R(D)Svs Icc-Fa Sheep

Front 1

Describe "flushing" in relation to ewe management in the UK.

Back 1

Flushing is the provision of increased nutrition 6-8 weeks prior to breeding to increase body condition score and litter size in the pregnant ewe.

Front 2

What is the target month to send lambs to market in the UK?

Back 2

July

Front 3

What is the target scanning percentage in ewes in the UK?

Back 3

210%

Front 4

What is the target weaning percentage in UK sheep flocks?

Back 4

175-180%

Front 5

What weight should UK lambs be by the time they are 4 months old?

Back 5

35kg

Front 6

What is the typical perinatal lamb mortality in the UK?

Back 6

10-25%

Front 7

The birth of twin lambs of very different weights (ie 5.5kg and 3.5kg) suggests ___.

Back 7

three embryos implanted but one failed to develop.

Front 8

Dietary energy supply relative to metabolic demands can be determined in late gestation by ______.

Back 8

measuring the ewe's serum 3-OH butyrate concentration.

Front 9

Elevated 3-OH butyrate suggests _____.

Back 9

inefficient fatty acid utilisation due to the high glucose demand of developing foetuses and inadequate dietary proprionate or glucogenic amino acid supply of the ewe.

Front 10

What is the target 3OH-butyrate concentration in pregnant ewes?

Back 10

<0.8mmol/l

Front 11

What is the metabolisable energy (ME) of body weight loss in a ewe?

Back 11

36MJ

Front 12

What is the metabolisable energy (ME) of barley?

Back 12

12MJ (costs £100/tonne)

Front 13

An 3-OH butyrate level of >3.0mmol/l is diagnostic of ____ in the ewe.

Back 13

pregnancy toxaemia

Front 14

___ is a measure of short term protein intake.

Back 14

BUN

Front 15

___ is a measure of long term protein statuse.

Back 15

Albumin

Front 16

Lower albumin levels are normal in late gestation as what occurs?

Back 16

The manufacture of immunoglobulins and their accumulation in the udder.

Front 17

Name some pathological causes of post-partum lamb mortality.

Back 17

-distocia
-starvation
-mismothering
-hypothermia

Front 18

Name some physiological causes of post-partum lamb mortality.

Back 18

-inadequate prenatal nutrition
-birth stress
-inadequate post-partum nutrition

Front 19

A 5kg lamb requires ___ of colostrum during its first 24hrs.

Back 19

1L

Front 20

Describe the demeanor of a lamb with:
a) rectal temperature 39-40°C
b) rectal temperature 37-39°C
c) rectal temperature <37°C

Back 20

a) healthy, suckling
b) weak, suckling
c) weak, arched back, hollow flanks, unable to suckle

Front 21

What are some common causes of ill thrift in the weaned lamb?

Back 21

-poor nutrition
-parasitic gastroenteritis
-cobalt deficiency
-selenium deficiency
-liver fluke
-respiratory disease
-lameness
-sheep scab
-coccidiosis
-brassica poisoning
-border disease

Front 22

___ sheep have decreased cobalt requirements.

Back 22

Pre-ruminant

Front 23

Soil pH above ___ can affect cobalt availability.

Back 23

5.8-6.3

Front 24

Pasture grown on waterlogged soil has a _____ than pasture grown on well drained soil.

Back 24

higher cobalt concentration

Front 25

Methylmalonic acid (MMA) accumulates in the plasma of cobalt deficient sheep as a result of ____.

Back 25

reduced Vit B12 co-enzyme activity

Front 26

Describe the pathophysiology of "Watery mouth" in lambs in relation to colostrum intake.

Back 26

Reduced colostrum intake not only decreases the immunoglobulins acquired by the lamb, but leads to the abomasal pH remaining neutral. Without the protective acidity of the abomasum, E. coli can rapidly divided and release endotoxins leading to disease.

Front 27

The main pathogenic role of enteric viruses (coronavirus, rotavirus) in neonatal lambs is ______.

Back 27

to enable the establishment of other enteric infections.

Front 28

Outbreaks of salmonellosis due to S. typhimurium or S. dublin are ___ in neonatal lambs.

Back 28

rare

Front 29

Why does enterotoxigenic E. coli only affect lambs less than 48hr old?

Back 29

The intestinal mucosa of the lamb only has receptors for the K99 adherence pili for the first 2 days of life.

Front 30

What bacteria is implicated in neonatal lamb polyarthritis (joint ill)?

Back 30

Streptococcus dysgalactiae

Front 31

Pain upon abdominal palpation of a neonatal lamb with a warm, discharging umbilicus indicates ____.

Back 31

infection has traveled up the umbilicus along the round ligament of the bladder or falciform ligament to the liver.

Front 32

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae infection in lambs can cause fibrinous polyarthrities, osteomyelitis, and even endocarditis. Why is this bacteria difficult to get rid of?

Back 32

It can survive for long periods in the soil at low temperatures.

Front 33

"White spot" abscesses in the liver of a neonatal lamb are indicative of what disease?

Back 33

Necrobacillosis (Fusobacterium necrophorum)

Front 34

A lamb born with scant wool that lacks crimp is suggestive of ___ deficiency.

Back 34

iodine

Front 35

Steely white wool in a sheep is suggestive of _____ deficiency.

Back 35

copper

Front 36

What causes mastitis in the ewe?

Back 36

Teat injury from poor milk production and overnursing or trauma allows the invasion of Staphylococcus aureus (skin commensal) or Mannheimia haemolytica (oral commensal).

Front 37

Only 2 of the 9 species of coccidia in sheep are pathogenic. What are they?

Back 37

Eimeria crandallis and E. ovinoidalis

Front 38

Which two sites in the ram are prone to urethral obstruction?

Back 38

-Vermiform appendage
-Sigmoid flexure

Front 39

Why should ewe rations never be fed to rams or whethers?

Back 39

Ewe rations high in magnesium and cereals and beet pulp (low Ca and high Phosph) can induce urinary calculi.

Front 40

Louping ill is a diffuse, non-suppurative meningoencephalomyelitis caused by ________.

Back 40

flavivirus transmitted by Ixodes ricinus

Front 41

Tick pyaemia is a bacteraemia and joint ill due to _____.

Back 41

the injection of Staph. aureus by feeding Ixodes ricinus and potentiated by E. phagocytophilia.

Front 42

What is the causative agent of tick-borne fever in the UK?

Back 42

Erlichia phagocytophilia transmitted by Ixodes ricinus ticks.

Front 43

Name two primary organisms associated with ovine infectious keratoconjunctivitis.

Back 43

-Mycoplasma conjunctivae
-Chlamydophila psittaci

Front 44

Name a common cause of traumatic keratitis in lambs.

Back 44

Entropion

Front 45

"Bright blindness", or progressive neuroretinal degeneration in sheep, is due to _____.

Back 45

chronic bracken ingestion.

Front 46

Listerial uveitis in the sheep is associated with ____.

Back 46

feeding silage

Front 47

What is the site targeted for local infiltration of anaesthetic for a third eyelid flap in the sheep?

Back 47

Auriculopalpebral block - where the dorsal border of the zygomatic arch meets the base of the ear.

Front 48

What is the site targeted for local infiltration of anaesthetic for enucleation in the sheep?

Back 48

Retrobulbar block

Front 49

What congenital ocular abnormality is seen in texcel sheep?

Back 49

Congenital Microophthalmia

Front 50

What factors can act as triggers to bring about clinical respiratory disease with Mannheimia haemolytica?

Back 50

-Environmental conditions (temperature, poor ventilation, dust)
-Stress (handling, weaning)
-Reduced immunity (parasitism, etc)
-PI3 virus
-SPA
-Mycoplasma/Bordatella

Front 51

Name the three organisms associated with "Pasteurellosis" in sheep.

Back 51

-Mannheimia haemolytica
-Bibersteinia trehalosi
-Pasteruella multocisa

Front 52

Which "pasteruella" is responsible for the most common cause of sudden death in weaned lambs?

Back 52

Bibersteinia trehalosi

Front 53

Which non-progressive chronic pneumonia in sheep shows lymphocytic cuffing on histoloy?

Back 53

Atypical Pneumonia cased by Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae (and maybe Chlamydophila psittaci)

Front 54

What is the most pathogenic lungworm in sheep?

Back 54

Dictocaulus filaria

Front 55

Dictyocaulus filaria, Meullerius capillaris, and Protostrongylus refuscens are the three lungworms found in sheep. Where do each cause lung pathology?

Back 55

Dictyocaulus filaria: bronchi
Meullerius capillaris: alveoli
Protostrongylus rufescens: bronchioles

Front 56

Hyperglobulinaemia (>50g/l) in sheep indicates ____ such as ____.

Back 56

chronic infection; chronic suppurative pneumonia

Front 57

Name the infectious tumour that affects type 2 pneumocytes and Clara cells in sheep.

Back 57

Sheep Pulmonary Adenomatosis (Jaagsiekte)

Front 58

Name an important lentivirus in sheep that can cause four distinct syndromes.

Back 58

Maedi Visna!
Maedi- respiratory disease
Visna- neurological disease
mastitis
arthritis

Front 59

What upper respiratory condition is seen in short necked sheep breeds such as texels and suffolk in which trauma leads to edema, mucosal ulceration, and abscessation of the arytenoids?

Back 59

Laryngeal chondritis

Front 60

What condition in sheep is characterized by sneezing, head shaking, mucopurulent nasal discharge, and gadding?

Back 60

Nasal bot infestation - Oestrus ovis

Front 61

Abortion levels greater than ___ in sheep signal a likely infectious cause.

Back 61

2%

Front 62

What are the losses to the sheep farmer in terms of abortion rate and gross margin?

Back 62

1% abortion rate is a 2% loss of Gross Margin

Front 63

What advice would you give to a sheep farmer when dealing with an abortion?

Back 63

-Isolate the ewe
-dispose of abortion products by incineration or deep burial after samples are collected
-Observe strict hygiene as most causes are zoonotic

Front 64

What should be kept in mind when submitting samples for an abortion investigation in sheep?

Back 64

-collect fresh samples with minimal contamination
-collect samples from fetus and placenta
-take vaginal swabs and blood from the ewe if no abortion products remain
-supply several sets of samples for multiple investigations

Front 65

What is the most common cause of infective abortion in ewes in the UK?

Back 65

Enzootic Abortion of Ewes (EAE) due to Chlamydophila abortus

Front 66

In Enzootic Abortion of Ewes, infected ewes will abort ____.

Back 66

-in the last 2-3 weeks of gestation if infected in early pregnancy
-in the last 2-3 weeks of the following year's gestation if infected in late pregnancy or non-pregnant

Front 67

What is the second most common cause of abortion in UK sheep?

Back 67

Toxoplasmosis (T. gondii)

Front 68

Which type of abortion in the ewe is characterized by a wide range of signs from barren ewes to clinically normal but infected lambs depending on stage of gestation in which infection takes place?

Back 68

Toxoplasmosis

Front 69

In non-pregnant ewes, Toxoplasmosis will cause _____.

Back 69

long term immunity

Front 70

What cause of abortion in sheep is characterized by systemic illness of the ewe and a severely autolysed fetus and placenta?

Back 70

Salmonellosis (S. typhimurium, S. dublin, S. montevideo, S. abortus ovis)

Front 71

What is the causative agent of "Vibrionic abortion" in ewes?

Back 71

Campylobacter fetus fetus (intestinalis) or C. jejuni

Front 72

Border Disease is a pestivirus causing abortion in ewes and related to what two other disease in different species?

Back 72

-BVD in cattle
-Swine Fever in pigs

Front 73

If a ewe becomes infected with Border disease before ____ days of gestation, the fetus will either die, or the lamb born will be persistently infected.

Back 73

60

Front 74

Ewes infected with Border Disease after ____ days gestation will have normal lambs.

Back 74

85

Front 75

_____ abortion in sheep is associated with feeding poor quality silage (pH>5).

Back 75

Listerial (L ivanovii and L. monocytogenes sensu stricto)

Front 76

Ewes and does are seasonal polyoestrus short day breeders, and exhibit peak fertility around _____.

Back 76

October/November

Front 77

Breeding outside of the natural season for a doe or ewe results in ___ and ___.

Back 77

lower fertility and lower prolificacy

Front 78

What is the average oestrus cycle of a ewe? A doe?

Back 78

Ewe: 16-17 days
Doe: 19-20 days

Front 79

How long is the follicular phase of the oestrus cycle in a ewe?

Back 79

3-4 days

Front 80

In the pregnant ewe, progesterone is supplied by the ____, whereas the ____ produces progesterone in the doe.

Back 80

placenta; corpus luteum

Front 81

What disease of weaned lambs is characterized by blindness, dorsiflexion of the neck, hyperexcitability, and convulsions and response to thiamine treatment is marked?

Back 81

Polioencephalomalacia (Cerebrocortical Necrosis)

Front 82

What would be seen in the CSF of a lamb with a brain abscess?

Back 82

Elevated protein and white blood cell concentrations

Front 83

What are the three main clinical signs in encephalitis due to Listeria?

Back 83

-Depression (Ascending Reticular Activating System)
-Circling (vestibulo-cochlear nucleus)
-Ipsilateral hemiparesis (damage to long tracts)

Front 84

L. ____ can cause encephalitis as infection travels _____.

Back 84

monocytogenes; up the trigeminal nerve

Front 85

Listeria infection in pre-ruminant animals leads to ______.

Back 85

visceral listeriosis (septicaemia)

Front 86

Give three clinical signs seen in a sheep with unilateral vestibular disease.

Back 86

-Head tilt towards the lesion
-Horizontal nystagmus with fast phase away from lesion
-Ipsilateral facial nerve paralysis

Front 87

How is sarcocystis in sheep diagnosed?

Back 87

By histopathology on the central nervous system

Front 88

How is cerebellar abiotrophy diagnosed?

Back 88

By histopathology showing widespread Purkinje cell degeneration in the cerebellum.

Front 89

What disease might you suspect given the following clinical signs:
-lack of inflammatory cells on CSF tap
-cerebellar dysfunction
-transient collapse

Back 89

Scrapie

Front 90

What are the differences between the brain and spinal cord forms of visna in sheep?

Back 90

Brain form: head tilt, circling towards affected side, hypermetria
Spinal cord form: hypmetria, reduced flexion of distal limbs, reduced weight bearing in one pelvic limb with knuckling of fetlock

Front 91

What is the average incidence of Footrot in sheep in the UK?

Back 91

10%

Front 92

What is the cost to the UK sheep industry for Footrot?

Back 92

£24 million per year
-£14 mill for prevention
-£4 mill for treatment
-£7 mill for production loss

Front 93

Name five diseases associated with Fusobacterium necrophorum infection in sheep.

Back 93

-Neonatal necrobacillosis
-Footrot
-Interdigital Dermatitis
-Septic Pedal Arthritis
-White Line Abscess

Front 94

What is the causative agent of Footrot in sheep?

Back 94

synergism between Dichelobacter nodusus and Fusobacterium necrophorum

Front 95

Outline treatments for Footrot in sheep.

Back 95

-gentle foot paring with oxytetracycline spray
-footbathing (3% formalin or 10% zinc sulphate)
-vaccination (Footvax)
-antibiotics (treatment of choice) such as oxytet or pen/strep

Front 96

What treatment can increase the severity of Ovine Digital Dermatitis?

Back 96

Formalin footbathing

Front 97

Motile spirochaetes have been implicated in which sheep foot disease?

Back 97

Ovine digital dermatitis

Front 98

Describe three ways in which toxoplasma gondii infection in the doe differs from the ewe.

Back 98

-no immunity develops in goats
-abortions may occur at subsequent pregnancies
-public health risk as tachyzoites are passed in milk

Front 99

What is the best treatment for septic pedal arthritis in sheep?

Back 99

Digital amputation

Front 100

What disease of the sheep limb is thought to be caused by excessive paring?

Back 100

Toe granuloma

Front 101

What condition of the sheep foot is suggested when purulent discharge is seen at the coronary band?

Back 101

White line abscess (toe abscess)

Front 102

Interdigital fibromas are thought to be ______ in tups.

Back 102

inherited

Front 103

Clostridium perfingens type B causes which disease in sheep?

Back 103

Lamb dysentery due to effects of beta and epsilon toxins

Front 104

Clostridium perfingens type D causes which disease in sheep?

Back 104

Pulpy kidney due to effects of epsilon toxin

Front 105

Clostridium perfingens type C causes which disease in sheep?

Back 105

Struck due to effects of beta toxin

Front 106

Clostridium sordelli causes which disease in sheep?

Back 106

Abomasitis

Front 107

Clostridium chauvei causes which disease in cattle and sheep?

Back 107

Blackleg

Front 108

Clostridium novyi type B causes which disease in sheep and sometimes cattle?

Back 108

Black disease

Front 109

What is the only clostridial disease in sheep that responds well to treatment?

Back 109

Malignant oedema responds to penicillin treatment

Front 110

Which clostridial disease is caused by the ingestion of toxin rather than organisms?

Back 110

Botulism
-type C & D in poultry litter
-type B in carcass contaminated feed (silage)

Front 111

For which clostridial disease is there no vaccine available?

Back 111

Botulism

Front 112

______ is the first organism to overgrow after death and may obscure diagnostic tests/cultures.

Back 112

Clostridium septicum

Front 113

What disease in cattle is caused by Clostridium novyi type C?

Back 113

Bacillary Haemoglobinuria (Redwater)