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361 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
Data entered on the DD 214 will be obtained from what?
SERVICE
HEALTH
PAY
OFFICIAL ORDERS
Dates will be entered on the DD 214 in what format?
YYMMMDA 06JUN06
The DD 214WS will be used in all cases to ensure what in the final preparation of the DD 214?
ACCURACY, COMPLETENESS AND ECONOMY
When information is not
applicable to the member
enter what in the block?
NONE OR NA
Whenever there is unused space in a large block type what below the last typed line?
DIAGONAL LINE OF X’s
When more space is required to complete or clarify the information it will be on what?
PLAIN BOND PAPER
You can not make any entries on what part of the DD 214?
BACK
What should be used to prevent error from appearing on the DD 214?
DD 214 WS
Corrections or changes made in the shaded areas of the DD 214 will have what on all copies by who?
INITIALED
AUTHORIZING OFFICIAL
How is the name typed on the DD 214?
ALL CAPS BAGLEY, ARMIN JASON
If a member uses an initial instead of a first or middle name indicate by enclosing the initial in what?
QUOTATION MARKS,
BAGLEY, “A” “J”
After typing in a cross-reference and more space is required what should be entered?
CONTINUED ON
CONTINUATION SHEET
When information is not available to complete a block on the DD 214 and the entry has been made “See Remarks” What should you enter in block 18?
DD 215 WILL BE ISSUED
When a discharge has been upgraded the DD 214 will be annotate on what copies in block 18?
COPIES 2-8
What part of the DD 214 will be given to the member on the date of separation?
ORIGINAL
COPY #4
A locally reproduced copy of copy number 3 will be placed in the members what?
HEALTH TREATMENT RECORD
For officers that are separating what happens to copy number 7 of the DD 214?
DESTROYED
Where is copy number 8 filed and for how long from date of separation?
ISSUING COMMAND FOLDER
2 YEARS
A correction request must contain what information?
FULL NAME, RANK/RATE, SSN
AND PERIODS OF SERVICE
A recommendation of “Must Promote” or “Early Promote” may not be assigned with any trait assessed as what?
2.0
A “Promotable or higher may not be assigned with any trait grade of what?
1.0
It is mandatory for regular reporting seniors to sign and forward all authorized what?
CONCURRENT REPORTS
No promotion recommendation higher than Promotable is allowed for what paygrade?
01 & 02
What reports are the foundation of the performance record?
REGULAR REPORTS
What reports provide a record of significant performance?
CONCURRENT REPORTS
What reports are optional and may only be submitted on the CO’s or OIC’s by operational commanders who are not their regular reporting seniors?
Operational Commanders
Reports
What blocks of the Fitrep-Eval identify the report, and define the context in which it was received?
ADMIN BLOCKS 1-19, 22-27,
44(FITREPS) AND 48(EVALS)
What mark can not be assigned on an eval when a recommendation for advancement has been given in a pervious report in the same paygrade?
PROGRESSING
The reporting senior must retain copies of Fitreps on all Officers and Chief Petty Officer for how long?
AT LEAST 5YRS
When are FITREPS due?
CAPT CDR LCDR LT LTJG ENS/E9
W3-W5 W2/E7-8
JUL FEB
APR MAY
OCT MAR
JAN SEPT
When are FITREPS due for LT's?
JAN
When are FITREPS due for LTJG's?
FEB
When are FITREPS due for
W3-5's?
MAR
When are FITREPS due for CDR's?
APR
When are FITREPS due for ENS's?
MAY
When are FITREPS due for CAPT's?
JUL
When are FITREPS due for W2/E7-8's?
SEPT
When are FITREPS due for LCDR's?
OCT
When are EVALS due for E6's?
NOV
When are EVALS due for E5's?
MAR
When are EVALS due for E4's?
JUN
When are EVALS due for E1-E3's?
JUL
An enlisted member who receives any 1.0 trait grade loses eligibility for what?
GOOD CONDUCT MEDAL
Block 47 of a FITREP is used for what purpose?
Concurrent Reports Only
A formal occasion might include what?
OFFICIAL CEREMONIES, RECEPTIONS, LUNCHEONS AND
DINNERS
When inviting a senior official how would you type it?
POSITION, TITLE & SPOUSE NAME
The appropriate attire should always be clearly specified where on an invitation?
BOTTOM RIGHT
What is never reflected on invitations extended by or to husband and wife?
COPRS, SERVICE DESIGNATION AND RETIRED STATUS
What former should be used on invitation to Ambassadors and others of comparable rank?
HONOR OF THE COMPANY
It is most appropriate for all invitations to be written in what?
LONGHAND BLACK INK
When addressing envelopes how is the rank showed?
LIEUTENANT COMMANDER
When mailing a formal invitation what time frame should you do this in?
3 TO 4 WKS PRIOR
These are the most formal and expensive invitations they usually bear the crest of the host or hostess?
FULLY ENGRAVED INVITATIONS
When replying to an invitation what invites should you only take 24 hours in doing so?
BRUNCES, LUNCHEONS DINNER
When does formal dinners generally commence at?
8 or 8:30pm
At an official dinner given by a British Official for a high-ranking U.S. Officer if present the orchestra plays what?
THE STAR SPANGLED BANNER
What form of wording is used for a formal invitation?
THIRD PERSON

PRESENT TENSE
What should be included in a formal invitation when the function will be held aboard ship?
BOAT SCHEDULES AND DEPARTING DOCKS
What type of formal invitation does not require a reply?
CHURCH WEDDINGS
What is always repeated when accepting an invitation?
DATE, TIME AND PLACE
What is not repeated when expressing regret in a reply?
TIME
What are the three major elements of the PFM program?
FINANCIALEDUCATIONTRAINING, FINANCIALINFORMATIONREFERRAL FINANCIAL COUNSELING
Four
Friends
Fighting
At the local command level, the three elements of the
PFM program are under the control of a trained what?
COMMAND FINANCIAL SPECIALIST
Who provides support to all elements of the PFM program by conducting CFS training, and providing qualified Financial Educators (FEs) to function in all other areas of the PFM program?
FLEET AND FAMILY SUPPORT CENTER
Financial education is a continuum starting where?
RECRUIT TRAINING.
Chicago
Providing current financial information and appropriate referral resources to military personnel is an integral part of what?
PFM PROGRAM
The CFS shall function as the command’s principal advisor on policies and matters related to PFM. The minimum paygrade for enlisted and officers is what?
E6 FOR ENLISTED
W2/01 FOR OFFICERS.
E4 and below members will be approved for overseas orders if their Debt to Income Ratio does not exceed what?
30 PERCENT
E5, W2, and O1 members will be approved for overseas orders if what?
No Letter of Indebtedness

Outstanding Returned Checks
Navy personnel who satisfactorily complete treatment at any treatment facility other than Navy should have what submit on them?
OPNAV 5350/7
Any enlisted person determined to be alcohol dependent with 180 days of entry on active duty may be processed for
administrative separation if the evidence shows that the member concealed a disqualifying per-service alcohol incident history as a what?
DEFECTIVE AND FRAUDULENT ENLISTMENT
Each command shall submit to the NAVDRUGLABs samples from 10 to 20 percent of its assigned personnel when?
MONTHLY
Except for unit sweeps, Echelon THREES prior approval is required for submissions in excess of what assigned personnel in any given month?
40 PERCENT
. What is a basic alcohol awareness training for use at Navy commands and target junior enlisted E1-E4 and junior officer 01-03?
ALCOHOL-AWARE PROGRAM
What program is a 24-hour prevention education and health promotions course that targets the 18-25 year age group?
PREVENT 2000
All Navy members in the PREVENT 2000 target age group should attend PREVENT 2000 or complete “Skills for Life” within what time frame?
4YRS
Proper social interaction among officer and enlisted members has always been encouraged as it enhances unit morale and what?
ESPRIT DE CORPS
Unduly familiar personal relationship between officers and enlisted member have traditionally been contrary to naval custom because they do what?
UNDERMINE THE RESPECT FOR AUTHORITY
This is traditionally used to identify personal relationships that contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate relationships?
FRATERNIZATION
Compatible with sea/shore rotation policy and the needs of the service, service members married to each other will not be assigned in what?
CHAIN OF COMMAND
The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships must rest primarily on whom?
THE SENIOR
Each command handling classified information will establish and maintain an active what to instruct all personnel, regardless of their position, rank or grade in security policies and procedures?
SECURITY EDUCATION PROGRAM
Refresher briefings for personnel who have access to classified information should be done when?
ANNUALLY
Counterintelligence briefings for personnel who have access to information classified Secret or above should be done how often?
ONCE EVERY 2YRS
Ultimately responsible for procedural violations or for compromises which result from improperly trained personnel is whom?
SUPERVISORS
Briefings not required as a matter of routine, but which may be governed by circumstances or other program requirements are considered to be what?
SPECIAL BRIEFINGS
Individuals must read and execute what at the time of debriefing, unless the debriefing is done simply because the individual is transferring from one command to another and will continue to require access to classified information?
Security Termination Statement

OPNAV 5511/14
JasonJasonEbonyEbony/14
Where is the Security Termination Statement placed for retention?
PERSONAL SERVICE RECORD
When the Security Termination Statement is executed at the conclusion of a Limited Access Authorization, the original will be retained where and for how long?
Command Files

2yrs
What Navy correspondence course is available through the command education service officer on security?
DON Intro to Personnel
Security Program
What is a retirement savings and investment plan for Federal employees?
THE THRIFT SAVINGS PLAN
TSP regulations are published where?
TITLE 5
CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS
PARTS 1600–1690
In the civilian component of the TSP, employees can contribute to the TSP if they are covered by what?
FEDERAL EMPLOYEES RETIREMENT SYSTEM
CIVIL SERVICE RETIREMENT SYSTEM
Who administers the TSP?
FEDERAL RETIREMENT THRIF INVESTMENT BOARD
Fam
Run
The
Block
Who is responsible for determining your retirement coverage and reporting to the record keeper the dollar amount of contributions to your account each pay period?
YOUR AGENCY
Who processes contribution allocations, interfund transfers, loans, withdrawals and transfers of funds into the TSP from other plans, as well as participants' designations of beneficiaries?
TSP SERVICE OFFICE
Who is your primary contact after you separate from Federal service?
TSP SERVICE OFFICE
Participating in the TSP does not affect the amount of your what?
SOCIAL SECURITY BENEFIT
FERS BASIC ANNUITY
Unless convened by the President or the
Secretary concerned, neither the convening authority
nor any member of the convening authority’s staff
may prepare or review any report concerning the
effectiveness, fitness, or efficiency of the military
judge detailed to a what
GENERAL COURT-MARTIAL
Convening authorities shall at all times communicate
directly with whom? In matters relating to the what?
STAFF JUDGE ADVOCATES
ADMIN OF MILITARY JUSTICE
What is the power to hear a case and to render a legally competent decision?
JURISDICTION
Article 77
Principals
Article 78
Accessory after the fact
AF
Article 79
Conviction of lesser included offenses
Article 80
Attempts
Article 81
Conspiracy
Article 82
Solicitation
Article 83
Fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or separation
Article 84
Effecting unlawful enlistment, appointment, or separation
Article 85
Desertion
Article 86
Absence without leave
Article 87
Missing movement
Article 88
Contempt toward officials
Want Listen
Article 89
Disrespect toward a superior commissioned officer
Article 90
Assaulting or willfully disobeying superior commissioned officer
Article 91
Insubordinate conduct
warrant officer
noncommissioned officer
petty officer
Article 92
Failure to obey order or regulation
Forget That!!!
Article 93
Cruelty and maltreatment
Article 94
Mutiny and sedition
Article 95
Resistance
Flight
Escape
Breach of Arrest
Run
For
Everything
Bad
Article 96
Releasing prisoner without proper authority
Set Free
Article 97
Unlawful detention
Article 98
Noncompliance with procedural rules
Article 99
Misbehavior before the enemy
Article 100
Subordinate compelling surrender
Article 101
Improper use of countersign
Article 102
Forcing a safeguard
Article 103
Captured or abandoned property
Article 104
Aiding the enemy
Article 105
—Misconduct as a prisoner
Article 106
—Spies
Article 106a
—Espionage
Article 107
—False official statements
Article 108
—Military property of the United States—sale, loss, damage, destruction, or wrongful disposition
Article 109
—Property other than military property of the United States—waste,
spoilage, or destruction
Article 110
—Improper hazarding of vessel
Article 111
–Drunken or reckless operation of vehicle, aircraft, or vessel
Article 112
—Drunk on duty
Article 112a
—Wrongful use, possession, etc., of controlled substances
Article 113
—Misbehavior of sentinel or lookout
Article 114
—Dueling . .
Article 115
—Malingering
Article 116
—Riot or breach of peace
Article 117
—Provoking speeches or gestures
Article 118
—Murder
Article 119
—Manslaughter
Article 120—
Rape and carnal knowledge
Article 121
—Larceny and wrongful appropriation
Article 122
—Robbery
Article 123
Forgery
Article 123a
—Making, drawing, or uttering check, draft, or order without
sufficient funds
Article 124
—Maiming
Article 125
—Sodomy
Article 126
—Arson
Article 127—
Extortion
Article 128
—Assault
Article 129
—Burglary
Article 130
—Housebreaking
Article 131
—Perjury
Article 132
—Frauds against the United States
Article 133
—Conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman
Article 134—
General article
What is the restraint of a person by an order, not imposed as a punishment for an offense, directing him to remain within certain specified limits?
Arrest
What is the physical restraint of a person?
Confinement
Every commander of a guard or MA to whose charge a prisoner is committed shall, within 24 hrs after that commitment or as soon as he is relieved from guard, report what to the CO?
the name of the prisoner, the offense charged

who ordered or authorized commitment.
A general courts-martial, consists of what?
Military Judge

Not Less than 5 members
A special courts-martial, consists of what?
Military Judge not less than 3 members
A summary courts-martial, consists of what?
One Commissioned Officer
Summary Courts-Martial have jurisdiction to try any
persons for any noncapital offense except for whom?
Cadets
Officers
Midshipmen
Aviation cadets
C
0
M
A
Administrative
corrective measures to further the efficiency of commands or units generally fall into what three areas?
extra military instruction, administrative withholding of privileges,
nonpunitive censure.
What is a bona fide training technique used for improving the efficiency of an
individual within a command or unit through the
correction of some deficiency
in that individual's
performance of duty?
EMI
Final authority to withhold a privilege, however temporary, must ultimately rest with what?
Level of authority empowered to grant that privilege.
A nonpunitive letter is not considered punishment;
rather, the letter is issued to remedy a noted deficiency in what?
conduct or

performance of duty.
What generally falls into
extra military instruction, administrative withholding of privileges, and nonpunitive censure?
Administrative Corrective Measures
What is defined as instruction in a phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient, and is intended for and directed towards the correction of that deficiency?
Extra military instruction (EMI)
The commanding officer or officer in charge has the authority to assign EMI to be performed when?
After normal working hours is vested in the
It is illegal for any officer or
noncommissioned/petty officer to deny to any subordinate normal liberty, or privileges incident thereto, as punishment for any offense except describe in what UCMJ article?
15
Members assigned to or attached to commands or units for the purpose of performing temporary duty (TDY) are subject to the nonjudicial punishment authority of what?
Commanders of both the parent and TDY commands.
A person in the Navy or
Marine Corps who is attached to or embarked in a vessel does not have the right to demand what in lieu of of nonjudicial punishment?
Trial by courtmartial
Restriction, with or without suspension from duty, imposed upon commissioned and warrant officers, when imposed by a commanding officer below the grade of major or lieutenant
commander may not exceed what?
15 consecutive days
Normally the immediate commanding officer of the accused will designate the amount and character of what?
Extra duties
If forfeiture of pay and reduction in grade is
suspended, and the
suspension is later vacated, these punishments take effect for all purposes
when?
Date suspension is vacated.
A punitive letter is issued as nonjudicial punishment or as the result of a sentence
from what?
Court-Martial.
What is a statement of adverse opinion or criticism of an individual's conduct or
performance of duty
expressed by a superior in the member's chain of
command?
Censure
In what time frame should an appeal of nonjudicial punishment shall be
submitted?
5 working days,
Those officers who are
empowered to convene general and special courtsmartial
may convene what?
summary courts-martial
A summary courtmartial
convening authority is authorized to direct a
pretrial investigation under what UCMJ article?
32
What serves as an analytical tool to determine whether additional investigation is warranted and, if so, how it is to be conducted?
preliminary inquiry
What provides an excellent
opportunity to expedite workflow processes and reduce storage space, mailing costs, and collection time?
Storing Electroncially
Information collections must only collect information that is what?
When it is needed
Actually needed
Most efficient format
W
A
M
What manual establishes policies and assigns responsibilities
for the management and control of DON forms and information requirements (reports)?
SECNAVINST 5210.16

DON REPORTS MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMS
What is the precedence that should be followed when forms are required?
GSA Standard or Optional
DD
Existing DON forms.
When a form is required and a new one has to be made who has to assign a form number and approve this?
Service Forms Manager
Information requirements shall not be initially
authorized no longer than what from the date of the implementing document?
Three years
When a junior walks, rides or sits with a senior, the junior takes position on what side?
Left
When serving with the Armed Forces and group also rate a salute?
Public Health Services

National Oceanic Atmospheric Admin Officers
When should you execute the first position of the hand salute?
Six Paces
To open ranks on the command March how many paces do each rank take?
First - Two
Second - One
Third - None
Within ranks, the space between the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead is how many?
40 inches
When do Navy personnel normally wear full dress uniforms?
Change of Command
Visist w Honors
Foreign men of war
Official Dignitaries
If a junior officer is walking with a Senior Officer and a salute is warranted who salutes first?
Senior
At noon on what day does all saluting ships and all naval stations having a saluting battery fire a 21 minute-guns?
Memorial Day
On what days does ship render a 21 gun salute?
President's Day

Independence Day
In what precendence do Navy personnel wear awards?
Military Decorations
Unit Awards
Nonmilitary Dec
Foreign Dec
M
U
N
F
Navy personnel wear a gold star instead of a second or subsequent award of a military decoration except for what medal?
Air Medal
What individuals awards for act of service involving direct participation in combat operations may be authorized to wear a bronze letter V?
Legion of Merit
Bronze Star Medal
Joint Service Com
NAM & COM
L
B
J
N
What Medal/Ribbon has the highest order of percedence of campaign & service awards?
Good Conduct Medal
What Unites States decorations may the Navy legally award to foreign personnel?
Navy Cross, Bronze Star, Air Medal, NCM Distinguished Service, Silver Star Legion Merit, Flying Cross
What nonmilitary decorations may be earned by Navy members?
Persidential Medal Freedom

Nation Security Medal
What awards do not have medals and medal pendants authorized?
Unit Awards
Who designates the representative to receive a posthumous award?
President
What US decorations may not be awarded to personnel of foreign nations?
Medal of Honor
MSM
NAM
Purple Heart
Combat Ribbon
CO's are not authorized to CAP non-designated strikers in ratings requiring what?
Special Selection

"A" School Required
In no case may the total what exceed the Maximum authorized quotas?
Annual CAP Advancement
Conduct a periodic review of directives with empphasis on what?
Cancellation Consolidation
Compliance w Standard Procedures
Formal written guidance that informs and instructs DON personnel in the communications of policy and procedures in their duties?
Directives
What are the exceptions for issuing by directives?
Navy Regs
Top Secret Documents
Register PUBS
When information must be transmitted before a regular change or revision to the basic document can be published what should be issued?
Notice
How long should a Notice be issue for?
6 months or less
To cancel a single directive, usually because it is superseded by a revision should be done how?
Cancellation Paragraph
When cancelling serveral directives issue a consolidate list of the canceled directives in what?
One Notice
The consolidated Notice should included what information?
Subject
Form #
Directive #
Date issue Orig Code
Date Canceled - Reason Canceled
This form is useed as a record-keeping tool to track actions taken on directives?
OPNAV 5215/8
File instructions together regardless of issuing authority according to what?
SSIC #
Consecutive #
Issuing Authority
This a directive that has a one time or brief nature and has a self-cancelling provision?
Notice
Notices may not be in effective for how long?
More than 1yr
When a sponsor can not determine the exact date on which requried action will be completed what should be added?
Contingency Cancellation Paragraph
Where is the cancellation paragraph added in a notice?
Last Paragraph of Notice
This paragraph states the action or events that must occur prior to canceling a notice?
Contingency Cancellation Paragraph
The day of cancellation is always the what
Last Day of month
If the Notice cancels another directive what part of the notice is the cancellation paraghraph?
Second Para
If the sole purpose of a notice is to cancel another directive where can the cancellation statement be contained?
Purpose Para
This is the last para of a notice when the cancellation is for record purposes and contains the cancellation contingency?
Cancellation Contingency Para
When an instruction is reiussed as a revision the numbering of change transmittals does what?
Begins w 1
The proper format when writing a change transmittal?
SECNAVINST 5215.1D CH-1
Change transmittal for a Notice
CNINOTE 5215 OF 6 JUN 06 CHANGE TRANSMITTAL 2
CH-1 OF 6 JUNE 2005 is the correct format for what?
Changed First Page
The body of directives are numbered in what format?
Arabic
Where is the classification marks in a directive?
Subj in (S)
This is the first para of a directive?
Purpose
If the notice is canceled on a
given date, with no contingency, the
cancellation date is shown how?
Canc: Jun 02
What represents the machinery by which an organization plans and accomplishes its assigned responsibilities?
Elements of Adminstration
Administration is comprised of what fundamental elements?
Organization
Command and control Communications
What should be delegated to
the lowest level of
competence commensurate with the subordinate's assigning responsibility and
capabilities?
Delegating Authority
Terrorist ____ vary in sophistication according to the level of training the individual or group has received
tactics
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when a general threat of possible terrorist activity is directed toward installation, vessels or personnel, the nature of which are unpredictable and where circumstances do not justify full implementation of FP condition BRAVO
ALPHA
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement) Once a terrorist or terrorist group decides to conduct an attack they begin the process of target selection.
Target Operations

Phase One- Target Operations
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activty. The operating environment favors the host nation
Moderate
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- No terrorist group is detected or the group activity is nonthreatening
Low
This type of terrorist activity involves a building or object that has value in the eyes of the audience.
• [A] hostage taking
• [B] seizure
• [C] raids
• [D] kidnapping
seizure
A ___ group's selection of targets and tactics is often a function of the group's affiliation, level of training, organization, sophistication and opportunity
terrorists
A critical factor in understanding terrorism is the ______ impact of the terrorist act on an audience other than the victim
emotional
This type of terrorist activity is sometimes employed as a means of escape, is normally carried out to produce a spectacular hostage situation.
hijacking
This type of activities on facilities are usually undertaken for one of three purposes: to gain access to radion or television broadcast capabilities in order to make a statementl; to demonstrate the government's inability to secure critical facilities or national symbols; or to acquire resources.
Raids
• Attacks
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)-An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is substantial DOD presence and the operation environment favors the terrorist.
High
"This" is the crime of maliciously setting fire to a building or the property of another person.
[A] Bombing
• [B] Arson
• [C] raids
• [D] weapons of mass
destruction
Arson
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when a terroist attack has occured in the immediate area or intelligence indicates a terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely. Declared only as a localized warning
DELTA
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- Based on the phase two surveillance, the terrorist selects a target, or set of target
Phase Three- Target Selection
In "type" of warfare, actions are taken to achieve information superiority by affecting adversary information, information-based processes, information systems and computer based networks while leveraging and defending one's own information, information systems and computer based networks
Information Warfare
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- Recently demonstrated anti-US activity or stated or assessed intent to conduct such activity.
Activity
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- Detailed and often long term, surveillance is then conducted against the chosen potential target(s)
Phase Four- Detailed Surveillance
This terrorist activity is usually a covert seizure of one or more specific persons in order to exact specific demands
• [A] Hostage
• [B] Hijacking
• [C] skyjacking
• [D] kidnapping
kidnapping
Terrorist threat levels do not address when a ____ attack will occur and do not specify a Force Protection condition status.
terrorist
This type of terrorist activity is an overt seizure of one or more indivduals with the intent of gaining publicity or other concessions in return for release of the hostages.
• [B] Hijacking
• [C] Skyjacking
• [D] Seizure
Hostage
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- The attack plan will be developed, the attack team assembled and trained and logistics preparation made
Phase five - Training and Preparation
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activy exists but warrants only a routine secuirity posture.
NORMAL
DEFFINITION OF ____: A term generally applied to the killing of promiment persons and symbolic enemies as well as traitors who defect from the group.
Assassination
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- The circumstances of a the country under consideration
Operating environment
What are the intelligence's system for articulating and categorzing the terrorist threat worldwide?
threat levels
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- One phase five is accomplished the terrorists wait for the right set of circumstances to make their attack
Phase Six - The Attack
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when a increaed threat and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
BRAVO
have accounted for over one half or all recorded international terrorist attacks since 1938.
Bombing
Terrorists _____ may include attracting publicity for a group's cause, demonstrating the group's power or the existing government's lack of power, extracting revenge or causing government overreaction.
objectives
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and attacks personnel as their preferred method of operation, or a group uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method and limited operational activity. The operating environment is neutral
Significant
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- Actions indicative of preparations for specific terrorist operations
Intentions
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement) During this phase each of the potential targets will receive some degree of light surveillance to determine its acceptability for further consideration.
Phase Two- Selection Surveillance
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when an incident occurs or intelligence is recieved indicating that some form of terrorist action against installations, vessels or personnnel is imminent.
CHARLIE
This terrorist activity is the destruction of property or obstruction of normal operations or treacherous action to defeat or hinder a cause or endeavor.
• [A] Seizure
• [B] Bombing
• [C] Sabotage
• [D] Information warfare
Sabotage
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- The acquired, assessed or demonstrated level of capability to conduct terrorist attacks
Operational capability
What 3 areas should you
look for when assess your
workers performance?
1. attitude, knowledge, work habits
2. popularity, work habit, attitude
3. rank, knowledge, attitude
4. knowledge, rank, appearance
attitude
knowledge
work habits
What is used to maintain
an inventory of people
available on a command?
1. muster sheet
2. PRD
3. EDVR
4. CO call EDVR
EDVR
What does EDVR stand for?
1. enlisted developement verification report
2. equal division variations report
3. even division verification report
4. enlisted distribution verifcation report
4. Enlisted distribution
verification report
What provides a chronological
record of significant miscellaneous entries not
provided on other pages of service record?
1. pg 1
2. pg 2
3. pg 13
4. all info on the right side of a service record
3. page 13
You can recommend
subordinates with how
many different types
of recognition?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. no limit
3.5
Authority falls under what
2 categories?
1. admin and discipline
2. chiefs and petty officers s
3. general and organizational
4. officers and chiefs
3. general
organizational
What are the 2 types of naval messages?
1. general and routine
2. naval and routine correspondence
3. flash and immediate
4 all of the above
2. naval message
routine naval correspondence
All message directives are automatically canceled after how many days?
1. 30
2. 60
3. 90
4. never
3. 90 days
Who ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory
incidents to occur?
1. police
2. maa
3. cmeo
4. dept heads
CMEO
What does CMEO stand for?
1. command material equal oppurtunity
2. command managed equal oppurtunity
3. command management equal oppurtunity
4. common managed equal oppurtunity
2. Command Managed Equal Oppurtunity
Equal opportunity can be
observed from what 2
perspectives?
1. mines and yours
2. personnel and administration
3. chain of command and maa
4. co and xo
2. Personnel and
Administration
Command personnel make up what 2 teams that evaluate
and assess its equal
opportunity status?

1. blue and gold
2. port and stbd
3. cat and ctt
4. red and blue
. CAT (command assessment)
2. CTT (command training)
Which team performs NR&R
workshop?
1. cat
2. ctt
3. both
4. blue
2. CTT
What are the 3 methods to
enforce equal oppurtunity?
1.warning ,njp, discharge from the military
2. emi, extra duty, warning
3. nothing is done
4. both 1 and 2
1. Warning (counseling)
NJP Discharge from the Navy
Article 15 requires the appeal to be mad within
how many days?
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4 10
5 days
Recruits are tested within how many hours of arrival
at basic training?
1. 12
2. 24
3. 36
4. 48
48 hrs
What percent is legally presumed sober and in condition to drive a motor vehicle?
1. 0.05
2. 0.06
3. 0.05
4. 0.07
0.05
What is Level 1?
1. caac
2. Local command program
3. rehab center
4. warning
Local command program
What is level 2?
1. caac
2. Local command program
3. rehab center
4. warning 1.
CAAC (counseling and assistance center)
What is level 3?
1. caac
2. Local command program
3. rehab center
4. warning
3. Residential rehab program
How long is a person to remain
in an aftercare status
1. 30
2. 60
3. 90
4. 180
4. 180 days
Who conducts onboard alcohol
screening as directed by the
CO.
1. caac
2. dapa
3. drb
4. divo
DAPA
When typing a classified letter, how would the subject line appear?
c. Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS (U)
When typing a Joint Letter, the senior official signs where?

a. Left Side
b. Center of Page
c. Right Side
d. Left side above the other signatures
C Right Side
How many major subject identification codes are found in the SSIC manual?

a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
C 13
What is the proper way to mark an enclosure to be sent under separate cover?

a. Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
b. Enclosure: (1) SECNAVISNT 5216.5D (s/c)
c. Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
d. Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (s/c)
C Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
What publication governs the Navy Personnel Security Program?

a. OPNAVINST 5510.1H
b. SECNAVINST 5550.1F
c. BUPERSINST 5210.40
d. SECNAVINST 5510.30A
d. SECNAVINST 5510.30A
What publication(s) gives detailed instructions for preparing and distributing of the DD214?

a. MILPERSMAN
b. BUPERSINST 1900.8
c. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1900.1
d. Both a and b
b. BUPERSINST 1900.8
Statutory age retirement for regular officers shall be on the first day of the month following the month in which he/she becomes what age?

a. 55
b. 58
c. 62
d. 64
c. 62
By policy how many members are on a Special Courts-Martial board?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. 3
What directive gives policy on how official files must be destroyed or forwarded to records center?

a. SECNAVINST 1650.1F
b. SECNAVINST 5212.5C
c. SECNAVINST 5213.11D
d. SECNAVINST 5200.18
b. SECNAVINST 5212.5C
Where are per diem rates found for estimating cost of TEMADD travel?

a. JFTR
b. MILPERSMAN
c. Foreign Clearance Guide
d. DJMS Manual
a. JFTR
When typing a naval message, what is the maximum # of character per line?

a. 65
b. 66
c. 67
d. 69
d. 69
Which of the following qualities should Navy leadership exhibit?
1. Administrative ability
2. Moral principals
3. Personal example
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
When followed, which of the following moral principals provides direction and consistency to leadership?
1. Integrity
2. Loyalty
3. Honesty
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
To make sure an order to a job will get it done,orders need to be given so they can be followed. Orders should be given in what way?
1. Simple only
2. Clear only
3. Simple, clear, and complete
4. Complex
3. Simple, clear, and complete
To be a good leader, you need to carry out your orders in which of the following ways?
1. Promptly
2. Cheerfully
3. To the best of your ability
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
What is the primary goal of the Continuous Improvement Program?
1. Increased productivity only
2. Produce better quality through leadership only
3. Increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership
3. Increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership
List the elements of a good Navy leader.
Personal example
Administrative ability
Moral principles
List the principles of conduct that give direction,
solidity, and consistency to leadership.
Honesty
Integrity
Loyalty
What is another term used to describe
administrative ability?
good management practices
List three followership qualities.
Loyalty
Initiative
Dependability
Describe the purpose of a reprimand.
teach
List the ways you can help build morale.
Pride
Integrity
Keeping personnel informed
How many security classifications does the Navy use to identify classified material?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
If you need to find the rules for transmitting classified material, you should refer to what
instruction?
1. 5510.36
2. 5510.30A
3. 5510.3
4. 5510.3A
1. 5510.36
What term defines classified material that is lost, stolen, captured, salvaged, or seen by unauthorized personnel?
1. Secure
2. Abandoned
3. Compromised
3. Compromised
The Status of Forces Agreement covers what topics?
Taxes
Criminal jurisdiction
Passport requirements
How are classified material such as videotapes,cassettes, and computer disks marked?
tags
stickers
decals
What form is used to record bomb threats received over the phone?
Telephonic Threat Complaint, OPNAV Form 5527/8.
Pay you get for certain types of duty that are usually considered hazardous.
1. Basic pay
2. Incentive pay
3. Special pay
4. Both 2 and 3 above
2. Incentive pay
You are entitled to an annual clothing
maintenance allowance after you have been on active duty for what length of time?
1. 12 months
2. 6 months
3. 3 months
4. 9 months
2. 6 months
An allotment is money you have withheld
from your pay and paid directly to someone else. There are how many categories of authorized allotments?
1. Six
2. Five
3. Three
4. Four
2. Five
Under certain circumstances, what is the maximum number of days special liberty a CO can grant?
1. 1 day
2. 2 days
3. 3 days
4. 4 days
4. 4 days
As an E-4, you have served more than 4 years of active-duty service. How often will you receive a longevity raise?
2 years.
What material is used to make
government-issue dress blue jumpers
and trousers?
1. Navy twill
2. Wool serge
3. Nylon
4. Rayon
2. Wool serge
What material is used to make government issue
dress white jumpers and trousers?
1. Navy twill
2. Wool serge
3. Nylon
4. Rayon
1. Navy twill
According to grooming standards for women,what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured from the tip of the finger)?
1. 1 inch
2. 1/2 inch
3. 3/4 inch
4. 1/4 inch
4. 1/4 inch
You are not required to salute in which
of the following situations?
1. When standing and talking with an officer
and a senior officer approaches
2. When guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance
3. When standing at a bus stop and a car passes carrying officers
4. When walking and passing an officer
going in the same direction
2. When guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance
Your ship is about to render honors to another ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what order are the appropriate whistle signals
given?
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts
2. One blast, one blast, three blasts, one blast
3. Two blasts, two blasts, two blasts, three blasts
4. Two blasts, two blasts, three blasts, three blasts
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts
Gun salutes are normally fired at what time interval?
1. 5 seconds
2. 10 seconds
3. 15 seconds
4. 20 seconds
1. 5 seconds
On Navy ships not under way, where is
the union jack displayed?
1. The highest possible point
2. The flagstaff on the stern
3. The jack staff on the bow
4. The gaff
3. The jack staff on the bow
The national ensign is hoisted and lowered
in which of the following ways?
1. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered
ceremoniously
2. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered smartly
3. Hoisted smartly, lowered smartly
4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
When using the mouthpiece of a
sound-powered phone set to report contacts,how far from your mouth should you position the mouthpiece?
1. 1/2 to 1 inch
2. 1 to 2 inches
3. 2 to 3 inches
4. 3 to 4 inches
1. 1/2 to 1 inch
Why should you unplug a phone’s headset
when it’s not in use?
1. To keep the user costs down
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit
3. Carbon will build up at the connectors
4. Calls from other circuits won’t go through
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit
Aboard ship, there are how many categories of shipboard sound-powered phone circuits?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What category of shipboard telephone circuits is designed to maintain vital communications and are preceded by the letter X?
1. Primary system
2. Auxiliary system
3. Supplementary system
4. Command circuit
2. Auxiliary system
What regulation applies
uniform, consistent, and cost-effective policies and
procedures to the classification, safeguarding, transmission and destruction
of classified information?
SECNAVINST 5510.36

DON INFORMATION SECURITY PROG
Who is the primary internal security agency of the U.S. Government?
FBI
Who coordinates the
intelligence efforts of the Department of the Army, Navy, and Air Force and is reeponsible for development of standard, implementation, and operational management of the SCI compartments for the DoD?
Defense Intelligence Agent
Who is responsible for the effective management of the ISP within the command?
Commanding Officer
Where does the classified
markings appear on a document?
Face and Back cover
Top and Bottom Center
This requirement eliminates any doubt as to which
portions of a document are classified?
Portion Marking
What shall used for the identification of NATO RESTRICTED or Foreign Government RESTRICTED information?
Letter R
Where is the ‘Declassify on line on a document appears?
below the
Classified by
Reason lines
Derived from
What markings are spelled out in their entirety on the face of the document?
Intelligence control markings
Each classified enclosure must be identified in the instructions where?
top left corner
A classified letter of transmittal contains
Confidential information and has a Secret enclosure, therefore, its highest overall classification level is what?
Secret
Classified sound recordings shall include an audible statement where?
beginning and end of each recording
What is conducted by DSS and is requried to support suitability determination on officers and Secret & Confidential Security Clearance?
National Agency Check with Local Agency and Credit Checks
What is usually a investigation basis for Top Secret access eligibility determinations?
SSBI
When preparing a same-page endorsement when can you omit the SSIC, Subject and basic letter's identification symbols?
As long as the entire page will be photocopy