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151 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Which statement is true:
a. Members of the Service have the duty to only use the force which is reasonably necessary to bring an incident to a controlled state. b. Members of the Service have a responsibility to use every use of force option reasonably necessary to bring an incident under control quickly. c. Members of the Service have a responsibility to only use the force which is reasonably effective to bring an incident under control as fast as possible. d. Members of the Service have a responsibility to only use the force which is reasonably necessary to bring an incident under control effectively and safely. |
D - Members of the Service have a responsibility to only use the force which is reasonably necessary to bring an incident under control effectively and safely.
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2. The Ontario Use of Force Model is an aid to promote continuous critical assessment and evaluation of every situation, and can assist members to understand and make use of a variety of force options to respond to potentially violent situations.
a. True b. False |
true
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3. The use of force model is intended to serve as justification for a member’s use of force, as it prescribes specific response options appropriate to any given situation.
a. True b. False |
false
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4. If a police officer discharges his firearm who is required to attend?
a. The officer in charge b. An investigator from the divisional CIB c. A Firearms discharge investigator d. Professional Standards e. A supervisor f. B and E only g. C or E h. B and E |
The answer is G ----C Or E –
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5. Ontario Regulation 926/90 (O.Reg 926/90) made under the Police Services Act (PSA) prohibits a member of a police service from using force on another person, unless the member has successfully completed the prescribed training course on the use of force, and that at least once
a. Every six (6) months b. every twelve (12) months c. every twenty four (24) months d. every thirty six (36) months |
EVERY 12 months
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6. At minimum police officers must be equipped with a baton, oc spray, handgun, trained in officer safety, communication and physical control techniques, ACCORDING TO Ontario Regulation 3/99
a. True b. False |
true
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7. Members may use an intermediate weapon such as their issued baton, OC spray or conducted energy weapon (CEW) as a force option
a) to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked b) to prevent a prisoner being taken from police custody c) to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon d) to control a potentially violent situation when other force options are not viable e) to gain control of a passive person f) for any other lawful and justifiable purpose. |
E – to gain control of a passive person
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8. Nothing prohibits a member from using a weapon of opportunity when the issued weapon is not viable
a. True b. False |
true
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9. Handcuffs, leg irons and other restraints authorized by the Chief of Police (e.g. plastic flexi–cuffs) may be used
a) to control the violent activities of a person in custody b) when prisoners are being transferred from one place to another c) to prevent a prisoner from escaping d) all of the above e) only a and c |
ALL OF THE ABOVE d
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10. A peace officer is justified in using force that is intended, or likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm to a person to be arrested, if the officer believes on reasonable grounds that
a) the person to be arrested takes flight to avoid arrest b) the force is necessary for the purpose of protecting the peace officer, the person lawfully assisting the peace officer or any other person from imminent or future death or grievous bodily harm c) the flight cannot be prevented by reasonable means in a less violent manner. d) All of the above e) Not justified |
D- all of the above
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11. The discharging of a firearm at a motor vehicle is an ineffective method of disabling the motor vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle presents a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Members are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle.
a. True b. False |
true
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12. What is the exception to the following, members shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied vehicle with the intention of preventing its escape.
a) Except when a road block is being set up b) Except while in a motor vehicle c) Except under exigent circumstances d) Except when the member is feeling suicidal e) A, B, and C only |
B- while in a motor vehicle
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13. According to the procedure relating to excessive force, which statement is true
a. Everyone who is authorized by law to use force is morally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the assault b. Police Officer who is authorized by law to use force is criminally responsible for any assault thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the assault c. Police officer who is authorized by law to use force is criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the excess of force d. Everyone who is authorized by law to use force is criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the excess |
D - Everyone who is authorized by law to use force is criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the excess
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14. Ontario Regulation compels members to submit a Use of Force Report UFR Form 1 to the chief of police when: ALL BUT ONE:
a) uses physical force on another person that results in minor where the person refuses medical attention b) draws a handgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty c) discharges a firearm d) points a firearm regardless if the firearm is a handgun or a long gun, e) uses a weapon other than a firearm on another person |
A___ it should read----uses physical force on another person that results in an injury that requires medical attention
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15. For the purpose of reporting a use of force incident, a weapon includes ________________ that comes into direct contact with a person.
a. Police dog b. Police horse c. Police officer d. Police Booker e. All of the above f. A and B only |
A and B only
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16. A UFR Form 1 AND A TPS 584 must be submitted to the chief of Police when the members uses a CEW a a demonstrated force presence or in drive stun mode or full deployment, whether intentional or otherwise.
a. True b. False |
true
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17. The Mounted Unit may submit a Team UFR when the force used is Demonstrated Force Presence.
a. True b. False |
true
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18. Team Reports will suffice when involving the ETF, if a firearm is pointed at a person.
a. True b. False |
true
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19. An officer may retain a copy of the Form 1 UFR for his files.
a. True b. False |
false
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20. If the UFR report is subpoenaed, the request shall be directed to
a. The Chief’s SIU Liaison officer b. The co-ordinator Freedom of Information c. The Co-ordinator Access-Privacy Section d. The Public Order Unit – training section |
C - The Co-ordinator Access-Privacy Section
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21. The _______________- of a member who has been identified with a training issue shall submit a TPS 649 to the Unit Commander of Training and Education detailing the issue.
a. Supervisor b. Officer in charge c. The unit commander d. The co-worker |
C – The UNIT COMMANDER
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22. When a firearm discharge results in injury or death, the administrative investigation is assigned to
a. The divisional firearms discharge investigator b. A supervisor c. The Homicide Squad d. Professional Standards |
THE HOMICIDE SQUAD
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23. In injury or death do not occur, when a member discharges a firearm, the lead investigator shall be a
a. Investigator from Homicide b. Divisional Firearms Discharge investigator c. Firearms Discharge investigator from Professional Standards d. The detective Sergeant form the members unit |
C- Firearms Discharge investigator from Professional Standards
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24. An FDI is not required when investigating the discharge of an impact projectile launcher or a tear gas launching device, where the projectile expelled by the firearm is designed or intended as a less–lethal mechanism. The investigation and report on the incident shall be the responsibility of the unit commander, in conjunction with the training staff, of the unit responsible for the discharge.
a. True b. False |
true
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25. The only impact weapon permitted for use when dealing directly with the public is
a. SAPS b. Blackjacks c. Baton d. Billy CLUB |
C- BATON
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26. When a member uses OC spray on a person when other options reasonably present a risk of injury to a subject or themselves, the member shall call an ambulance to decontaminate the individual sprayed.
a. True b. False |
o FALSE – the procedure reads - make all reasonable efforts to decontaminate sprayed individuals at the earliest safe or practicable opportunity, including the consideration of aerosol water mist decontamination devices
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When issued with and/or authorized to carry firearms or ammunition shall not draw a handgun, point a firearm at a person, or discharge a firearm unless ALL BUT ONE +
a) there are reasonable grounds to believe that to do so is necessary to protect against loss of life or damage to property b) engaged in a training exercise, target practice or ordinary weapon maintenance c) the discharge of a handgun or other firearm is to call for assistance in a critical situation, if there is no reasonable alternative d) the discharge of a handgun or other firearm is to destroy an animal that is potentially dangerous or is so badly injured that humanity dictates that its suffering be ended. |
A - there are reasonable grounds to believe that to do so is necessary to protect against loss of life or serious bodily harm
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28. A POLICE officer may discharge a firearm at a moving vehicle if the sole purpose of firing is to disable the vehicle
a. True b. False |
false
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29. Members must immediately notify -------------- when discharging any firearm.
a. Their supervisor b. Their officer in charge c. The officer in charge of the division in which the discharge occurred d. The duty inspector e. All of the above f. A, C and D g. A and C only |
G -----A and C only
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30. Who is responsible for contacting the supervisor of the duty desk when a member discharges his firearm
a. The supervisor b. The officer in charge c. The member who discharged the firearm d. The divisional investigator |
B- The officer in charge
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31. Who shall a member notify once becoming aware that a person who is being taken into custody has sustained an injury prior to arrest
a. The supervisor b. The officer in charge |
the oic
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32. In February 2004, --------------------------------------- approved the use of Conducted Energy Weapons (CEWs) for tactical units, hostage rescue teams, preliminary perimeter control containment teams and qualified front-line supervisors. The CEW is designed as a less-lethal weapon
a. The police services board b. The Toronto police services training and education c. The Ministry of Attorney Generals office d. the Ministry of Community Safety and Correctional Services |
D - the Ministry of Community Safety and Correctional Services
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33. The Hand held CEW is intended to be used as a less- lethal weapon on persons displaying this type of behaviour
a. Uncooperative b. Assaultive c. Passive resistant d. Active resistant e. Grievous bodily harm or death |
assaultive
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34. When CEW contact is made with a subject in Full Deployment, it delivers a metered and pulsed electrical current, which is designed to result in involuntary muscle spasms and loss of motor control. This may cause a subject to become incapacitated, permitting officers the opportunity to gain control of the subject.
a. True b. False |
true
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35. If the discharge of a CEW is unintentional a TPS901 must be completed by the officer in charge
a. True b. False |
true
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36. Whenever a CEW is used, the officer in charge shall ensure arrangements are made to have the stored data downloaded at T&E - Armament Office, as soon as practicable or no later than ______________ after CEW use.
a. Forty eight (48) hours b. Twenty Four (24) hours c. Five Days d. seventy two (72) hours |
D – Seventy Two Hours
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37. Only the officer in charge or a senior officer shall transport the CEW to T & E – Armament office
a. True b. False |
FALSE - any member authorized by the OIC can transport
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38. The ETF is exempt from the above rule – they are authorized to download their own data.
a. True b. False |
true
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39. Who is The Pursuit Supervisor
a. The officer in charge of communication operations b. The officer who calls off the pursuit c. a communications supervisor or, if unavailable, a road supervisory officer. d. All of the above |
C - a communications supervisor or, if unavailable, a road supervisory officer.
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40. When referring to a Suspect Apprehension Pursuit (Pursuit) which statement is true:
a. when a person attempts to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to stop, the driver refuses to obey the person, and the person pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. b. when a police officer attempts to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to stop, the driver refuses to obey the police officer, and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. c. when a police officer initiates a motor vehicle to stop, and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. d. when a police officer fails to to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to stop, the driver fails to stop and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. |
B - when a police officer attempts to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to stop, the driver refuses to obey the police officer, and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle.
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What is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a pursuit. This factor may change rapidly and shall be continuously assessed.
a. Officer safety b. Speeds of vehicles c. Type of pursuit, criminal or non-criminal d. Public Safety |
D- Public safety
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42. The criminal offence of dangerous driving – which was committed during the pursuit is grounds to continue the pursuit.
a. True b. False |
false
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43. If the identity of an individual is known, and a police officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a criminal offence has been committed by this person, the officer may not continue to pursue.
a. True b. False |
false
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44. Who can authorize a road block?
a. A Pursuit supervisor b. The road supervisor c. The officer in charge d. All of the above e. Only A and B |
ONLY A and B
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45. Pursuit alternatives s should be considered
a. WHILE IN pursuit b. Prior to a pursuit c. After the pursuit is discontinued |
B – Prior to a pursuit
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46. Pursuit alternatives include:
• Strategic following • Follow-up investigation • The Tandem Stop • Use of tire deflation devices, when available • The use of a helicopter, when available These alternatives are described in a) in the Pursuit Alternative Training Manual as developed by the Ontario Police College. b) in the Pursuit Alternative Manual as developed by the Toronto Police College. c) in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual as developed by the Ontario Police College. d) in the Suspect Training Manual as developed by the Ministry of Criminals EVERYWHERE |
C - in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual as developed by the Ontario Police College.
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47. Methods of terminating a pursuit include, ALL BUT ONE
a. Strategic following b. Abandoning c. Use of tire deflation devices, when available d. Rolling block by using all available civilian vehicles to assist e. Stationary road block f. Pinning g. Intentional contact |
D - Rolling block by using all available civilian vehicles to assist
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48. A pursuit shall be abandoned when it is determined that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle
a. True b. False |
true
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49. Member attending court for matters involving such member being assaulted or obstructed while in uniform, shall appear in court in the uniform of the day.
a. True b. False |
uniform
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50. Male members appearing in court NOT in uniform may wear a sport jacket or blazer, trousers, shirt, tie, dress socks and sport shoes.
a. True b. False |
FALSE – no sport shoes
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51. Summer dress shall be in effect
a. April 31 – October 1st b. April 1 st – October 1st c. April – October d. April 1 st – October 31st |
D – APRIL 1 – October 31
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52. A member may lend their issued articles of uniform and equipment to another member if authorized by a supervisor.
a. True b. False |
true
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53. A member may add a scarf to the uniform only if it is plain black in colour or navy blue.
a. True b. False |
true
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54. A member may not wear a tattoo or body art that is likely to bring discredit upon the reputation of the service including tattoos that : ALL BUT ONE
a. Use profane words or phrases b. May be perceived as gang related c. May contravene any section of the Criminal Code d. Depict nudity or violence |
C – it should read - May contravene any section of the Ontario Human Rights Code
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55. Aboriginal members may wear their hair braided as part of their spiritual practice
a. True b. False |
true
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56. Beards shall be neat and trimmed and not more than ___________ from the skin
a. 2 MM b. 2 Cm c. 1. 3 mm d. 1.3 cm |
B – 2 cm
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57. Maximum hair length for men behind the head where a forge cap is worn, shall be no longer than ____________.
a. 2 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 1.3 cm d. 0.5 cm |
B – 2.5 cm
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58. Moustaches shall not exceed ______ beyond the corner of the mouth
a. 2 cm b. 2mm c. 0.5 cm d. 1.3 cm |
C – 0.5 cm
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59. Moustaches that are waxed may be up to but not exceeding ------------- in length.
a. 2 cm b. 2mm c. 0.5 cm d. 2.5 cm |
D – 2.5 cm
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60. Female members maximum length of hair is
a. To be no lower than the bottom of the collar b. To be no lower than the top of the collar c. 2.5 cm from the back of the forged cap d. 2cm from the back of the forged cap |
A - To be no lower than the bottom of the collar
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61. In normal circumstances, and during business hours, __________________- shall be responsible for the release of information regarding another member, personal or otherwise.
a. The Unit commander –media Relations b. The unit commander – PRS c. The unit commander -duty desk d. The unit commander – Public Information |
D – The unit commander – Public information
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62. The accused’s date of birth may be released in a news release if relavant.
a. True b. False |
false
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63. Who shall be consulted when an authorized member is uncertain on how to respond to a media request?
a. A supervisor b. A media Relations officer c. The duty inspector d. Any of the above e. B and c only |
D – Any of the above
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64. When may a photograph of a person be released to the media, under the authority of the Identification of Criminals Act – All but one
a. A wanted person is at large b. When public interest is requested to locate or identify a person c. In the case of a missing person, permission has been received from an immediate family member to release the photograph d. When the matter involves a member, the Service can release without the members permission |
D – THIS IS NOT TRUE
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65. In the event of a claim for damages under ------- the onus will be on the claimant to arrange for repairs, pay the bill, and submit the invoice for reimbursement.
a. $1000 b. $2000 c. $200 d. $5000 |
C- $200
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66. Personal injury claims, including claims for bodily injury and for general or punitive damages, are to be referred to _________________
a. The Unit commander b. Legal Services c. A civil lawyer d. The association |
B – Legal Services
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67. For claims exceeding ______________________, Financial Management shall prepare a Board Report requesting approval
a. $5000 b. $10000 c. $100000 d. $200000 e. $25000 |
$100,000
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1 Handcuffs, leg irons and other restraints are authorized by the ______.
a) Police Services Board b) Ministry of Corrections c) Chief of Police d) None of the above |
c
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2 The discharging of a firearm at a motor vehicle is an effective method of disabling the motor vehicle. TRUE OR FALSE.
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false
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3 When a member of the Service discharges a firearm, the _______ shall be notified forthwith.
a) OIC b) Duty Inspector c) Supervisor d) Unit Commander |
b
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4 Use of Force – Members unless engaged in an approved training exercise shall submit a UFR Form 1 to their supervisor prior to the completion of the tour of duty when they..
a) discharge a firearm b) use a weapon other than a firearm on another person c) draw a handgun in the presence of a member of the Service d) all of the above e) a and b |
e
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5 Member – When becoming aware of a firearm discharge by a law enforcement officer other than a member of the TPS shall immediately notify their….
a) OIC b) Unit Commander c) TPS REP d) Supervisor |
d
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6 Supervisor – When notified of a firearm discharge incident shall
a) attend the scene immediately b) support and assist DMU – Investigative Unit c) advise the OIC at the first available opportunity and provide regular updates d) complete and submit a UFR Form 1 to the Unit Commander e) a, c and d f) all of the above g) a and c only |
g
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7 OIC – Upon being notified of a firearm discharge by a member shall ensure a description of the event is detailed in the Unit Commander Morning Report (UCMR). TRUE OR FALSE.
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true
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8 OIC – Upon being notified of a firearm discharge by a member where the firearm discharge results in injury or death to a person, notify the _____ and comply with the provisions contained in Procedures 04-02 and 13-16.
a) Unit Commander b) OIC – Duty Desk c) Media d) Next of Kin |
a
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9 Injury/Illness Reporting – Member – When a person sustains any injury or illness resulting in being taken to the hospital shall immediately notify a supervisor forthwith. TRUE OR FALSE.
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false OIC
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10 Injury/Illness Reporting –OIC – When identifying safety issues regarding members shall notify the _______by internal correspondence.
a) OIC – Duty Desk b) Unit Commander c) Unit Commander – Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) d) All of the above |
c
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11 Conducted Energy Weapons – OIC – Upon being notified of CEW use shall
a) ensure a description of the event is detailed in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR) b) ensure all reports including the UFR 1, the TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105 are properly completed and submitted to the Unit Commander c) generate a TPS 901 and submit to the Unit Commander prior to the completion of the tour of duty, if the discharge is unintentional d) all of the above |
d
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12 Conducted Energy Weapons – OIC – Whenever a CEW is used, shall ensure arrangements are made to have the stored data downloaded a T&E – Armament Office as soon as practicable or no later than ______ after use.
a) 48 hours b) 7 days c) 10 days d) 72 hours |
d
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13 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – The criminal offence (flight) described is s. 249.1 of the Criminal Code is justification to initiate a pursuit. TRUE OR FALSE.
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false
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14 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – Prior to a pursuit, police officers shall consider alternatives described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Manual as developed by the Ontario Police College. These alternatives include…
a) Strategic Following b) Tandem Stop c) The Use of a Helicopter, when available d) Blowing out the assholes tires with a shotgun while hanging out the passenger window yelling pull the fuck over. e) A, b and c f) All of the above |
should be f, but its e
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15 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – Police Officer – When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall
a) immediately abandon the pursuit b) advise the Communications Centre that the pursuit has been abandoned c) advise the Communications Centre of your location and odometer reading of the vehicle d) all of the above |
d
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16 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – Road Supervisory Officer – When advised of a pursuit shall
a) monitor the communication b) advise the Communications Centre that he/she is monitoring c) assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of a communications supervisor d) all of the above |
d
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17 For the purposes of contract negotiations only _______ reports directly to the Police Services Board.
a) Labour Relations b) Compensation and Benefits c) Budgeting and Control d) Financial Management e) a and d f) a and b |
f
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18 Name the 5 levels of Command that report directly to the Chief of Police.
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Human Resources Command, administrative Command, Executive Command, Divisional Policing Command, Specialized Operations Command.
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19 “We strive to bring positive and constructive influences to our dealings with each other and our communities”, is what core value.
a) Honesty b) Respect c) Fairness d) Integrity e) None of the above |
e
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20 Video Services is found under what sub-heading of the Toronto Police Organizational Chart.
a) Staff Planning and Community Mobilization b) Corporate Services c) Finance and Administration d) Staff Planning and Community Mobilization |
b
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1. When a death in police custody occurs who shall notify the duty desk:
A. The on scene officer B. The booker C. The attending supervisor D. The oic |
d
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2. In the event of a death in police custody, the OIC shall request the attendance of FIS, Homicide Squad and the coroner
a. True b. False |
b
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3. The Homicide Squad provides investigative support to the Coroner in the investigations of a death in police custody.
A. True B. False |
a
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4. A SOCO may attend the following in lieu of FIS:
A. All minor thefts and mischief, robbery unless firearm was discharged or injury sustained, B. Assaults where there are no life threatening injuries, C. Incidents where a person is harmed by a weapon D. All of the above E. Only A and B |
e
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5. A SOCO shall not attend the following;
A. Homicides B. Shootings C. Life threatening industrial accidents D. Incidents the SOCO feels unqualified to deal with E. All of the above |
e
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6. Which ACT defines the age of a Child as under 16 yrs :
A. Criminal Code B. Child and Family Services Act C. Provincial Offences Act D. None of the above |
b
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7. Who shall attend the scene of a death of a child under 5 yrs?
A. An on duty SGT B. The OIC C. The Duty Inspector D. A Divisional Detective E. FIS |
d
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8. Officers are to remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play in every circumstance where there is
A. a sudden unexpected death and present at the time of death or the finding of a body a partner and particularly a partner with whom the deceased had or may have had an intimate relationship recent or remote B. an expected death and present at the time of death or the finding of a body a partner and particularly a partner with whom the deceased had or may have had an intimate relationship recent C. an expected death and present at the time of death or the finding of a body a partner recent or remote D. a sudden unexpected death and present at the time of death or the finding of a body a partner and particularly a partner recent or remote |
a
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9. The first supervisory officer to attend a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall ensure the attendance of:
a. divisional detective b. the coroner c. FIS d. ON call Homicide team e. A B and C |
e
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10. Who shall notify the OIC Duty Desk, of a suspicious death or possible homicide?
a. The first responding officer b. The attending SGT c. The D/Sgt d. The OIC |
d
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11. At the scene of a confirmed Hold Up the first police officer shall, among other duties,
a. notify HUS b. Notify FIS c. If bait money has been given to the suspect, contact RCMP and advise d. All of the above e. Only a and b |
e
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12 Where a hold up note is located in the absence of HUS officers, the first officer on scene shall:
a. Protect the note for expert examination b. Photocopy the note and send the original to HUS c. Photocopy the note and forward with a copy of the ECOPS to Duty Desk by fax d. All of the above e. None of the above |
d
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12. A SGT shall attend the scene of a confirmed Break and Enter
a. True b. False |
b
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13. When shall a level 2 search be implemented?
a. When a missing person is under 16yrs b. A missing person is mentally challenged c. There is evidence of foul play d. All of the above e. Only b and c |
e
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14. Amber alert means:
a. A co-operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of transportation to provide early notification to the public where a person under eighteen years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstance lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person and or abductor and or the abductors vehicle to believe an immediate alert will help in locating the person b. A co-operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of transportation to provide early notification to the public where a person under sixteen years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstance lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person and or abductor and or the abductors vehicle to believe an immediate alert will help in locating the person c. A co-operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Child Services to provide early notification to the public where a person under eighteen years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstance lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person and or abductor and or the abductors vehicle to believe an immediate alert will help in locating the person d. A co-operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Child Services to provide early notification to the public where a person under sixteen years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstance lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person and or abductor and or the abductors vehicle to believe an immediate alert will help in locating the person |
a
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15. When a person is reported missing by a complainant over the telephone the complainant shall not be transferred to the communications center
a. True b. False |
b
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Missing Persons: Where the complainant is situated outside of the City of Toronto and is reporting a person missing who is a resident of Toronto, the division responsible for the follow-up investigation is:
a. The division who received the phone call b. The division that conducted the initial investigation c. The division closest to where the complainant resides d. The division where the missing person resides |
c
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When a person is missing from a jurisdiction outside the City of Toronto to who is a copy of the ECOPS report forwarded to:
a. RMS Ops PIC b. Unit Commander – follow up investigation division c. Unit Commander – Intelligence Division International Assistance d. Unit Commander Public Safety and Emergency Management |
c
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18. Who shall make the decision as to whether a Level 3 search is initiated?
a. The supervisory officer on scene b. The OIC c. The Incident Manager d. The Superintendant |
b
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19. Who shall ensure that the TPS 260 and TPS 261 have BEEN completed and submitted to the OIC when a level 2 search is commenced?
a. The first officer on scene b. The Incident Manager c. The First Supervisory officer d. The front desk officer |
c
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20. When a complainant is situated in the City of Toronto and is reporting a person missing who is not a resident of the City of Toronto and the area where the person is missing from is unknown, the division receiving the report shall:
a. Be responsible for the initial investigation b. Completing an ECOPS report c. Conducting a follow up investigation d. All of the above e. Only A and B |
d
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. Court Dress - Which items of issued clothing shall not be worn when giving evidence in uniform?
a) forage cap b) multi-purpose patrol jacket (bomber style) c) ceremonial tunic (number 1 dress) d) rainwear e) a and b f) b and c g) b and d h) c and d |
g
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Summer dress options will be in effect between the period of:
a) May 1st to September 31st b) May 31st to September 31st c) April 31st to October 31st d) April 1st to October 31st |
d
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Officers do not need to wear a tie during summer period, regardless of which authorized outer layer of clothing they choose.
a) True b) False |
true
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While in uniform, unless otherwise directed, members shall at all times wear their approved head dress in the prescribed manner except when:
a) in a court house b) on public transport c) in a police building d) climate dictates |
c
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. Goatees and beards shall be worn with a moustache, fully developed and shall be no longer than 2.5 cm from the skin.
a) True b) False |
false 2 cm
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Male members – hair showing at the back of the head below where a forage cap is worn shall be no longer than 2.5cm and …..to no closer than _______ above the collar:
a) 0.5 cm b) 1 cm c) 1. 3cm d) 1. 5cm |
c
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Sideburns shall not extend below the lower part of the ear lobes and shall be no wider than _______ and no thicker than ______.
a) 2 cm and 0.5 cm b) 2.5 cm and 0.3cm c) 2.5 cm and 0.5 cm d) 1.3 cm and 0.5 cm |
c
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Members of the Sikh religion shall wear a small replica of the Kirpan (symbolic sword) in the form of a pin (no more than 9 cm in length) under their uniform, a Kara (symbolic iron bracelet, no wider than 6mm) and Khanga (Sikh comb worn in the hair under the turban).
a) True b) False |
false - may not shall
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. Hair may be worn braided by members of which identifiable group?
a) Sikh b) Hindu c) Rastafarian d) Aboriginal |
d
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When requesting approval to wear their issued uniform or equipment while off duty, other than when commuting to and from work, shall submit a request on an internal correspondence to:
a) OIC b) Unit Commander c) Unit Commander – Diversity Management Unit d) Chief of Police |
b
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Officer in Charge/Supervisor when members parade for duty, shall ensure each member is fit for duty and properly clothed and equipped as prescribed in this Procedure.
a) True b) False |
11. b False – “attired” not “clothed”
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A professional working relationship between the police and the media is essential to
(eliminate one): a) keep the community accurately informed of crime and newsworthy incidents b) maintain media involvement in crime prevention programs and community policing issues c) promote community service performed by the Service d) facilitate community safety through information sharing initiatives |
d
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. Media Representative – means a member of the news media.
a) True b) False |
true
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FOI means:
a) The Freedom of Information and Privacy Protection Act b) The Provincial Freedom of Information and Privacy Protection Act c) The Federal Freedom of Information and Privacy Protection Act d) The Municipal Freedom of Information and Privacy Protection Act |
d
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Information Release Prohibitions – When disseminating information to the news media, members may disclose:
a) previous police contact with an accused b) previous police contact with a victim c) an accused’s residential address d) an accused’s age e) a refusal by an accused to take a test f) a refusal by an accused to give a statement |
d
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A case manager of an investigation or an authorized member may release the identity, personal information or address of a victim if:
- non-publication may adversely affect the health or safety of an individual or a community - an Amber Alert has been issued - disclosure is necessary to prosecute an individual or preserve an investigation, or - in compassionate circumstances to facilitate contact with a next of kin a) True b) False |
trur
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Member – when uncertain on how to respond to a media request shall consult with a supervisor, a Media Relations Officer or the Duty Inspector.
a) True b) False |
17. b False – “Authorized Member” not “Member’
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Authorized Member, when approached by a media representative at a crime scene shall:
a) prohibit photographing of plainclothes officers b) permit such representative access to the scene, circumstances allowing c) prohibit photographing of suspects or accused persons d) notify the officer in charge or unit commander of the unit involved |
b
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When it is necessary to withhold or restrict information from a media representative shall consult with a Media Relations Officer or the Duty Inspector and make the reasons for the restriction known to the media representatives.
a) True b) False |
true
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When publishing a TPS 600 shall include:
a) the nature or type of incident b) a description of the suspect c) a description of the vehicle d) photographs, if appropriate |
a
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. When publishing a TPS 600 after an arrest shall include:
a) identity of the person charged b) charges laid c) particulars of the arrest d) all the above e) none of the above |
d
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A claim for damage or loss will be considered valid if neither the claimant, nor any person closely associated or identified with the claimant, was improperly involved in any incident or engaged in wrongdoing which gave rise to the damage.
a) True b) False |
a
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The onus will be on the claimant to arrange for repairs, pay the bill and submit the invoice for reimbursement in the case of a claim under _________
a) $100 b) $200 c) $300 d) $400 |
b
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1 Handcuffs, leg irons and other restraints are authorized by the ______.
a) Police Services Board b) Ministry of Corrections c) Chief of Police d) None of the above |
c
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2 The discharging of a firearm at a motor vehicle is an effective method of disabling the motor vehicle. TRUE OR FALSE
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false
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3 When a member of the Service discharges a firearm, the _______ shall be notified forthwith.
a) OIC b) Duty Inspector c) Supervisor d) Unit Commander |
b
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4 Use of Force – Members unless engaged in an approved training exercise shall submit a UFR Form 1 to their supervisor prior to the completion of the tour of duty when they..
a) discharge a firearm b) use a weapon other than a firearm on another person c) draw a handgun in the presence of a member of the Service d) all of the above e) a and b |
e
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5 Member – When becoming aware of a firearm discharge by a law enforcement officer other than a member of the TPS shall immediately notify their….
a) OIC b) Unit Commander c) TPS REP d) Supervisor |
d
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6 Supervisor – When notified of a firearm discharge incident shall
a) attend the scene immediately b) support and assist DMU – Investigative Unit c) advise the OIC at the first available opportunity and provide regular updates d) complete and submit a UFR Form 1 to the Unit Commander e) a, c and d f) all of the above g) a and c only |
g
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7 OIC – Upon being notified of a firearm discharge by a member shall ensure a description of the event is detailed in the Unit Commander Morning Report (UCMR). TRUE OR FALSE.
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true
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8 OIC – Upon being notified of a firearm discharge by a member where the firearm discharge results in injury or death to a person, notify the _____ and comply with the provisions contained in Procedures 04-02 and 13-16.
a) Unit Commander b) OIC – Duty Desk c) Media d) Next of Kin |
a
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9 Injury/Illness Reporting – Member – When a person sustains any injury or illness resulting in being taken to the hospital shall immediately notify a supervisor forthwith. TRUE OR FALSE.
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false
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10 Injury/Illness Reporting –OIC – When identifying safety issues regarding members shall notify the _______by internal correspondence.
a) OIC – Duty Desk b) Unit Commander c) Unit Commander – Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) d) All of the above |
c
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11 Conducted Energy Weapons – OIC – Upon being notified of CEW use shall
a) ensure a description of the event is detailed in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR) b) ensure all reports including the UFR 1, the TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105 are properly completed and submitted to the Unit Commander c) generate a TPS 901 and submit to the Unit Commander prior to the completion of the tour of duty, if the discharge is unintentional d) all of the above |
d
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12 Conducted Energy Weapons – OIC – Whenever a CEW is used, shall ensure arrangements are made to have the stored data downloaded a T&E – Armament Office as soon as practicable or no later than ______ after use.
a) 48 hours b) 7 days c) 10 days d) 72 hours |
d
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13 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – The criminal offence (flight) described is s. 249.1 of the Criminal Code is justification to initiate a pursuit. TRUE OR FALSE.
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false
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14 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – Prior to a pursuit, police officers shall consider alternatives described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Manual as developed by the Ontario Police College. These alternatives include…
a) Strategic Following b) Tandem Stop c) The Use of a Helicopter, when available d) Blowing out the assholes tires with a shotgun while hanging out the passenger window yelling pull the fuck over. e) A, b and c f) All of the above |
should be f, but its e
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15 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – Police Officer – When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall
a) immediately abandon the pursuit b) advise the Communications Centre that the pursuit has been abandoned c) advise the Communications Centre of your location and odometer reading of the vehicle d) all of the above |
d
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16 Suspect Apprehension Pursuits – Road Supervisory Officer – When advised of a pursuit shall
a) monitor the communication b) advise the Communications Centre that he/she is monitoring c) assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of a communications supervisor d) all of the above |
d
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17 For the purposes of contract negotiations only _______ reports directly to the Police Services Board.
a) Labour Relations b) Compensation and Benefits c) Budgeting and Control d) Financial Management e) a and d f) a and b |
f
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18 Name the 5 levels of Command that report directly to the Chief of Police.
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Human Resources Command, administrative Command, Executive Command, Divisional Policing Command, Specialized Operations Command.
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19 “We strive to bring positive and constructive influences to our dealings with each other and our communities”, is what core value.
a) Honesty b) Respect c) Fairness d) Integrity e) None of the above |
e – Positive Attitude
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20 Video Services is found under what sub-heading of the Toronto Police Organizational Chart.
a) Staff Planning and Community Mobilization b) Corporate Services c) Finance and Administration d) Staff Planning and Community Mobilization |
b
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