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49 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

You arrive to find a 48-year-old male complaining that his chest feels heavy. The patient is awake and talking to you. During your assessment you note that his skin is pale, cool, and clammy. Your first step is to:




(A) apply your AED.


(B) administer supplemental oxygen.


(C) obtain a past medical history.


(D) assist the patient in taking his neighbor's nitroglycerin.

(B) Your first step is to administer supplemental oxygen. When treating chest pain it is important to get oxygen to the patient as soon as possible to help alleviate damage to the heart muscle.

Which of the following is the correct flow of blood through the heart and lungs?




(A) inferior/superior vena cavae, lungs, right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle, aorta.


(B) inferior/superior vena cavae, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, left ventricle, aorta.


(C) inferior/superior vena cavae, lungs, aorta, left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, left ventricle.


(D) inferior/superior vena cavae, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta.

(D) The blood returns from the body to the heart through the inferior/superior vena cavae, to the right atrium, to the right ventricle. It then goes through the pulmonary artery to the lungs and is oxygenated. From there it returns to the left atrium through the pulmonary vein. From the left atrium it goes to the left ventricle and back out to the body through the aorta.

The mitral or bicuspid valve:




(A) prevents blood from backflowing into the left atrium.


(B) prevents blood from backflowing into the right atrium.


(C) prevents the blood from backflowing into the lungs.


(D) is located between the left atrium and the right ventricle.

(A) The mitral or bicuspid valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. It prevents the blood from backflowing intot he left atrium.

The electrical impulse generated in the right atrium is called the:




(A) atrioventricular node.


(B) purkinje fibers.


(C) sinoatrial node.


(D) bundle of his.

(C) The electrical impulse generated at the right atrium is the sinoatrial node (SA node). It travels through both atria, causing both to contract simultaneously, which propels the blood to the ventricles.

Which component of blood provides an immune system for the body, defending against infections?




(A) red blood cells.


(B) white blood cells.


(C) plasma.


(D) platelets.

(B) White blood cells provide part of the body's immune system, or defense against infections. Red blood cells give blood its color and transport the oxygen tot he body's cells and carbon dioxide away from the body's cells. Plasma is the serum, or fluid, that carriers blood cells and nutrients to the body's cells. Platelets are important in the formation of blood clots.

When differentiating between angina pectoris and a myocardial infarction, you know that:




(A) there is no difference between the two.


(B) angina pectoris is caused by physical or emotion stress.


(C) rest will relieve symptoms of a myocardial infarction.


(D) the pain from angina pectoris is continual and will not go away.

(B) Angina pectoris is usually caused by a physical or emotional state of stress. It usually only last from 3 to 8 minutes, but no longer than 10 minutes. It is usually relieved by rest, unlike a myocardial infarction.

You arrive on the scene to discover an unconscious patient. Upon completing your primary assessment, you find the patient to be pulseless and apneic. Your next step would be to:




(A) begin CPR.


(B) give two ventilations.


(C) apply the AED.


(D) check the pulse for another 60 seconds.

(A) Begin CPR immediately. Then apply the AED. It is important to deliver a counter-shock with the AED if the patient is in v-fib or pulseless v-tach.

The AED is used to treat patients in:




(A) asystole.


(B) ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.


(C) ventricular fibrillation.


(D) pulseless electrical activity.

(C) The AED is designed to teat patients in v-fib or pulseless v-tach. The AED should only be connected to patients that are pulseless and apneic. The AED is designed to shock those electrical rhythms that are disorganized or very fast and do not have pulses associated with them.

Which of the following is the first line of defense in fighting against infectious disease?




(A) vaccinations.


(B) hand washing.


(C) using BSI.


(D) using 100% bleach.

(B) The most fundamental process and the first line of protection against infectious disease is hand washing. Vaccinations and BSI are important components of preventing infectious diseases, but hand washing is the most fundamental and first line of protection.

Your arrive on the scene to discover a 65-year-old female lying on the floor of her living room. Your first step in the care of this patient is to:




(A) begin chest compressions.


(B) apply the AED.


(C) maintain an open airway.


(D) assess level of consciousness.

(D) The first step when arriving at the patient's side is to establish the patient's level of responsiveness.

You are on the scene with a patient dying from a terminal illness. The spouse of the patient begins to verbally attack you. Which emotional stage is this individual exhibiting?




(A) denial


(B) anger


(C) bargaining


(D) depression

(B) As the dying patient and/or the patient's family moves through the stages of emotion, you may find yourself in the middle of the situation. In this case the patient's family is really not angry at you, but exhibiting the signs of anger commonly found at this stage in the process.

You arrive on the scene to find a patient who had a productive cough for the past two weeks. The patient is complaining of a fever and night sweats. You next step would be to:




(A) obtain a better medical history.


(B) obtain vital signs.


(C) immediately transport the patient to the hospital.


(D) put your HEPA mask on.

(D) A patient with a productive cough for any length of time should be suspected for TB. Nonetheless, a mask is an important universal precaution for any patient with a productive cough to prevent the spread of any airborne infectious disease.

You arrive on scene, finding an unconscious patient. There are no other individuals in the vicinity to give you any information or permission to treat the patient. Even though the patient cannot give you consent to treat him, you begin to do so because of:




(A) expressed consent.


(B) implied consent.


(C) advanced directives.


(D) emergency consent.

(B) Implied consent occurs when you assume that a patient who is unresponsive or unable to make a rational decision would consent to lifesaving emergency care.

You arrive at an emergency room to find that the nurses are busy taking care of other patients. You are getting off shift and want to get back to your base station. You and your partner move the patient into a hospital bed, lay the report on the bed wit the patient, and leave. You and your partner have just committed:




(A) abandonment.


(B) negligence.


(C) appropriate patient care.


(D) vicarious liability.

















































(A) Abandonment is any time you stop caring for a patient without ensuring the patient receives equal or better care. Giving a verbal patient report coupled with a caregiver of equal or greater level of care is imperative for appropriate patient transfer of care and the avoidance of abandonment.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate scenario to give patient information?




(A) another health care worker needs the information to continue medical care.


(B) information is required for billing purposes.


(C) your neighbor asks what was wrong with the patient.


(D) you are subpoenaed in court.

(C) There are few instances when you can give patient information to anyone. Patient information is confidential. You may give patient information to another health care provider to continue medical care, law enforcement as part of an investigation, third-party billing form, or by a legal subpoena.

Which artery do you typically assess on an infant?




(A) brachial artery.


(B) carotid artery.


(C) femoral artery.


(D) radial artery.

(A) The brachial artery is the best place to assess the pulse on any patient under the age of one. It is difficult to assess the carotid because these patients typically do not have a neck and the radial is not reliable. The brachial is the pronounced site to assess for a pulse.

The condition in which a patient has a high level of sugar in his blood is called:




(A) hypoglycemia.


(B) diabetes.


(C) hyperglycemia.


(D) hyperkalemia.

(C) A patient who has a high sugar level in their blood may have diabetes. However, this is the definition of hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia is low blood sugar. Hyperglycemia is a lack of insulin and sugar cannot enter the cells. Therefore, it remains in the bloodstream, causing a high level of sugar in the blood.

You arrive on the scene of a patient who fell from a ladder. You should open the patient's airway by using:




(A) head-tilt/chin-lift.


(B) jaw-thrust maneuver.


(C) neck-lift/head-tilt.


(D) head-tilt/jaw-thrust.



(B) Care should be taken when opening an airway in a patient with a possible or suspected head or neck injury. The jaw-thrust maneuver is the choice in opening an airway in these patients. This keeps the head in a neutral position and does not put any undue stress on the cervical spine.

Arriving on the scene to find an unresponsive patient, the patient begins to vomit. You turn on your suction unit and prepare to suction. You should apply suction:




(A) as you insert the catheter.


(B) by altering every 5 seconds between inserting and withdrawing the catheter.


(C) while withdrawing the catheter, and for no more than 15 seconds.


(D) while inserting and withdrawing the catheter.

(C) Suction should only be applied when you withdraw the catheter. Suctioning should only last for 15 seconds. Patients become hypoxic during the suctioning process and need to be ventilated or supplied with oxygen for a 2-minute period between suctioning.

You are treating a chocking victim when he loses consciousness. You assist the patient to the floor. Your next step should be to:




(A) attempt to ventilate the patient.


(B) perform five abdominal thrusts.


(C) establish responsiveness.


(D) begin CPR.

(D) Once the patient becomes unresponsive, you need to activate the emergency response system and begin CPR. Since you are the emergency response system, you would immediately begin CPR.

When assessing a 35-year-old patient complaining she is short of breath, you note that her breathing is in excess of 28 times per minute. This is considered:




(A) neuropnea.


(B) apnea.


(C) bradypnea.


(D) tachypnea.

(D) Respiratory rates greater than 20 breaths per minute are considered tachypnea. Less than 12 breaths per minute are bradypnea and absent breathing is apnea.

A 27-year-old patient is involved in a motor vehicle accident. You attempt to ventilate the patient, but realize you cannot open the patient's jaw due to trauma. Your technique of ventilating the patient would be:




(A) mouth-to-mouth technique.


(B) mouth-to-mouth and nose technique.


(C) mouth-to-nose technique.


(D) a combitube.

(C) Mouth-to-nose technique is the ideal method for this patient. Anytime you have a patient that has severe soft tissue or bone injury around the mouth, or you cannot open the mouth, or cannot get a good seal around the mouth, the mouth-to-nose technique is the preferred choice for ventilation.

The proper way to ventilate an adult patient is to either administer oxygen through a bag-valve mask or by mouth-to-mouth. You also want to deliver each breath or ventilation over a one-second period. This will:




(A) reduce the chance of gastric distention.


(B) prevent hyperoxygenation.


(C) prevent hypoxia.


(D) prevent using too much air or oxygen.



(A) One concern when ventilating an adult patient with a BVM or by mouth-to-mouth is to deliver the ventilation over a one-second time period. This aids in reducing gastric distention by not forcing air or oxygen into the esophagus and inflating the stomach with air. Remember, what goes into the stomach must come out. Air rises, hence over time the air you put into the stomach will come back out with whatever gastric contents the patient has in her stomach.

The appropriate rate to ventilate a seven-year-old patient is:




(A) one breath every 1 to 4 seconds.


(B) one breath every 2 to 4 seconds.


(C) one breath every 3 to 5 seconds.


(D) one breath every 4 to 6 seconds.

(C) The appropriate rate to ventilate a seven-year-old would be one breath every three to five seconds.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when treating a fall victim




(A) distance the patient fell.


(B) height of the ladder.


(C) surface upon which the patient landed.


(D) body part that impacted first.

(B) How tall the ladder is done not make a significant difference in your assessment. The distance the patient fell is important to note because you would suspect different injuries from a patient who fell from the four foot area of a twelve foot ladder than if he had fallen from the top. The surface the patient landed on is always an important aspect to assess. If the patient fell in a sandy area, he would have different injuries than if he fell onto a concrete surface. The body part that impacted first would give you clues in your assessment of suspected injuries. If the patient landed on the buttocks, you would suspect lower back injuries versus if she had fallen on the back of her head, you would suspect head and neck injuries.

You are treating a patient with shortness of breath. You want to deliver 6 liters per minute of oxygen. You would deliver this flow rate with a:




(A) nasal cannula.


(B) simple face mask.


(C) partial re-breather.


(D) non-rebreather.

(A) The nasal cannula is used when you want oxygen to flow at a rate of 1 to 6 L/min. A nasal cannula delivers a concentration of oxygen inn the range of 24 to 44 percent.

Your unit is the first to arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you are approaching the scene you notice the vehicle has struck a pole and that there are electrical lines down on the vehicle. The patient appears to be unresponsive. Your first action should be to:




(A) remove the electrical lines.


(B) call the electric company and keep everyone, including emergency personnel, away from the car.


(C) don rubber boots and approach the car carefully.


(D) remove the victim from the car immediately since she is unresponsive.

(B) The first step at any scene is scene safety. Electrical lines on the vehicle are unsafe. It is your responsibility to secure the scene by not allowing anyone to approach the vehicle until the power company arrives and determines the scene is safe. Under no circumstance should you ever play the role of any utility company.

Your patient responds to your verbal commands such as "Open your eyes" or "Squeeze my hand," This patient's level of consciousness is classified as:




(A) A- Alert.


(B) V- Responds to verbal stimulus.


(C) P- Responds to painful stimulus.


(D) U- Unresponsive.

(B) Using the mnemonic AVPU, the patient would be classified as responds to Verbal stimulus. If the patient is awake, alert, speaks to you, and responds appropriately he would be considered Alert. If the patient is not alert, does not obey your commands or responds to voice, but does respond to your painful stimulus, he would be classified as respond to Painful stimulus. If the patient does not respond to voice or painful stimulus then he is classified unresponsive.

When you auscultate the patient's lungs, you hear a harsh, high-pitched sound on inspiration. This sound is called:



(A) snoring.


(B) gurgling.


(C) crowing.


(D) stridor.

(D) When you hear a harsh, high-pitched sound on inspiration, you can almost be certain you are hearing stridor. Crowing and stridor are very similar except that crowing is a sound more like a cawing crow. Stridor is typically associated with an upper airway problem as a result of an infection, allergic reaction, or burn.

In reference to the patient in the previous question, you know the harsh sound indicative of:




(A) complete airway obstruction.


(B) CHF


(C) poor lung sounds.


(D) partial airway occlusion.

(D) Since there is air that is still moving with a patient that has the sounds of stridor, the patient has a partial airway occlusion. Granted, the patient has poor lung sounds, but in this case the best and most appropriate answer is a partial occlusion.

The normal respiratory rate infants is:




(A) 25 to 50 breaths per minute.


(B) 15 to 30 breaths per minute.


(C) 12 to 20 breaths per minute.


(D) 8 to 18 breaths per minute.

(A) The normal respiratory rate for an infant is 25 to 50 breaths per minute. 15 to 30 breaths per minute is for a child and 12 to 20 breaths per minute is for an adult.

Which of the following is not part of the history and secondary exam?




(A) form a general impression of the patient.


(B) take the patient's history.


(C) conduct a physical exam.


(D) take baseline vital signs.

(A) Forming a general impression of the patient is typically performed during the primary assessment. The history and secondary exam is to identify any additional injuries or conditions that may also be life threatening.

You arrive on the scene of an incident where a six-teen-year-old male fell approximately 12 feet. This would be considered.




(A) a trauma alert.


(B) a significant mechanism of injury.


(C) not a significant mechanism of injury.


(D) a case with a load 'n' go patient.

(C) A patient over the age of eight is considered an adult for most medical cure purposes. A fall of greater than 20 feet is considered significant injury in adults. If this had been an infant or child it would have been a significant mechanism of injury since any fall greater than 10 feet would be considered a significant mechanism of injury.

During your assessment of a fall victim, you note a clear fluid leaking from the ear that appears to be cerebral spinal fluid. This would signify that the patient may have a:




(A) severe head injury.


(B) a ruptured ear drum.


(C) dislocated jaw.


(D) basilar skull fracture.

(A) This patient may have a basilar skull fracture but you cannot tell that from the limited information you received The information provided does suggest that the patient has a severe head injury. A further exam would need to be conducted and the patient would need to get to definitive care quickly for a successful outcome.

You are assessing a 25-year-old male patient. During your assessment of the chest, you notice the patient has four ribs broken in two places. This type of injury is called a:




(A) fractured chest.


(B) paradoxical movement.


(C) flailed segment.


(D) chest deformity.

(C) This is a classic indicator of a flailed segment, which is when thee are three or more ribs broken in two places. Paradoxical motion, another indicator of a flailed segment, is when the flailed segment sinks in when the patient inhales.

During your assessment of a patient's extremities it is important to assess PMS. PMS stands for:




(A) pulses, major bleeding, sensation.


(B) posterior, medial, sweep.


(C) pulses, motor function, sensation.


(D) pooling, motor sensation, senses.

(C) After inspecting and palpating the patient's extremities, it is essential to check each extremity for pulses, motor function, and sensation.

Which of the following pulse pressure I considered narrow?




(A) 30


(B) 20


(C) 40


(D) 35

(B) A pulse pressure less than 30 is considered a narrow pulse pressure. The pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and the diastolic blood pressure.

When assessing a trauma patient, you should conduct a SAMPLE history:




(A) immediately


(B) a sample history is not necessary in a trauma patient.


(C) as part of the secondary or reassessment survey.


(D) following the primary trauma assessment.

(D) The SAMPLE should be taken after the primary trauma assessment. If two EMT-B's are working together, it may be acceptable to take the SAMPLE as part of the primary trauma assessment. It is important to take a SAMPLE history in every patient. This will reveal past medical history that may be pertinent to the treatment you administer.

As you are assessing the patient, you recognize that the patient has an inadequate breathing rate. Your next step should be to:




(A) continue your assessment.


(B) stop your assessment and administer the appropriate amount of oxygen.


(C) reassess the patient.


(D) take the patient's vital signs.

(B) Breathing is part of the ABC's. Immediately upon identifying that the patient has an inadequate breathing rate, you should administer the appropriate amount of oxygen. If your partner is not doing anything critical at this point, you can direct him or her to administer the oxygen.

Which of the following is NOT part of the trauma score?




(A) age of the patient.


(B) respiratory rate.


(C) systolic blood pressure.


(D) Glasgow coma score.

(A) The age of the patient is not part of the trauma score. The three components of trauma score are the respiratory rate, the systolic blood pressure, and the Glasgow coma score. There are many other components, depending on which text you read, but these are typically the major components and age is not found in any of the trauma scores.

In which age range is capillary refill most useful?




(A) infants only


(B) patients less than 6-years-old


(C) patients greater than 6-years-old


(D) all ages

(B) Capillary refill is most useful in patients less than 6 years of age. capillary refill may be assessed in every patient, but it typically is not a reliable indicator in patients over the age of 6.

You are assessing a conscious patient complaining of chest pain. which mnemonic will assist you in assessing the patient's current chief complaints?




(A) DCAPP BTLS


(B) SAMPLE


(C) OPQRST


(D) ABC

(C) OPQRST is a good mnemonic to assess the current patient's chief complaints SAMPLE is geared more toward the patient's history and should still be used in the assessment of the patient, but it is not the most appropriate mnemonic in this scenario. Since the patients is conscious, the ABC's do not necessarily provide you w/ plus best history of the current chief compliant. OCAPP BTLS is used primarily to assess a trauma patients.

You are treating an unresponsive patient. vital signs should be taken every:




(A) 15 minutes


(B) 10 minutes


(C) 5 minutes


(D) 2 minutes

(C) Any patient that is classified as critical or unstable should have vital signs taken ever 5 minutes. An unresponsive patients is patients is considered a critical or unstable patients; hence the vital signs should be taken ever 5 minutes. In stable patients the vital signs should be taken every 15 minutes.

During your transport to the hospital the patient seems to be getting worse you should:




(A) reassess the patient.
(B)turn off the oxygen.
(C) ask the driver to go faster.
(D) call the hospital and notify them.

(A) Any time the patient's condition changes, you should immediately reassess the patient's . After reassessing the patient. You man need to alter your treatment accordingly. It may be necessary to notify the hospital of the patient's change I condition, but this should occur after your re - assessment. Speed of the vehicle should never be increased to jeopardize the safety of the crew, the patients, and those around the ambulance.

A part of your OPQRST assessment, you ask the patient how bad the pain is. To which part of the OPQRST would this question relate?




(A) provocation
(B) quality
(C) radiation
(D) severity

(D) "How bad is the pain?" would relate to severity in the OPQRST part of the assessment. Asking "what makes the symptom worse?" would be provocation. "How would you describe the pain?" would be provocation. "How would you describe the pain?" or "where do you feel the pain?" would be the radiation portion.

You are treating a 70-year- old female with shortness of breath. This patient may be suffering from:




(A) congestive heart failure.


(B) a heart attack
(C) pneumonia
(D) all of the above

(D) It is difficult to determine from the limited information exactly what the patient is suffering from. geriatric patients do not always present clear-cut signs and symptoms as younger patients. A geriatric patient with shortness of breath could be suffering from emphysema, congestive heart failure, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, heart attack, or asthma. You need to remember to treat the symptoms and continue to do a through assessment.

When communicating on the radio, you should always:




(A) talk louder than your normal voice
(B) give as much detailed information as possible
(C) keep your information short and to the point
(D) use codes to confuse the public

(C) When using the radio to communicate, you want to keep your message brief and to the point. It is not necessary to talk louder than normal. You should talk as you normally do and avoid codes or language that may confuse even the most experience radio operator. Plain English is acceptable language for radio communications.

You are treating an 80-year-old female. The patient is on a variety of medications for a variety of illnesses. The patient is difficult to arouse, her pupils are constricted, and her breathing is shallow you should suspect:




(A) a heart attack
(B) a drug overdose


(C) seizure
(D) a stroke

(B) Any of these could be indicative of the patient's condition, however none of these symptoms are typical except for the drug overdose. Many geriatric patients take numerous medications, and it is not common to forget when they took their medication last, or they may have a difficult time telling which pill is for what. Drug overdoses should be considered with these patients, but it is also important that you do a through assessment and treat the signs and symptoms you see.

The most important information to know when responding to a call is:




(A) the location of the patient and his phone number
(B) the nature of the call and the location
(C) the location of the call and the number of patients
(D) the number of patients and the nature of the call

(B) The nature of the call and the most important initial factors you need. First, you need to know where the call is located, so you can begin to respond to the call. Second, it is important to know the nature of the call so you can begin to plan your strategy for handling the call when you arrive on the scene. It is good to know the number of patients at the scene, but it is not the most critical at this point because in most incidents you will be able to get that information through the nature of the call.