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82 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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the arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphillis was called:
a. penicillin b. sulfa c. ertythromycin d. salvarsan |
d. salvarsan
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the first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was:
a. penicillin b. sulfa c. erythromycin d. salvarsan |
d. salvarsan
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protonsil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce:
a. penicillin b. sulfanilamide c. erythromycin d. salvarsan |
b. sulfanilamide
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the use of salvarsan and protonsil to treat microbial infections were early examples of:
a. antibiotics b. toxins c. inhibitors d. chemotherapy |
d. chemo
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penicillin was discovered by:
a. koch b. hooke c. fleming d. ehrlich |
c. fleming
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the most effective form of penicillin is
a. A b. B c. E d. G |
d. G
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one of the earliest antimicrobials osplated from a bacterium was:
a. penicillin b. ampicillin c. salvarsan d. streptomycin |
d. streptomycin
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which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics
a. penicillin b. streptomycin c. bacillus d. all of the choices are correct e. penicillin and streptomyces |
d. all of the above
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an antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called:
a. anti-metabolic b. catabolic c. synthetic d. semi-synthetic |
d. semi-synthetic
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the antimicrobials produces by some molds and bacteria are generally called:
a. insecticides b. biocides c. antiseptics d. antibiotics |
d. antibiotics
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the toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the:
a. selective toxicity b. biocide index c. biostatic index d. therapeutic index |
d. therapeutic index
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a high therapeutic index is
a. more toxic to patient b. less toxic to patient c. has no effect on the patient d. has no effect on the pathogen |
b. less toxic to patient
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drugs that are bacteriostatic:
a. kill bacteria b. promote bacterial growth c. inactivate bacterial spores d. inhibit the growth of the bacteria |
d. inhibit growth of bacteria
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antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix:
a. cidal b. static c. anti d. genic |
a. cidal
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antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix:
a. cidal b. static c. anti d. genic |
b. static
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antibiotics that affect various strains of gm + bacteria and various strains of Gm- bacteria are called:
a. isolate usable b. stress-induced c. narrow spectrum d. broad spectrum |
d. broad spectrum
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the rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its:
a. metabolic destructive rate b. half-life c. effective time d. dosage rate |
b. half-life
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antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed:
a. narrow spectrum b. broad spectrum c. targeted spectrum d. semi-synthetic |
b. broad spectrum
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drugs that are more effective when taken together are called:
a. energetic b. antagonistic c. subtractive d. synergistic |
d. synergistic
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if drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken seperately, they are called:
a. energetic b. antagonistic c. additive d. synergistic |
b. antagonistic
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antimicrobials may produce:
a. allergic reactions b. toxic effects c. suppression of normal flora d. all of the choices are correct |
d. all of the choicesa re correct
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which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin:
a. s. aureus b. s. epidermidis c. m. luteus d. mycoplasma |
d. mycoplasma
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which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan:
a. penicillin b. cephalosporin c. vancomycin d. bacitracin e. all of the choices are correct |
e. all of the above
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all members of the penicillin family have:
a. beta lactam rings b. alpha lactam rings c. phenolic rings d. sulfanilic rings |
a. beta lactam rings
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penicillin binding proteins:
a. primarilly function in the cell to bind to bind to beta lactam drugs b. are enzymes c. are involved in cell wall synthesis d. inhibit growing bacteria e. are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis |
e. are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis
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beta lactamases:
a. bind to penicillin binding proteins b. bind to peptides c. prevent the linking of glycan chains in peptidoglycan d. break the beta lactam ring |
d. break the beta lactam ring
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the major classes of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are:
a. aminoglycosides b. tetracyclines c. macrolides d. bacitracins e. aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides |
e. aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides
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inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on:
a. peptidoglycan precursors b. penicillin binding proteins c. ribosomes d. porin protein |
c. ribosomes
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which is true of aminoglycosides:
a. they are bacteriostatic b. they irreversibly bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit c. they block peptidoglycan synthesis d. they are bactericidal e. they irreversibly bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal |
e. they irreversibly bind to the 30s ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal
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fluroquinolones typically target:
a. ribosomes b. penicillin-binding proteins c. peptidoglycan d. DNA gyrase |
d. DNA gyrase
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sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both:
a. examples of metabolic inhibitors b. folate inhibitors c. protein synthesis ingibitors d. inhibitos of cell wall synthesis e. examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors |
e. examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors
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folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of:
a. topoisomerases b. protein c. DNA gyrase d. sulfonamides e. coenzymes |
e. coenzymes
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sulfonamides are similar in structure to:
a. DNA gyrases b. LPS c. ribosomes d. PABA |
d. PABA
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sulfonamides work as:
a. competitive inhibitors b. noncompetitive inhibitors c. ribosome-binding molecules d. feedbacj inhibitors |
a. competitive inhibitors
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trimethoprim and sulfonamides have an:
a. antagonistic effect b. synergistic effect c. energetic effect d. subtractive |
b. synergistic effect
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the target of most antifungal drug is:
a. the ribosome b. nucleus c. cholesterol d. ergosterol e. cholesterol AND ergosterol |
d. ergosterol
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mycolic acid are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of:
a. s. aureus b. s. epidermidis c. m. lutea d. m. tuberculosis |
d. m. tuberculosis
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the lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the:
a. infectious dose b. lethal dose c. effective dose d. mnimum inhibitory concentrion |
d. minimum inhibitory concentration
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the minimum bacteriocidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _ of a specific type os bacteria:
a. 10% b. 50% c. 99.9% d. 100% |
c. 99.9%
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the diffusion bioassay
a. determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria b. determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria c. is similar in principle to the Kirby-Bauer test d. determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid e. is similar in principle to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determined the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid |
e. is similar in principle to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determined the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid
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which test is uded to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial:
a. MIC b. MIB c. MLB d. Kirby - Bauer test |
d. Kirby- Bauer test
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the rickettsial disease that killed ricketts and Stanislaus Prowazek was:
a. louse borne typhus b. tick borne typhus c. yellow fever d. bubonic plague |
a. louse borne typhus
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which of the following is considered an important function of the skin:
a. hold muscle to bone b. manufacture blood cells c. produce antibodies d. control body temp |
d. control body temp
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which of the following is considered a function of the skin:
a. refulation of body temp b. prevention of fluid loss c. synheis of vit D d. produces cytokines e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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the surface layer of the skin is the:
a. cutaneous b. keratin c. dermis d. epidermis |
d. epidermis
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the oily secretion that lubricates the hair follicles of the skin is:
a. sebum b. eczema c. suder d. acne |
a. sebum
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the secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide _ to microbiota:
a. water b. amino acids c. lipids d. all of the above |
d. all of the above
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the anitimicrobial aspect of the skin is/are:
a. dryness b. saltiness c. acidity d. toxicity e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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whcih of the following organisms is not normally found on the skin:
a. staph b. diptheroids c. candida spp d. malassezia spp |
c. candida spp
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diptheroids:
a. are part of the normal flora of the skin b. are responsible for body odor c.include p. acnes d. include malassezia spp e. are part of the normal flora of skin, responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes |
e. are part of the normal flora of skin, responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes
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which of the following normal skin flora is a small yeast:
a. staph b. diphtheroids spp c. candida spp d. malassezia |
d. malassezia
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the growth of P. acnes within hair follicles, in many individuals, leads to:
a. eczema b. carbuncles c. boils d. acne |
d. acne
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the principal species of staphlococcus found on the skin is:
a. aurues b. acnes c. pyogenes d. epidermidis |
d. epidermidis
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the bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal flora and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are:
a. staphylocci b. diptheroids c. candida spp d. malassezia |
a. staphylocci
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which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for stphylococci:
a. 7.5% salt b. 0.5% HCL c. 1.0% glucose d. 5.0% mannose |
a. 7.5% salt
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the member of the normal flora sometimes considered responsible for tinea vesicolor is:
a. staph b. diptheroids c. candida spp d. malassezia |
d. malassizia spp
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which is demand the most serious staphylococcal skin infection:
a. tinea vesicolor b. folliculitis c. furuncles d. carbuncles |
d. carbuncles
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a protein associated with more virulent form of stph is:
a. leukocidin b. mannose c. streptokinase d. coagulase |
d. coagulase
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the protein produced by s. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is:
a. protein M b. collagen c. protein A d. capsular protein |
c. protein A
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the preffered habitat of s. aureus is the :
a. throat b. urethra c. bladder d. nasal chamber |
d. nasal chamber
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which of the following is a fairly reliable method of characterizing strains of s. aureus:
a. complement fixation b. protein fingerprint c. DNA fingerprint d. LPS |
c. DNA fingerprint
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approximately 90% of s. aureus strains are resistant to:
a. methicillin b. trtracyclin c. polymyxin B d. penicillin |
d. penicillin
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the s. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is/are:
a. exfoliative toxin b. lipases c. leukocidins d. protein M e. penicillin |
a. exfoliative toxin
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the s. aureus product the causes scalded skin syndrome is/are:
a. exfoliative toxin b. lipases c. leukocidins d. protein M e. all of the choices are correct |
a. exfoliative toxin
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frequemt complication of scalded skin syndrome is a secondary infection caused by:
a. M. luteus b. s. pyogenes c. s. epidermidid d. pseudomonas spp |
d. pseudomonas spp
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in addition to s. aureus impetigp may also involve:
a. m. luteus b. s. pyogenes c. s. epidermidis d. pseudomonas spp |
b. s. pyogenes
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in s. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis:
a. M protein b. protein A c. collagen d. pillin |
a. M protein
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in which of the following does a rash start on the palms and soles and progress toward the trunk?
a. epidemic typhus b. typhoid c. lyme disease d. impetigo e. rocky mountain spotted fever |
e. rocky mountain fever
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the major vector of rocky mountain spotted fever in the western U.S. is :
a. rickettsia rickettsi b. rickettsia prowazeki c. borrelia burgdorferi d. dermacentor andersoni |
d. dermacentor anderosi
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rocky mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n)
a. animalosis b. tickonosis c. plantonosis d. zoonosis |
d. zoonosis
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after being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs:
a. immediately b. within 5 min c. within 20 min d. within 4-10 hours |
d. within 4-10 hours
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the causative agent of lyme disease is:
a. rickettsia rickettsi b. rickettsia prowazeki c. borrelia burgdorferi d. dermacentor andersoni |
c. borrelia burgdorferi
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the unique characteristic of lyme disease is:
a. erythema migrans b. induration c. carbuncle d. furuncle |
a. erythema migrans
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One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial
pathogens was a. Koch. b. Hooke. c. Fleming. D. Ehrlich. |
D. Ehrlich.
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The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's
a. size. b. stability. c. concentration. D. All of the choices are correct. |
D. All of the choices are correct.
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A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the
a. A test. b. B test. c. C test. d. D test. E. E test. |
E. E test.
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Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to
a. drug-inactivating enzymes. b. alteration in the target molecule. c. decreased uptake of the drug. d. increased elimination of the drug. E. All of the choices are correct. |
E. All of the choices are correct.
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Acquisition of antimicrobial resistance due to spontaneous mutation is called
a. horizontal evolution. B. vertical evolution. c. oblique evolution. d. circular evolution. |
B. vertical evolution.
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Spontaneous development of resistance to a particular antimicrobial is difficult if the
drug a. binds to several sites on the target molecule. b. targets several different molecules. c. affects only one molecule. d. affects the plasma membrane. E. binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different molecules. |
E. binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different
molecules. |
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The most common method of transfer of antimicrobial resistance is through the use
of a. viruses. B. R plasmids. c. introns. d. exons. |
B. R plasmids.
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Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of
a. Streptococcus. b. Staphylococcus. C. Mycobacterium. d. Pseudomonas. |
C. Mycobacterium.
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Antiviral drugs may target
a. uncoating. b. nucleic acid synthesis. c. viral assembly. d. viral ribosomes. E. uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly. |
E. uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.
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