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33 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
bacteria that are spherical in shape are referred to as:

a. cocci
b. diplococci
c. bacilli
d. spiral
a. cocci
bacteria that have a single flagellum at one pole are described as:

a. atrichous
b. monotrichou
c. amphitrichous
d. peritrichous
b. monotrichous
the growth phase in which bacterial multiplication is most rapid is the:

a. lag
b. log
c. stationary
d. decline
b. log
during the vegetative stage of bacterial life, bacteria are usually engaged in:

a. feeding
b. sexual reprod
c. endospore reprd
d. all of the above
a. feeding
bacteria that require free oxygen for growth are said to be:

a. obligate anaerobes
b. anaerobes
c. aerobes
d. mesophilic
c. aerobes
bacteria that grow best at 30-37C are described as:

a. obligate anaerobes
b. thermophilic
c. psychrophilic
d. mesophilic
d. mesophilic
which of the following is the most effective method of sterilization:

a. boiling at 100c for 15-30min
b. moist heat
c. steam autoclaving at 121c with 15 pounds of pressure for 15-30min
d. incubation at 37c for 6 hours
c. steam autoclaving at 121 c with 15 lbs of pressure for 15-30 min
which of the following is an example of a differential stain:

a. methylene blue
b. gentian violet
c. trypan blue
d. gram stain
d. gram stain
in the gram stain procedure the mordant is:

a. crystal violet
b. iodine
c. 95% alcohol
d. safranin
b. iodine
in the gram stain procedure the counter stain is:

a. crystal violet
b. iodine
c. 95% alcohol
d. safranin
d. safranin
the most common pathologic bacteria isolated from throat culture of patients with pharyngitis is:

a. alpha strep
b. group a beta hemolytic strep
c. neisseria
d. salmonella
b. group A beta hemolytic strep
most pathogenic bacteria grow best at what temp range:

a. 1-6
b. 70-100
c. 30-37
d. 18-22
c. 30-37
strains of staph aureus that are resistant to penicillin produce:

a. methicillin
b. vancomycin
c. bata lactamase
d. cephalosporins
c. beta lactamase
which of the following is an acid-fast bacilli:

a. treponema pallidum
b. campylobacter
c. mycobacteria
d. vibrio
c. mycobacteria
the most common std in U. S.

1. gonorrhea
2. syphillis
3. gardnerella
d. chlamydia
d. chlamydia
which of the following is an example of an anaerobic bacteria:

a. shigella
b. e. coli
c. s. aureus
d. clostridium tetani
d. clostridium tetani
most pathogenic bacteria are:

a. mesophilic
b. thermophilic
c. psychrophilic
d. fungi
a. mesophilic
all of the following are gm positive rods except:

a. bacillus anthracis
b. haemophilus influenzae
c. corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Listeria monocytogens
b. heamophilus influenzae
which of the following microscopes can be used to view a virus 0.1um in size:

a. transmission electron microscope
b. compound microscope
c. dark field microscope
d. phase contrast microscope
a. transmission electron microscope
all of the following belong to the archae except:

a. mycoplasma
b. sulfolobus
c. halobacterium
d. halococcus
e. methanobacterium
a. mycoplasma
an organism is found to be a gm positive, anaerobic, endospore-forming rod. It probably belongs to the genus:

a. listeria
b. actinomyces
c. bacillus
d. clostridium
e. escherichia
d. clostridium
characteristic of legionella pneumophila include:

1. causation of pneumonia
2. ability to survive in chlorine treated water
3. water born
4. sexual transmission
A. 1,2,3
- causation of pneumonia
- ability to survive in chlorine water
- water born
bacteria classified as anaerobic bacteria include:

1. e. coli
2. clostridium bortulinum
3. staph aureus
4. clostridium tetani
c. 2,4 are correct
clostridium bortulinum, clostridium tetani
characteristics of N. gonorrheae include:

1. gm - cocci
2. fermentation of glucose
3. causation of urethritis
4. causation of aids
A. 1,2,3
cocci, fermentation of glucose, causation of urethritis
during the vegetative stage of bacterial life, bacteria are usually engaged in:

1. feeding
2. sexual reproduction
3. asexual reproduction
4. endospore formation
b. 1,3
feeding and asexual reproduction
what is the usual size range of viruses:

a. 20-300nm
b. 20-300cm
c. 20-300mm
d. 20-300um
a. 20-300nm
the protein coat of a virus is called the:

a. capsomere
b. envelope
c. viral membrane
d. capsid
d. capsid
which of the following protozoan parasites commonly causes travelors diarrhea?

a. giardia lamblia
b. entameoba histolytica
c. trypanosoma cruzi
d. trichomonas vaginalis
a. giardia lamblia
what is the route of transmission of schistosoma infection?

a. ingestion of contaminated food
b. sexual intercourse
c. skin penetration by larval forms
d. breathing in schistosoma eggs
c. skin penetration by larval forms
chagas disease is caused by:
a. entamoeba histolytica
b. trichomonas
c. trypanosome
d. plasmodium
c. trypanosome
malaria is caused by:
a. entamoeba histolytica
b. trichomonas
c. trypanosome
d. plasmodium
d. plasmodium
which of the following disinnfectants can kill bacteria by damaging their membrane:

a. chlorhexidine
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver nitrate
d. iodine
a. chlorohexindine
the antimicrobial agent penecillin targets:

a. 70 s ribosomes
b. peptidoglycan
c. lipopoltsaccharide
d. archae
b. peptidoglycan