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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Which should be reviewed by the technician before beginning the study?

1) History and Physical


2) Medications


3) Procedure order and protocol

Which procedures should be completed by the technician BEFORE patient arrival?

1) Bedroom inspection


2) Check of Audio Visual (AV)


3) Check of emergency equipment

Which procedures are completed prior to "lights out"?

1) Patient orientation and education


2) Physiologic calibrations (bio-cals)


3) Evening questionnaire

The patient's usual bedtime is part of the:

Sleep history

If a patient is noted as being "supine," what does that mean?

The patient is laying on their back

Where is the Mastoid located?

Behind the ears

Where is the Autonomic branch of the Peripheral Nervous System located?

In the lower brainstem

What would be described as a "quick response mobilizing system"?

The sympathetic nervous system

The total distance from nasion to inion is 42 cm. What is the total distance from nasion to CZ?

21 cm

The total distance from left pre-auricular to right pre-auricular is 35 cm. What is the distance from left pre-auricular to T3?

3.5 cm



The head circumference is 60 cm. What is the distance from O1 to O2?





6 cm

Where is the hypopharynx located?

Throat

Where does exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

Alveoli

Which muscles are important for normal respiration?

1) Diaphragm


2) Intercostal


3) Pharyngeal dilator muscles

What best describes an SaO2 of 88%?

Hypoxia

What is the normal range for PaCO3

35-45

Where is the control center for respiration?

Lower brain stem

What occurs with hypoventilation?

Increased PCO2

In the STOP-BANG screening tool for OSAs, what does the "B" Stand for?

Body Mass Index

What is a pattern of recurrent central apneas alternating with a crescendo-decrescendo of tidal volume?

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

What is the condition where the body can't eliminate carbon dioxide adequately?

Hypoventilation

Which symptoms signal a possible sleep disorder?

1) Being sleepy or tired during the day


2) Loud snoring, choking or gasping


3) Restless in bed


4) Involuntary movements or activity in sleep

Which Epworth score indicates a history of sleepiness?

16

For how long is a typical sleep diary kept?

14 days

What is the normal % of stage N1 for a young adult?

3-5%

What is the normal % of REM for a young adult?

20-25%

What are the differences between normal sleep of a 12 year old and the normal sleep of a 65 year old?

Decreased N3 for 65 year old

During which sleep stage is the arousal threshold highest?

N3

Where is the pacemaker for circadian rhythms located?

Anterior hypothalamus (SCN)



Which hormone is increased during stage N3 sleep?

Growth hormone

What does "post-ictal" mean?

After a seizure

If a patient has a seizure while in the sleep lab, what should the tech(s) do?

1) Note and document time of onset


2) Notify the Medical Director


3) Follow the lab's emergency protocols


4) Approach the patient with caution and assess

An alpha rhythm is best visualized from which EEG channel?

Occiptal

An epoch is scored as Stage W if it contains:

1) Low amplitude, mixed frequency EEG with rapid eye movements or blinking and a high chin tone


2) Alpha activity for >50% of the epoch


3) Major Body Movement and some alpha activity


4) After lights out and before lights on, with the patient disconnected from the recording

An epoch is score as N2 if it contains:

1) A non-arousal K complex or a sleep, regardless of chin amplitude


2) Low amplitude, mixed frequency EEG and follows an epoch of N2, which no intervening arousal


3) Slow wave activity of less than 20%

Slow activity amplitude is evaluated from which EEG channel?

Frontal

A transducer that responds to the difference in temperature that occurs with breathing is called a:

Thermistor and Thermocouple

What may be used to represent airflow?

1) Thermal sensors


2) Nasal Pressure sensor


3) Calibrated respiratory inductive plethysmograph (RIP) belts

On a diagnostic study, which sensors are recommended for identifying apneas?

Thermal sensors

On a diagnostic study, which sensors are recommended for identifying hypopneas?

Nasal pressure sensor

RIP or PVDF belts:

Are recommended or acceptable methods of representing inspiratory effort

Oximetry and End Tidal Capnography operate on what principle?

Light absoprtion

What factors can affect the quality of the oximeter signal?

1) Probe position


2) Circulation


3) Fingernail Polish

What describes an Obstructive Apnea?

At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea

Which of the following describes a Central Apnea?

At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for a least 10 seconds, with effort ABSENT for the duration of the apnea

A High Frequency/Low Pass Filter:

1) Filters (attenuates) high frequency activity


2) Allows low frequency activity to pass unfiltered

What property of the eye makes it a dipole?

The cornea is positive compared to the retina

What is the definition of (fall) Time Constant?

Time it takes for a calibration signal to fall to 37% of the amplitude

What is the most critical part of a patient's chart in case of emergency?

Physician's contact information

If a patient's heart rate is 110 bpm for over 30 seconds, it is described as:

Tachycardia