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94 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When during CPR is oxygen levels a concern?
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prolonged arrest
asphyxial arrest hypoxemic patients |
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What defines a CPR cycle?
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30 compressions
2 breaths |
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What is the rate of compressions given in CPR?
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100/minute
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How far should the chest compress doing CPR?
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30% of chest diameter
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When do you do cardiac pump compressions (over apex of the heart)?
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cats and dogs <15 kg
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True/False. Coarse fibrillation is more likely to convert with defibrillation than fine fibrillation.
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True
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A dog in ICU was discovered by a tech to have collapsed, but was not witnessed. What should you do first: check ECG or start compressions?
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Start compressions
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When to resort to open chest CPR?
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Treatable underlying disease
pleural space disease, thoracic trauma or penetrating wounds diaphragmatic hernia pericardial effusion failure of external CPR after 2-5 minutes |
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What is the proper ventilation rate while administrating CPR?
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10-12 breaths/min
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Why should you not give more than 12 breaths/minute in CPR?
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increased intrathoracc pressure
reduced venous return decreased coronary perfusion cerebral vasoconstriction |
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When to give epinephrine after CV collapse?
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If V-fib persists after a chock and 1-2 cycles of CPR
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Drugs used for asystole (pulseless electrical activity)?
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Vasopressin > epinephrine to shunt book to CNS and heart
Atropine for slow pulseless electrical activity |
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True/False. Defibrillation can be used for ventricular fibrillation and pulseless electrical activity.
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False. V-fib only.
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Are arterial blood gases reliable for measuring effectiveness of CPR?
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No
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An animal that was euvolemic and presented for collapse was successfully resuscitated with CPR. Treatment?
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Treat cause of arrest
dopamine for hypotension do not actively warm administer 20ml/kg (10 ml/kg cat) May ventilate |
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True/False. A cast can never neutralize rotational forces on a fracture.
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False- incorporation of joints above and below fracture may be adequate for simple fractures
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True/False. An interlocking nail is an excellent fixation technique for a simple transverse fracture.
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False. Due to inherent slack, should only be used with fractures with low interfragmentary strain (comminuted fractures)
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True/False. A locking plate has no advantage over a standard plate if using as a bridging device.
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True???
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Which plate is best used for bridging fractures?
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LC-DCP has more uniform strength
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You have a severely comminuted mid femoral fracture. An ESF is not really an option here due to the location. What are other options?
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Plate-rod
2 plates placed orthogonally ILN? |
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What is are fixation methods for a distal radial fracture in a small breed and why?
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Plate-
Circular ESF requires absolute stability and preferably as little disruption to medullary blood supply as possible |
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Which presentation of cranial cruciate rupture may not show a cranial drawer sign but may elicit pain?
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Chronic lameness (partial tear)
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How many cases of cranial cruciate rupture also have meniscal injury?
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80%
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Over what range of joint position should the cranial drawer test be conducted?
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30 degrees short of full extension to 90 degrees in flexion
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Which surgical options for cranial cruciate injury were described?
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Lateral suture
fibular head transposition Tibial plate leveling osteotomy (TPLO) Tibial Tuberosity Advancement (TTA) |
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What is the mean tibial plateau angle to the patellar ligament? What is it after TPLO?
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24-27 degrees to 5 degrees
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What is the number one postoperative complication to TPLO surgery?
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TT fx
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Obvious cranial drawer and joint effusion could be signs of what?
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acute cranial cruciate rupture
avulsion of cranial cruciate |
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How is diagnosis of stifle luxation usually made?
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Joint exploratory
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Medial/Lateral shoulder luxation is more common in small breeds.
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Medial
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With a lateral shoulder luxation, the foot is rotated inward/outward.
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Foot rotated inward
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Surgical treatment for shoulder avulsion?
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imbrication
prosthetic collateral ligaments transfer biceps tendon |
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Luxation of the elbow is usually lateral/medial.
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Lateral due to large medial epicondylar crest
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How is elbow luxation diagnosed?
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2 view radiography
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What is the normal ROM of the elbow?
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supination 40-45 degrees
pronation 60-70 degrees |
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In which luxation is early return to activity important?
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Chronic elbow luxation with open reduction
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What is the most commonly luxated joint?
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Coxofemoral
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What are common pathologies with coxofemoral luxation?
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torn round ligament
avulsion fracture of humeral head torn joint capsule |
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True/False. With craniodorsal coxofemoral luxation, animal presents with non-weight bearing lameness with adducted and internally rotated limb.
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False. Externally rotated.
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When is closed reduction of coxofemoral luxation contraindicated?
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hip dysplasia
acetabular or femoral fracture |
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What is the percent failure of cosed reduction of coxofemoral luxation?:
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50-70%
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Surgical approaches to coxofemoral luxation?
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transacetabular pinning
capsulorrhaphy +/- trochanteric transposition Toggle pinning TPLO |
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What surgical reduction of coxofemoral reduction is best for early return to activity?
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Toggle pinning
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For which joint luxations do conservative splinting invariably fail?
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Carpus and Tarsus
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True/False. Tarsocrural luxation can involve the proximal, middle and distal intercarpal joints.
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False. Distal intertarsal joint is protected by T4, which spans it
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When should surgical repair of pelvic fracture be undertaken?
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Within 4-5 days of injury
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Where should the lag screw be placed into the sacral body?
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35-40% of ventral limit, 60% of auricular surface
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Fracture of what particular portion of the acetabulum will result in OA if untreated?
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Caudal 1/3
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When might femoral head and neck excision be indicated for acetabular fracture?
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small animals
irreparable fractures (> 3 pieces) |
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Use for autogenous cancellous bone grafts?
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comminuted fractures
delayed healing/non-union old animals distal radius/ulna arthrodesis |
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Which type of bone graft can be used in the face of osteomyelitis?
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Cancellous bone
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when is surgical management of spinal fracture indicated?
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instable
deteriorating clinical signs compression paresis to plegia |
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When during the course of evaluating and treating spinal fractures can methylprednisolone sodium succinate be administered?
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If trauma occurred immediately
has not had steroids yet |
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What type of movement can cause dorsal compartment fracture?
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hyperextension
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what type of movement can cause ventral compartment fracture?
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hyperflexion
axial compression |
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What type of movement can cause both dorsal and ventral compartment fractures?
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rotational forces
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What type of fracture is typically seen in the cervical spine?
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Compression
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What type of fracture is typically seen in the thoracolumbar/lumbosacral spine?
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fracture-luxation
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Most common agent in urinary tract infections?
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E. Coli
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Most common organism of canin pneumonia?
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adults: E. Coli
puppies: bordetalla |
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Most common organism in feline pneumonia?
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Pasteurella multocida
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Most common organism isolated from feline skin wounds?
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Pasteurella multocida
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Most common organisms isolated from canine ear infections?
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Staph
proteus pseudomonas Streptococcus |
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How long for antimicrobial treatment for chronic infection?
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3-6 weeks
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What are the two nutritional factors associated with developmental orthopedic disease?
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rapid growth
excess calcium |
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Recommendations for large breed puppy diets?
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400 kcal/cup or less
calcium < 360 mg/100kcal (3 g/Mcal) |
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How much (times RER) should a large breed puppy be fed?
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< 4 mo: 3 x RER
4-12 mo: 2 x RER > 12 mo: 1.6 x RER |
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For ideal weight animals with osteoarthritis undergoing surgery, what changes in intake should be made?
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decrease up to 20%
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What size articular incongruities in cartilage have the potential to remodel?
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< 0.5 mm
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What types of rigid fixation can be used for articular fractures?
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lag screw and anti-rotational K wire
plate fixation composite fixation interfragmentary compression tension band wire |
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What is the most commonly encountered physeal fracture in the dog and cat?
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Distal femoral fracture
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True/False. After articular fracture repair, cage rest is a crucial part of recovery.
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False. Early mobilization is important
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Where in the physis do most fractures occur?
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At the hypertrophic zone
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How to calculate arterial oxygen content (CaO2)?
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1.34 x Hgb x SaO2 + (0.003*PaO2)
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What comprises oxygen delivery?
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CO x CaO2
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With hypovolemic shock, which component of cardiac output is most likely at fault?
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preload (or lack thereof)
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True/False. Tachycardia is a component of decompensated shock.
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True
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Dose of hetastarch used for hypovolemic shock?
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5-20 ml/kg: dog
2.5-10 ml/kg: cat |
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Monitoring for fluid resuscitation, what is the minimum urine output for stabilization>
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> 0.5 ml/kg/hr
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Shock dose of fluids (crystalloid?) for dogs?
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90 ml/kg
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When might vasopressors be indicated for shock
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Distributive shock
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Which traumatic thoracic injury necessitates surgery ASAP?
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Diaphragmatic hernia
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Trauma patient presents with short, shallow breaths, quiet lung sounds and severe hypercarbia.
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Pneumothorax. Diagnose by radiographs, thoracocentesis
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Indicators from initial assessment of thoracic trauma?
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FAST for fluid or gas
TS < 6 g/dl Lactate > 4 mmol/L |
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When is a non-union diagnosed?
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16 weeks
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True/False. All you have to do for a delayed union is stabilize.
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True.
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Dogs have to have at least 2 of the following to be diagnosed w/ SIRS?
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Temp < 100.3 or > 104
HR >120 PaCO2> 30 mmHg WBC > 16,000 or < 6,000 |
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Cats must have at least 3 of the following changes to be diagnosed with SIRS
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temp < 100 or > 103.5
HR < 140 or > 225 RR > 40 WBC > 19,500 or < 5,000 |
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What are signs of sepsis typical of the cat?
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hypothermic
hypotensive icteric bradycardia |
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You suspect septic abdomen. Blood glucose is 80. What measurement of the abdominal fluid would be consistent with your suspicions?
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glucose of 60 or lower
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True/False. Fresh frozen plasma can be given to restore albumin in sepsis.
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False. for colloid effect and clotting factors.
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You suspect, but haven't confirmed septic peritonitis. What is you next move?
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Give at least one dose of abx
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What is the cutoff for hypoxemia?
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< 70 mmHg
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90% SaO2 corresponds to what PaO2?
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60 mmHg
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