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354 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which factors are assessed when determining a Bishop score ? |
The consistency, position, dilation and effacement of the cervix; along with the position of the foetus in relation to the ischial spines |
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Contraindications to tocolytic therapy includes the following, EXCEPT:
Severe pre-eclampsia Severe antepartum Haemorrhage Fetal Distress Chorioamniotis Preterm Breaach presentation |
A preterm breech presentation |
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Which of the following neonatal morbidites is least likely related to forceps delivery ?
Fractures Skull Sepsis Nerve Palsies Cephalohematoma Convulsion |
Sepsis |
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Which of the following is a contra-indication for delivery using a vacuum extraction ?
Chorioamnionitis Face presentation Second Twin in vertex presentation Postterm Pregnancy Occipito Transverse Position |
Face Presentation |
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The best uterine scar a patient can have for Caesarean section is ? |
Transverse Lower Segment |
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The following are known causes of preterm labour Except :
Maternal Hypoxia Intrauterine Fetal Death Polyhydramnios Multiple Pregnancy Cervical Incompetence |
Maternal Hypoxia |
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Rupture of the membranes is suspected with all of the following except:
Positive Litmus test Positive Fern Test Pooling of amniotic fluid on speculum examination Observing Amniotic fluid drain through the cervix during speculum examination COntractions on CTG |
Contractions on CTG |
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Define: Complete Breech Presentation |
The presenting part of the fetus is breech with both hip joints and knee joints flexed |
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Compared with a midline episiotimy, an advantage of medio-lateral episiotomy is:
Ease of repair Fewer Break Downs Lower Blood Loss Less Dyspareunia Less Esctension of the Incision |
Less extension of the incision |
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In cases with premature rupture of membranes, all of the following are acceptable in the expectant management except:
Regular vaginal assessment of cervical dilatation Serial White Blood Cell Count Close Monitoring of Vital Signs Ultrasound to Assess Fetal Weight and amount of liqour Monitoring the fetus by CTG |
Regular Vaginal Assessment of Cervical Dilatation |
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Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include all of the following except:
Maternal Obesity Macrosomia Maternal Diabetes Prolonged Second Stage of Labor Down Syndrome |
Down Syndrome
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Umbilical cord prolapse is associated with all the following, except:
Post Maturity Cephalo-pelvic disproportion Multiparity Footling Breech Presentation Hydrocephaly |
Hydrocephaly |
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Which of the following is true about umbilical cord prolapse ?
It is always an indication for Caesarean Section It is diagnosed when the membranes are still intact It is more common when fetus acquires an abnormal lie The incidence is 15% It causes severe respiratory alkalosis |
It is more common when fetus acquires an abnormal lie |
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Which of the following signs is most useful in predicting the absence of placental abruption following trauma ?
Absence of uterine contractions Absence of vaginal bleeding Presence of normal fetal heart tones Absence of tense, painful uterus Absence of nauesea and vomting |
Absence of tense, painful uterus |
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Which of the following is the most appropriate management in a patient with a marginal placenta praevia on an ultrasound at 24 weeks gestation ?
Plan Caeserean delivery at 38 weeks Plan an amniocentesis at 36 weeks with delivery if the fetal lung is mature Reassess placental position at 32-34 weeks by ultrasound Recommend termination of pregnancy Reassess placental position digitally by vaginal examination 32-34 weeks |
Reassess placental position at 32-34 weeks by ultrasound |
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Which of the following patients would be most likely to have placenta praevia at 36 weeks gestation ?
19 yo G1P0 with vertex presentation 23 yo G2P1 with cephalic presentation, 2/5 palpable 34 yo G5P3 Vertex Presentation 36 yo G7P6 3 previous C/S and transverse lie 28 yo G3P1 head at station 0 |
36 yo G7P6 with 3 previous C/S and transverse lie |
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Which of the following is not a realistic option at time of laparotomy for postpartum haemorrhage ?
Aortic Compression Uterine Compression sutures Uterine artery ligation Hysterectomy Balloon tamponade |
Balloon Tamponade |
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Postpartum Haemorrhage is least likely in which of the following ?
Fetal Macrosomia Polyhydramnios Placenta Praevia Abruptio Placenta Postdate Pregnancy |
Postdate Pregnancy |
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Regarding postpartum haemorrhage the following are true, EXCEPT:
Blood loss of 500 ml or more after vaginal delivery Blood loss of 1000 ml or more after C/S Atony is less common cause than trauma Multiple pregnancy may predispose to postpartum heamorrhage Patient with previous history of postpartum haemorrhage are at hight risk |
Atony is less common cause than trauma |
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A pregnant woman presents at term with a placenta praevia grade4 and an anencephalic fetus which of the following will be the best management ?
Cesaerian section Oxytocin Dip ROM Induce with Prostoglandin E2 Foreceps delivery in the second stage to accelerate delivery |
C/Section |
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Central Cyanosis in a neonate without evidence of lung disease may be due to:
Methaglobinaemia Congenital Heart Disease HMD TTN Choanal Artresia |
Methalglobinaemia Congenital Heart Disease Choanal Atresia |
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Which of the following neonates especially needs to be monitored for hypoglycaemia ?
Infant of diabetic mother 1.1 kg well baby receiving half of daily fluids IV and other half per os Term Baby Breast Feeding Septic Baby Baby suspected of having Down Syndrome |
Infant of Diabetic Mother Septic Baby 1.1 kg Well baby receiving half of daily fluids IV and other half per os |
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Which value of Hb indicates anaemia in the neonate ? |
<13 g/dl |
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True or false: The biological parents must always give permission to adoption. |
False |
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True or false: An asphyxiated infant in secondary apnea needs urgent resuscitation as it is unlikely to start breathing spontaneously. |
True |
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Which of the following is/are signs of hypox ischaemic encephalopathy:
Hyperventilation Full Fontanelle Lethargy Hypertonia |
Full Fontanelle Lethargy |
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True or false: Babies born with inborin metabolic errors can mimic the clinical picture of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy |
True |
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True or false: It is abnormal if a baby passes stool every other day |
False |
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True or false: Breastmilk is lactose free |
False |
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What is the major protein found in breast milk ? |
Whey |
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Ture or false: Oxytocin stimulates breast milk production |
False |
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True or false: Obstructive neonatal jaundice leads to raised conjugated bilirubin levels. |
True |
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True or false: The bilirubin most commonly responsible for neonatal jaundice during the first week after birth is mainly conjugated in origin |
False |
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Define prolonged neonatal jaundice |
>7 days in the term baby >14 days in the preterm baby |
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True or false: Moulding of the foetal skull in a 2 day old baby is banormal and ought to be treated |
False |
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The following are correct regarding subcutaneous fat necrosis in the newborn:
Usually appears one month after birth Present as tender plaques Are well demarcated plaques None of the above |
Are well demarcated plaques |
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True or false: Breech delivery increases the risk of birth trauma |
True |
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From which age onward is cows milk suitable for babies ? |
12 months |
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True or false: A 40:60 whey:casein ratio is characteristic of a infant starter formula |
False |
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Characteristic of a subaponeurotic bleed are:
Is limited by the skull lines Calcifies quickly Blue discolouration of the eyelids Causes raised intracranial pressure Often associated with vacuum extraction |
Blue discoloration of the eyelids Often associated with vaccuum extraction |
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Define a newborn baby |
A baby younger than 28 days |
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True or false: The airway of all babies should be suctioned directly after delivery |
False |
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In which sleeping position should healthy term newborns be placed ? |
Supine |
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True or false: Haemorrhage and sepsis are both recognized causes of shock |
True |
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Which of the following causes bile stained vomiting ?
Midgut Volvulus GERD Necrotizing Enterocolitis Necrotizing Fasciitis Pyloric Stenosis |
Midgut volvulus |
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Define a normal-for-date baby |
A baby with a birthweight between the 10th and 90th percentile for his gestational age |
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Which of the following immunisations are administered routinely to the newborn baby before or at hospital discharge ?
Hep A Hep B Polio BCG Diptheria |
Polio BCG |
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In which age group is the highest incidence of SIDS ? |
1-6 months |
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Increased risk factors to the SIDS are:
Male newborn Female Newborn If the mother smokes LBW Breech delivery |
Male newborn Maternal smoking LBW |
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True or false: Breast milk fortifiers are routinely added to breast milk given to term babies with septicaemia |
False |
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True or false: Trophic feeds is the administation of normal volumes of milk via a stomach tube to the baby |
False |
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True or false: Promotion of the establishment of breastfeeding support groups is a requirement of the baby friendly hospital initiative |
True |
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What is the percentage range which healthy newborns have normal weight loss during the first week of pregnancy ? |
5-10% |
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True or false: The normal preterm baby's ability to concentrate urine is normal |
False |
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True or false: Start immediate neonatal facemask ventilation at delivery in a baby with congenital diaphragmatic hernia |
False |
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True or false: Gastroschisis must be convered by cottonwool directly after birth |
False |
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True or false: The purpose of an episiotomy is to protect the baby |
False
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True or false: The purpose of an episiotomy is to enalrge the introitus to facilitate delivery |
True |
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True or false: An episiotomy does reduce the incidence of perineal tears |
False |
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True or false: An episiotomy involves an incision through the perineal muslces |
True |
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True or false: An episiotomy should be preformed for most deliveries |
False |
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True or false: An episiotomy does not prevent genital prolapse in later life |
True |
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Contraindications to breastfeeding are:
Maternal Hepatitis B Maternal Gastroenteritis Neonatal galactosaemia Maternal Metamphetamine use |
Neonatal galastosaemia Maternal metamphetamine use |
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True or false: Estrogen withdrawal after the menopause affects the vagina but not the vulva |
False |
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True or false: After menopause the eostradiol levels falls by around 90% |
True |
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True or flase: Coronary artery disease is an indication for ostrogen therapy in the post menopausal woman |
False |
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True or false: The ostrogen withdrawal after the menopause affects the CVS |
True |
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True or false: Colon cancer is not influence by hormone therapy in the post-menopausal woman |
False |
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True or false: The postmenopausal skeleton is characterized by osteoporosis but no osteopaenia |
True |
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True or false: 50-75% of postmenopausal women experience hot flushes |
True
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True or false: A vaginal examination may never be performed in a patient with antepartum haemorrhage |
False |
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True or false: A patient with placenta praevia who presents after 34 weeks of gestation with contractions and antepartum haemorrhage should be vaginally delivered irrespective of the degree of placenta praevia |
False |
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True or false: Betamethosone should be given to all patients who present before 34 weeks gestation with the clinical picture of abruptio placentae |
False |
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True or false: Heparin in cases of abruptio placentae is only used in cases of IUD |
False |
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True or false: Antepartum haemorrhage of unkown origin has a higher perinatal mortality than placenta praevia |
True |
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True or false: Cervical neoplasia should be excluded as a cause of antepartum haemorrhage |
True |
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True or false: The maternal bladder should be kept empty in patients with placenta praevia |
True |
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True or false: Subaponeurotic bleeding usually crosses the skull sutures |
False |
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Cephalohaematoma usually occurs over which bones ? |
The parietal bones |
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True or false: A cephalohaematoma usually causes raised intracranial pressure |
False |
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Well known complications associated with a subaponeurotic bleed are:
Infection Shock Calcification |
Shock |
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Which one of he following usually has the better prognosis in a neonate ?
Upper motor neuron facial palsy Lower motor neuron facial palsy |
A lower motor neuron facial palsyu |
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The following are correct regarding a clavicle fracture of the neonate:
Requires splinting Presents as an Erb-Duchenne palsy Has good bone callus formation within 2 weeks |
Has good bone callus formation within 2 weeks |
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The following are correct regarding an Erb Duchenne Palsy:
Waiter's Tip Posture Prognosis usually poor Sometimes associated with Horner's syndrome Indicative of a lower brachial plexus injury All of the above |
Waiter's Tip Posture |
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The palmar grasp reflex is absent in a baby with a:
Erb-Duchenne Palsy Total Brachial plexus Injury Klumpke Palsy |
Total Brachial Plexus palsy Klumpke Palsy |
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Which of the following are correct regarding a birth injury to the liver ?
More often associated with the vertex deliverd baby Usually presents as a subcapsular haematoma Baby often presents as clinically normal during first hours after delivery Hypovolaemic shock is a well known complications |
Usually presents with a subcapsular haematoma Baby often presents as clinically normal Hypovolaemic shock is a common complication |
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A baby presents with blueish discoloration of the eyes after birth, what is the most likely diagnosis:
Cephalohaematoma Caput Succedaneum Subaponeurotic Bleed Caput haematoma |
Subaponeurotic Bleed |
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A baby presents with complete paralysis of one side of his face after delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis ? |
Lower Motor Neuron Palsy |
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A baby presents with paralysis of one side of his face after delivery, but you notice wrinkling on his forehead and both eyes are closed. What is the most likely diagnosis ? |
Upper motor neuron palsy |
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A baby presents with a mouth drooping to one side while crying, after delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis ? |
Cayler Syndrome |
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A baby presents with a waiter's Tip posture after delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis ? |
Erb-Duchenne Palsy |
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True or false: Breast milk contains lipase. |
True |
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True or false: Breastmilk contains glucose as well as galactose |
True |
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True pr false: Breastmilk contains less fluoride than cow milk |
True |
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True or false: Breastmilk does not contain any secretory IgA |
False |
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Fortification of breastmilk is usually considered in a:
Term Baby LBW baby Preterm Baby <1500g
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Preterm baby <1500g |
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Breastfeeding in comparison with infant formula feeding is associated with:
Lower incidence of SIDS Higher incidence of Necrotizing Fasciitis Higher risk of maternal breast cancer More constipation in the baby None of the above |
Lower incidence of SIDS |
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True or false: A healthy preterm neonate requires at least 120-140 kcal/kg daily for adequate growth |
True |
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True or false: Breastmilk can be stored longer than 24 hours in the fridge |
False |
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True or false: It is necessary to warm breast milk before feeding |
fALSE |
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True or false: Breastmilk can be heated in a microwave oven |
False |
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True or false: Any breastmilk left over after a feed must be discarded |
True |
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True or false: A healthy term neonate requires at least 140-150 kcal/kg daily for adequate growth |
False |
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How many wet superdry disposable diapers per day is indicative that the baby is receiving adequate milk feeds ? |
5-6 |
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Which of the following increases breastmilk supply:
Alcohol Smoking Metochlorpramide Estrogen oral contraceptives |
Metochlorpramide |
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True or false: Inverted nipples are a contraindication to breastfeeding |
False |
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True or false: Oxytocin stimulates breastmilk production |
False |
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The management of inverted proctractile nipples is:
Breastfeed more often Pull the nipple out before a feed Put a cold cloth on the nipple before feeding Massage the breasts slightky before putting the baby on the breast |
All of the above |
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Which of the following statements are applicable to inverted poorly protractile nipples:
Hoffman exercises are of no proven value Nipple shields are of no proven value Nipple stretching exercises are of limited value |
All of the above |
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Which of the following are characteristic of full breasts:
Breasts are painful Lumps present in the breast Mother feels ill Milk flow is good
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Milk flow is good |
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Which of the following characteristic of engorged breasts:
Breasts are painful Nipples appear flat Breasts are hard Mother feels feverish |
All of the above |
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Cabbage leaves are typically of help in:
Sore nipples Full Breasts Engorged breasts All of the above None of the Above |
Engorged breasts |
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True or false: Breastfeeding must be stopped if mastitis is present |
False |
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True or false: Prolactin stimulates breastmilk flow |
False |
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True or false: Prolactin stimulates breastmilk production |
True |
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True or false: The nipples of a lactating mother should be kept moist and wet |
False |
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True or false: The breasts and nipples of a lactating mother should be washed with soap or spirits before a feed |
False |
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Mothers should breastfeed their babies exclusively until what age ? |
6 months |
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True or false: Routine eye prophylaxis is recommended for all newborn babies |
True |
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Vitamin K is administered to newborn babies to prevent the following:
Haemolytic Disease of the newborn Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn Neonatal Jaundice |
Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn |
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At what room temperature should the hospital nursery be kept ? |
26-28 degrees C |
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How long does it take for heatlhy term babies to regain their weight at birth ? |
10 Days |
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True or false: During adoption, the father must admit in writing that he is the father of the baby and give consent to the adoption |
True |
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True or false: A child of older than 10 years, must give consent to his adoption |
True |
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A heart rate below which value is termed bradycardia of the neonate ? |
100 beats per minute |
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A heart rate above which value is termed tachycardia of the neonate ? |
180 beats per minute |
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A respiratory rate above which value is termed tachypnea of the neonate ? |
60 breaths per minute |
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What is the drug of choice for the treatment of a chlamydial eye infection in the newborn baby ? |
Erythromycin |
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The umbilical stump seperates from the abdominal skin at about ? |
5-14 days after birth |
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Normal urine output in a baby is ?
1 ml urine/kg/minute 1-2 ml urine/kg/minute 2-5 ml urine/kg/minute 5-7 ml urine/kg/minute |
1-2 urine/kg/minute |
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Causes of diarrhoea in the noenate are: Sucrose intolerance Phototherapy Congenital adrenal hyperplasia UTI All of the above |
All of the above |
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True or false: The majority of neonates pass urine an meconium within the first 24 hours after birth |
True |
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True or false: Breastmilk administered during the first 5 days of life to the preterm baby must be diluted |
False |
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True or false: A feeding stomach tube should routinely be passed through the baby's nostril |
False |
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True or false: The correct length of an orogastric feeding tube to be inserted is equal to the length between the baby's xiphisternum and suprasternal notch plus 2,5 cm |
False |
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Characteristic of a normal gastric aspirate in the nonate before a feed is:
Digested milk Less than 5 ml aspirate per kg body weight No blood |
Digested milk and no blood |
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True or false: Fingerfeeding indicates the baby is sucking a dummy |
False |
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True or false: Cupfeeding reduces nipple confision. |
True |
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Define a preterm baby |
A baby that is delivered before 37 weeks of completed gestational age |
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What is normal birthweight for a baby > |
>2500g |
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Define LBW baby |
A baby with a birthweight below 2500g |
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Define a very low birthweight baby |
A baby with a birthweight below 1500g |
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Define an extremely low birthweight baby |
A baby with a birthweight below 1000g |
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Well known complications of prematurity are:
HMD Intraventricular Haemorrhage Polycythaemia PDA |
HMD Intraventricular Haemorrhage PDA |
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Well known contributory causes to large for date babies are:
TGA IDM Constitutionally large baby Maternal Hypothyroidism |
TGA IDM Constitutionally large baby |
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True or false: Fetal anencephaly is associated with postmaturity |
True |
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What percentage of neonate should pass urine at 24 hours of life ? |
97% |
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What percentage of neonates should have passed urine at 48 hours of life ? |
100% |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care involves skin to skin contact between mother and baby |
True |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care involves exclusive breastmilk feeding |
True |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care involves adeuate follow up of baby after hospital discharge |
True |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care involves hopsital discharge if the weight of the baby is 1800 g |
False |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care is benificial to breastfeeding |
True |
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True or false: Mechanical ventilation of the baby is a contraindication to kangaroo mother care |
False |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care is benificial to a babies temperature control |
True |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care prolongs the baby's hospital stay |
False |
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True or false: Kangaroo mothercare improves breastmilk production |
True |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care increases the frequency of bradicardic spells in the baby |
True |
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True or false: Babies suitable for kangaroo mother care should weigh at least 1200g |
False |
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True or false: The hospital discharge weight for kangaroo mother care is 1900g |
False |
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True or false: Kangaroo mother care increases the mortality and morbidity in LBW babies |
False |
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True or false: Babies in a neonatal intensive care unit are not suitable for Kangaroo mother care |
False |
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True or false: Perinatal mortality rate in indicative of stillbirths as well as death in live born babies ? |
True |
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True or false: The number of perinatal mortality is the number of perinatal deaths per thousand live births |
Flase |
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The early neonatal period refers to ? |
The first 7 days after birth |
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What is the perinatal mortality rate in South Africa ? |
30% |
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True or false: Perinatal asphyxia is the result of hypoxia or ischaemia in the fetus or newborn baby |
True |
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The features of severe hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy in the neonate are:
Hyperalert Feeding difficulties Convulsions Altered muscle tone All of the above |
Feeding difficulties Convulsions Hypotonia - Altered muscle tone |
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Intrapartum asphyxia in the term baby primarily affects the following brain regions:
Cortical and Subcortical grey matter OR Subependymal Germinal Matrix |
Cortical and subcrotical grey matter |
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Intrapartum asphyxia in the preterm fetus primarily affects the following brain region:
Cortical or subcortical grey matter or Subependymal Germinal MAtrix |
Subependymal Germinal Matrix |
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True or false: A longterm complication of asphyxia is cerebral palsy |
True |
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True or false: The time required for tone an respirations to return during resuscitation of the newborn baby, can indicate the severity of duration of the asphyxial insult to the brain |
True |
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The following are consequences of perinatal asphyxia:
Cardiomegaly Convulsions Necrotising enterocolitis Decreased ammonia blood levels Hypocalcaemia |
Cardiomegaly Convulsions Necrotizing enterocolitis Decreased Ammonia Blood Levels Hypocalcaemia |
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True or false: The cause in most cases of cerebral palsy is unknown |
True |
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True or false: A term newborn with hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy and not able to drink at day 8 after birth is at risk for poor neurodevelopmental outcome |
True |
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True or false: If a congenital heart defect is suspected, Vitamin E should be administered immediately to the baby |
False |
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True or false: Mercury bloodpressure monitors are not suitable for use inside aircrafts |
True |
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What is the recurrence risk of SIDS ? |
1% |
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True or false: The greatest risk of conjugated jaundice for the noenate is kernicterus |
False |
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Which of the following are causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice:
Breastmilk Jaundice Breastfeeding Jaundice Neonatal Urinary Tract Infection Haemolysis Hyperthyroidism |
Breastmilk juandice Neonatal UTI Haemolysis |
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True or false: Kernicterus is a revirsble condition |
False |
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True or false: A cause of prolonged neonatal unconjugated jaundice is breastfeeding jaundice |
False |
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True or false: An increased enterohepatic bilirubin circulation is caused by breastmilk jaundice |
False |
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True or false: The clinical manifestations of kernicterus are usually already present in the first week after birth |
True |
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True or false: Phototherapy is of value in conjugated neonatal jaundice |
False |
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True or false: Physiological jaundice is characterized by a clinically well baby |
True |
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With ABO blood group incompatibility as a cause for neonatal jaundice, the mother's blood group is most often group |
O |
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A newborn baby is Rh Negative and his mother is Rh positive. Potentially this can lead to Rh incompatibility and neonatal haemolytic jaundice |
False |
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Which of the following are associated with unconjugated neonatal jaundice ?
Congenital sperocytosis Inborn defects of metabolism Increased bilirubin enterohepatic circulation Biliary atresia All of the above |
Congenital Spherocytosis Inborn defects of metabolism Increased enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin |
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Which of the following are features of neonatal jaundice due to ABO incompatibility ?
Spherocytes on blood smear Decreased reticulocytes in the noenate Can cause Kernicterus All of the above None of the above |
Spherocytes on blood smear Can cause Kernicterus |
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Special investigations performed routinely at Tygerberg Children's Hospital when a newborn baby is for adoption are:
ECG Chest X-ray Syphilis Serology HIV testing TSH estimation |
Syphilis Serology HIV testing TSH estimation |
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Which features are not assessed during the Apgar score ?
Pulse rate Colour of Infant Response to stimuli Jaundice |
Jaundice |
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Treatment of apnea in the newborn consits of:
Administration of IV antibiotics Administration of caffeine Administration of multivitamins Administration of steroids |
Administration of IV antibiotics Administration of caffeine |
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True or false: A baby with periodic breathing normally becomes bradycardic |
True |
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True or false: The majority of cases of perinatal asphyxia are due to poor obstetric and neonatal management |
False |
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Which of the following features are usually associated in a baby who has suffered a perinatal asphyxic insult ?
Polyuria Feed intolerance Thrombocytosis Hypoglycaemia |
Feed intolerance Hypoglycaemia |
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When solid foods are started too early in a baby's diet, it can cause the following:
Increased Risk for infections and allergies Baby;s cheeks become nice and chubby and this is a sign of good health Undernutrition Overnutrition |
Increased Risk for infections and allergies Undernutrition Overnutrition |
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Characteristics of weaning foods include: It should be energy and nutrient dense Sweetened with sugar or honey Easily available and possible to prepare Include enouch snacks Apropriate consistency for age and developmental age |
It should be energy and nutrient dense Easily available and possible to prepare Appropriate consistency for age and developmental age |
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Which causes are NOT common causes for babies to be born prematurely:
Poor social circumstances Maternal hypertension Previous premature labour large babies |
Large Babies |
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The following are NOT common complications for term SGA babies:
Hypothermia Hyperglucaemia Hypoglycaemia Meningitis |
Hyperglycaemia and meningitis |
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True or false: A 2 month old baby of HIV positive mothers can only be fed with formula milk |
False |
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True or false: Mothers with cracked nipples should discontinue breastfeeding |
False |
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True or false: VLBW babies can be cup fed |
True |
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True or false: ERgomentrine causes tonic contraction which starts 5 to 6 minutes after administration |
True |
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True or false: Syntometrin contains 5 international units of oxytocin per ampoule |
True |
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True or false: Most leading organizations with women health issues recommend women to have mammographic screening from age 40 onwards |
True |
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True or false: The most common site of metastatic disease in breast cancer is bone |
False |
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|
True or false: Single duct nipple discharge usually has benign causes |
True |
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True or false: Tamoxifen is the adjuvant agent of choice in hormonally dependent breast cancer in postmenopausal women |
True |
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True or false: Transcriptional gene profiling identifies women at high risk of recurrence of breast cancer much more accurately than concentional prognostic parameters |
True |
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True or false: Metaplastic breast cancer is a very aggressive histopathological type |
True |
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True or false: Trastuzumab is best describe as a cytostatic chemotherapeutic agent |
True |
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True or false: Round oval lesions on mammography are usually benign |
True |
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True or false: Mammography is essential to diagnose the cause of mastalgia |
Flase |
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True or false: Ductal ectasia is an uncommon cause of non-lactating breast abscess |
True |
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True or false: In the process of oogenesis meiosis 2 is restarted during ovulation |
False |
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True or false: A maternal respiratory alkalosis develops during normal pregnancy |
True |
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True or false: The follicular phase lasts from the LH-surge till just prior to the onset of menstruation |
False |
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True or false: After corpus luteum degeneration during normal pregnancy, the bulk of estrogen in the circulation is produced by the placenta |
True |
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True or false: Maternal peripheral vascular resistance decreases during normal pregnancy as a result of the effect of progesterone on smooth muscle |
True |
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True or false: The endometrium is at its thickest during the proliferative phase of the normal menstrual cycle |
False |
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True or false: The luteal phase is the most constant phase of the endometrial cycle |
False |
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True or false: IgG can cross the placenta during normal pregnancy |
True |
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True or false: The proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle is mainly under control of estradiol produced by the developing Graafian follicle |
False |
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True or false: After the corpus luteum degeneration during normal pregnancy, the bulk of progesterone is secreted by the placenta |
True |
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True or false: Inhibin stimulates the secretion of FSH |
False |
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True or false: Maternal respiratory tidal volume increases during normal pregnancy |
True |
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True or false: Cervical effacement refers to the length of the infravaginal portion of the cervix |
False |
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True or false: Retraction of a uterine muscle fibre occurs when the fibre after contraction does not relax to its original length |
True |
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True or false: A retraction ring may b palpable abdominally |
True |
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True or false: A constriction ring may be palpable abdominally |
False |
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True or false: A myometrial contraction and retraction causes the lower segment of the uterus to become longer and thinner |
True |
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True or false: Flexion of the fetal skull decreases antero-posterior diameter of the fetal skull |
True |
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True or false: Internal rotation of the fetal skull in an occipito posterior position usually occurs through 135 degrees |
False |
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True or false: Fetal position refers to the relationship of the various fetal parts to each other |
True |
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True or false: Mestranol and etinylestradiol are the two progesterones most commonly used in the combined contraceptive pill |
False |
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True or false: Norethisterone is a 19-Nortesterone derivative |
True |
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True or false: In the biphasic pill the last ten pills contain more estrogen than the first eleven pills |
False |
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True or false: A body mass index of 38 is an absolute contraindication for the use of Triphasil in a patient with a previous deep vein thrombosis |
True |
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True or false: The incidence of endometrial carcinoma is increased amongst women who had used the oral contraceptive pill for more than 10 years |
False |
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True or false: The use of the combination pull is associated with an improvement of symptoms in patients with rheumatoid arthritis |
True |
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True or false: The IUD should be removed in a pregnant woman if the strings are visible |
True |
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True or false: Menorrhagia is mrore common amongst women using the oralcontraceptive pill |
False |
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True or false: The copper containing IUD can be used as emergency contraception as long as 120 hours after coitus |
True |
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True or false: The use of oral contraceptive pill is associated with an increased risk of acute salpingo-oophoritis |
False |
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True or false: The use of the combination pull is associated with fewer cases of iron deficiency anaeamia |
True |
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True or false: The Viennese and Pomeroy methods of sterilisation differ from each other in that a piece of tube is removed with the Pomeroy method |
False |
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True or false: Vitamin K prophylaxis at birth may prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and may be used as anticonvulsant drugs during pregnancy |
True |
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True or false: A subcapsular haematoma of the liver is usually asymptomatic directly after birth |
True |
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True or false: Polycythaemia is a cause of hypoglycaemia in a newborn infant |
False |
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True or false: Babies suitable for KMC should weigh at least 1200 grams |
False |
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True or false: Infants with excessive infant crying usually have weight loss |
False |
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True or false: Pnemococcus is the organism most fequently causing neonatal meningitis |
False |
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What is the percentage of total body water mass in neonates ? |
75% |
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True or false: Scaphoid abdominal appearance in the neonate is often associated with an underlying diaphragmatic hernia |
True |
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True or false: Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn typically presents with petechiae |
False |
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True or false: The lactating mother requires 220 kilocalires per day |
False |
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Characteristics of complimentary feeding in the 6-9 month old baby are:
Finger foods 5 Meals per day Milk Feeds before meals Avoid Nuts Milk Feeds after meals |
Milk feeds before meals |
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True or false: Studies of the ductus venosus is of great value in cases with sever Rhesus sensitisation |
False |
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True or false: Patau syndrome must be excluded in cases with poor symphysis fundal growth |
False |
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True or false: The majority of small infants are constitutionally small |
True |
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True or false: A fetus is termed small for dates if the head circumference is less than the tenth centile for gestational age |
True |
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True or false: Diabetes mellitus must be ruled out in cases with poor symphisis fundal growth |
False |
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True or false: The antiphospholipid syndrome must be excluded in cases with poor symphisis fundal growth |
False |
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True or false: Postterm pregnancies are often complicated by polyhydramnios |
False |
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True or false: The macroberts method is the method of choice in the management of umbilical cord prolapse |
False |
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True or false: The differential diagnosis of umbilical cord prolapse include uterine rupture and abruptio placentae |
True |
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True or false: With grade 1 umbilical cord prolapse the umbilical cord is next to but not past the presenting fetal part |
True |
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True or false: Preterm labour is a riskfactor for umbilical cord prolapse, epsecially in twin pregnancies |
True |
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True or false: ECV Is done early in labour to increase th chances of a normal vaginal delivery |
True |
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True or false: After a successful ECV tge patients membranes must be ruptured and oxytocin given to induce labour |
True |
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True or false: Abruptio placentae is a possible complication of ECV |
True |
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True or false: Abruptio placentae is a contraindication to ECV |
True |
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True or false: There is an increased risk of maternal to fetal HIV transmission during ECV |
False |
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True or false: ECV should not be done in Rhesus negative mothers |
False |
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True or false Beta-adrenergic agonists may be used to facilitate ECV |
True |
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Define a non stress test (CTG) |
A CTG which is done in the absence of contractions |
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Define a positive stress test (CTG) |
In the presence of contractions there are decelerations in the fetal heart rate |
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Which type of deceleration on a CTG is associated with vagal stimulation ? |
Early decelerations |
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True or false: Once late decelerations are present, a C/S is indicated |
True |
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True or false: During a significant abruptio placentae the CTG will show no fetal heart rate abnormalities |
False |
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Which of the following are recognized risk factors for dizygotic twinning ?
Caucasian Race Previous Tubal Surgery Advancing Maternal Age Obesity Ovulation Induction High Parity In Vitro Fertilization Previous Second Trimester Loss Family History Previous Preterm Delivery DM |
Obesity High Parity Advancing Maternal Age In vitro fertilisation Family History |
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Which of the following are contra-indications for amniotomy ?
Diabetes Mellitus High presenting Part HIV positive mother Esitmated fetal weight >4 kg Unfavourable cervix Previous C/S Polyhydramnios Maternal BMI >50 Shortly After Prostoglandins Non-vertex presentation Intrauterine Death Posttetm pregnancy |
High presenting part HIV positive mother Non-vertex presentation Intrauterine Death |
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Purposeful antenatal care is characterized by:
Early detection of pregnancy related complications in current pregnancy
Antenatal visits take place every 4 weeks up until 28 weeks and every 2 weeks thereafter
The fetal heart should be auscultated after 28 weeks
Risk factors from previous obstetric history should be recognized |
Early detection of pregnancy related complications in the current pregnancy
Risk factors from previous obstetric hustory should be recognized |
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True or false: Heartburn is caused by increased circulating levels of progesterone |
True |
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True or false: Morning sickness in pregnancy is caused by increased circulating levels of estrogen |
True |
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True or false: Supine hypotension syndrome is caused by the pressure of an enlarged uterus exerted on the aorta |
False |
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True or false: Constipation is caused by an increased circulating level of progesterone |
True |
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True or false: Surgery for haemorrhoids are contra indicated in pregnancy |
True |
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True or false: Blue litmus stays blue when it comes into contact with amniotic fluid |
True |
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True or false: Labour should be induced if the fetal heart rate remains between 150 and 160 beats per minute |
False |
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True or false: A patient with chorioamnionitis must have a C section |
False |
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True or false: SROM is associated with abruptio placentae |
False |
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True or false: All patients undergoing an abortion must receive extensive counseling |
False |
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|
True or false: Mifeprestone is the drug of choice when terminating pregnancy in the first trimester |
True |
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Which tests would you order if a patient presents with secondary amenorrhoea ? |
TSH Prolactin Pregnancy test |
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Which of the following drugs will cause hyperprolactinaemia ?
Disprin Alpha methyldopa Dogoxin Phenothiazine Thiaside Diuretics Sulpiride |
Alpha methyldopa Sulpiride Phenothiazine |
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|
What is the prevalance of male infertility among infertile couples ? |
40-50% |
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|
True or false: Vasomotor symptoms happen in all post menopausal patients |
False |
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|
True or false: The WHO defines osteoporosis as a T-score of < -2.5 |
True |
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|
True or false: Breast cancer is the leading cause of death in post menopausal women |
False |
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|
True or false: The membranes are intact with an umbilical cord presentation |
True |
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|
True or false: A change in position from -3 to 0 is an indication of progress of labour |
True |
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|
True or false: The position of the fetus is best determined by vaginal examination |
True |
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|
True or false: The shape of the female pelvis is divided into 4 broad categories |
True |
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|
True or false: The ishcial spines are prominent in women with android pelvises |
True |
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|
True or false: The subpubic angle is wider in women with an android pelvis |
False |
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|
True or false: The transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet of women with a gynecoid pelvis is larger |
True |
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|
True or false: The first stage of labour is divided into the active and passive phases |
False |
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|
True or false: Patients with a placenta praevia will present with a plank hard abdomen clinicallyt |
False |
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|
True or false: A C section is performed with a placenta praevia if the patient presents with mild vaginal bleeding at 38 weeks gestational age |
True |
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|
True or false: A patient presents with placenta praevia at 33 weeks gestation, the first step in the management thereof is filling her bladder |
False |
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|
True or false: An adoption order can be cancelled |
True |
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|
True or false: Foster parents are supervised by social workers |
True |
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|
True or false: Dehydration and painful stimuli usually cause a bradicardic response in the baby |
False |
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|
In what time period after birth should a healthy neonate receive breastmilk |
30 mins |
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|
True or false: In south africa the perinatal mortality rate is the number of deaths per 1000 births |
True |
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|
True or false: A fetus with trisomy 18 or anencephaly, is usually associated with postterm delivery |
True |
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|
True or false: A previous C/section is a risk for developing placenta praevia in future pregnancies |
True |
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|
True or false: If a patient presents with antepartum haemorrhage, a sonar should be done immediately to exclude placenta praevia |
False |
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|
True or false: Betamethosone should be given to all patients that present with placenta praevia before 34 weeks of gestation |
True |
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|
True or false: A CTG is the only diagnostic test for abruptio placentae |
False |
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|
True or false: Heparin is used in cases of abruptio placentae in cases where there is IUD |
False |
|
|
True or false: The maternal bladder should be kept empty in cases of placenta praevia |
True |
|
|
True or false: Ductal ectasia is an uncommon cause of non-lactating breast abscess |
True |
|
|
True or false: A maternal death is a notifiable medical condition |
True |
|
|
True or false: A maternal death is the death of a women during pregnancy up until 4 weeks after delivery |
False |
|
|
What is the inheritance pattern of Huntington disease ? |
Autosomal Dominant |
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|
What is the characteristic genetic feature of Huntington disease ? |
Anticipation |
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|
What is the risk of the children being affected of a patient with Huntington disease ? |
50% |
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|
What are the correct answers regarding amniocentesis:
Has a miscarriage risk of 1% Is a screening test for Down Syndrome Can be performed at 18 weeks of pregnancy Has a miscarriage risk of 5% Can be performed at 12 weeks of pregnancy Has a miscarriage risk of 0.1% |
Has a miscarriage risk of 1% Is used as a screening test for Down syndrome Can be performed at 18 weeks of pregnancy |
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True or false: A klumpke palsy affects the cervical nerves 5 and 6 |
False |
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|
True or false: Evaporative heat loss can be minimized by placing extremely premature babies in a plastic jiffy bag under a radiant warmer in the delivery room |
True |
|
|
True or false: Shivering is the most important means of heat production in the newborn |
False |
|
|
The pregnancy urine test is based on the presence of which hormone in the urine ? |
bHCG |
|
|
True or false: Minor complaints during pregnancy are self limiting and have no harmful effects on the pregnancy |
True |
|
|
True or false: The majority of pregnant women complain of constipation |
True |
|
|
True or false: The majority of pregnant women complain of morning sickness |
True |
|
|
True or false: More than 70% of children with cerebral palsy have a history of prenatal asphyxia as the cause |
False |
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|
True or false: It is necessary that a baby feeds from both breasts during a breastfeed |
False |
|
|
True or false: Nevirapine is used to lower the risk of HIV trnasmission from the mother to her baby, a single dose of nevirapine should be given to the HIV positive mother immediately after delivery |
False |
|
|
True or false: The goal of KMC nutrition is a weight gain of 5 to 10 g daily |
False |
|
|
Above which measurement of Na mmol/l is neonatal hypernatraemia diagnosed ? |
150 |
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|
The concept of KMC originated in which country ? |
Columbia |
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|
True or false: Methyldopa is teratogenic |
False |
|
|
True or false: The sudden loss of progesterone and estrogen due to corpus luteum regression gives rise to the onset of menstruation |
False |
|
|
True or false: The supine hypotension syndrome can be confused with uterine rupture |
True |
|
|
True or false: Auto-immune disease van cause both first and second trimester losses |
True |
|
|
True or false: Luteal phase defects causes miscarriages between 13 and 15 weeks duration of pregnancy |
False |
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|
True or false: Restitution does not take place with shoulder dystocia |
True |
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|
True or false: Good management of the first stage of labour decreases the occurrence of shoulder dystocia |
False |
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|
True or false: A large episiotomy prevents shoulder dystocia |
False |
|
|
True or false: The patient should immediately be put in lithotomy position with the diagnosis of shoulder dystocia |
False |
|
|
True or false: Vertex is a denominator of the fetal position |
False |
