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43 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
inulin is used to calculate?
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GFR = (U inulin x V)/(P inulin)
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PAH is used to calculate?
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effective renal plasma volume= (U PAH x V)/(P PAH)
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what is the formula for RBF?
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RBF = RPF/(1-Hct)
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At high arterial blood volumes, you have __ FF and ___ reabsorption.
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At high arterial blood volumes, you have low FF and low reabsorption (less albumin conc. exerted = less plasma oncotic pressure).
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At low arterial blood volumes, you have __ FF and ___ reabsorption.
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At low arterial blood volumes, you have high FF and high reabsorption (more albumin conc. exerted = more plasma oncotic pressure).
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Plasma protein will have what affect on GFR?
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More plasma protein conc. = lower GFR because you have a higher glomerular capillary oncotic pressure.
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NSAIDs have what affect on FF?
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NSAIDs will have no affect on FF because it will decrease prostaglandins and thus constict afferent arteriole.
FF = GFR/RPF (both will be decreased equally = same FF) |
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Where is the kidney tubular fluid most dilute?
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Early DCT, after all the solutes (NaKCl) have been reabsorbed in the ascending tubule.
Osm in DCT = 100 mOsm |
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Where is the kidney tubular fluid most concentrated?
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At the end of the descending loop of henle, because the descending loop of henle reabsorbs H20.
Osm at the end of descending loop = 1200 mOsm |
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How does PTH affect nephron ion transport?
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PTH: 2 functions
1. PCT = decrease Na/PO4 cotransport (decrease PO4 reabsorption) 2. DCT = increase Na/Ca exchanger (increase Ca reabsorption) - thiazides also increase this exchanger |
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Aldosterone causes K+ and H+ secretion from which cells?
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After Na+ is reabsorbed from ENaC in the principal cell, K+ is secreted by principal cell and H+ is secreted in the intercalated cell.
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which ions have a TF/P > 1
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TF/P > 1 means that water is being reabsorbed more than the solute, so it concentrates in the TF.
Ex: creatine (not reabsorbed), inulin (not secreted/reabsorbed), urea (poorly reabsorbed), Cl- (reabsorbed slower than water in DCT) |
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which ions have a TF/P = 1
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TF/P = 1 means it is reabsorbed at the same rate as water
ex: Na+, K+ |
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which ions have a TF/P < 1
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TF/P < 1 means that solute is reabsorbed more than water.
ex: Pi, HCO3-, amino acids, glucose |
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How do Beta-agonists/antagonists affect K+ balance?
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Beta agonists increase Na/K ATPase -->hypokalemia
Beta antagonists decrease Na/K ATPase --> hyperkalemia |
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Signs of hypokalemia
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U waves on ECG, flattened T waves, arrhythmias, paralysis
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Signs of hyperkalemia
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Peaked T waves, wide QRS, arrhythmias
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Signs of hypercalcemia
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renal stones, abdominal groans, delirium,
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Type 1 "distal" RTA
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defect in collecting ducts ability to excrete H+. Associated with hypokalemia and calcium kidney stones.
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Type 2 "proximal" RTA
what is the primary defect? what are 2 associated findings? |
defect in proximal tubule HCO3- reabsorption. Associated with hypokalemia and hypophosphatemic rickets.
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Type 4 "hyperkalemia" RTA
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hypoaldosteronism or lack of collecting duct response to aldosterone. Associated with hyperkalemia and inhibition of ammonium excretion in proximal tubule. Leads to decrease in urine pH due to decreased buffering capacity.
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Contrast Berger's disease and post-strep GN in:
- timing - serum findings - microscopic findings |
Bergers:
- 2-3 days after URI/gastroenteritis - Increased IgA - ICs deposit in mesangium PSGN: - 2-3 weeks after skin/pharyngeal GAS - large glomeruli, hypercellular neutrophils, lumpy bumpy appearance |
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diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
LM, EM findings? |
Most common cause of death in SLE
LM: wire looping of capillaries EM: subendothelial DNA-anti-DNA ICs |
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what are the 5 types of nephritis syndromes
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1. Post strep
2. RPGN 3. Diffuse proliferative GN (SLE's nephritic presentation) 4. Berger's disease 5. Alport's syndrome |
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what are the 6 types of nephrotic syndromes
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1. minimal change
2. membranous 3. amyloidosis 4. diabetic nephropathy 5. MPGN 6. FSGS |
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what are the two types of MPGN?
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type I: tram track appearance due to GBM splitting caused by mesangial ingrowth. Caused by HBV, HCV
type II: "dense deposits" associated with C3 nephritic factor. |
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which kidney stones are radioopaque and which are radiolucent?
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radioopaque: calcium, ammonium magnesium phosphate, cystine
radiolucent: uric acid |
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what infectious are associated with "staghorn" ammonium magnesium phosphate stones?
how do you treat these stones? |
urease positive stones (proteus, staph, klebsiella)
Rx = acidify the urine |
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what is the treatment for uric acid and cystine stones/
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Rx: acetazolamide, pyridoxine (alkalinize the urine)
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what are 4 known risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma?
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phenacetin
smoking aniline dyes cyclophosphamide |
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Contrast Berger's disease and post-strep GN in:
- timing - serum findings - microscopic findings |
Bergers:
- 2-3 days after URI/gastroenteritis - Increased IgA - ICs deposit in mesangium PSGN: - 2-3 weeks after skin/pharyngeal GAS - large glomeruli, hypercellular neutrophils, lumpy bumpy appearance |
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diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
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Most common cause of death in SLE
LM: wire looping of capillaries EM: subendothelial DNA-anti-DNA ICs |
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what are the 5 types of nephritis syndromes
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1. Post strep
2. RPGN 3. Diffuse proliferative GN (SLE's nephritic presentation) 4. Berger's disease 5. Alport's syndrome |
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what are the 6 types of nephrotic syndromes
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1. minimal change
2. membranous 3. amyloidosis 4. diabetic nephropathy 5. MPGN 6. FSGS |
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what are the two types of MPGN?
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type I: tram track appearance due to GBM splitting caused by mesangial ingrowth. Caused by HBV, HCV
type II: "dense deposits" associated with C3 nephritic factor. |
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which kidney stones are radioopaque and which are radiolucent?
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radioopaque: calcium, ammonium magnesium phosphate, cystine
radiolucent: uric acid |
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what infectious are associated with ammonium magnesium phosphate stones?
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urease positive stones (proteus, staph, klebsiella)
Rx = acidify the urine |
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what is the treatment for uric acid and cystine stones/
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Rx: pyridoxine (alkalinize the urine)
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what are 4 known risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma?
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phenacetin
smoking aniline dyes cyclophosphamide |
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what are the 3 events during acute tubular necrosis?
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1. inciting event: ischemia, MI, hemorrhage
2. maintenance: oliguria within 12-24hrs- causes edema, hyperkalemia, anion gap metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, muddy brown casts, low urinary Osm (but high Na+) 3. recovery (within 2-3 weeks): vigorous diuresis |
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renal papillary necrosis is associated with 4 known risks?
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renal papillary necrosis = sloughing of renal papillae --> gross hematuria, proteinuria
1. diabetes 2. acute pyelonephritis 3. chronic phenacetin use (and acetaminophen) 4. sickle cell anemia |
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what is the BUN/Cr for prerenal, renal, postrenal failure?
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Prerenal: BUN/Cr >20 (maximal BUN reabsorption to conserve volume0
Renal: BUN/Cr <15 (unable to reabsorb) Postrenal: BUN/Cr >15 (back up causes more BUN reabsorption0 |
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what are the 3 mechanisms how loops and thaizide diuretics cause alkalosis?
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1. volume contraction - increase ATII causes increase Na/H exchange in DCT
2. K+ loss leads to K+ exiting cells, and swapping with H+, which go inside cells. 3. In a low K+ state, H+ is exchanged for Na+ in the collecting duct. |