Ruminant Medicine Final

Front 1

Cardio

What is the most common congenital heart problem in cattle?

Breed predisposition?

Direction of shunt?

Back 1

Ventricular septal defect

Herefords predisposed

Usually the hole is small and the animal appears fine. If it is big enough, you get a L to R shunt.

Front 2

Cardio

T/F The loudness of a heart murmur in a cow can be correlated with the severity of the defect.

Back 2

False

Front 3

Cardio

What is the #1 arrhythmia in cattle?

What other disease may be the cause?

Back 3

Atrial fibrillation

GI disease/Vagal indigestion/Electrolyte imbalance -> Increased vagal tone -> Hypo K, Hypo Ca, metabolic alkalosis -> Arrhythmias

Front 4

Cardio

This condition is typically only seen in the western US, males > females, in the winter, or animals exposed to locoweed.

What does it lead to (medical term)?

Back 4

High Altitude Disease, aka "Brisket disease" or "Mountain sickness"

Cor pulmonale

Front 5

Cardio

Is it the BLV or a Non-BLV (ex: thymic) form of Lymphosarcoma that has a predilection for the right atrium?

Back 5

BLV-induced Lymphosarcoma likes to go to the right atrium, but the Thymic form can also cause right heart disease.

Front 6

Cardio

Describe how High Altitude Disease can lead to a cor pulmonale.

Back 6

It is because they are breathing air with low O2 concentration, so chronic alveolar hypoxia, which causes pulmonary hypertension, which leads to RV hypertrophy, which leads to R heart failure = cor pulmonale

Front 7

Cardio

How can High Altitude Disease be treated/managed?

Back 7

Get animals to lower elevations, which will hopefully cure them. For nonresponsive animals, you may need to cull them.

Front 8

Cardio

Cows that eat White Locoweed may be predisposed to developing this disease.

Back 8

High Altitude Disease

Front 9

Cardio

What is probably the #1 acquired heart condition in cattle?

It primarily affects the _______ and _____ valves, and is on the right side in cattle ______% of the time.

Back 9

Endocarditis

Often affects the pulmonic and tricuspid valves. 80-90% of it is on the right, and often follows some form of chronic heart disease.

Front 10

Cardio

The most common bacteria isolated in cases of endocarditis in cows is _______.

What is the characteristic murmur/heart sound for endocarditis? Necropsy finding?

Back 10

A. pyogenes

A loud systolic murmur, usually louder on the R. Vegetative/cauliflower-like growths on the heart valves is typical.

Front 11

Cardio

If you see hypoalbuminemia with an elevated total protein, think this disease process.

What should you consider in looking at creatinine levels in cows?

Back 11

Chronic inflammation

Think about the muscle mass the cow has, since that can have an effect.

Front 12

Cardio

If you see a neutropenia and a monocytopenia, think this disease process.

Back 12

A Gram negative septicemia (the neuts and monos are sticking to the vessel walls trying to fight the bacteria, lowering the numbers found in the blood)

Front 13

Cardio

What about hardware disease causes a constrictive pericarditis?

Back 13

The abscess can cause fibrosis of the pericardial sac, causing a constrictive pericarditis because it inhibits the ability of the heart to contract.

Front 14

Cardio

Where would you do a pericardiocentesis in a cow (such as if you were suspecting hardware disease)?

Back 14

5-6th ICS at the CCJ

Front 15

Cardio

D

You are called out to examine a dairy cow that has not been eating much and is standing out in the field with her elbows abducted and seems to be in pain. You hear muffled heart sounds on auscultation.

Treatment options?

Back 15

Hardware disease = Traumatic reticulopericarditis

Conservative:
1. Cull
2. Give her antibiotics and a magnet

Aggressive:
1. Rumenotomy- go in and remove the wire/nail

If you are that one guy that does it:
1. Rib resection with pericardectomy and marsuipialization of the pericardial sac to the skin.

Front 16

Cardio

What is the hallmark of atrial fibrillation in cattle on an ECG?

What is thought to be the cause of 80% of atrial fibrillations in cattle?

Back 16

No p waves.

GI disease, things that disrupt elecrolytes (hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, metabolic alkalosis)

Front 17

Cardio

You are treating a down cow with milk fever using IV calcium and she starts to get bradycardic. What is something you can give her?

How about a calf with diarrhea that has no p waves from hyperkalemia?

Back 17

Atropine in a quick IV infusion

Hypertonic saline to drive K back into the cells.

Front 18

Cardio

As little as 200g of this common ornamental plant can kill a steer from depressing myocardial conductivity.

Back 18

Japanese yew

Front 19

Cardio

Gossypol has both free and bound forms. Which is toxic to cattle? Are younger or older animals more susceptible?

Back 19

The free form.

Younger animals are less able to bind the free form in their gut, making them more susceptible.

Front 20

Cardio

Myocarditis in cattle is most often secondary to infection by what organism?

Back 20

Histophilus somnus

Front 21

Anemias

D

This primarily tick-transmitted disease causes an extravascular hemolysis, leading to watery blood, pale mucous membranes, fever, and depression.

Which species is the cause of 80% of the cases?

Back 21

Anaplasmosis

Anaplasma marginale

Front 22

Anemias

Why shouldn't you chase a cow with Anaplasmosis?

What is unique about Anaplasmosis and severity in cattle?

Back 22

They are anemic, and stress/exercise can make them fall over dead from hypoxia.

Severity increases with age...very young animals rarely show clinical signs.

Front 23

Anemias

What are the four stages of Anaplasmosis?

Back 23

1. Incubation stage: Ends when 1% of RBC's are infected.

2. Developmental stage: Ends when reticulocytes appear in the blood.

3. Convalescent stage: Ends when all blood values return to normal

4. Carrier stage: The Anaplasma bodies disappear for the rest of the animal's life.

Front 24

Anemias

*What is the treatment for Anaplasmosis?

*What histologic finding should you see on a smear of infected blood?

Back 24

Oxytetracycline

Bodies on the margins of RBC's with Wright's or Giemsa stains.

Front 25

Anemias

This solely tick-borne disease causes an intravascular hemolysis but but was eradicated in the US.

Back 25

Babesiosis (Babesia bovis and B. bigemina)

Front 26

Anemias

Extravascular hemolysis, think...
Intravascular hemolysis, think...

Back 26

Extravascular = Anaplasmosis, look for icterus, carried by Rocky Mountain Wood tick and others

Intravascular = Babesiosis, look for hemoglobinuria, carried by Boophilus ticks. Could also be Leptospirosis.

Front 27

Anemias

This disease causes abortions and stillbirths in ruminants, and sometimes severe hemolysis.

What is the usual means of transmission to ruminants?

Back 27

Leptospirosis

Water/substances contaminated with infected urine, usually in spring and fall.

Front 28

Anemias

What is the recommended treatment for Leptospirosis?

Back 28

1. Tetracycline for 3-5d
2. Routine vaccination for endemic areas, or in outbreaks to lessen mortalities.

Front 29

Anemias

D

A whole flock of sheep got into the storeroom and ate the antihelminthics and footbath concentrates that contain copper. What are some signs you should expect to see?

Back 29

Death, icterus and marked anemia, methemoglobinurua, Heinz bodies, depression, abdominal pain, possibly blue-green feces (think about a rusted penny).

In chronic cases the liver is involved and you will likely see elevated liver enzymes, as well as the gunmetal blue kidneys.

Front 30

Anemias

Treatment and prevention for copper toxiticy.

Back 30

Chelation, fluids, blood transfusions

Don't give horse or pig feed to sheep.

You can also spread Molybdenum-containing fertilizer on the fields to balance the Cu-Mo levels.

Front 31

Anemias

You are called out to a farm for a dead, bloated cow out in a dusty field. The animal has tarry blood coming out of all orifices.

Ok, I know you've seen this scenario before, but do you post the animal?

Back 31

No!

Cut off the ear and send it to a diagnostic lab.

Front 32

Liver

These three enzymes are not useful in evaluating liver function in ruminants.

Back 32

ALT, ALP, LDH

Front 33

Liver

Match the enzyme with its attribute and usefullness in identifying liver disease. (SDH, AST, GGT)

1. Short half life, sensitive and specific for liver damage.
2. Sensitive and specific for liver damage (except in neonates who get it in their colostrum)
3. Sensitive but not specific because also found in muscle, long half life.

Back 33

1. Short half life, sensitive and specific for liver damage = SDH
2. Sensitive and specific for cholestasis (except in neonates who get it in their colostrum) = GGT
3. Sensitive but not specific because also found in muscle, long half life = AST

Front 34

Liver

Why are bile acid levels not really helpful for assessing liver function in ruminants?

Back 34

Because they are always eating, making their bile acid levels stay about the same all of the time.

However a large rise in bile acids is significant.

Front 35

Liver

Where do you perform a liver biopsy in a cow?

Back 35

On the right side at the 11th ICS

Front 36

Liver

*Liver abscesses are linked to _______ ______ (predisposing disease), and clostridial hepatitis is often secondary to _______ ______.

Back 36

Liver abscesses are linked to rumen acidosis, and clostridial hepatitis is secondary to fluke migration (remember the clostridia are waiting for the flukes to cause liver damage and make them an anaerobic home).

Front 37

Liver

This is the major bacterium isolated from liver abscesses in ruminants.

How does grain overload lead to liver abscesses?

Back 37

Fusobacterium necrophorum

High grain diet -> decreased rumen PH -> Rumenitis and bacteria enter the portal circulation -> Bugs seed the liver -> abscesses

Front 38

Liver

Why do you not want to biopsy a liver you suspect has multiple abscesses?

Back 38

Because you may penetrate one, spreading the infection.

Front 39

Liver

What are some secondary effects of liver abscesses (since secondary problems are usually what kills the cow)?

Back 39

Peritonitis (ruptured abscess)
Obstruction of the bile duct
Caudal vena cava thrombosis
Metastatic pneumonia (chunks of abscess make it to the lungs), which can lead to aneurysm and severe bloody coughing
Acute death

Front 40

Liver

*Since liver enzymes tend to not be elevated in cases of liver abscesses, what are three signs of chronic inflammation that may point you in that direction?

Back 40

Elevated globulins, fibrinogen, and increased neutrophils

Front 41

Liver

The main species of liver fluke seen in the US is _____ _______, carried by ____________ in the _________.

Back 41

Fasciola hepatica, carried by Lymnea snails in mostly the Pacific northwest and the Gulf states.

Front 42

Liver

*What are three diagnostic tests/results that can point to a liver fluke infection?

The white spots on the liver are from new/old infestation, while the black spots are new/old infestations.

Back 42

Fecal sedimentation
GGT for cholestasis from the flukes blocking the duct
ELISA

White = old, scar tissue
Black = new, necrosis/damage

Front 43

Liver

Based on the life cycle of liver flukes, when do you treat for them in this area?

Back 43

About July, which is before the transmission period and before clinical signs.

Front 44

Liver

This disease primarily of sheep is a sequelae to liver fluke infestation, as this anaerobic microbe waits for a chance to gain a foothold from the flukes causing necrosis.

Back 44

"Black disease"

Clostridium novyi Type B

Front 45

Liver

This disease primarily of cattle is a result of liver flukes and causes hemolysis and hemoglobinuria seen as red urine and is caused by _____ _____. On necropsy, look for _______.

Back 45

"Red water disease" = Bacillary hemoglobinuria

Clostridium hemolyticum

Multifocal, round areas of necrosis on the liver. (Not enough time for the liver to turn black)

Front 46

Lung

The majority of antibiotics on the market for ruminants were approved for treating _____.

Back 46

bovine respiratory diseases

Front 47

Lung

*You are called out to a farm where the farmer has just purchased a lot of steers. What are some treatment options to protect the whole herd from disease?

Back 47

Metaphylaxis: Prophylactic treatment of a group

Draxxin, good for Mycoplasma, $$

Excede: Ceftiofur broad spectrum, long-lasting

Vaccines

Front 48

Lung

These two diseases result in bumps within the nasal cavity, but one is uncommon and usually involves one granuloma from a fungal or bacterial infection, while the other is an allergic response and usually generates multiple nodules.

Back 48

Uncommon, one or few granulomas: Nasal granulomas

Allergic reaction, multiple nodules: Enzootic Nasal Granuloma/Atopic rhinitis (look for eos in the snot)

Front 49

Lung

T/F Sheep and goats can get a virus that will cause them to develop nasal tumors.

Back 49

True, it is a nasal adenocarcinoma virus (caprine CNAV or ovine ONAV) and it can give them trouble breathing.

Front 50

Lung

What actions/procedures may lead to sinusitis in ruminants?

Back 50

Dehorning/disbudding (do it on a nice day when they are young in clean surroundings), infected maxillary teeth

(As an aside, this was likely the cause of death of Rameses, one of the UNC mascot rams, after his son butted off one of his horns and the opening became infected)

Front 51

Lung

Species that causes nasal bots.

Does it affect sheep or goats more?

How can it be treated?

Back 51

Oestrus ovis

Sheep - they may be snorting/sneezing, with runny noses as the bots are trying to migrate out.

There is no specific treatment but the Avermectins can help.

Front 52

Lung

D

6 month old beef cattle in a crowded feedlot have painful coughs, are open-mouth breathing and a few animals have died.

What bacteria is usually involved?

Back 52

Necrotic laryngitis = calf diphtheria or laryngeal necrobacillosis

Our old friend Fusobacterium necrophorum

Front 53

Lung

Pathogen that causes abscessed arytenoid cartilages in ruminants.

Back 53

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

Front 54

Lung

Presentation of "honker cattle"?

Cause?

Back 54

Acutely, animals have dyspnea, usually when it is warm/moist and the animals are heavy. Chronically, lighter animals sometimes have a dry cough.

Tracheal edema syndrome...syndrome usually means we don't know the cause. It may be infectious or traumatic.

Front 55

Lung

What are some things you can do to precondition cattle to prepare them for going to a feedlot?

Back 55

Wean them and have them learn how to eat from bunks and drink from tanks.

Have them castrated and dehorned.

Parasite treatments and vaccines for respiratory diseases three weeks before shipping to ease their transition to the feedlot.

Avoid taking them to auctions and mixing calves

Some studies show a 23% decrease in morbidity.

Front 56

Lung

*This is the largest cause of economic loss in feedlot calves (29% of all cattle deaths and 60% of feedlot deaths) and is a multifactorial disease.

Back 56

Respiratory Disease Complex (RDC) = Shipping Fever in beef calves = Enzootic pneumonia in dairy calves = Undifferentiated Respiratory Disease

Front 57

Lung

What are some risk factors for developing enzootic pneumonia?

Back 57

FPT
Nutritional deficiencies
Cold, wet, not enough ventillation
Stress of transport and not adapting well to feedlots/new environments
Calf density too high
Viral infections paving the way for bacterial infections

Front 58

Lung

*What are 4 major viruses associated with the Respiratory Disease Complex that can be managed with vaccines.

Back 58

Bovine Herpesvirus 1 (BVH-1) = Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)

Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV)

Parainfluenza Virus Type 3 (PI-3)

Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)

Front 59

Lung

IBR is a syndrome caused by this virus.

What is a common name given to its presentation.

Back 59

Bovine Herpesvirus 1 (BVH-1).

"Red Nose": hyperemia of the muzzle.

There can also be rhinitis, tracheitis, fever, coughing, nasal and ocular discharge, conjunctivitis, abortions

Front 60

Lung

T/F Sheep and goats get the same Herpesvirus as cattle that causes IBR.

Back 60

False, like everlasting Gobstoppers, every species gets their own personal Herpesvirus.

Front 61

General

What anti-inflammatory drug is ok for use in cattle?

Back 61

Flunixin

Front 62

Lung

This bacteria likes to hang out with BVDV and they are commonly isolated together.

Back 62

Pasteurella sp.

Front 63

Lung

This respiratory virus of cattle is known for causing explosive outbreaks with high morbidity and key signs are subcutaneous emphysema/intermandibular edema.

Back 63

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

Front 64

Lung

*Match the descriptions with the general categories of pneumonia (Bronchial, Interstitial, Metastatic)

1.Fever, depression, A-V pattern of lung sounds, often caused by infectious agents that enter the respiratory tract.

2. Septic emboli reach the lungs creating abscesses and infarctions.

3. Usually noninfectious (toxins, allergens), animals usually not depressed, with diffuse lung lesions that don't respond well to antibiotics.

Back 64

1. Bronchial
2. Metastatic
3. Interstitial

Front 65

Lung

This drug has recently been approved for treating BRDC, particularly those with Mycoplasmal infections.

Back 65

Tulathromycin

Front 66

Lung

What two bacterial vaccines are available for respiratory diseases?

Back 66

Manheimia (Pasteurella)

Haemophilus somni

Front 67

Lung

*Causative agent of Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)

Back 67

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides small colony type

- Eradicated in the US in 1892
- Young goats get polyarthritis and pneumonia from the large colony type from their mom's colostrum (which can also cause a mastitis in the does)

Front 68

Lung

How can liver abscesses cause Vena Caval thrombosis and pneumonia?

Back 68

The abscesses break off and are carried in the blood to the lungs, setting up a metastatic pneumonia.

Emboli can lodge in the Vena Cava, creating an aneurysm that bursts, flooding the bronchi with blood = blood on the stall walls

Remember you can get liver abscesses from grain overload.

Front 69

Lung

What foods can lead to ARDS?

Back 69

Lush pasture
Moldy sweet potatoes
Perilla mint
Brassica (kale, turnips, etc)

Front 70

Lung

What causes Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema (ABPEE)

Other names for this disease?

What does it look like?

Back 70

A change from dry/little forage to lush green pastures ->
L-tryptophan is converted to 3-methylindole in the rumen, which is toxic to the lungs

"Fog Fever", "Atypical Interstitial Pneumonia"

Multiple animals present with respiratory distress, frothing at the mouth, but not coughing.

Front 71

Lung

What are two things that can cause subcutaneous emphysema in cattle?

Back 71

1. ABPEE -> sudden change to lush pasture
2. BRSV

Front 72

Lung

How can you diagnose Dictyocaulus viviparous in a cow you suspect has parasitic pneumonia?

Back 72

Baerman fecal sedimentation test
TTW

Front 73

Lung

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia is also called this...

What does it look like?

Back 73

Maedi-Visna, "thin ewe syndrome" or "hard bag"

Maedi = dyspnea
Visna = neurologic

Adult sheep have slow weight loss, posterior paresis, arthritis and progressive pneumonia, exercise intolerance, dyspnea

Front 74

Lung

How can you diagnose OPP?
How can you control the disease in a herd?

Back 74

AGID is your test of choice
Can also do ELISA, IFA

Cull positive animals
Artificially rear offspring so they do not pick it up from the adults

Front 75

General

What is the target organ for Type I Hypersensitivities in ruminants?

How can you treat them?

Back 75

The lung -> treat with epinephrine

Front 76

Neuro

You see a goat that has dorsomedial strabismus of its eyes, is circling, bumping into things, and has been having trouble prehending food. Where do you localize the lesion?

Back 76

Diffuse forebrain disease -> Associate with energy metabolism issues

Front 77

Neuro

D

You are on a farm where a cow is drooling out in the field and it seems mentally dull. However, when other cows walk by this cow is aggressive to them and it is making odd noises, almost like it is choking.

Back 77

Rabies

It should always be on your differential list for neurologic disease, just to be safe.

Front 78

Neuro

How do we diagnose rabies?

Back 78

There is no good antemortem test, and so we do IFA's on fresh brain tissues. (Braaaiiins...)

Front 79

Neuro

What are the types of polioencephalomalacia and how are they caused?

Back 79

1. Thiamine-responsive:
a. High carb diets/lush pasture leads to an overgrowth of thiaminase-producing bacteria ->
b. Brackenfern contains thiaminases
c. Thiamine analogues (long-term use of amprolium, levamisole, etc)

2. Sulfur-induced: (thought to be the main cause)
a. Alfalfa, corn, sugarcane and other sources of sulfur leads to H2S made in the rumen, which enters the CNS via the lungs through burping.

Front 80

Neuro

What other diseases cause similar pathologic changes to polioencephalomalacia?

Back 80

Lead poisoning
Salt intoxication

Seen as laminar cortical necrosis

Front 81

Neuro

T/F You can unofficially diagnose thiamine-responsive PEM by giving thiamine and looking for an improvement.

Back 81

True

Front 82

Neuro

What are sources of lead found on farms that cattle get into?

Back 82

Trash in the pasture: motor oil, grease, batteries

Front 83

Neuro

You can test for lead levels in the blood to diagnose lead poisoning, but why must you do this early in the disease?

Back 83

Because over time the lead moves from the blood into the bones where you will not find it.

Front 84

Neuro

*What is one characteristic finding of lead poisoning that is not common with polioencephalomalacia, since they both present similarly?

Back 84

Lead poisoning can cause GI signs

Front 85

Neuro

How can you treat cows with lead poisoning?

Back 85

1. Thiamine, it can't hurt and it may be PEM
2. Remove the source of the lead
3. Chelation

There is some concern the lead can make it into the meat of these animals, posing a human health risk.

Front 86

Neuro

We've covered salt toxiticy many times, but what are some signs you might see in a cow that can help you determine that it is salt toxicity versus PEM, Lead or Rabies since they all cause generalized forebrain signs?

Back 86

Colic, fluid-filled rumen, diarrhea, cardiac arrhythmias, hemoglobinuria (other areas are edematous from the water flooding in at the same time the brain is) and a fever.

Front 87

Neuro

How do you treat cattle with salt toxicity?

Back 87

1. Replace water slowly over a couple of days
2. Furosemide can increase renal excretion of sodium to get it out of the body

Front 88

Neuro

TEME = __________, caused by ________ (bug)

Back 88

Thromboembolic Meningoencephalitis

Histophilus somni

Front 89

Neuro

Localize the lesion:

Incoordination, intention tremors that subside at rest, may have a lack of menace response, a wide-based stance, but no weakness.

Back 89

Cerebellum

Front 90

Neuro

Congenital cerebellar hypoplasia can occur if the dam is infected with ________.

Back 90

BVDV, if the calf is exposed between 100-200 days of gestation, the virus destroys the developing germinal layer of the cerebellum.

** Not progressive

Front 91

Neuro

D

A couple of sheep in a herd have had cerebellar signs and pruritis (rubbing the wool off of their sides). By the time you get on the farm, one animal is having seizures and the other is recumbent.

What tests can you do to definitively diagnose this disease?

Back 91

Scrapie

Histo: Vacuolated neurons (brain that looks like swiss cheese)...it looks like other prion diseases.

IFA on lymphoid tissues antemortem

Front 92

Neuro

With brainstem disease, you can see deficits with cranial nerves ______ though ______.

Back 92

III through XII

(Your olfactory and optic nerves are too busy going to your eyes and nose to stop by the brainstem)

Front 93

Neuro

T/F You can see Horner's syndome as a sign of peripheral nerve disease in ruminants (say if a goat injures his neck by getting his head stuck in a fence)

Back 93

False, you don't see Horner's syndrome as a sign of peripheral disease in ruminants because the sympathetic nerves run differently in these species.

Front 94

Neuro

T/F A drooping ear on one side can be a sign of facial nerve paralysis in a ruminant.

Back 94

True

Front 95

Neuro

What is your #1 differential for a cow with signs of central vestibular disease (such as a head tilt, falling over, a vertical nystagmus)?

What are some other causes of central vestibular disease in ruminants?

Back 95

Listeriosis (L. monocytogenes)

Also brain abscesses, rabies, parasitic encephalitis, TEME and trauma.

Front 96

Neuro

D

Mostly a disease of adults, may affect multiple animals and seen more in cold, wet conditions and feeding poor-quality silage. The organism may enter abrasions in the mouth and travel up CN V, causing an acute onset of brainstem dysfunction, ataxia, and paresis.

Back 96

Listeriosis

Front 97

Neuro

With spinal cord disease, what is the progression of signs (starting with the first lost which is also the last to come back?)

Back 97

Proprioception → Voluntary Movement → Superficial pain → Deep pain

Front 98

Neuro

D

Several of the three month old kids on a farm have signs ranging from mild hindlimb weakness to tetraparesis, and some have painful joints.

How do you treat this?

Back 98

CAE: Caprine Arthritis Encephalomyeltitis

It is progressive and treatment is not useful so prevention is key:
1. Separate the kids from the dams
2. Treat the colostrum/milk with heat
3. Don't bring in new animals
4. Serology from time to time as surveillance

Front 99

Neuro

What is the cause of Enzootic Ataxia aka "Delayed Swayback"?

What does it look like?

Treatment?

Back 99

Copper deficiency, either absolute or relative (too much Mo or S throwing off the balance).

Lambs and kids 3-12 weeks old start showing LMN signs that are progressive (paraparesis to tetraparesis, ataxia, and can have diarrhea, spontaneous fractures and a poor haircoat)

Treat it by giving them the copper they need.

Front 100

Optho

_______ is the cause of 17% of carcass condemnations.

What should you do on any ocular exam of a ruminant?

Back 100

OSCC (Ocular Squamous Cell Carcinoma)

A neuro exam (the eyes are part of the CNS after all)

Front 101

Optho

What are some risks of doing orbital blocks?

Back 101

Globe proptosis, globe penetration, optic nerve damage, orbital hemorrhage, sudden death.

Front 102

Optho

Cyclopia in sheep: agent, time of ingestion, other signs.

Back 102

Veratrum californicum

Day 14 of gestation

Cyclopia, anophthalmia (no eye), synophthalmia (both eyes fused)

Front 103

Optho

What can a Vitamin A deficiency in the sow cause in her piglets?

What can cause this presentation in a calf?

Back 103

Microphthalmia/anopthalmia/retinal dysplasia

BVDV

Front 104

Optho

For defining strabismus...
Esotropia =
Exotropia =

Back 104

Esotropia = convergent strabismus, crosseyed

Exotropia = eyes pointing out

Front 105

Optho

Which tends to be more severe and cause more problems in ruminants, primary or secondary glaucoma?

Back 105

Secondary, maybe because you then have the inciting cause (neoplasia, uveitis, etc) along with the glaucoma.

Front 106

Optho

**Infectious keratoconjunctivitis has a similar presentation across species (blepharospasm, epiphora, conjunctival hypermia, possibly ulceration) but what pathogens are the main culprits in cattle, sheep, and goats?

Back 106

Cattle: Moraxella bovis + Mycoplasma + IBR (BHV-1)

Sheep: Chlamydophila

Goats: Mycoplasma

Front 107

Optho

How do you control Moraxella bovis in a herd of cattle?

Back 107

Remember if you got pinkeye they told you not to touch it because you could give it to others?

Decrease the fly population that is carrying the Moraxella between the cows' eyes. Isolate the affected animals, protect them from UV light, and vaccines can reduce the length and severity of the infection.

Front 108

Optho

*Which stage of the Chlamydophila life cycle is susceptible to antibiotics?

Back 108

The reticulate body form, while it's in the host's cells, oddly enough.

Front 109

Optho

Most of the causes of bacterial conjunctivitis in ruminants are sensitive to _______, and you can also treat their pain with...

Back 109

Tetracyclines

NSAID's, atropine for anterior uveitis, and surgery if there is a perforation.

Front 110

Optho

Ocular squamous cell carcinoma is usually _______ (invasive/nonnvasive) if caught early, and it likes to metastasize _____ (early/late), with a higher incidence of appearing at the _______ (medial/lateral) limbus of the eye.

Back 110

Noninvasive, Mets late, and likes the lateral limbus

Front 111

Optho

Retinal degeneration is heritable in the _______ breed of goat, but can also be acquired from...

Back 111

Toggenburg goat

Aquired from: brackenfern, locoweed, lambsquarters, male fern, BVD, Hypovitaminosis A, parasiticides.

Front 112

Diarrhea

What is being described?

- The most common cause of transient diarrhea in ruminants
- Often after a sudden dietary change and altering the rumen flora
- Moldy/spoiled feed, damaged feed, indigestible roughage, too much feed, new feed, too much grain
- Usually involves multiple animals

Back 112

Simple indigestion

Front 113

Diarrhea

T/F With BVDV, the cytopathic biotypes are more virulent than the non-cytopathic ones.

Back 113

False, as there is a lot of variation among the individual strains (Types 1 and 2) and being cytopathic does not correlate with virulence.

Front 114

Diarrhea

Even though we associate BVDV with diarrhea (and lots of other things), what is the hallmark lesion?

Back 114

Oral mucosal erosions

Front 115

Diarrhea

What about BVDV makes it such a problem? (Not just from a GI standpoint)

Back 115

1. **It causes immunosuppression, paving the way for other diseases
2. Some strains cause hemorrhage from thrombocytopenia
3. Fetal infections, leading to losses, cerebellar hypoplasia, cataracts, and persistently infected calves

Front 116

Diarrhea

How can you diagnose acute and persistently-infected animals with BVDV?

Back 116

Acute: HSL, paired serology (4x rise in titers in 4 weeks), virus isolation from buffy coat, IFA, PCR in unvaccinated animals, *Peyers patch necrosis on necropsy

PI's: *Monoclonal antibody stain of an ear notch. A PI animal will show staining around the hair follicles, not just on the surface like an acutely affected animal.

Front 117

Diarrhea

How does the mucosal disease form of BVDV come about?

Back 117

** Know that calves are never born with this form, it is acquired

1. Fetus is exposed to a non-cytopathic strain in utero before 125 days to become a PI calf

2. This calf is exposed to an antigenically-similar cytopathic strain (so it gets to infect all it wants) that causes acute, severe mucosal damage that is always fatal.

Front 118

Diarrhea

If you see severe lymphopenia in a young cow, think this disease.

Back 118

BVDV -> Immunosuppressive

May also have thrombocytopenia and other low immune cell counts.

Front 119

Diarrhea

Winter dysentery is thought to be caused by a __________ for several reasons, including its isolation during outbreaks.

What does Winter Dysentery usually look like?

Back 119

Coronavirus

Acute, profuse, transient diarrhea that is often dark or bloody, usually an explosive outbreak in a herd in the winter in the northern US when cattle are housed together.

Front 120

Diarrhea

About 1/3 of US dairy herds have this bacteria, which is often from contaminated feed (such as unsterilized animal/fish products in feed) or interaction with other species and is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

Back 120

Salmonella

It's ready to cause diarrhea anywhere, for any length of time, in any age animal.

Front 121

Diarrhea

D

You see a three year old dairy cow that is thin with chronic, effortless, watery diarrhea.

Causative agent?

Back 121

Johne's disease

Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis

Front 122

Diarrhea

1. What is annoying about trying to culture for the Johne's disease organism?

*2. What do you look for on a fecal smear if you are trying to diagnose it that day?

3. What other options are available?

Back 122

1.It is the gold standard but is extremely slow...about four months incubation time and you may still get a negative result. PCR takes two months.

2. Clumped acid-fast staining bacilli

3. ELISA or AGID for regulatory use or monitoring.

Front 123

Diarrhea

What causes the wasting and diarrhea in Johne's disease?

Since small ruminants do not often show the classic diarrhea, what can you look for?

Back 123

A protein-losing enteropathy from a thickened ileum. The cow cannot absorb nutrients well with all of the granulomatous inflammation and so nutrition passes through.

For small ruminants, look for chronic wasting with decreased TP and albumin, along with anemia.

Front 124

Diarrhea

What are some things to remember about the Johne's vaccine and its use in this state?

Back 124

- The state vet has to give you permission to use it, but you can also no longer use it in NC for control
- It causes a permanent, huge granuloma at the site of injection
- You can only vaccinate calves
- The vaccine will interfere with TB and Johne's testing
- It can be hazardous if injected into a human
- It will not prevent the disease but may lessen the signs, and its efficacy is questionable

Front 125

Diarrhea

This is a parasitic cause of chronic diarrhea in ruminants.

Back 125

Ostertagiasis

- Usually animals become immune as they mature
- Can cause bottle jaw from hypoproteinemia

Front 126

Lameness

**90% of lameness is in the ______ (foot/leg), 90% of which is in the _____ (front/rear), 90% of which is in the _____ ______.

Back 126

90% of lameness is in the foot
90% of foot lameness in rear feet
90% of rear foot lameness in lateral claw

Front 127

Lameness

Sole ulcers are most often in the ______ (lateral/medial) claw, and are a form of what?

*If you decide to apply a hoof block after correctively trimming a sole ulcer, which toe does it go on?

Back 127

In the lateral claw (which makes sense since it carries more weight).

They are a form of asceptic necrosis of the horn, which can look like a black/red spot in the hoof as you trim it.

The block goes on the good toe. **It won't speed healing or make her sound, but it will lessen the pain.

Front 128

Lameness

D

You see a lame dairy cow with very long claws on her feet that almost look like slippers and have a groove in their dorsal surfaces.

Back 128

Laminitis

"hardship groove" - it may have been one episode of grain overload that caused this change

Front 129

Lameness

What predisposes a cow to developing solar abscesses?

Back 129

Softened hooves (moisture, laminitis)

Excessive wear (walking, overtrimming)

Foreign bodies

Front 130

Lameness

D

You are called out to a farm to observe a lame, large, and irritable older dairy bull named Grumpy (he used to be Happy). Before you risk life and limb to inspect his feet, what does the presentation make you think?

What will you likely need to do to treat it?

Back 130

He likely has a corn (interdigital fibroma) since he is a heavy older dairy bull.

Since he is lame, you will likely need to (heavily) sedate him and trim it out.

Front 131

Lameness

How do you correct a vertical hoof crack to prevent it from spreading and reaching the coronary band?

Back 131

Borrow a Dremel from us avian vets and sand the edges of the crack so it is smooth. For bad cases you can pack it with hoof acrylic.

Front 132

Lameness

D

You examine several lame dairy heifers that have bulbous, hairy growths sprouting from the backs of their rear feet.

What are some ways you can treat these animals and prevent it from happening again?

Back 132

Hairy Heel Warts = Digital dermatitis, caused by a spirochete bacteria (Treponema if asked, but it's not definitive)

- Oxytetracycline on cotton balls/gauze in a bandage for a day is your best choice (sprays are not as effective but good for outbreaks). You can also surgically remove the very bad warts.

- Try to get the environment drier, ask the person who trims to disinfect the hoof-trimming equipment between cows

Front 133

Lameness

D

A young beef steer in a wet feedlot is lame with a bilaterally swollen rear foot and it smells bad.

Though it may resolve once ground dries, what can you do now to treat it?

Back 133

Foot rot, caused by anaerobic G- bacteria, notably Fusobacterium necrophorum.

A parenteral antibiotic is preferable in beef cattle since it is hard to bandage and manage their feet. Penicillin, florfenicol, oxytetracycline are options.

Front 134

Lameness

What is the main agent that causes foot rot in sheep?

How does it happen?

Back 134

Dichelobacter nodosus

Virulent strains carry a protease that breaks down the horn and makes it separate from the germinal layer. Carrier animals seed the soil with the organism.

Front 135

Lameness

D

You are driving by a flock of sheep on your way to the beach after finals and see them kneeling down to eat the grass.

Back 135

Foot rot