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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What consists of four tiers designed to provide an integrated, end-to-end key management, and Communications Security (COMSEC) material generation, distribution, and accounting system for the Department of Defense (DoD) and civilian agencies?
• Electronic Key Management System (EKMS) • COMSEC • DOD Key Management System • Distributed Key Management System |
Electronic Key Management System (EKMS)
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Who is a person who has a need-to-know for the specified classified information in the performance of official duties and who has been granted an eligibility determination at the required level?
• Information Assurance Manager • System Administrator • Authorized Individual • Authorized Person |
Authorized Person
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What is designed to provide a contractor with the security requirements and classification guidance needed for performance on a classified contract?
• DD 255 • DD 254 • DD 252 • DD 253 |
DD 254
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Who is responsible for implementing the ISP and shall have direct access to the commanding officer?
• Information Assurance Officer • Executive Officer • Information Assurance Manager • Security Manager |
Security Manager
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NATO is a military alliance of how many countries from North America and Europe?
• 26 • 27 • 29 • 28 |
26
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What consists of monitors and electronic sensors designed to detect, not prevent, an attempted intrusion?
• Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) • Intruder Detection System (IDS) • Alarm System • Intrusion Detection System (IDS) |
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
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What designator identifies all COMSEC documents and keying material which are used to protect or authenticate classified or controlled unclassified government or government-derived information?
• SPECAT • UCAT • COMSEC • CRYPTO |
CRYPTO
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What information is exempted from mandatory declassification review?
• Information originated by the incumbent President and staff • Information originated by the incumbent President and Vice President • Information originated by the incumbent President • Information originated by the President of the United States |
Information originated by the incumbent President and staff
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What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the national security?
• Top Secret • Confidential • Secret • Unclassified |
Secret
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What level of control shall be afforded to classified information?
• Whatever the CO deems necessary • Commensurate with its assigned security classification level • Based on the national security threat • Commensurate with its value |
Commensurate with its assigned security classification level
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Which form is used for Security Container Check Sheet?
• SF 703 • SF 700 • SF 701 • SF 702 |
SF 702
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What is a multi-disciplinary analysis to determine the effect of a compromise of classified information on national security?
• Risk Assessment • Risk Analysis • Damage Assessment • Information Analysis |
Damage Assessment
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Which form may be used for a record of destruction for Top Secret information?
• OPNAV 5411/12 “Classified Material Destruction Report • OPNAV 5311/12 “Classified Material Destruction Report • OPNAV 5511/12 “Classified Material Destruction Report • OPNAV 5512/12 “Classified Material Destruction Report |
OPNAV 5511/12 “Classified Material Destruction Report
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RESTRICTED DATA is defined in what act?
• Atomic Energy Act of 1954 • Atomic Energy Act of 1952 • Atomic Energy Act of 1953 • Atomic Energy Act of 1951 |
Atomic Energy Act of 1954
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Crosscut shredders purchased prior to 1 January 2003 which reduce the information to shreds no greater than 3/64 inch wide by 1/2 inch long may continue to be used until?
• October 2007 • October 2008 • October 2010 • October 2009 |
October 2008
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What program is a computerized database that provides for the standardization, centralized management and issuance of all DON SCGs?
• EPSQ • ACES • E-QIP • RANKIN |
RANKIN
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What are the measures and controls prescribed to protect classified information known as?
• Safeguarding • INFOSEC • Protecting • OPSEC |
Safeguarding
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The terms Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM) and Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO) were replaced with what terms?
• Information Assurance Management (IAM) and Information Assurance Officer (IAO) • Information Availability Manager (IAM) and Information Assurance Officer (IAO) • Information Assurance Manager (IAM) and Information Assurance Officer (IAO) • Integrity Assurance Manager (IAM) and Information Assurance Officer (IAO) |
Information Assurance Manager (IAM) and Information Assurance Officer (IAO)
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Who establishes and publishes minimum standards, specifications, and supply schedules for containers, vault doors, modular vaults, and associated security devices suitable for the storage and destruction of classified information?
• General Services Administration (GSA) • Northrop Gruman • COMSEC Vaults • SPAWAR |
General Services Administration (GSA)
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Top Secret information shall be physically sighted or accounted for at least how often?
• Semi-Annually • Annually • Monthly • Quarterly |
Annually
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In a vault the floors and walls shall be constructed of ______ inches of reinforced-concrete to meet current structural standards.
• Seven • Eight • Nine • Six |
8
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What form is used for a Secret Label?
• SF 702 • SF 701 • SF 707 • SF 706 |
SF 707
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Senate regulations require that all classified material intended for delivery to any Senator, staff member, Committee or other Senate office be delivered to where?
• Senate Mail Room (SMR) • Office of the Senate (OS) • Office of Senate Security (OSS) • Senate Committee Office (SCO) |
Office of Senate Security (OSS)
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A cross-cut shredder shall reduce the information to shreds no greater than?
• 1/65 by ½ inch • five square millimeters • 3/64 by ½ inch • four square millimeters |
five square millimeters
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Classified information originated in a non-DoD department or agency shall not be disseminated outside the DoD without the consent of the originator except where specifically permitted (also known as ________)?
• third wheel rule • third party rule • third time rule • third agency rule |
third agency rule
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Who exercises control over receipt, correction, stowage, security, accounting, distribution, and authorized destruction of all NWPs?
• Radio Officer • Communications Officer • COMSEC custodian • NWP custodian |
NWP custodian
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After the initial discovery of a loss or compromise of classified material does the command have to initiate and complete a preliminary investigation (PI)?
• 96 hours • 24 hours • 72 hours • 48 hours |
72 hours
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What is a combination of two non-code words that may or may not be classified and may or may not have a classified meaning known as?
• Nicknames • Password • Code Word • Exercise term |
Exercise term
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What consists of card reader devices and/or biometrics, such as hand geometry, iris or fingerprint scanners, and the computers to control them?
• Multifactor Control Systems (MCS) • Biometrics • Authentication Control Systems (ACS) • Access Control Systems (ACS) |
Access Control Systems (ACS)
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What are the priorities for emergency destruction?
• Top Secret, Secret, Confidential • SCI, Secret, Unclassified • SPECAT, Secret, Confidential • SCI, Top Secret, Confidential |
Top Secret, Secret, Confidential
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What is the informal assessment of the security posture of a command to be used as a self-help tool?
• Visit • Informal Visit • Assist Visit • Secure Visit |
Assist Visit
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What is a single classified word with a classified meaning?
• Exercise term • Password • Code word • Nicknames |
Code word
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What form is used for Security Container Information?
• SF 700 • SF 500 • SF 600 • SF 701 |
SF 700
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Classified documents need to be marked where to show the highest overall classification level of the information they contain?
• Face and back cover, top and bottom right • All pages, top and bottom center • Face and back cover, top and bottom left • Face and back cover, top and bottom center |
Face and back cover, top and bottom center
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What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?
• Confidential • Top Secret • Unclassified • Secret |
Top Secret
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What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national security?
• Secret • Confidential • Unclassified • Top Secret |
Confidential
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What are the classification authority, office of origin, warning notices, intelligence and other special control markings, and declassification/downgrading instructions of a classified document?
• Intelligence Markings • Classified Markings • Classification Markings • Associated Markings |
Associated Markings
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The authority to originally classify information as Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential rests with whom?
• SECNAV and officials delegated the authority to do so • CNO only • SECNAV only • CNO and officials delegated the authority to do so |
SECNAV and officials delegated the authority to do so
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What system is designed to assess, view areas, or detect an intrusion?
• IDS • IP Security Cameras • CCTV • EES |
CCTV
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What is the only reason to classify information?
• To protect national security • To keep it secret • To protect data • To safeguard against unauthorized disclosure |
To protect national security
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The courier card (DD 2501) is valid for a maximum of how long?
• 6 years • 5 years • 3 years • 7 years |
3 years
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What is a combination of two unclassified words with an unclassified meaning known as?
• Password • Code Word • Exercise term • Nicknames |
Nicknames
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What is an unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance?
• Compromise • Security breach • Incident • UA Dissemination |
Compromise
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What is the analysis of encrypted messages; the steps or processes involved in converting encrypted messages into plain text without initial knowledge of the system of key employed in the encryption?
• Cryptography • Reverse engineering • Encryption/Decryption • Cryptanalysis |
Cryptanalysis
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What are the primary reference source for derivative classifiers to identify the level and duration of classification for specific information elements?
• Classifying Guides (CGs) • Security Labeling Guides (SLGs) • Security Classifying Guides (SCGs) • Security Guides (SGs) |
Security Classifying Guides (SCGs)
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Which form will Commanding officers use for end of the day security checks to ensure that all areas which process classified information are properly secured?
• SF 704, Activity Security Checklist • SF 702, Activity Security Checklist • SF 701, Activity Security Checklist • SF 703, Activity Security Checklist |
SF 701, Activity Security Checklist
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Who is responsible for ensuring that NATO information is correctly controlled and accounted for, and that NATO security procedures are observed?
• NATO manager • NATO Officer • NATO custodian • NATO control officer |
NATO control officer
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In case of a natural disaster or civil disturbance, Commanding officers shall develop what?
• Disaster recovery plan • Contingency plan • Emergency plan • Business continuity plan |
Emergency plan
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Who shall ensure that IT systems provide for classification designation of data stored in internal memory or maintained on fixed storage media?
• Information Systems Security Officer • Information Systems Security Manager • Information Assurance Officers • Information Assurance Managers |
Information Assurance Managers
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The Original Classifying Authority (OCA) shall attempt to establish a specific date or event for declassification, however the date or event shall not exceed _____ years from the date of the original classification?
• 25 years • 10 years • 15 years • 20 years |
25 years
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