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108 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the orientation of the superior vertebral facets?
Cervical - BUM
Thoracic - BUL
Lumbar - BM
Which vertebrae contain transverse foramina?
C1-6
Which scalenes help elevate the first rib?
anterior and middle
What is the primary motion of the OA?
Flexion and Extension (side bending opposite)
What is the primary motion of the AA?
Rotation (sidebending opposite)
For which cervical segments is the primary motion sidebending?
C5-C7
For which cervical segments is the primary motion rotation?
C1-C4
The spine of the scapula corresponds with which thoracic vertebrae?
T3
Inferior angle of the scapula corresponds with the spinous process of which thoracic vertebra?
T7
What is the main motion of the thoracic spine?
rotation
What are the secondary muscles of respiration?
scalenes
pec minor
serratus mm.
quadratus lumborum
lattissimus dorsi
What are the atypical ribs?
1, 2, 11, 12 (SOMETIMES 10)

*Have "1s and 2s"
What are the true ribs?
1-7
Which ribs move through pump-handle motion?
1-5

*Remember 5 looks like pump handle
Which ribs move through caliper motion?
11-12
Which ribs move through bucket handle motion?
6-10
What is the origin/insertion of the iliopsoas muscle?
origin= T12-L5 vertebral bodies
insertion= lesser trochanter of femur
What is the most common anomaly in the lumbar spine?
Facet (Zygopophyseal) Trophism
What is the normal furgason's angle?
Lumosacral angle 25-35
A herniated nucleus pulposus at L3/4 will exert pressure on which nerve root?
L4
Psoas syndrome is often associated with what spinal somatic dysfunction?
Type 2 L1 or L2
Define spondylolisthesis
anterior displacement of one vertebrae in relation to the one below
In which vertebrae do spondylolistheses often occur?
L4 or L5
Scotty dog is a radiographic finding in which defect?
spondylolysis
Saddle anesthesia is a/w which spinal defect?
Cauda equina syndrome
What is dextroscoliosis?
curve to the right (sidebent left)
Define levels of severity of scoliosis
Mild --> Cobb angle 5-15
Moderate --> Cobb angle 20-45
Severe --> Cobb angle > 50
What is the maximum heel lift?
1/2 inch (1/4 inside 1/4 out)
Which ligament divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen?
The sacrospinous ligament
What are the two primary pelvic muscle groups?
Levator ani, Coccygeus
During inhalation, the sacral base will move __________
posterior
During craniosacral flexion, the sacrum moves ________
posterior (counternutates)
About which sacral axis does respiratory/craniosacral motion occur?
Superior transverse axis
About which sacral axis does postural motion occur?
Middle transverse axis
About which sacral axis does innominate motion occur?
Inferior transverse
Which somatic dysfunction is defined as sacral rotation about an oblique axis along with somatic dysfunction at L5?
sacral torsions
The positive seated flexion test is found _________ to the oblique axis
contralateral
Positive Spring test --> ?
No spring
What are the 3 sacral torsion rules?
Oblique axis on same side as sidebending of L5

Oblique axis on opposite side of L5 rotation

Seated flexion test on same side as oblique axis
Which nerve innervates the primary flexors of the wrist and hand?
median nerve (except flexor carpi ulnaris -ulnar)
Which nerve innervates the primary extensors of the wrist and hand?
radial nerve
What nerve innervates the supinator?
radial nerve
Which nerve innervates the pronators?
median nerve
What is the sympathetic innervation of the head and neck?
T1-4
What is the sympathetic cardiovascular innervation?
T1-5
What is the sympathetic innervation of the respiratory system?
T2-7
What is the sympathetic innervation of the stomach, liver and gall bladder?
T5-9
What is the sympathetic innervation of the small intestine?
T9-11
What is the sympathetic innervation of the gonads?
T9-10
What is the sympathetic innervation of the kidney, ureter and bladder?
T10-11
What is the sympathetic innervation of the large intestine?
T8-L2
What is the sympathetic innervation of the uterus?
T10-11
What is the sympathetic innervation of the prostate?
L1-2
Piriformis spasm would lead to what hip restriction?
restricted internal rotation
What is the function of the ACL?
prevents anterior translation of tibia on the femur
What is the function of the PCL?
prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur
The fibular head glides __________ with pronation of the foot
anteriorly
What is the motor and sensory innervation of the femoral nerve?
Motor: quadriceps, iliacus, sartorius and pectineus

Sensory: anterior thigh and medial leg
What are the two divisions of the sciatic nerve?
Tibial and Peroneal
Which nerve innervates most dorsiflexors and toe extensors?
Peroneal
Which nerve innervates the plantar flexors of the foot?
Tibial
What femur angle constitutes coxa valga?
> 135 degrees
What femur angle constitutes coxa vara?
< 120 degrees
What is the normal Q angle?
10-12 degrees
A posterior fibular head is likely to disturb the function of which nerve?
Fibular
Which structures are affected by the terrible triad?
ACL, MCL and medial meniscus
What ligaments are the lateral stabilizers of the ankle?
anterior talofibular lig, posterior talofibular, calcanofibular lig
What is the most commonly injured structure in the foot?
Anterior Talofibular lig

*Remember ATf "Always Tears first"
Which structure is the medial stabilizer of the ankle?
Deltoid ligament
What are the components of the lateral longitudinal arch?
Calcaneus, cuboid, 4th and 5th metatarsals
Which structure of the knee prevents hyperextension?
ACL
What are the structures of the medial longitudinal arch?
Talus, Navicular, Cuneiforms, 1st to 3rd metatarsals
What are the structures of the transverse arch of the foot?
Navicular, Cuneiforms, Cuboid
Who invented all this cranial voodoo hoopahjoo?
William G. ************* Sutherland
What is the "normal CRI"?
"10-14 cycles per minute"
Where does the dura attach along the spine?
Foramen magnum, C2, C3 and S2
The head becomes fatter during craniosacral _______
flexion
The sacrum moves ________ during craniosacral flexion
posterior
SBS torsions occur along what axis and are named for the position of which structure?
AP axis and named for superior greater wing of sphenoid
Where does CNI exit the cranium?
Cribiform plate
Where does CNIII exit the cranium?
Superior orbital fissure
Where does CNIV exit the cranium?
Superior orbital fissure
Where does CN V1 exit the cranium?
Superior orbital fissure
Where does CN V2 exit the cranium?
Foramen rotundum
Where does CN V3 exit the cranium?
Foramen ovale
Where does CN VI exit the cranium?
Superior orbital fissure
Where does CNIX exit the cranium?
Jugular foramen
Where does CNX exit the cranium?
Jugular foramen
Where does CNXII exit the cranium?
Hypoglossal canal
What is Wallenberg's test testing for?
Vertebral artery insufficiency (flex neck, look for symptoms)
How/why is the Adson's Test performed?
Monitor pt's pulse --> extend elbow, extend, externally rotate and abduct shoulder --> deep breath --> if pulse decreases, then positive

Tests for neurovascular bundle compromise associated w/ tight scalenes
How/why is the Wright's Test performed?
Hyperextend arm while monitoring pt's radial pulse --> decreased pulse = positive

Tests for compromise of neurovascular bundle by pec minor
How/why is the Apley's scratch test performed?
Have pt touch opposite shoulder from front and back and scratch back

Tests ROM of shoulder
How/why is the drop arm test performed?
Pt is instructed to abduct shoulder 90 degrees --> pt cannot smoothly lower arm = positive

Tests for rotator cuff tear
How/why is the Yergason's test performed?
Pt flexes elbow 90 degrees while physician grasps elbow and wrist --> physician externally rotates forearm while pulling down on elbow --> positive test = pain

Tests stability of biceps tendon in the bicipital groove
How/why is the Allen's test performed?
Physician occludes radial and ulnar arteries --> releases one --> assesses blood return --> positive = slow or no reperfusion

Tests adequacy of ulnar and radial arteries
How/why is the Finkelstein test performed?
Pt makes a fist with thumb tucked in --> physician stabilizes forearm and deviates wrist ulnarly --> positive = pain

Tests for tenosynovitis in the abductor pollicis and extensor pollicis brevis
How/why is the Phalen's test performed?
Have pt maximally flex wrists against each other --> positive = pain

Tests for carpal tunnel
How/why is the Tinel's test performed?
Tap on the volar aspect of the transverse carpal ligament --> positive = pain

Tests for carpal tunnel
How/why is a hip-drop test performed?
Have pt flex knee w/ heel on the ground --> positive= less than 20-25 degree drop

Tests somatic disfunction of lumbar spine
How/why is the straight leg raising test performed?
Grab heel and raise leg while pt is supine --> positive = < 70-80 degrees flexion without discomfort

Tests for sciatic nerve compression
How/why is the Trendelenberg's test performed?
Have pt stand on one leg --> positive = no pelvic support from gluteus medius
Postive lumbosacral spring test indicates that the sacral base is positioned ________
posteriorly
A __________ backward bending test causes the sacral base to become more asymetric
positive
How/why is Ober's test performed?
Pt lays on side with affected side up --> physician flexes knee 90 degrees, abducts the hip as far as possible and slightly extends hip --> physician slowly allows thigh to fall to the table --> positive = thigh remains in abducted position

Tests tight IT band
How/why is the Patrick's (FABERE) test performed?
Put affected side leg into a figure 4 --> positive = pain

Tests for pathology of the sacroiliac and hip joint
How/why is the Thomas test performed?
Flex hip and knee w/ pt supine --> positive test = motion of contralateral leg

Tests for flexion contracture of hip
How/why is McMurray's test performed?
Flex knee 90 degrees, externally rotate and apply valgus stress while palpating medial meniscus --> extend knee and feels for clicks

Externally rotate and varus force for lateral meniscus