|
What is the basic first aid equipment used by security forces?
|
Bandages, dressings and splints
|
|
Golden yellow lamps use this material to provide light.
|
Sodium
|
|
What type of lighting has the width of th elighted strip that can be controlled and adjusted to fill a particular need?
|
controlled lighting
|
|
What requires the use of an instant on lamp to illuminate an area immediately?
|
Stand-by lighting
|
|
Incandescent, Quartz aholgen and fluorescent lights are normally ___ in color and provide instant on.
|
White
|
|
A break out from the inner perimeter is prevented by establishing a ___
|
outer perimeter
|
|
Lamps that provide a blue/green light are ___ vapor.
|
mercury
|
|
A type of lock in which the case containing the locking mechanism is installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door is a ___
|
Mortise
|
|
Elements that should always be included in an security force training program are ___
|
Basic training, in-service training and advanced training
|
|
What are measures to prevent down time or personnel and equipment due to injury?
|
loss prevention
|
|
What are physical items such as buildings and fences, that would cause delay of entry?
|
barriers and clear zones
|
|
What are items of miscellaneous equipment that could be used by a security force?
|
night vision equipment, photographic equipment, gas masks
|
|
What are types of security force functions?
|
Fixed post, mobile patrol and admin support
|
|
What are types of vehicle access control?
|
Facility tags and decals, goverment tags and decals, and gates
|
|
What is th most positive method of identification for small numbers os personnel and should be utilized where ever feasible?
|
Personal recognition
|
|
A clear zone is made up of a ___ area and a ___ area.
|
Inside 30 ft, outside 20 ft
|
|
What is used to control personnel and vehicle access to the facility, installation or secured areas?
|
Access controls
|
|
What is a zone that is limited to an area within 500 feet of artificial islands and fixed structure on the shelf?
|
Outer continental shelf safety zone
|
|
What determines the size and shape of the inner perimeter?
|
Observation point
|
|
If two security personnel are present where should they take postitions?
|
Opposite corners
|
|
Establishing a ___ protects from a break out from the inner perimeter
|
Outer perimeter
|
|
what type of permiter is used to block off all routes of escape?
|
Containment
|
|
Which COMNTINST provides the Coast Guard member with information os hazards encountered in the marine safety world?
|
M16000.6
|
|
Respirators provide respiratory protection by removing the contaminate from the air or by providing ___
|
an independent air supply
|
|
Air testing equipment used in the Coast Guard includes a combustible gas indicator, toxic gas indicator, and ___
|
oxygen indicator
|
|
What are three types of air purifying respirators?
|
particulate removing, vapor/gas removing and combination
|
|
Air testing equipment used in the Coast Guard includes a toxic gas indicator, oxygen indicator, and ___
|
combustible gas indicator
|
|
Fit testing is required ___
|
annually
|
|
An emergency escape breathing apparatus (EEBA) provides air for approximately ___ minutes?
|
5
|
|
Which tight-fitting face piece is recommended for use due to it's high level of protection?
|
Full face mask
|
|
Which type of self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is used in marine safety operations?
|
Open-circuit, pressure demand
|
|
What are two classes of respirators?
|
air purifying and air supply
|
|
What is the purpose of fit testing?
|
To train and give confidence to the operator
|
|
How many days must someone be around HAZMAT to be eligible for the OMMP program?
|
30 days
|
|
The oxygen indicator most often found at Coast Guard units is the ___
|
Bacharach Model 103
|
|
Which officer implements the Commanding Officer's safety and health policy?
|
the Commanding Officer
|
|
What are the two types of atmosphere supplying respirators?
|
Self-contained and supply air
|
|
Where are respiratory regulations found?
|
29 CFR 1910.134
|
|
What COMDINST established industrial hygiene requirements concerning occupational exposure to benzene?
|
COMDINST 6260.22
|
|
What COMDINST identifies hazards to be encountered in the marine safety field, and also informs personnel of individual responsibilities within the marine safety unit organization?
|
COMDINST M6000.1B Medical Manual
|
|
Where are the OSHA permissible exposure limits published?
|
29 CFR 1910
|
|
Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on the organization and responsibilties with regard to safety and health at the marine safety unit?
|
Marine Safety Manual vol. 1
|
|
Which officer also serves as the safety officer?
|
Executive officer
|
|
The most common type of toxic gas indicator is the ___
|
Drager Multigas detector
|
|
Two types of fit tests are ___
|
qualitative and quantitative
|
|
What are the two types of supplied-air respirators used for marine safety operations?
|
Loose-fitting coverings and tight-fitting face piece
|
|
Which reference provides Coast Guard personnel with information in three specific areas with respect to safety and health?
|
Marine Safety Manual vol. 1
|
|
Air testing equipment in the Coast Guard includes a combustible gas indicator, oxygen indicator, and ___
|
toxic gas indicator
|
|
The maximum benzene exposure for an 8 hour time-weighted average is ___
|
1 ppm
|
|
Who administers a unit's respiratory protection program?
|
Respiratory Protection Administrator
|
|
Combination or "Type N" respirators are also known as the ___
|
universal canister
|
|
A confined space cannot be entered unless vent fans are working properly, and have been running for atleast ___ air charges and ___ minutes prior to entry
|
3, 15
|
|
Supplied air respirators depend on air supplied through a ___
|
hose
|
|
Hazards associated with a cargo on a vessel can be identified through the use of ___
|
shipping papers
|
|
What manual outlines safe work practices for personnel?
|
M16000.6 (MSM vol.1)
|
|
Who is required to perform the Safety and Occupational Health Coordinator's duties when the coordinator is absent?
|
Safety Petty Officer
|
|
What can a responsible party give you to help determine the health hazards of a product?
|
a MSDS
|
|
What is defined as the lowest concentration in air that most humans can detect by smell?
|
Odor threshold
|
|
What is an amount that when a hazardous substance is released would be a harmful quantity?
|
Reportable quantity
|
|
Which manual is the Technical Guide: Practices for Respiratory Protection?
|
COMDINST M6260.2C
|
|
What type of atmosphere-supplying respirator uses a man-carried high-pressure air tank?
|
Self-contained, pressure demand
|
|
Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on the organization and responsibilties with regard to safety and health at the marine safety unit?
|
COMDINST M16000.6
|
|
Who is responsible for the safety of people at the unit?
|
The commanding officer
|
|
In vapor/gas removing respirators the contaminate sticks to or is soaked into the ___
|
charcoal filter
|
|
An oxygen deficient atmosphere requires what type of respirator?
|
SCBA
|
|
What represents a maximum level from which one could escape within 30 minutes without any escape impairing symptoms or any irreversible health effects?
|
IDLH
|
|
What is defined as the concentration of a substance that can be breathed for five consecutive 8 hour workdays by most people without adverse effects?
|
TLV
|
|
How often are SCBA canisters hydrostatically tested?
|
every five years
|
|
What is defined as the lowest temperature at which vapors above a volatile combustible substance will ignite in air when exposed to an ignition source?
|
Flash point
|
|
What is the percent concentration in air (by volume) that can give an indication of the relative flammability of a chemical substance?
|
LEL
|
|
How often should SCBA's have a full function check if they are not used daily?
|
monthly
|
|
EEBA's are carried in what three situation?
|
cargo monitors, vessel inspections, confined space entry
|
|
What regulation covers respirator requirements?
|
29 CFR
|
|
All Cost Guard personnel exposed to hazardous substances on a regular basis are required to be enrolled in the ___
|
Occupational Medical Monitoring Program
|
|
Vapor/gas removing respirators protect against specific (or classes of) ___
|
chemicals
|
|
Which is the most common type of fit test?
|
qualitative
|
|
Which manual contains the Coast Guard Policy for occupational exposure to benzene?
|
COMDINST M6260.2C
|
|
Which level of protection should be used when the type of airborne substance is known, measured, and the criteria for using air-purifying respirators are met?
|
C
|
|
What is the purpose of a respirator?
|
To protect the respiratory system from harmful physical or chemical agents
|
|
Which indicator uses a bellows pump for operation?
|
Dragel Multigas detector
|
|
Who determines the goals and priorities at a unit with respect to safety and health?
|
Commanding officer
|
|
Who is responsible for the safety and health protection of personnel assigned to a command?
|
Commanding officer
|
|
Which manual contains the requirements for administrating a respiratory program?
|
COMDINST M6260.2C
|
|
The number of persons required for level A entry is ___
|
8
|
|
Which fit test is required each time the respirator is donned?
|
Positive/negative pressure check
|
|
Combination respirators contain several different sorbents and ___
|
fibrous filters
|
|
Which level of protection should NOT be used when respiratory or skin hazards are present?
|
D
|
|
Which level of protection should be used when the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but a lesser level of skin protection is needed?
|
B
|
|
The maximum benzene exposure for an 8 hour time-weighted average is ___
|
1 ppm
|
|
EEBA full function checks are done ___
|
monthly
|
|
Which manual provides information necessary for safe use of respirator protection devices?
|
COMDINST M6260.2C
|
|
Who is the person in charge of the respiratory protection at the unit?
|
The Respiratory Protection Administrator
|
|
Particulate removing respirators remove the contaminate by using a ___
|
fibrous filter
|
|
The bellows on a Drager indicator should be tested for ___
|
30 minutes
|
|
Approved respirators wil have a two-letter approval code of ___
|
TC
|
|
When an SCBA is not being used, how often must it have a fully functional test?
|
1 year
|
|
How often does an EEBA get a function test?
|
every 6 months
|
|
The Bacharach oxygen indicator should be calibrated to ___ % oxygen
|
20.9
|
|
When calibrating the Bacharach model 103, the oxygen percentage is set at ___.
|
20.9%
|
|
How often are fit tests required?
|
Annually
|
|
How often should EEBA's have a full functional check?
|
monthly
|
|
Which level of protection provides minimal protection?
|
D
|
|
An EEBA is designed for ___
|
Escape only
|
|
The types of masks authorized of use in benzene environments of 10 ppm or less are ___
|
Full face or half mask with organic cartridge
|
|
Which fit test uses a known concentration of a contaminant?
|
Qualitative
|
|
Which manual addresses the maintenance and improvement of health related issues of Coast Guard personnel?
|
COMDINST M6000.1B
|
|
In a lifeboat system, a lifeboat with a class 1 motor has a type of engine?
|
Compression ignition engine
|
|
When conducting a monitor, what certain pieces of equipment should be located and checked?
|
Radar, magnetic steering compass, gyro compass and repeater, echo depth sounder and recorder, ruddr angle indicator, dual radar system, radiotelephone, ARPA, LORAN or SATNAV
|
|
What are the exceptions to the requirements of the COFR?
|
vessels of 300 gross tons or less, public vessels, non-self propelled barges which do not carry oil or hazardous substances such as cargo or fuel
|
|
What does 33 CFR 157 cover?
|
Rules for the protection of the marine environment relating to tank vessels examination record
|
|
What document is used to record examinations and whether there are any deficiencies which must be corrected? It is used on foreign flag tank ships.
|
TVE Tank Vessel Examination Letter
|
|
What document contains information regarding the cargoes the vessel is authorized to carry?
|
COI Certificate of Inspection
|
|
What type of vessel is designed to carry general purpose cargo?
|
Break bulk
|
|
When completing a vessel boarding, what certificates need to be checked?
|
US vessels -COI, Foreign flag tank ships, -TVE, Foreign flag chemical carriers -LOC, and COFR and IOPP
|
|
What regulation is the basis for all of the tank vessel regulations?
|
Subchapter D
|
|
MSO's will monitor cargo operations on ___
|
tank ships with emphasis on the crew's adherence to the Coast Guard approved oil transfer procedures and tank barges with emphasis on the tankerman's adherence to the Coast Guard
|
|
Regulations require that tank vessels be monitored every ___ months.
|
6
|
|
What type of gauging method may use a computer, sight glass, or similar method?
|
Closed
|
|
What type of gauging method involves inserting a weighted measuring tape into the cargo tank through a sounding tube?
|
Restricted
|
|
What does 33 CFR 151 cover?
|
Vessels carrying oil, NLS, garbage, municipal or commercial waste and ballast water
|
|
In a lifeboat system, what type of releasing gear does not have a retaining device to prevent accidental release of the hook?
|
mills type
|
|
What should be looked for when examining lifeboats FRP?
|
Connections to boat hulls and steel supports, hammerbolts and fillings for tightness and possible dilamination, areas of secondary bonding for separation
|
|
How often must lifeboats be stripped, cleaned and overhauled?
|
once a year
|
|
When conducting a monitor, you will check to ensure the pump room is safe. This includes checking ___
|
oil in the bilges, rags, paint solvents stored in the room, loose/bare electrical wires, electrical drop cords used in the room, pumps leaking cargo, fire equipment available and ready to use
|
|
Port State control inspections normally consist of ___
|
checking certificates and documents
|
|
COFR's are required for vessels larger than ___
|
300 gross tons
|
|
A wide watertight door hinged at the bottom that can be lowered to a dock so vehicles can be driven on or off the vessel is a ___
|
cargo ramp
|
|
In a lifeboat system, what is examined when inspecting gravity davits?
|
ensure electronics work
|
|
In a lifeboat system, when are davit span wires and manropes not required?
|
With covered lifeboats
|
|
What type of vessel, under power or sail, is operated for pleasure and does not carry cargo or passengers for hire?
|
Yacht
|
|
What does 33 CFR 159 cover?
|
Marine Sanitation Devices
|
|
When ensuring navigation safety requirements are met, what publications must be corrected and up to date?
|
US Coast Pilot, Coast Guard Light List, Tide Tables, Tidal Current Tables
|
|
How far back will G-MCO go in reviewing the vessels history to address interventions?
|
12 months
|
|
Who else must be notified and given a copy of the intervention report?
|
The flag state representation, classification society, master must receive a copy with work list
|
|
How long is a COI good for?
|
2 years
|
|
On an unmanned barge, where will the documents be kept?
|
On the barge
|
|
What is the gross tonnage of a ship that needs a second and fully independent radar system?
|
10,000
|
|
Where are all port state control actions documented in MSIS?
|
PSAR, Operational Control Imposed supplement
|
|
What does G-MCO use vessel interventions that lead to detention for?
|
It triggers a review to determine why the discrepancies were not detected earlier
|
|
If a boarding is missed what has to be done?
|
A notation or explanation must be given as to why the boarding was missed
|
|
Before Port State Control was implemented what was the purpose of reviewing Intervention reports?
|
To fulfill international obligations
|
|
How many gross tons and above must a tank vessel be before it is required to have a IOPP certificate?
|
100
|
|
Who notifies the owner of a vessel that has recieved an intervention report?
|
G-MCO
|
|
All load line certificates are issued for a period of ___
|
5 years
|
|
What is to be sent after the Intervention Reports?
|
Follow up reports, Post intervention reports, Both are identified in the subject line of an e-mail
|
|
How long after does the intervention report have to be confirmed at district?
|
By 1630 the next business day
|
|
Who is responsible to insure receipt of the intervention report by district?
|
The sender
|
|
The intervention report must be sent by e-mail how?
|
Return receipt
|
|
Who is also supposed to receive a copy of the intervention report?
|
The unit's District Office
|
|
How are the Interventino Reports sent out?
|
The report will be sent as an attachment via e-mail
|
|
When should a vessel be detained?
|
Only whenthe vessel is unfit for sea or poses an unreasonable risk to the environment
|
|
Who else besides the owner/operator does G-MCO notify of an intervention report?
|
I.M.O.
|
|
What document is issued by the Coast Guard and is required for all foreign and US vessels over 300 gross tons?
|
COFR - Certificate of Financial Responsibility
|
|
How many parts are there to an IOPP certificate?
|
2
|
|
In a lifeboat system, what should you do when looking at internal and centrifugal brakes?
|
open assembly for inspection
|
|
What certificate shows that the vessel owner has demonstrated the ability to meet the financial liability that could result form the discharge of oil or hazardous substances into the waters of the US?
|
COFR
|
|
What is the maximum number of persons that are allowed in a hand propelled lifeboat?
|
100
|
|
Who is responsible for proving armed guards for crew restrictions of on-entrant nationals aboard a category vessel?
|
The state department
|
|
What is the maximum number of persons that are allowed in an oar propulsion lifeboat?
|
59
|
|
In a lifeboat system, a lifeboat with a class 3 motor has what type of engine?
|
class 2 plus radio cabin and FCC radio
|
|
In a life boat system, a lifeboat with a class 2 motor has what type of engine?
|
class 1 engine with a search light
|
|
What COMDINST is the Merchant Shipping Convention, 1976 and Port State Control?
|
COMDINST 16711.12A
|
|
Each marine employeer must submit what form that summarizes drug and alcohol testing for the previous year?
|
CG-5573
|
|
Where are navigation regulations found?
|
33 CFR 164
|
|
What type of vessels are 49 CFR Subchapter V vessels?
|
Oceanographic Reserach Vessels
|
|
What form number is the Letter of Compliance?
|
CG-2832A
|
|
What two survey periods are applicable to load line certificates?
|
initial and annual
|
|
What items need to be checked before reporting a potential load line violation?
|
Check both sides of the vessel to ensure it does not have a list, perform a check to see if violation is due to FWA, check for fuel allowance
|
|
Where are the regulations for load lines found?
|
46 CFR 42
|
|
Who may issue orders to control vessel movement within a port?
|
The district commander or COTP
|
|
The fuel allowance given to vessels for laod lines does not apply where?
|
the Great Lakes
|
|
Who is responsible for the enforcement of load line violators?
|
the Coast Guard
|
|
What vessels require drug testing?
|
Any manned inspected vessel, uninspected passenger vessels, commercial assistance towing vessels, commercial fishing vessels over 200 gross tons, and recreational vessels over 200 gross tons
|
|
When was the port state control initiative implemented?
|
1 May 1994
|
|
Who would be responsible for approving the entry to a US port of a warship from a catergory country?
|
the State Department
|
|
Safety equipment on board self-propelled vessels must be made of materials that ___
|
will float
|
|
Who on board a vessel will help you understand a stow plan?
|
the Chief Mate
|
|
In a lifeboat system, what type of releasing gear has retained devices that have been found in defective conditions?
|
Stewart types
|
|
How many gross tons does a US vessel have to be before it is required to have load lines?
|
150
|
|
Who determines and creates the targeting process for interventions?
|
G-MCO
|
|
Who are intervention reports sent to?
|
the Commandant (G-MCO-2)
|
|
Which type of cargo handling gear is used to load cargo on dry-bulk ships?
|
Conveyor system
|
|
How long must a file be kept and maintained for each boarding?
|
24 months
|
|
What is the ultimate goal of the PSC exams and re-exams?
|
To protect the passengers, crew, property and environment
|
|
What is the Vessel Boarding Form?
|
CG-5437
|
|
Which document is used to record all shipboard oil transfers?
|
Oil Record Book
|
|
What type of gauging method involves inserting a weighted measuring tape into the cargo tank through an ullage hole?
|
Open
|
|
For each SIV boarding performed, the COTP must submit an ___ report
|
Intelligence Information
|
|
What publication took the place of COMDINST 5010.8 Standard Vessel Boarding Program?
|
MSM vol. II, chapter 30
|
|
What is used to load a RO/RO?
|
a ramp
|
|
Who is responsible for confirming the status of a suspect SIV vessel at it's first port of call?
|
COTP
|
|
Which type of cargo handling gear is most commonly used on RO/RO ships?
|
a cargo ramp
|
|
What type of cargo handling gear is used to load cargo on container ships?
|
a gantry crane
|
|
33 CFR 164 applies to self-propelled vessels of ___ gross tons or more operated on the navigable waters of the US.
|
1600
|
|
Pump rooms must not be entered unless vent fans are working properly, and have been run for atleast ___ air changes and ___ minutes prior to entry.
|
5, 15
|
|
In a lifeboat system, how often should davits be overhauled?
|
Once a year
|
|
When conducting a monitor for a vessel carrying bulk solid hazardous materials, what documents must be checked?
|
Shipping papers and DCM
|
|
While conducting a monitor, you will check to ensure any open tank hatches or ullage openings are ___
|
under the supervision of a crew member or PIC, or have flame screens installed which are clean and in good condition
|
|
Load line certificates are good for how many years?
|
5 years with annual endorsements
|
|
What law gives the Coast Guard its authority to board a vessel?
|
14USC89
|
|
Load lines for US vessels are usually issued by ___
|
class society (ABS)
|
|
What are three examples of public ships?
|
Warships, maritime training ships and research vessels
|
|
All US and foreign vessels greater than ___ gross tons adn new vessels greater than ___ feet in length must have load lines.
|
150, 79
|
|
What type of vessel is designed specifically to carry vehicles?
|
RO/RO
|
|
Who is responsible for signing a statement in the cargo record book stating that the discharge tank does not have to be prewashed before loading the next cargo of NLS?
|
Surveyor
|
|
What documents follow-up action related to discrepancies after the case has been validated or closed to file?
|
PSDF
|
|
How many groos tons does a US vessel have to be before it is required to have load lines?
|
150
|
|
The vent system used with flammable liquids which provides constant venting of vapor from an entry of air into tanks will have a ___
|
gooseneck vent
|
|
Who on board a vessel will help you understand a stow plan?
|
Chief mate
|
|
The ___ gauging method uses the size of the opening through which the tape is passed is smaller than normal ullage opening.
|
restricted
|
|
What is used to indicate the maximum amidships draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged?
|
load lines
|
|
Oceangoing ships less then ___ gross tons may retain all oily mixtures on board in the ships bilge.
|
200
|
|
The Declaration of Inspection is a form used to ensure ___
|
certain safety conditions exist
|
|
What product set documents special interests vessels?
|
PSPI
|
|
What is a doctrine of international law that confers limited legal immunity upon vessels that are forced to seek refuge or repairs within the jurisdiction or another nation due to uncontrollable eternal forces or conditions?
|
force majure
|
|
What is the COMDINST for Shipping Agent Guidelines?
|
COMDINST M16618.5C
|
|
Who will determine which classification societies meet IMO Resolution A.739 (18)?
|
CG Headquarters
|
|
When there is a targeted owner, to what vessels does the intervention apply?
|
all the targeted owners vessels
|
|
What is an owner, operator or managing operator of any vessel that is the subject of a US Port State Intervention carried out under the authority of an international convention?
|
Targeted Owner
|
|
What document contains the information regarding authorized cargo for a tank vessel?
|
Certificate of Inspection
|
|
In a motorized lifeboat, how often must the lifeboat be operated?
|
5 minutes, once a week
|
|
In a lifeboat system, what are the 3 acceptable means of propulsion?
|
oar, hand propelled and motor propelled
|
|
If a vessel has a recent history of cargo related accidents (with no corrective actions indicated by MSIS) what priority would the vessel be?
|
High
|
|
What document carried on a tank vessel identified cargo the vessel is authorized to carry?
|
the Certificate of Inspection
|
|
What is the primary tool used to plan vessel boarding activity?
|
Marine Safety Information System
|
|
Who has the authority to classify a nation as a non-entrant nation?
|
State Department
|
|
What type of cargo handling gear is most commonly used on break-bulk ships?
|
Burton rig
|
|
The vessel's current compass deviation chart must be posted near the ___
|
magnetic steering compass
|
|
In a lifeboat system, what is required in an oar propulsion lifeboat?
|
maximum 59 persons, fitted with mast and sail, complete set of oars and row locks
|
|
What are 46 CFR Subchapter T Vessels?
|
Small passenger vessels
|
|
What are 46 CFR Subchapter R Vessels?
|
Nautical School Vessels
|
|
What are 46 CFR Subchapter I Vessels?
|
Freight vessels
|
|
What are 46 CFR Subchapter H Vessels?
|
Passenger vessels
|
|
What are 46 CFR Subchapter D Vessels?
|
Tank ships
|
|
Cargo tanks must be certified gas free by a ___ prior to entry
|
certified marine chemist
|
|
Vessels over 10,000 gross tons must be equipped with automated ___
|
plotting aid
|
|
Where are deep tanks located on dry bulk ships?
|
below the cargo in the double bottoms
|
|
What tankers carry large quantities of a single product?
|
crude oil tankers
|
|
What are vessels that carry a number of different petroleum products or hazardous materials at the same time in relatively small quantities?
|
product tankers
|
|
What are the types of tank vessels?
|
product tankers and crude oil tankers
|
|
What are the basic types of tank vessels?
|
Tank ships, tank barges and LNG/LPG carriers
|
|
Navigation regulations apply to vessels of what size?
|
1600 gross tons or greater
|
|
What form number is the Tank Vessel Examination Letter?
|
CG-840S-1
|
|
What (in respect to load lines) is the term for the amount (in inches) that a vessel will sink when moving from salt water to fresh water?
|
Fresh water allowance
|
|
When a vessel leaves a port, deeper loads are permitted corresponding to the weight of ___
|
ballast
|
|
What are four different types of cargo vessels?
|
Break bulk, dry bulk, RO/RO and tank ships
|
|
What is the maximum number of people allowed in a motor propelled lifeboat?
|
150
|
|
What regulation covers tank vessel operations?
|
46 CFR 35
|
|
What regulation covers tank vessels and the Certificate of Inspection?
|
46 CFR 31
|
|
What regulation covers tank vessels and the application and cargoes regulated?
|
46 CFR 30
|
|
During summer, how many load lines are applicable on the great lakes?
|
4
|
|
Which method of gaugingis authorized for LNG/LHG carriers?
|
Closed
|
|
What programs' purpose is to record arrival and departure schedules of vessel and share this information with other products?
|
PSVS, Port Safety Vessel Scheduler
|
|
What program records schedule facility inspections, including relevant data from several facility file products and maintains a queue of scheduled facility inspections?
|
PSVS, Port Safety Vessel Scheduler
|
|
What program lists all closed PS cases and allows you to retrieve the PSAR for any closed case?
|
PSPL, Port Safety Port Log
|
|
What product allows you to enter and display information that is important about your facilities? It covers 26 kinds of facilities, including aircraft, bridges, locks and mobile facilities
|
FFPS Facility File Particulars Summary
|
|
What product displays a list of all closed cases for a particular facility?
|
FFCG Facility File Coast Guard Contact Log
|
|
What product is used to find a units open cases?
|
PSPL, Port Safety Port Log
|
|
What product is used to enter information of facility pressure vessels and related detection and alarm systems?
|
FFPV, Facility File Pressure Vessels
|
|
What product establishes a violation case from other case types and collects the related charges, specifications, and charged party for submittal as a single case?
|
MVCF Marine violation Case Formatted
|
|
What product provides a means for entering a variety of facility systems which do not have thier own FF product?
|
FFMS, Facility File Miscellaneous Systems
|
|
What product allows you to show information about individual facilities that make up a certified MARPOL reception facility or identify a self contained MARPOL reception facility?
|
FFMR, Facility File MARPOL Reception
|
|
What product is used to enter facility data about lifeboats, life rafts, life saving equipment and embarkation aids?
|
FFLS, Facility File Life Saving Details
|
|
What product is used to record information on portable fire-fighting equipment?
|
FFPF, Facility File Portable Fire Fighting
|
|
What permits a series of vessel to be associated with each other as a class for MSIS manipulation?
|
VFSC, Vessel File Special Class
|
|
What product summarizes the status of a facilties inspections, documents, operational controls and oustanding requirements?
|
FFSS, Facility File Status Summary
|
|
What product displays a list of all marine inspection cases for a particular facility?
|
FFMI, Facility Marine Inspection Log
|
|
What product displays a list of changed facilities and allows deletion of selected facilities?
|
FFLCF, Facility File List of Changed Facilities
|
|
What product displays a list of new facilities and allows deletion of selected ones?
|
FFLNF, Facility File List of New Facilities
|
|
What product set is used to link companies and individuals to a facility and to identify thier roles with respect to the facility?
|
FFMI, Facility File Marine Inspection Log
|
|
What product setif used to establish a facilities identification number in the system and to record other basic identification information?
|
FFID, Facility File Identification Data
|
|
What allows you to search for a vessel by name, display the results of the search and then proceed to VFID, VFEI, or VFDS, depending on your mode?
|
VFVSA, Vessel File Vessel Search Alphabetic
|
|
What is a summary of general information about a vessel's machinery and life saving systems?
|
VFSS, Vessel File System Summary
|
|
What is a summary of the general information about a vessel's design, measurements, operation route, manning restrictions, stability and load line tests, and Subchapter D cargo authorization?
|
VFPS, Vessel File Particulars Summary
|
|
What contains detalied information about the issuance and status or all of a vessel's relevant safety and regulatory documents?
|
VFLD, Vessel File List of Documents
|
|
What product provides a means to identify fixed fire-fighting equipment and related detection and alarm systems?
|
FFFF, Facility File Fixed Fire-Fighting
|
|
What product set lists all facilities to which a specified involved party has been linked to any capacity?
|
PNFA, Party Name Facility Associations
|
|
True or False: NOV cases entered in MSIS do not require supplemental information
|
True
|
|
Which MC product establishes linkages to appropriate subjects, notifies other units via logs or mail, and manages case actions per your direction?
|
IAPR
|
|
Which MC product set includes data on spill details and federal project information?
|
IAPR
|
|
the purpose of the Marine Casualty Set is to ___
|
update and maintain information on all casualty cases in the marine environment
|
|
What product provides a place to record and keep current information of concern to the Coast Guard and facility security?
|
FFSD, Facility File Security Data
|
|
What product displays a list of all marine casualty cases for a particular facility?
|
FFMC, Facility File Marine Casualty Log
|
|
What records scheduled facility inspections, including relevant data from several facility file products and maintains a queue of scheduled facility inspections?
|
PSFS, Port Safety Facility Scheduler
|
|
It's purpose is to record arrival and departure schedules of vessel and share this information with other product sets
|
PSVS, Port Safety Vessel Scheduler
|
|
What product set provides current information about open cases for a particular involved party?
|
PNOC, Part Name Open Case Log
|
|
Waht lists inspections scheduled during the next 30 days? It also displays information associated with a pending inseptigation.
|
PSFT, Port Safety Facility Tickler
|
|
What product provides a list of open cases attached to the facility?
|
FFOC, Facility file Open Case Log
|
|
What product displays a list of changed vessels and allows deletion of selected vessels?
|
VFLCV, Vessel File List of Changed Vessels
|
|
What product is used to display a list of new vessels and allows deletion of selected vessels?
|
VFLNV, Vessel File List of New Vessels
|
|
What is used to enter and delete the official relationships between a vessel and companies or individuals?
|
VFIP, Vessel File Involved Parties
|
|
What product is used to identify vessels to MSIS and to change certain vessel identifying information?
|
VFID, Vessel File Identification Data
|
|
What displays a list of ports VPI and SIV notices currently contained in PSPI?
|
PSVP, Port Safety VPI/SIV Notice Log
|
|
What product provides a list of useful information to field units similiar to a bulletin board?
|
PSFI, Port Safety Field Information
|
|
What lists all open PS cases and allows you to retrieve the PSAR for any open case?
|
PSSP, Port Safety Status and Port
|
|
What displays the current class memberships for a designated vessel?
|
VFCM Vessel File Class Membership
|
|
What allows you to retrieve all vessel historical information?
|
PSVH, Port Safety Narrative Supplement
|
|
What displays a summary of the vessel's physical and non-physical descriptions?
|
VFDS, Vessel File Description Summary
|
|
What holds narrative summary information relating to a port safety case?
|
PSNS, Port Safety Narrative Supplement
|
|
What product track information on operational controls imposed on vessels and facilities supplemantal to activity reports?
|
PSOC, Port Safety Operational Control
|
|
What product set documents follow-up action related to discrepancies after the case has been validated or closed to file?
|
PSDF, Port Safety Discrepancy Follow-up
|
|
What documents vessels of particular interest and/or special interest vessel notices with associated vessel identification data?
|
PSPI, Port Safety VPI/SVI Notice
|
|
What product documents discrepancies noted during a boarding or facility inspection? It allows you to indicate whether legal action if possible.
|
PSDR, Port Safety Discrepancy Report
|
|
What program's purpose is to record general Port Safety information involving vessels, facilities and other port operation activities?
|
PSAR, Port Safety Activity Report
|
|
What is the purpose of the facility file product set?
|
Provides MSIS with the ability to monitor and manage facility inspections
|
|
What is the purpose of the vessel file product set?
|
Provides support of all areas of marine safety involving vessels
|
|
Which COMDINST contains detailed instructions for use of MSIS?
|
COMDINST M5230 series
|
|
Which MC product establishes MC cases and case numbers and caputers basic investigative information?
|
IAPR
|
|
NOV cases should be entered into MSIS within __ hours of issuance?
|
24
|
|
NOV cases should be validated within ___ hours of issuance?
|
48
|
|
What product set lists all the involved parties that have been modified in MSIS?
|
PNLCP, Party Name List of Changed Parties
|
|
What product set provides a list of involved parties in MSIS?
|
PNLNP, Party Name List of New Parties
|
|
What product set allows you to serach for parties within a specifies range and save, view, print or kill the results of your search?
|
PNPSA, Party Name Party Search Alphabetic
|
|
Use of the MV case process should be seriously considered in the event at least ___ NOV cases occur in a 12 month period to the same RP
|
3
|
|
What product set provides a way to serach the MSIS database for a particular party name, either when asking a new party into MSIS or when searching for an IPN?
|
PNPS Party Name Party Search
|
|
Which MC product represents the primary report for all MC investigation activities?
|
MCIR
|
|
What product allows you to search for a facility by name, display the results of the serach, and then proceed to FFID, FFIE, FFPS, depending on your mode?
|
FFFSA, Facility File Facility Search Alphabetic
|
|
What product displays a list of all PS cases for a particular facility?
|
FFPI, Facility File Closed Port Safety Case Log
|
|
What product provides a means for retrieving a list of offshore facilities by specifying an area/block number?
|
FFPL, Facility File Platform Locator
|
|
What product displays a facility's relationship to other facilities?
|
FFFA, Facility File Facility Association
|
|
What product set if used to enter a new involved party into MSIS, or update and retrieve existing party information?
|
PNID, Party Name Identification Data
|
|
Which MC product is the cornerstone or preliminary marine investigation?
|
IAPR
|
|
What product set describes a vessel or facility at the time a violation case is created?
|
MVSS, Marine Violation Subject Supplement
|
|
What product set records narrative information about a case?
|
MVPS, Marine Violation Narrative Supplement
|
|
What product set contains the information about a pollution incident used to make a violation case?
|
MVPS, Marine violation Pollution Supplement
|
|
what product set records a penalty amount for each specification is a violation cse, a resolution for a specification or charge, and evidence sources?
|
MVCR, Marine Violation Charge Sheet
|
|
What product set provides a general description of the entire violation case, emphasizing party information?
|
MVCR, Marine Violation Case Report
|
|
What product set lists all vessels to which a specified involved party has been linked in any capacity?
|
PNVA, Party Name Vessel Associations
|
|
What product set provides an on-line account of the number of associations, by type, for a particular involved party?
|
PNAS, Party Name Association Summary
|
|
What product set provides information about closed case activity for a particular involved party?
|
PNCG, Party Name Coast Guard Contact Log
|
|
Which MC product is the corner stone of the marine casualty product set?
|
MCIR
|
|
What product set displays a summary of current and past actions taken by the US Coast Guard against an involved party?
|
PNVL, Party Name Violation History Log
|
|
What rank can an approving offical be?
|
Commissioned officer or civilian
|
|
Marks of 1 or 2 describe marginal performance. What form must be filed out to accompany these marks?
|
CG3307 (page 7)
|
|
What should be done if a 3 or 5 are given as marks?
|
underline the portions of the 4 or 6 that was consistently met
|
|
When are page 7's signed for marks?
|
after the approving official has signed
|
|
what should enlisted Performance Support forms be used for?
|
It should be used to explain primary duties, collateral duties and what You, as a supervisor expect from new personnel
|
|
What number is the form of the Enlisted Performance Support form?
|
CG-3788
|
|
What else canan enlisted Performance support form be used for?
|
It can be used by the evaluee to let the supervisor know what you have accomplished
|
|
In almost every instance during a session of counseling what should you allow the counselee to do?
|
save face
|
|
As a supervisor what should you never do with a counselee?
|
never allow yourself to be trapped in an arguement
|
|
How many months are advance pay installments spread over?
|
12, but under certain circumstances payments can be extended over 24 months
|
|
How long is temporary storage?
|
90 days and an additional 90 days can be requested
|
|
How many temporary lodging expense days are allowed for INCONUS transfer?
|
10 days
|
|
What distance does the Coast Guard consider a travel day by car?
|
350 miles
|
|
How often can you recieve dislocation allowance?
|
Once every fiscal year
|
|
What rate is dislocation allowance paid at for single members?
|
2.5 times BAQ
|
|
How many months of advance pay can you receive once on orders?
|
3 months
|
|
When is proceed time not allowed under any circumstances?
|
when the reporting date is within 4 days
|
|
Is proceed time chargable as leave?
|
No
|
|
On a Familiarazation and Relocation trip, what type of orders would you travel on?
|
Permissive Orders
|
|
How many days relocation and familiarization are allowed at command discretion?
|
5 days
|
|
What is the SSIC code for Coast Guard Missions?
|
16000
|
|
When can single members receive dislocation allowance?
|
only when government quarters are not available at the new unit
|
|
What is the form number for a security form checklist?
|
CG-4781
|
|
Who is the last person to sign evaluation marks?
|
Approving Official
|
|
What COMDINST covers the Enforcement of the Regulations by the COTP?
|
COMDINST M16601.1
|
|
What COMDINST covers the MOU between the Coast Guard and the EPA?
|
M16465.18
|
|
What is the form number for a COI for small passenger vessels?
|
CG-3735
|
|
Special evaluations are not optional after how many days of a regular evaluation?
|
92 days
|
|
What COMDINST covers the CHRIS manual vols I-IV?
|
COMDINST M16565.12
|
|
when cana Coast Guard Representative grant an exclusive on a news story?
|
Never
|
|
How long is temporary storage?
|
90 days and an additional 90 days can be requested
|
|
How many temporary lodging expense days are allowed for INCONUS transfer?
|
10 days
|
|
What distance does the Coast Guard consider a travel day by car?
|
350 miles
|
|
How often can you recieve dislocation allowance?
|
Once every fiscal year
|
|
What rate is dislocation allowance paid at for single members?
|
2.5 times BAQ
|
|
The small cap usually found on the top of a pole mast or flagstaff is called a ___
|
truck
|
|
Expect in boats or on flag poles, what ornament tops the flagstaff of the National and Coast Guard ensign?
|
battle ax
|
|
a boat regularly assigned to a commanding officer or cheif of staff, neither a flag officer, should show a boat insignia of ___
|
an arrow
|
|
the union jack displayed from the bow of a Coast Guard boat on foreign waters indicates that a ___ is embarked on the boat
|
diplomatic representative
|
|
On a ship underway, the national ensign is flown from the ___
|
gaff
|
|
When the fourth of July falls on a sunday, when will the ceremonies be held?
|
on the following Monday
|
|
What is the COMDINST for pregnancy in the Coast Guard?
|
COMDINST 1900.9
|
|
What number is the civil rights manual?
|
M5350.11 (series)
|
|
What number is the CG Privacy and Freedon of Information Manual?
|
M5260.2
|
|
What number is the SSIC Manual?
|
M5210.5
|
|
What COMDINST is the Standards of Conduct Manual?
|
COMDINST 5370.5
|
|
What COMDTNOTE in the Standard rates for computing charges for pollution response equipment?
|
COMDTNOTE 7310
|
|
In what COMDTNOTE are the EAP Accepted Chemical Agents?
|
COMDTNOTE 16465 (series)
|
|
What COMDINST contains the Policy and Procedures for Intervention Action?
|
COMDINST 16451.5
|
|
What is the number for the Military Justice Manual?
|
COMDINST 5810.1B
|
|
What is the number for the Property Management Manual?
|
COMDINST M4500.5
|
|
What is the COMDINST for the Practices for Repiratory Protection?
|
M6260.2
|
|
What is the COMDINST for the Administrative Investigations Manual?
|
COMDINST M5830.1 (series)
|
|
What is the COMDINST for the Public Affairs Manual?
|
COMDINST 5728.2 (series)
|
|
What is the form number for Administrative remarks?
|
CG-3307
|
|
What is the form number for the Active Duty Initial Information?
|
CG-4196
|
|
What is the form number for a Oil Pollution Report?
|
CG-3639A
|
|
What is the form number for the Small Arms Training?
|
CG-3029A
|
|
What is the form number for the Court Memo?
|
CG-3304
|
|
What is the form number for the Practical Factors?
|
CG-3303C
|
|
What is the form number for the Achievement Sheet?
|
CG-3303
|
|
What is the COMDINST for the Claims and Litigation manual?
|
COMDINST M5890.9
|
|
What is the form number for the record of emergency data?
|
CG-4113
|
|
What is the COMDINST for the Property Manual?
|
COMDINST M4500.5 series
|
|
What is the form number for the Discharge and Re-enlistment Contract?
|
CG-3301C
|
|
What is the form number for the Agreement to Extend Enlistment?
|
CG-3301B
|
|
What is the form number for the Statement of Understanding?
|
CG-3301A
|
|
What is the form number for the Enlisted Contract?
|
CG-3301
|
|
What COMDINST covers the Coast Guard Marine Science support?
|
COMDINST M3161.7B
|
|
What number is the Directive Systems Manual?
|
M5215.6
|
|
What is the form number for an Application for Inspection of a US Vessel?
|
CG-3572
|
|
when the national ensign is draped over a coffin, it should be placed so that the union is at the ___ of the deceased?
|
head over the left shoulder
|
|
what are disadvantages of media aides like chalkboards or magna slick boards?
|
Instructor turns away from the audience, material erased cannot be retrieved
|
|
What indicates the absence of a flag officer from the ship for a period of 72 hours?
|
First substitute flying from the starboard main yardarm (outboard)
|
|
the only flag that is flown on the same halyard above the national ensign is the ___
|
church pennant/Jewish worship pennant
|
|
Which flag or pennant is never flown at half mast?
|
the Coast Guard ensign
|
|
On a ship having only one mast, the Coast Guard ensign is displayed from the ___
|
same halyard just below the commission pennant
|
|
Approaching the gangway to board your ship, how would you correctly salute the colors and quarter deck?
|
At the stop of the gangway, stop and salute the colors first, then salute the officer of the deck.
|
|
In rendering passing honors on a cutter which is meeting another cutter is a port-to-port situation, what whistle signals does the quartermaster sound?
|
2-1-2-3
|
|
A flag officers personal flag shall be hauled down when the flag officer is absent from command for a period exceeding ___ hours
|
72
|
|
The personnal cammand pennant of a Coast Guard captian who is commanding a squadron of ships is the ___ pennant.
|
broad
|
|
The answering hail for a boat coxswain transporting a commissioned officer who is not a commanding officer is ___
|
aye-aye
|
|
On board ship, the size of the union jack flown is determined by the ___
|
size of the union of the national ensign
|
|
Which flag is flown from the yardarm of a hsip to indicate that a general court martial or court of inquiry is in session?
|
union jack
|
|
What flag or penant is the Coast Guards mark of authority?
|
the Coast Guard ensign
|
|
What is the MAXIMUM number of distinctinve marks that may displayed by a Coast Guard vessel at one time?
|
2
|
|
A boat should display the national ensign whenever it is ___
|
going alongside a foreign vessel
|
|
The burial of at sea of a person, not cremated, must take place in waters no less than ___ deep
|
100 fathoms
|
|
When dressing a ship with one mast, where is the Coast Guard ensign displayed?
|
starboard yardarm outboard of a personal flag
|
|
True or False: The national ensign shall be half masted upon notificaiton of the death of a designated civil official from any reliable source, including the news media.
|
True
|
|
Upon the death of the president of the United States, the national ensign is flown at half-mast for a period of ___ days.
|
30
|
|
Upon the death of a CPO in the Coast Guard, when will the national ensign on cutters not underway be flown at half mast?
|
During the funeral and for one hour after
|
|
Where are the list of flags and pennants used when a ship is fully dressed found?
|
NTP 13
|
|
On Coast Guard day, all Coast Guard members NOT underway should ___
|
Dress ship
|
|
Where should the Coast Guard ensign be displayed at a shore unit?
|
directly below the national ensign on the same hoist
|
|
What are the two dates that all ships of the Coast Guard, NOT underway, are required to FULL-DRESS ship?
|
Washingtons Birthday and the Fourth of July
|
|
During a 21 gun salute, except by a ship displaying the personal flag of the official being saluted, the national ensign is flown from the ___ gaff or flagstaff.
|
mainmast
|
|
On occasions requiring dressing or full-dressing ship, the largest ensign aboard is flown from the ___
|
flagstaff
|
|
What form is the Travel Voucher form?
|
DD 1351-2
|
|
What COMDINST if the Enlisted Qualifications Manual?
|
COMDINST M1414.8
|
|
What are the two dates that all ships of the Coast Guard, NOT underway, are required to FULL-DRESS ship?
|
Washingtons Birthday and the Fourth of July
|
|
During a 21 gun salute, except by a ship displaying the personal flag of the official being saluted, the national ensign is flown from the ___ gaff or flagstaff.
|
mainmast
|
|
On occasions requiring dressing or full-dressing ship, the largest ensign aboard is flown from the ___
|
flagstaff
|
|
What form is the Travel Voucher form?
|
DD 1351-2
|
|
What COMDINST is the Enlisted Qualifications Manual?
|
COMDINST M1414.8
|
|
When a foreign national anthem is prescribed in connection with honors and it is considered appropriate to perform the national anthem of the US, when will the national anthem be performed?
|
Last
|
|
Who must you get approval from to make a ditty move?
|
Transportation Officer
|
|
A ball displayed atop a flagstaff in a small boat indicates the personal boat of a ____
|
captain
|
|
When transporting the body of a flag officer to the grave, the ___ of the deceased shal be carried immediately in advance of the body in the funeral procession
|
personal flag
|
|
Who is responsible for Coast Guard representation in the public perception?
|
Every member
|
|
What is formal communication?
|
Official communication within the chain of command
|
|
In a military funeral, there shall be ___ pallbearers and six body bearers
|
6
|
|
What is the rule of thumb for size of letters?
|
3/4" high for each 8 feet of distance
|
|
How long after the marking period ends until the evaluation must be completed including acknowledgements by evaluee?
|
21 days
|
|
True or False: A Public Health Service officer rates a salute while serving with the armed forces of the US only.
|
False
|
|
A commander making an official visit to a unit rates ___ side boys.
|
4
|
|
What is a term for an informal visit of courtesy requiring no honors?
|
call
|
|
The President of the United States making an official visit to a ship rates ___ sideboys
|
8
|
|
At what rank to you address officers by thier title?
|
Commander and above
|
|
When boarding a vessel who or what do you salute first?
|
The national ensign
|
|
How often is civil rights training required?
|
Every 36 months
|
|
What type of leave is not charged against a member?
|
sick
|
|
When displaying the national ensign against a wall, the union should be at the top and to the observers ___
|
left
|
|
When large medals are prescribed, where are the ribbons worn?
|
On the wearers right
|
|
What COMDINST covers the Correspondence Manual?
|
COMDINST 5216.4
|
|
When miniature medals are prescribed, where are the ribbons worn?
|
Ribbons are not worn with miniature medals
|
|
Regular CG enlisted personnel are eligible to attend Officer Canidate School until they reach their ___ birthday.
|
32nd
|
|
What form number is a dependent travel voucher?
|
DD 1351-4
|
|
What is the form number for standard travel orders?
|
CG-5131
|
|
What is the Travel Voucher Form number?
|
DD 1351-2
|
|
What percentage of a government move do you get paid for a dity move?
|
80%
|
|
Where is the device placed on the men's garrison cover?
|
2 inches from the front, 1.5 inches from the bottom
|
|
While on a boat underway, what will the boat officer or coxswain do within sight or hearing of colors?
|
Stand and salute except when dangerous to do so
|
|
During colors, what will a boat underway within sight or hearing of the ceremony do to render honors?
|
Lie to or shall proceed at the slowest safe speed
|
|
What COMDINST covers PAO duties and responsibilities?
|
COMDINST M5728.2
|
|
When may honors and ceremonies prescribed in Coast Guard Regulations be dispensed with?
|
When the Commandant directs, or when requested by an individual to whom such honors and ceremonies are due
|
|
Who and or what must an enlisted person that leaves the ship shortly after morning colors salute?
|
first the OOD and the the national ensign
|
|
What form is the Report of Survey?
|
CG-5269
|
|
What form is the Property Pass Form?
|
NAVSUP 155
|
|
What form is the Dependent Travel Voucher?
|
DD 1351-4
|
|
What type of skimmer uses gravity?
|
Weir
|
|
What type of cargo uses a safety relief valve as a vent?
|
Pressurized cargo
|
|
Subchapter H in the NCP is ___
|
participated by other persons
|
|
What type of skimmer creates a whirlpool which draws oil into a collection area?
|
Centrifugal
|
|
In what title of the US code is the authority found for the governmental review of any vessel that may pose a national security interest?
|
50
|
|
Berms control flow by ___
|
reducing velocity
|
|
CG-5136 is used to document ___
|
CG personnel and equipment
|
|
Response phase III is ___
|
containment, countermeasures, cleanup and disposal
|
|
The COTP shall exercize has authority under ___ to enforce the provisions of the SIV program as directed by the Commandant.
|
33 CFR
|
|
Which set of laws or treaties was adopted among many nations to eliminate oil and hazardous substances discharges from ships?
|
APPS
|
|
Which pollution response law created the 1 billion dollar oil spill liability trust fund?
|
OPA
|
|
The NRC is an agency of the ___
|
US Coast Guard
|
|
Red lettering in the CHRIS manual 1 is significant because ___
|
red is used to list the hazards
|
|
Entrainment occurs when current speed is approximately ___ knots
|
0.7
|
|
When can CERCLA funds be accessed?
|
When there is a hazmat spill
|
|
How can excess water be removed froma sample?
|
By inverting the sample jar and loosening the lid
|
|
Which type of boom deployment is used to keep oil from spreading?
|
Containment
|
|
Which type of boom is capable of functioning in the open ocean?
|
Heavy duty
|
|
What COMDINST are the Uniform Regulations?
|
COMDINST M1020.6A (series)
|
|
When should "piping the side" commence?
|
When the officer steps on the gangway
|
|
True or False: A NOAA officer rates a salute at all times.
|
True
|
|
In what order do officers of the Coast Guard enter boats?
|
In inverse order of rank
|
|
Upon a district commander's departure from your ship, when should the district commanders flag be hauled down?
|
When the district commander reaches the end of the gangway
|
|
If obligated to fire a gun salute when entering a foreign port of a country recognized by the US, a ship of the Coast Guard fires a ___-gun salute?
|
21
|
|
What order do the sideboys fall in fore and aft of the approach on the arrival of a ship?
|
"Tend the side"
|
|
How many side boys should be paraded as the departure of the mayor of San Francisco is piped over the side after an official visit?
|
4
|
|
What are honors, other then gun salutes, that are rendered when ships pass close aboard called?
|
passing hours
|
|
The honors accorded to a ship displaying the flag of a foreign sovereign are the same accorded the ___, except the national anthem of the foreign country is played.
|
President of the US
|
|
While in Alaskan waters, a ship recieves an official visit from the governer of Alaska. Where should the national ensign be displayed during the proper honors?
|
Foretruck during the salute
|
|
A Coast Guard ship and a foreign warship fall in together at sea. Should flag officers of the same grade, but whose relative rank is unknown, be aboard, each ship should ___
|
mutually salute without delay
|
|
If a flag officer arrives at a unit at 0800 on Sunday morning and departs at 1200 on the same day, when, if ever, should the gun salute be fired?
|
Neither upon arrival nor departure
|
|
If there was a spill and the responsible party did not notify the NRC or other authorities, he could possibly be charged with ___ penalties.
|
civil, criminal
|
|
A coastal oil spill of 75,000 gallons receiving a great deal of media interest and causing significant damage to an environmentally sensitive area would be considered a ___.
|
major discharge
|
|
When must a change of custody be intiated in order for an oil sample to be used as evidense?
|
As soon as the sample is taken
|
|
Which CG-5136 form is completed by the contractor?
|
CG-5136E series
|
|
NFPA pamphlets 10A and B cover ___.
|
fire fighting equipment
|
|
Response phase I consists of ___
|
discovery and notification
|
|
Who is responsible for providing the NLS prewash surveyor?
|
COTP
|
|
The National Pollution Funds Center administers the OSLTF and ___
|
CG use of the superfund
|
|
What type of skimmer is typically mounted on or incorporated with a vessel?
|
Submersion
|
|
How many RRT's are there?
|
10
|
|
in what event might the Coast Guard respond to a spill, act as OSC and then be relieved as OSC?
|
When responding as first federal official on-scene to an inland spill
|
|
Subchapter E of the NCP is ___
|
hazardous substance response
|
|
What disposal method is only temporary in nature?
|
Surface impoundment
|
|
Which response information system is operated by CHEMTREK?
|
HITS
|
|
Which pollution response law has criminal penalties only for oil spill violations enforced under it?
|
Refuse Act
|
|
Who provides scientific support of the OSC inland regions?
|
EPA
|
|
Subchapter G in the NCP is ___
|
trustees for natural resources
|
|
True or False: Partial payments are allowed under the NOV program.
|
False
|
|
When is the Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund used?
|
To pay damage claims for economic damage caused by a spill
|
|
Which is a method of reducing entrapment?
|
Angle the boom
|
|
Privacy act statements advise the person being interviewed what the data will be used for and ___
|
of your authority to collect it.
|
|
Which hard surface cleaning method is the most cost effective for a small spill?
|
Manual wiping with sorbents
|
|
When an investigator collects the name, address and phone number of someone being interviewed, he must give the person a ___
|
privacy act statement
|
|
Intelligence gatherings are a function of the ___.
|
Operations officer
|
|
Annex four of MARPOL contains the reguations for the prevention of th epollution by ___.
|
sewage
|
|
Which Federal agency enforces CERCLA violations in the inland zone?
|
EPA
|
|
When should oil samples be taken?
|
When the source is known, but there is no clear path of entry into the water
|
|
What type of skimmer uses and external vacuum pump system?
|
Suction
|
|
The vent system for a cargo tank containing flammable liquids uses a ___ to maintain constant pressure in the tank whenloading and discharging cargo and when transporting cargo.
|
pressure vacuum relief valve
|
|
The OCS report is required to be completed within ___ of completion of operations of a major spill.
|
1 year
|
|
Heavy duty and harbor/river booms are used primarily for ___.
|
deflecton, protection and containment
|
|
What type of skimmer is adjusted to float at the water-oil interface?
|
suction
|
|
Which Federal agency has primary enforcement authority of the Refuse Act?
|
USACE
|
|
What is the wind current effects on an oil spill?
|
3%
|
|
What type of booming is used on small island river with a flow of less then 1 knot?
|
diversion
|
|
What characteristic does oil have that determines the flow?
|
viscosity
|
|
What is the measureable temperature at which oil flows?
|
pour point
|
|
What is the short form for cost recovery?
|
CG-5136EZ
|
|
What is the prefered shape of boom?
|
parabolic
|
|
How is a NOV case number issued?
|
from the actual form
|
|
An inland oil spill of 15,000 gallons would be considered a ___
|
major discharge
|
|
Which CHRIS manual contains basic information regarding toxicity and flammability?
|
Manual 1
|
|
Subchapter L of the NCP is ___
|
national oil and hazardous substances contingency plan
|
|
Rubber, polyester foam, polystyrene and polyurethane are in which class of sorbent?
|
Synthetic
|
|
Which responce information system did NOAA and the EPA design?
|
CAMEO
|
|
What agency or unit controls the OSTLF?
|
NPFC
|
|
An inland hazardous substance release that poses a substantial threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ___
|
major release
|
|
What is the role of the PIAT?
|
Preparing news releases and press conferences
|
|
What type of skimmer uses a rotating belt to force oil towards a collection well?
|
Submersion
|
|
Which reference contains policy for use of chemical agents for oil cleanup?
|
33 CFR 153
|
|
A Weir skimmer in its simplest form consists of an attachment for external pumping, a holding tank, and a ___.
|
Dam
|
|
Which type of boom deployment is used to keep oil out of an area?
|
Protection
|
|
The NRC receives pollution reports for ___.
|
all oil and hazardous substance spills in the US and its territories
|
|
Who is responsible for enforcing crew removal of restriction requirements on a category vessel?
|
Captain of the Port
|
|
Utilizing ICS, what form provides the Incident Commander with basic information regarding the incident situation and the resources allocated to the incident?
|
ICS Form 201
|
|
A solid waste is considered a hazardous waste when it exhibits ___
|
ignitability
|
|
Tactical planning is the responsibility of the ___.
|
On-scene commander
|
|
Which pollution response law amended the FWPCA by providing the definition of "reportable and harmful quantities" of oil and hazardous substances?
|
CWA
|
|
What is the number designation of the pollution incident daily resource report?
|
CG-5136
|
|
What is the agreement between two or more government agencies, which allows for overlapping of jurisdictions and designates responsibility during specified instances?
|
MOU
|
|
Which contingency plan defines the purpose of contingency plans, response terms, and the national response system?
|
National
|
|
How many barrels of fixed containment must a tank vessel have for a transfer?
|
12
|
|
Authority to effect removal of oil pollution was granted to the Coast Guard by
|
EO 11735
|
|
Which method of disposal allows oil to naturally biodegrade?
|
Land Treatment
|
|
Which contingency plan defines the purpose of contingency plans, response terms, and the national response system?
|
National
|
|
When dealing with a unmarked drum, what fund to you use to get money to ake care of it?
|
CERCLA
|
|
If refuse is discharged into a navigable waterway of the United States, which law should be used when a criminal penalty is sought?
|
Refuse Act
|
|
If a responsible party chooses to take no action on an NOV, it automatically converts to a MV case after ___ days.
|
60
|
|
What response information system is operated by a commercial agency?
|
HITS
|
|
What type of skimmer uses an oleophillic surface that is continuosly moved through the oil?
|
Sorbent surface
|
|
Until they are transferred to the custodian, samples should be stored in ___.
|
a styrofoam cooler
|
|
The CG-5136E-1 and CG-5136E-4 are used to document ___ costs
|
Contractor
|
|
The person in charge must have how much training at a facility?
|
48 hours
|
|
Which contigency plan identifies probable locations of discharges or releases?
|
local
|
|
What act is the Cost Guards basic authority for investigating maritime oil pollution discharges?
|
Federal Water Pollution control
|
|
All steel containers used to transport military explosives must b elined with a minimum of ___ plywood.
|
1/4"
|
|
When checking the Declaration of Inspection, you should ensure each block for each requirement is initialed and ___ has signed the form.
|
each person in charge involved in the transfer
|
|
True or False: Once you enter a case as a Marine Violation, you are also able to issue a NOV.
|
False
|
|
What causes oil migration?
|
Winds, currents and waves
|
|
Which CHRIS Manual lists the specific chemical, physical, and biological data needed for the preparation and use of other components of the system?
|
Manual II
|
|
Which pollution response law amended the FWPCA by establishing the "311 K pollution fund" for oil spill cleanup?
|
CWA
|
|
A coastal oil spill of 50,000 gallons would be considered a ___
|
medium discharge
|
|
Which pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to designate the responsible party?
|
OPA90
|
|
Which primary pollution response laws does the Coast Guard enforce?
|
FWPCA, CERCLA. APPS and the Refuse Act
|
|
What product set establishes MC case numbers?
|
IAPR
|
|
What is any owner, operator, or person who first creates a hazardous waste or the person who makes the waste subject to subtitle C regulation?
|
Generator
|
|
Which product set allows you to go in and check the status of a case?
|
MVCS
|
|
Which pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to designate the responsible party?
|
OPA90
|
|
NOV's can be issued for fines of up to ___
|
5000
|
|
What are the three basic ways in which harbor booms are used?
|
Protection, deflection and containment
|
|
How many years must the oil record books be kept?
|
3 years
|
|
To use the Superfund, OSC's must ensure what requirements are met?
|
elements of CERCLA are met, threat or risk of harm posed by the release is significant, prompt action is required and use of admin orders is inappropriate to make RP take action.
|
|
What does the cost ceiling (used during an OSLTF) consist of?
|
contractor costs plus other federal agencies costs, plus Coast Guard costs
|
|
What are the steps to be followed in order to access the OSLTF?
|
contract district, obtain federal project number, establish cost ceiling, determine BOA contractor, issue Authorization to Proceed Letter, draft and send POLREP, begin cost documentation
|
|
Once hired by the Coast Guard, the OSC must issue what to the contractor defining requirements placed on them?
|
Authorization to Proceed Letter
|
|
During a SONS, who will the AOC be?
|
the predesignated OSC whose areas of responsibility is affected by a SONS
|
|
Government costs documented on standard CG forms include ___.
|
personnel and equipment, purchases/expendables, travel and per diem
|
|
What plan defines regional guidance and support for "during response operations"?
|
RCP
|
|
When does incremental cost documentation usually begin during response operations?
|
Phase III
|
|
Reimbursable incremental costs are those exceeding $500 and include ___
|
fuel costs, travel and per diem, reserve personnel
|
|
What are three situations in which the OSLTF would NOT be used?
|
1.Any costs normally incurred during response phases I and II. 2. Any responsible party cleanup action where CG costs < $500. 3. And cleanup action where the superfund would be used
|
|
What are three situations in which the OSLTF is used?
|
RP is known and OSC is directing cleanup operations with costs >$500, RP is known and OSC assumes full responsibility, RP is not known and OSC assumes full responsibility
|
|
The functional area responsible for the management for all tactical operations at an incident is the ___ section.
|
Operations
|
|
The functional area of ICS involving directing, ordering, and controlling resources is the ___ section.
|
Command
|
|
The functional area of ICS responsible for locating and providing facilities and services and material for an incident is the ___ section.
|
Logistics
|
|
The functional area of ICS in which the NPFC provides the chief of the section is the ___ section.
|
Finance
|
|
Damage claims which result from an oil spill may be compensated by the fund, under what regulations?
|
33 CFR 136 and sections 1013 and 1014 of OPA
|
|
What is a written promise given by or on behalf of a RP to ensure that sufficient assets are avaliable to meet the maximum fine, which may be assessed for the violation, charged?
|
Letter of Undertaking
|
|
Who approves COTP orders?
|
CO
|
|
Which response information system does the NRC run?
|
HACS
|
|
Subchapter J of the NCP is ___
|
dispersants and other chemicals
|
|
An inland oil spill of 5,000 gallons would be considered a ___
|
medium discharge
|
|
When conducting initial response activities and entering private property, do the local authorities have to be present if the owner provides authority for access?
|
No
|
|
When can oil samples be disposed of?
|
After given permission from district
|
|
What type of skimmer uses drums, discs, belts or ropes with oleophillic surfaces?
|
Sorbent surface
|
|
Which pollution response law provided requirements for emergency planning and a "community right to know" as it relates to hazardous substances?
|
CERCLA
|
|
Dams are constructed for ___ of a spill.
|
Control
|
|
During a SONS, who will the COS be?
|
the commanding officer of the National Strike Force Coordination Center
|
|
Who, during a SONS, will act as the NIC's principle advisor on spill response strategy?
|
NITF Chief of Staff (COS)
|
|
During a SONS, who will the Alternate NIC be?
|
The commander of the district where the SONS occurs
|
|
Who, during a SONS, will relieve the NIC for short periods of time and will provide local knowledge and insight on regional response issues?
|
Alternate NIC (National incident Commander)
|
|
During a SONS, who will the NIC be?
|
A vice admiral appointed by the Commandant
|
|
Who, during a SONS, will exercize operational and administrative control over the NITF and will assume the role of the OSC?
|
NIC, National Incident Command
|
|
How many departments, and what are they, does the NITF have to deal with a SONS?
|
5, operations, environmental coordination, finance, logistics, external affairs
|
|
What is a rare catastrophic spill which greatly exceeds the response capabilities of local and regional levels?
|
Spill of National Significance
|
|
The functional area of ICS responsible for collection, evaluation, dissemination and use of the information is the ___ section.
|
Planning
|
|
What are three important principles to remember about ICS?
|
It is based upon basic business management principles, it is a management tool, and can be used in a variety of conditions and situations
|
|
What items are required when cleanup operations are initiated?
|
A response plan is generated, a site safety plan is generated, disposal options are identified, cost documentation is conducted
|
|
What are the first aid measures may be needed during preliminary assessments?
|
immediate placement of boom for containment, warning/initiating an evacuation of the public in the spill area, placing a marker on a damaged vessel that may sink, issuing notice to mariners warning
|
|
A damage assessment should include determination of
|
danger to public health and safety, impact on wildlife, depth of pollutant into shorelines and substrates, dangers to response personnel
|
|
What must be conducted as soon as possible to determine the actions required to abate the damage?
|
damage assessment
|
|
Hazards associated with a pollutant can be identified through the use of ___
|
MSDS, cargo information cards, hazardous waste manifests, shipping papers, CAMEO, CHRIS
|
|
What plan requires that the OSC conduct a preliminary assessment of each reported discharge or release?
|
NCP
|
|
What are 3 techniques to correct entrainment during the collection of oil in a flowing river?
|
boom should be angled to the current, oil should be contained at a point where the current is slowest
|
|
What does the Coast Guard have in place to manage a SONS response in the coastal zone?
|
NITF, National Incident Task Force
|
|
When does documentation of governmental costs begin?
|
During any RP cleanup where CG costs will exceed $500, anytime a contractor is hired by the CG
|
|
What steps need to be followed to access the superfund?
|
contact NPFC duty case officer, obtain 10 digit CERCLA account number, establish cost ceiling (up to $2,000,000), determine BOA/ERC's contractor, issue Authorization to Proceed letter
|
|
Who is the Superfund fund Administrator?
|
EPA
|
|
What costs will the superfund pay during emergency response?
|
Contractor costs, equipment rented for the response, supplies and materials, equipment purchased for the specific incident (including transportation cost)
|
|
What fund pays vendor costs incurred during emergency response to releases or threatened releases?
|
superfund
|
|
The discharge limit of liability of non-tank vessels is the greater of ___.
|
$600 per gross ton of the vessel or $500,000
|
|
The discharge limit of liability of tank vessels is the greater of ___.
|
$1,200 per gross ton of the tank vessel or $2 million if equal to or less than 3,000 gross tons, $10 million if greater than 3,000 gross tons
|
|
What plan defines policies on shoreline cleanup techniques, use of chemical agents, and bioremediation?
|
RCP
|
|
What category of discharge consists of intentional discharges, gross negligence, willful misconduct, the lastest in a series of similiar discharges by the same party, etc.?
|
Category D
|
|
What is any person engaged in the off-site transportation of manifested hazardous waste by air, rail, highway or water?
|
Transportation
|
|
What are 5 maintenance considerations regarding boomed oil?
|
wind shifts, current shifts, rise and fall of tides, no wake zone for passing vessels, lighting at night
|
|
Annex five of MARPOL contains the regulations for the prevention of pollution by ___.
|
Garbage
|
|
What type of agent simplifies removal by causing oil to partially solidify?
|
Gelling agent
|
|
Requirements for transporters are found in ___.
|
40 CFR 263
|
|
Which CFR site identifies the amount of oil which may be harmful?
|
40 CFR 110
|
|
Which CFR site identifies the amount of hazardous waste which may be harmful?
|
40 CFR 117
|
|
What are the criminal penalties for noncompliance of RCRA?
|
not more than $50,000 for each day of violation to a maximum of $1,000,000 or imprisonment not to exceed 5 years or both
|
|
What is the civil penalty for noncompliance of RCRA?
|
$25,000 per day of continued noncompliance
|
|
What is the responsible party's limits of liability to the Federal government for Federal response and liability for removal costs for a hazardous substance release from facilities?
|
$50 million, total response costs plus $50 million
|
|
Requirements for TSD facilities are found in ___.
|
40 CFR 264
|
|
What does a level 1 response consist of?
|
total removal costs will not exceed $50,000, removal activities will probably be completed within 1 to 2 weeks, removal activites are localized, primarily unit resources are involved
|
|
Hazardous wastes are prepared for transport under ___
|
49 CFR 171
|
|
Hazardous waste manifests are prepared under ___.
|
40 CFR 262
|
|
A conditionally exempt generator is one who creates ___ per month.
|
90 kg of hazardous waste
|
|
A small quantity generator is one who creates ___ per month
|
900 kg of hazardous waste
|
|
A large quantity generator is one who creates ___ per month
|
90 kg of acutely hazardous waste
|
|
What characteristics does a solid waste exhibit?
|
corrosivity, reactivity, ignitability, toxicity
|
|
What is considered to be a solid waste?
|
garbage, refuse, sludge, any other discarded material including solid, semisolid, liquid or contained gaseous material
|
|
What are the objectives of the hazardous waste program?
|
control or manage hazardous waste from generation to disposal
|
|
How many days does a transporter have to file a report with DOT if an accidental release occurs?
|
15
|
|
What are five functional areas of ICS?
|
command, operations, planning, logistics and finance
|
|
What does a level III response consist of?
|
removal costs are greater than $200,000, removal activities involve numerous contractors, removal activities take place at several locations, several external resources involved removal
|
|
Who, during a SONS, will directly oversee tactical response operations and report directly to the COS?
|
Area Operations Coordinator (AOC)
|
|
What does 33 CFR 153 cover?
|
Control of Pollution by oil and hazardous substances, discharge removal
|
|
What does 33 CFR 138 cover?
|
Financial Responsibility for water pollution
|
|
What does 33 CFR 136 cover?
|
Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund; claims procedure, designation of source, and advertisement
|
|
What does 33 CFR 135 cover?
|
Offshore oil pollution compensation fund
|
|
What does 33 CFR 130 cover?
|
Financial responsibility for water pollution
|
|
What does 40 CFR 116 cover?
|
identified designated hazardous substances
|
|
What category of discharge consists of small volume oil spills from a commercial or government source with no significant or extensive impact, no negligence or significant degree of gravity or culpability?
|
Category B
|
|
What does a level II response consist of?
|
Total removal costs are between $50,000 and $200,000, removal activities take place in several locations, there are several external resources (NSF, state, ect.), removal activities will take longer than
|
|
What is the responsible party's limits of liability to the Federal goverment for Federal response and liability for removal costs for a hazardous substance release from non-tank vessels?
|
$150 per gross ton, greater of $300 per gross ton or $500,000
|
|
What is the responsible party's limit of laibility to the Federal governement for Federal response and liability for removal costs for a hazardous substance release from tank vessels?
|
$250,000, greater of $300 per gross ton or $5 million
|
|
Release limits of liability are divided into what two parts?
|
Federal assumption of response operations, removal costs
|
|
What category of release consists of intentional discharges, gross negligence, willful misconduct, the latest in a series of similiar discharges by the same party, ect.?
|
Category D
|
|
What catergory of release consists of a discharge from any source where issues of gravity or culpability are important caused or contributed to the discharge?
|
Category C
|
|
What category of release consists of a discharge from any source where issues of gravity or culpability are important and caused or contributed to the discharge?
|
Category B
|
|
What category of relese consists of an unintentional and small volume hazardous substance release involving a noncommercial source with no significant or extensive impact, and no culpability?
|
category A
|
|
What are the 3 basic goals of RCRA?
|
protect human health and the enviroment, reduce the amount of waste and conserve energy and natural resources, reduce or eliminate generation of hazardous waste as expeditiously as possible
|
|
What category of discharge is unintentional and consists of small volume oil spills involving a noncommercial source with no significant or extensive impact and culpability?
|
Category A
|
|
The spiller is not liable for the cost of cleaning a spill or responding to the damages if the spill was caused by ___.
|
an act of God, and act of war, a sole act or omission of a third party
|
|
The discharge limit of liability is removed if ___.
|
gross negligence or willful misconduct, a violation of an FED safety construction, or operating regulation, failure to report the spill, failure to provide reasonable cooperation with the CG
|
|
The discharge limit of liability of an onshore facility or deep water port ___.
|
$350 million
|
|
The discharge limit of liability of an offshore facility is ___.
|
total removal costs plus $75 million
|
|
What form is the Government Purchases/Expendables/ Travel Orders/Contractors?
|
CG 5136D
|
|
What form is the Government Equipment Form?
|
CG 5136C
|
|
What form is the Government Personnel Form?
|
CG 5136B
|
|
What form is the Daily Resource Report/Government Summary Sheet?
|
CG 5136A
|
|
What regulations apply to a vessel which is transferring oil and hazardous material with a capacity of 250 barrels of oil to or from a facility or another vessel?
|
33 CFR 156
|
|
What form is the Contractor/Subcontractor/Materials/Other Expenses form?
|
CG 5136E-3
|
|
What regulations cover the Oil Pollution Prevention and Safety Regulations for Marine Oil Transfer Facilities?
|
33 CFR 154
|
|
What form is the Contractor Short Form?
|
CG 5136E-3
|
|
The person in charge of the oil transfer on a vessel must be the master, mate, engineer or ___.
|
pilot/tankerman
|
|
The three types or MARPOL 1 surveys are ___.
|
initial, annual and intermediate
|
|
What are pollution Prevention regulation that applies to vessels with a capacity of 250 barrels of oil (cargo or fuel)?
|
33 CFR 155
|
|
Which CFR sections pertain to the use of chemical agents?
|
40 CFR 300 and 49 CFR 172
|
|
What current is far enough out where there are no barriers?
|
Rotary
|
|
What kind of tide is occuring when the moon is farthest away from the earth?
|
Apogean Tide
|
|
When the tide is not moving, what is it called?
|
Slack
|
|
The direction towards which a current flows is called a ___
|
Set
|
|
What pollution prevention regulations apply to vessels entering US waters?
|
33 CFR 155
|
|
What COMDINST covers CG personnel and equipment standard rates?
|
COMDINST 7310E
|
|
What are the operational oil spill response phases listed in the NCP?
|
Notification, assessment and removal process, removal and disposal, documentation and cost recovery
|
|
In order to access the pollution fund you obtain a project number from the ___ fund administrator.
|
district
|
|
Who has the authority to determine when removal is complete and operations may be terminated at a cleanup site?
|
the OSC
|
|
What besides petroleum products does the PPR consider oil?
|
Animal oils and vegetable oils
|
|
At what percent does oil move along water?
|
3%
|
|
What company is avaliable 24 hours a day to respond to emergency hazmat stuff?
|
CHEMTREK
|
|
What statue authorized the president to require the safeguarding of US harbors, ports, waters, and vessels and waterfront facilities?
|
50 USC 191
|
|
What COMDTINST covers guidance on CERCLA response authority and associated Coast Guard policies?
|
COMDTINST 16465.29
|
|
A CG-5136 is completed by the monitor and is used to document ___ and expenditures.
|
cleanup costs
|
|
What does 33 CFR 156 cover?
|
Oil and hazardous materials transfer operations
|
|
What does 33 CFR 155 cover?
|
Oil or hazardous material pollution prevention regulations for vessels
|
|
Who is responsible for preparing and maintaining the area contingency plan for their geographic area?
|
Area Committees
|
|
Who is responsible for developing preparedness plans for the designates geographical area and for providing advice and support to the OSC when activated during a response?
|
RRT, Regional Reponse Team
|
|
What is a team of Federal agency representatives responsible for developing national policy, preparedness plan requirements, and national agency coordination for response to incidents?
|
NRT, National Response Team
|
|
NSF is part of what agency?
|
Coast Guard
|
|
What type of skimmer works best in shallow water?
|
Suction
|
|
What can cause oil samples to weather?
|
heat and sun light
|
|
What plan lists the resources avaliable for removal operations (including fire fighting equipment)?
|
ACP
|
|
What plan lists equipment and resources available in the region?
|
RCP
|
|
What provides guidance for funding, damage claims, use of chemical agents, liabilities of the responsible party, and health and safety issues?
|
NCP
|
|
What provides basic steps to be followed for response operations?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan defines the roles and responsibilities of federal agencies and the Federal OSC?
|
NCP
|
|
What plans defines the roles and responsibilities of federal agencies and the Federal OSC?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan provides guidance on how other plans shall be written?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan defines response terms?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan is required to contain an annex on wildlife habitats for the area?
|
ACP
|
|
What plan calls for a coordinated response among all involved parties and interested agencies?
|
ACP
|
|
What agency does the Scientific Support Coordinator work for?
|
NOAA
|
|
What plan describes procedures for obtaining a rapid decision on dispersant use?
|
ACP
|
|
What agency does the National Strike Force work for?
|
USCG
|
|
What plan describes the responsibilties of a responsible party in removal activities?
|
ACP
|
|
What plan describes the role of Federal, state and local agencies in removal activities?
|
ACP
|
|
What plan describes the role of Federal, state and local agencies in removal activities?
|
ACP
|
|
What defines the area, including the boundaries, mutual agreements for response and assistance, and environmental sensitive zones?
|
ACP
|
|
What agency does the District Response Group work for?
|
USCG
|
|
Keeping the news media informed of on going pollution activities is the responsibility of the ___.
|
PAIT
|
|
What plan describes response procedures for a "worst case" scenario release of oil in the area?
|
ACP
|
|
BOA's are used for what purpose?
|
to certify invoices
|
|
What is the use of the Water Pollution Incident Report workbook CG-3639A?
|
to prove the elements of a violation
|
|
What form is the Contractor Personnel Form?
|
CG 5136E-1
|
|
What form is the Government Short Form?
|
CG-5136E
|
|
All Coast Guard personnel exposed to hazardous substances on a regular basis are required to be enrolled in the ___.
|
Occupational Medical Monitoring Program
|
|
Privacy act statements are given to a witness any time a pollution investigator obtains the witness ___.
|
Name, address, etc.
|
|
How many manuals does CHRIS consist of?
|
2
|
|
Which CG-5136 form does the contractor complete?
|
CG-5136E-EZ
|
|
Which level of response personnel must have 24 hours of level 2 training and additional competencies in level 3?
|
Level 3 personnel
|
|
Which is a US law created to enforce the MARPOL treaty in US waters?
|
APPS
|
|
Which primary pollution response laws does the EPA enforce?
|
FWPCA, CERCLA
|
|
What are BOA's?
|
Pre-negotiated contracts between MLC and cleanup contractors
|
|
Subchapter K of then NCP is ___
|
federal facilities
|
|
Coast Guard jurisdiction includes all hazardous substance releases in the coastal zone EXCEPT those releases ___
|
on other Federal facilities
|
|
When entering private property and the owner is absent, you must ___
|
have local authorities present
|
|
What does the RCP do?
|
lists equipment and resources available in the region, defines policies on shoreline cleanup techniques and chemical agents and bioremediation, defines regional guidance and support for OSC's
|
|
What is the purpose of contingency plans?
|
to enable decision makers, at various National , State and local levels of responsibility, to preplan actions to be initiated in the event of a pollution incident, or threat of an incident.
|
|
What are the duties of the OSC rep during major Federal response operations?
|
advising or directing the cleanup contractor, coordinating with the OSC, maintain cost documentation
|
|
What are the duties of the OSC rep during medium Federal response operations?
|
coordinate with OSC, determine best method of cleanup in your area, advising or directing RP, provide direction to contractor, maintain cost documentation
|
|
What are the duties of the OSC rep during medium spill when the responsible party is taking appropriate action?
|
coordinating with OSC or Rep in charge, advising or directing RP, directing efforts of cleanup in your area
|
|
What are the duties of the OSC rep during minor Fed response operations?
|
advise and direct RP efforts, coordinate with district, advise and direct contractor efforts, drafting POLREPS, coordinating state and local efforts
|
|
An OSC would be needed for ___
|
minor spills which require cleanup and RP is unknown, minor spills where RP has not taken appropriate action, all medium and major pollutions incidents
|
|
Oil samples must have ___ when sent to MSL?
|
1149, chain of custody, request for analysis
|
|
What type of agent permanently or temporarily causes oil to sink?
|
Sinking agent
|
|
What is a catergory C discharge?
|
discharge from any source where issues of gravity or culpability are important
|
|
What agency does the National Pollution Funds Center work for?
|
USCG
|
|
What does the NCP do?
|
defines response terms, provides guidance on how plans are written, defines roles and responsibilities of federal agencies and provides basic steps for response, provides guidance for funding and claims
|
|
What's purpose is to provide the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for, and responding to, discharges and releases of oils and hazardous substances?
|
NCP, National Contingency Plan
|
|
Area committees should assure the pre-planning of joint response efforts include ___.
|
mechanical recovery procedures and devices, shoreline cleanup including use of dispersants, protection of sensitive environmental areas, protection and rehabilitation of fisheries and wildlife
|
|
How many teams make up the National Strike Force?
|
3
|
|
Which title and subtitle of OPA provides information for assessing penalties?
|
Title V, Subtitle C
|
|
If the owner refuses to authorize access to private property, you should ___.
|
contact the OSC for assistance
|
|
Which regulation specifies the jurisdiction of the Coast Guard and the EPA?
|
40 CFR 300
|
|
What are the three categories of oil samples to be taken?
|
Un-polluted water, oil in water, oil from suspect sources
|
|
Which response information system has a mapping capability?
|
SPEARS
|
|
What are the three classes of boom?
|
Heavy duty, harbor/river, sorbent
|
|
Which pollution response law created the national cleanup priorities list?
|
OPA
|
|
Subchapter B of the NCP is ___
|
responsibility and organization of response
|
|
Annex three of MARPOL contains the regulations for the prevention of pollution by ___.
|
package harmful substances
|
|
Who is responsible for supervising cleanups initiated by the responsible party?
|
The OSC
|
|
Regulations for lights displayed on booms are found in ___.
|
NAV RULES
|
|
An oil sample chain of custody is maintained from the time ___.
|
the sample is taken until it is disposed of
|
|
The role of the scientific support coordinator is to ___.
|
provide scientific advise and arrange for scientific support
|
|
Annex one of MARPOL contains the regulations for prevention of pollution by ___.
|
oil
|
|
A group of personnel, comprised of three teams, who provide oil and hazardous substance expertise and support other operation are an element of the ___.
|
National Strike Force
|
|
Which pollution response law is the Coast Guard's basic authority for investigation marine oil pollution and hazardous substance discharges into or upon the navigable water of the United States?
|
FWPCA
|
|
Which response information system is essentially a computer version of CHRIS?
|
HACS
|
|
A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ___.
|
minor release
|
|
Coast Guard jurisdiction includes all hazardous substance releases in the coastal zone except those releases ___.
|
requiring remedial action
|
|
Who manages the National Strike Force?
|
The NSFCC
|
|
Which federal agency is responsible for cleanup operations for hazardous substance releases on a DOD facility?
|
DOD
|
|
Which pollution response law is actually a series of pollution prevention regulations?
|
APPS
|
|
Which pollution response law is acutally a series of pollution prevention regulations?
|
APPS
|
|
Which pollution response law amended the FWPCA by authorizing the establishment of "Pollution Prevention Regulations"?
|
CWA
|
|
A coastal hazardous substances release that poses a minimal threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ___.
|
minor release
|
|
What is the most common source of oil pollution in the coastal zone?
|
A damaged vessel
|
|
How thick must oil be on a shoreline before it is considered a high degree of contamination?
|
1 cm
|
|
A coastal oil spill of 150,000 gallons would be considered a ___.
|
major discharge
|
|
Which pollution response law is used for response to all hazardous substance releases?
|
CERCLA
|
|
Identify the products used for a non-spill pollution case.
|
IAPR, MCIR
|
|
Vermiculite, perlite, and volcanic ash are in which class of sorbent?
|
Mineral-based
|
|
Information collected in the CG-3639A is used to complete ___.
|
certain MSIS produces
|
|
Which federal agency is responsible for cleanup of oil spills in DOD facilities?
|
USCG
|
|
What is the maximum penalty that can be given to a RP for failure to clean up a pollution incident, as stated on the NOFI?
|
3 times the actual cost
|
|
Which pollution response law is the correct law to use when seeking civil penalties of oil and hazardous substance spills?
|
FWPCA
|
|
What is the preferred method of storing oil spill samples after transfer to the custodian?
|
A lockable explosion proof refrigerator
|
|
Privacy Act statements advise the person being interviewed of your authority to collect data and ___.
|
what the data will be used for
|
|
When can you sign a witness statement for a witness?
|
When he/she will not sign but agrees with what you wrote
|
|
The chain of custody of photographs begins with ___.
|
labeling film once it is removed from the camera
|
|
What pollution response law is used when civil penalties are sought for prohibited discharges of hazardous substances?
|
CERCLA
|
|
Who would you contact to ask for information about oil trajectory?
|
SSC
|
|
What set of laws or treaties was adopted among many nations to eliminate oil and hazardous substances discharges from ships?
|
APPS
|
|
What is the agreement between two or more or more government agencies which allows for overlapping or jurisdictions and designates responsibility during specified instances?
|
MOU
|
|
What act created the need for the NPFC?
|
OPA 90
|
|
What pollution response law authorized the establishment of Pollution Prevention Regulations?
|
FWPCA
|
|
The primary law for the enforcement of oil and hazardous substance discharge violations is ___.
|
FWPCA
|
|
Which agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the Refuse Act?
|
USACE
|
|
Where are reportable quantities listed?
|
40 CFR
|
|
In which regulation is hazardous waste named and listed?
|
40 CFR
|
|
POLREPS should be sent within ___ hours of receiving the initial report.
|
6
|
|
Which is the minimum level of protection recommended for initial entry?
|
B
|
|
A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health but causes a moderate to substantial threat to the environment would be considered a ___.
|
medium release
|
|
Which type of boom resembles a continuous string of sausage?
|
Sorbent
|
|
Who provides scientific support for the OSC in the coastal zone?
|
NOAA
|
|
Subchapter A of the NCP is ___.
|
responsibility and organization of response
|
|
An inland hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health but causes a moderate to substantial threat to the environment would be considered a ___.
|
medium release
|
|
Sawdust, hay, peat moss and straw are in which class of sorbent?
|
Natural organic
|
|
Which CHRIS manual is a condensed guide to chemical hazards?
|
Manual I
|
|
The OSLTF would cover damage to personal or real property if the damage is ___.
|
a result of an oil spill
|
|
Under what conditions do Coast Guard personnel have the authority to enter private property on or near navigable waterways for initial response activities?
|
When responding to minimize the damaging effects of a spill
|
|
How many shoreline cleanup techniques have been identified for general use?
|
23
|
|
When must the chain of custody be initiated in order for a photograph to be used as evidence?
|
As soon as the film is removed from the camera
|
|
Subchapter I in the NCP is ___.
|
administrative record for selection of response action
|
|
Which pollution response law created the $1 billion suer fund for hazardous substance cleanup operations?
|
CERCLA
|
|
How can excess water be removed from an oil sample?
|
By inverting the sample jar and loosening the lid
|
|
What is a method of reducing entrainment?
|
Place boom in area of slowest current
|
|
When potential damage claims are involved, the party responsible for the damage is issued a ___ requiring the RP to advertise within 5 days the procedures for submitting a damage claim for payment.
|
Notice of Designation
|
|
All shipboard oil transfers are recorded in the ___.
|
oil record book
|
|
What is the main emphasis on tank barge monitors?
|
Adherence to CG approved oil transfer procedures
|
|
What pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to designate the responsible party?
|
OPA 90
|
|
Utilizing the ICS system, who is the person in charge at the incident?
|
Incident commander
|
|
In order for the CG to authorize cleaning of hard surfaces using steam, concurrence of the ___ must be obtained.
|
EPA
|
|
All hazardous materials in a packaging having a rated capacity of ___ gallons or less shall be marked.
|
100
|
|
Technical advise and equipment pertaining to the environmental affects of discharges or releases is provided by the ___.
|
Environmental Response Team (ERT)
|
|
Regional Response Teams are composed of designated ___.
|
state and federal agencies
|
|
What is included in MSM Volume II, Chpt. 31 as a type of oil?
|
animal or vegetable oil
|
|
True or False: The issuance of an NOV as a letter of warning is not authroized.
|
True
|
|
Loading arms used in place of hoses must have a means for draining oil or ___.
|
closed before being disconnected
|
|
What act has been interpreted to prohibit the discharge of virtually any material into the navigable waters of the US?
|
Refuse
|
|
Flammable liquids are those which give off flammable vapors at or below a temperature of ___ deg F.
|
80
|
|
Combustible liquids are those which fire off flammable vapors at temperatures above ___ deg F.
|
80
|
|
What is the physical barrier that prevents materials from flowing under the boom?
|
The skirt
|
|
The photo log for a pollution case should contain case data, facility or vessel data, camera and film data, and ___.
|
description of picture
|
|
What are the three basic classes of sorbents?
|
Natural organic materials, mineral-based materials, synthetic organic sorbents
|
|
Where are the regulations for the oil spill liability trust fund procedures?
|
33 CFR 153
|
|
During the prewash procedure, where is category A and high viscosity category B and C NLS's discharged?
|
reception facility
|
|
A cleanup operation projected to cost over ___ million dollars or lasting more than ___ must be reffered to the EPA.
|
2 million, 1 year
|
|
What must be avaliable for all personnel involved in a transfer?
|
Operations Manual
|
|
If oil was discharged in a reportable quantity, this means that ___.
|
it created a sheen
|
|
When issuing a NOV, oil must be spilled from a ___.
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vessel, onshore facility or offshore facility
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How many annex's are there in the MARPOL treaty?
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5
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Response phase II consists of ___
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preliminary assessment and initiation of action
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Subchapter C of the NCP is
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planning and preparedness
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Which COMDINST contains guidance regarding CERCLA response authority and associated Coast Guard policies?
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COMDINST M16465.29
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True or False: In the NOV program, a previous PPR violation is defined as one where a final assessment has been made by a Coast Guard hearing officer regardless if the NOV has been paid.
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True
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What informs a suspected discharger of a potential violation of the FWPCA, as amended, as of his/her possible liability to a civil penalty?
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Notice of Federal Interest
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When issuing an NOV, if the RP has had 2 or more previous offenses within the past year, the penalty is multiplied by ___.
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2
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True or False: Once you enter a case as a Marine Violation, you are also able to issue a NOV.
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False
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What is a written promise given by or on behalf of a RP to ensure that sufficient assets are avaliable to meet the maximum fine which may be assessed for the violation chanrged?
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Letter of Undertaking
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When the RP is not taking correct action to clean up a spill, what can the CG issue to take over the clean up?
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Notice of Federal Assumption
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True or False: Partial payments are allowed under the NOV program.
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False
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True or False: It is recommended that the unit or any Coast Guard individual accept payment of a NOV.
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False
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What pollution response law provided requirements for emergency planning and a "community right to know" as it relates to hazardous substances?
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CERCLA
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Which type of chemical agent is prohibited for use?
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sinking agent
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What product sets are used for a no source pollution case?
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IAPR, MCIR, MCDD, MCPD
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Which pollution response law included provisions authorizing the OSC to issue administrative orders?
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OPA
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The environmental response team is comprised of personnel from which agency?
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EPA
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A hazardous substance release occurred at a facility in the coastal zone and the Coast Guard responds. The cleanup will require remedial action. Who will be te OSC for the duration of the cleanup?
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The EPA
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Which pollution response law has been interpreted to prohibit the discharge of virtually any material into the navigable waters of the United States?
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The Refure Act
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What type of skimmer uses a water pump and on oil-water seperator?
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Centrifugal
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What condition must exist for a chemical agent to be approved for use?
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The agent must be listed on the NCP product schedule
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Which type of boom deployment is used to divert oil into a collection area?
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Deflection
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Privacy act statements advise the person being interviewed of your authority to collect the data and ___.
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what the data will be used for oil removal
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A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a substantial threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ___.
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major release
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What is a role of the ERT?
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To provide the OSC with sanitary and environmental advice
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What type of skimmer is particularly useful in shallow water?
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Suction
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