R(D)Svs Icc-Fa Pigs

Front 1

What information is recorded in the health records of a swine unit?

Back 1

-Problem
-Number treated, date, dose
-Number of deaths/culls
-Vaccinations

Front 2

What is the average earning for finished pigs per sow per year?

Back 2

£1,400

Front 3

What is the average price per sow?

Back 3

£60

Front 4

What is the price for finished pigs in the UK?

Back 4

60-134p/kg dead weight (currently 136p/kg)

Front 5

What is the major cost for a pig producor?

Back 5

Feed (60-70% of total farm costs)

Front 6

What are some key biosecurity factors on a pig farm?

Back 6

-Location: 3km from another pig unit
-Secure perimeter fence
-Isolation offsite for new stock: 4weeks
-Loading bay
-Transport
-Visitors
-Feed lorries outwith the perimeter fence
-Bedding materials
-Vermin control
-Personnel not to come into contact with other pigs
-No pork products on the unit
-Dead pigs disposed of properly

Front 7

What diseases are SPF pigs free from?

Back 7

-Enzootic pneumonia (M. hyopneumoniae)
-Pleuropneumonia (Actiobacillus pleuropneumoniae)
-Atrophic rhinitis (toxigenic P. multocida)
-Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)
-Streptococcal meningitis (Strep suis II)
-Mange (Sarcoptes scabei)

Front 8

"High Health Status" pigs may carry what disease?

Back 8

enzootic pneumonia

Front 9

How often must a pig farm be inspected by a veterinarian?

Back 9

4 times a year

Front 10

What should a vet visit to a pig farm include?

Back 10

-Inspection of records
-Evaluation of husbandry system
-Clinical inspection of animals
-Laboratory testing if needed
-Post mortem evaluation

Front 11

The abattoir monitoring scheme involves the quarterly monitoring of slaughtered pigs by a vet for what diseases?

Back 11

-Pneumonia
-Atrophic rhinitis
-Mange
-White spot livers (ascarids)

Front 12

At what level is a pig's snout sawn to invetigate atrophic rhinitis?

Back 12

At the level of premolar teeth 1/2

Front 13

What is the highest score possible when grading pig lungs for pneumonia?

Back 13

55

Front 14

What is the optimal backfat measurement in a pig?

Back 14

12mm

Front 15

What is the maximum gradient on a lorry loading ramp for a pig unit?

Back 15

20%

Front 16

What is the optimum body condition score for a pig at farrowing?

Back 16

3.5-4

Front 17

What is the optimal piglet body weight at weaning (4 weeks)?

Back 17

7-8kg

Front 18

What is the optimal ambient temperature for an adult pig?

Back 18

15-20°C

Front 19

What is the water requirement for a lactating sow?

Back 19

15-30L

Front 20

What is the minimum space on a lorry per finished pig?

Back 20

0.4sqm/100kg

Front 21

What is the age of gilts at first service?

Back 21

220 days

Front 22

What is the weaning to service time for a sow?

Back 22

7 days

Front 23

How many litters should a sow have per year?

Back 23

2.5

Front 24

How many piglets should be born alive per litter?

Back 24

10.9

Front 25

How many piglets should a sow wean per year?

Back 25

27

Front 26

What is the daily gain for a piglet?

Back 26

570gm

Front 27

What is the feed conversion rate for a piglet?

Back 27

2.2

Front 28

What is the net energy requirement for a 45kg growing pig?

Back 28

17.54MJ/d

Front 29

Protein requirements for pigs are expressed in terms of ____ with the other amino acids in balance.

Back 29

standardised ileal digestible lysine

Front 30

Statutory Declaration Labels on pig feed must include:

Back 30

-Protein
-Fibre
-Ash
-Vitamins A, D, E
-Lysine
-Copper
-Ingredient list
-Best before date

Front 31

Name some environmental factors that can affect the health and performance of a sow.

Back 31

-Poor building/farrowing crate design
-Change in temperature or season
-Poor outdoor conditions
-Inadequate water

Front 32

Name some management factors that can affect the health and performance of a sow.

Back 32

-Improper techniques for introducing sows and gilts into groups
-Allowing vices to develop
-Poor hygiene
-Poor stockmanship/health program

Front 33

Name some nutritional factors that can affect the health and performance of a sow.

Back 33

-insufficient feed/energy in relation to ambient temperature and body condition
-incorrect feeding at different production stages
-Insufficient feed space

Front 34

What is the target time for culling sows?

Back 34

When they reach parity 6 or 7.

Front 35

Define "farrowing rate".

Back 35

The number of sows which farrow to the number of servies in a given period.

Front 36

When do most reproductive failures in sows occur?

Back 36

At conception

Front 37

What is the target for sows returning to service at 21 days?

Back 37

<6%

Front 38

What is the target for sows with irregular returns to service (>24 days)?

Back 38

<3%

Front 39

What factors should be considered when investigating reproductive problems on a pig unit?

Back 39

-Sow condition
-Service management
-Boar usage
-AI usage
-Seasonal effets
-Pregnancy testing
-Farrowing house management
-Culling policy
-Gilt replacement
-Acuracy of data recording

Front 40

Anoestrus is one of the most common reproductive disorders in pigs. Gilts >____ or sows >_____ without signs of estrus are consider to be in anoestrus.

Back 40

8 months old; 10 days post weaning

Front 41

Type I stillbirths are often the result of _____.

Back 41

infectious causes

Front 42

Oxytocin ___ induce farrowing in sows and gilts.

Back 42

will not

Front 43

Name some organisms associated with vaginal discharge syndrome in pigs.

Back 43

-A. pyogenes
-E.coli
-Streptococci
-Pseudomonas
-Eubacterium suis

Front 44

A vaginal discharge in the sow 7 days after service is indicative of ____.

Back 44

normal seminal debris

Front 45

Once a sow has acquired coliform mastitis she is _____ to get the disease again.

Back 45

just as likely (no protective immunity forms)

Front 46

____ is the cause of agalactia in sows with coliform mastitis.

Back 46

Endotoxaemia

Front 47

PRRS stands for ____.

Back 47

Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome

Front 48

The causative organism in PRRS is ____.

Back 48

an arterivirus (RNA virus)

Front 49

Of the 3 strains of Swine Influenza which one is the most common in the UK?

Back 49

195852 (avian like strain)

Front 50

Which viruses in pigs areassociated with the SMEDI syndrome?

Back 50

Porcine parvovirus and Porcine Inclusion Body Rhinitis

(Stillbirths
Mummification
Embryonic Death
Infertility)

Front 51

In Porcine Parvovirus, foetal mummification occurs from the _____ end to the ____ of the sow's reproductive tract.

Back 51

ovarian; cervical

Front 52

If infection with Porcine Parvovirus occurs at ______ of gestation, foetal mummification is likely.

Back 52

days 35 through 70

Front 53

Name the causative agents of Porcine Leptospirosis in the UK vs North America.

Back 53

UK: Leptospira bratislava (rarely L. canicola and L. icterohaemorrhagiae)
NA: L. pomona and L. icterohaemorrhagiae

Front 54

By UK law, piglets must not be weaned before day ___.

Back 54

28

Front 55

Name two diseases more common in outdoor pig units.

Back 55

-Leptospirosis
-Clostridium perfingens typce C

Front 56

Neonatal colibacillosis is caused by ___ or ____.

Back 56

enterotoxigenic E. coli or vero-toxignic E. coli

Front 57

How is heritable resistance to enteric colibacillosis achieved?

Back 57

This is an autosomal recessive trait is some pigs in which the receptor for K88 or F18 fimbriae on the epithelial brush border is not produced.

Front 58

What is the most common age for presentation with enteric colibacillosis in pigs?

Back 58

birth to 4 days

Front 59

Which sero groups of rotavirus can cause disease in pigs?

Back 59

Sero groups A, B, C and E

Front 60

Colostral antibodies _____ piglets against clinical coccidiosis, but infection ___ immunity.

Back 60

do not protect; confers

Front 61

Isospora suis oocysts can be detected in feces ___ after infection.

Back 61

5-7 days
(diarrhea is seen for days prior to oocysts in feces)

Front 62

Necrotizing beta toxin produced by Clostridium perfingens type C is sensitive to ____ which is not produced by the porcine small intestine until 4 days of age.

Back 62

trypsin

Front 63

A farmer brings you a dead piglet that was born the previous day. You conduct a post mortem and find intesely hemorrhagic small intestines and bloody fluid in the abdominal cavity. You suspect ____.

Back 63

Clostridium perfingens type C infection

Front 64

Fecal examination to confirm cryptosporidiosis in the piglet can be done ____.

Back 64

10 days post infection

Front 65

What two factors at weaning can result in diarrhea?

Back 65

-Decreased height of intestinal villi reduces absorptive capacity
-Loss of protective effects of secretory IgA from sow's milk

Front 66

What is the target body weight for a piglet at weaning?

Back 66

8.5kg

Front 67

Piglets should be grouped according to size in pens with approximately ___ at weaning.

Back 67

20 pigs

Front 68

Post-weaning E. coli diarrhoea in pigs is caused most commonly by the K88 strain, while the F18 strain causes ___.

Back 68

"oedema disease"

Front 69

Toxaemia associated with E. coli infection post-weaning in pigs may result in neuroloical signs due to ___.

Back 69

cerebrovascular angiopathy

Front 70

Proliferative enteropathy in pigs is due to Lawsonia intracellularis invading the ____.

Back 70

epithelial cells of the small and large intestine

Front 71

Lawsonia intracellularis can cause three syndromes in pigs - what are they?

Back 71

-Proliferative Enteropathy
-Proliferative Haemorrhagic Enteropathy (in heavy infection)
-Necrotic Enteritis and regional ileitis (due to secondary bacterial infection)

Front 72

Swine dysentery is caused by ______ and results in blood, mucus, and mucofibrinous exudate in diarrhea.

Back 72

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Front 73

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in growing/finishing pigs in the UK?

Back 73

Porcine Colonic Spirochaetosis (Brachyspira pilosicoli)

Front 74

What disease does the "Meat Juice" ELISA monitor?

Back 74

Salmonellosis - 20% of pigs have this in their cecum at slaughter

Front 75

Name three parasites that can cause enteritis and colitis in pigs.

Back 75

-Ascaris suum
-Trichuris suis
-Oesophagostomum spp.

Front 76

Gastric ulceration can be common in pigs 3-6 months of age. Ulcers may be seen on the ____.

Back 76

pars oesophagea

Front 77

What "abdominal accident" is more commonly seen in adult sows?

Back 77

Hepatic lobe torsion

Front 78

You visit a pig unit and find a room of piglets born the week before are sneezing. What do you suspect?

Back 78

Bordetella bronchiseptica or Porcine Inclusion Body Rhinitis

Front 79

Turbinate atrophy associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica in pigs ____ after infection.

Back 79

resolves

Front 80

You visit a pig unit and notice some of the weaners and growers have a "barking" cough. What do you suspect?

Back 80

Enzootic pneumonia (Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae)

Front 81

Name three factors that exacerbate the clinical signs of enzootic pneumonia in pigs.

Back 81

-co-infection with other agents
-over stocking
-poor ventilation

Front 82

Of the 14 serotypes of Actinobacillus pleropneumoniae, which ones are seen in the UK? Which ones are the most virulent?

Back 82

3, 6, and 8 in the UK
1, 3 and 5 are most virulent

Front 83

What two things can readily kill Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae organisms?

Back 83

-Heat
-Dessication

Front 84

PCR testing for Porcine Pleuropneumonia detects _____.

Back 84

the ApxIV gene of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

Front 85

Which disease of pigs is monitored at the slaughterhouse using the "55 point plan"?

Back 85

Enzootic pneumonia

Front 86

Pleurisy lesions caused by Pleuropneumonia (A. pleuropneumoniae) in pigs ____ after treatment.

Back 86

persist

Front 87

In which two diseases of pigs is herd depopulation highly advised in eradicating disease?

Back 87

-Swine dysentery
-Pleuropneumonia

Front 88

What are the four most common viral respiratory diseases in pigs?

Back 88

-Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome
-Swine Influenza
-Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus
-Porcine Circovirus type 2

Front 89

Pasteurella multocida type A causes ____ in pigs.

Back 89

pneumonia

Front 90

Pasteurella multocida type D causes ___ in pigs.

Back 90

Atrophic rhinitis

Front 91

The PCR used to confirm Atrophic Rhinitis in pigs detects _____.

Back 91

tox A of P. multocida type D

Front 92

Which serovars of Streptococcus suis are the most important?

Back 92

1, 1/2, 2 (meningitis), 9, and 14

Front 93

In which disease of pigs are tranquilizers indicated to alleviate symptoms?

Back 93

Meningitis associated with Streptococcus suis

Front 94

"Exudative Dermatitis" in pigs is caused by _____.

Back 94

Staph hyicus (Greasy Pig Disease)

Front 95

Glässer's disease in pigs is characterised by fibrinous polyserositis in weaner and growers, and is caused by _____.

Back 95

Haemophilus parasuis

Front 96

There are 14 serovars of Glässer's disease, but only _____ are found in the UK.

Back 96

4 and 5

Front 97

Pigs that recover from Swine Erysipelas develop immunity but the antibodies do not ______.

Back 97

cross the joint capsules so joint infections may persist

Front 98

Mycoplasma hyosynoviae causes ____ in growers and finishers.

Back 98

arthritis

Front 99

Transmissable Gastroenteritis is less prevalent in the UK than in North America because of the presence of ___.

Back 99

Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus

Front 100

It is recommended that piglets with TGE _____.

Back 100

be euthanased

Front 101

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea, similar to TGE, is characterized by _____ 1-2 days prior to the onset of diarrhea.

Back 101

a drop in feed

Front 102

Porcine Inclusion Body Rhinitis causes rhinitis in piglets, but can also cause ____ in sows.

Back 102

SMEDI syndrome

Front 103

Congenital Tremor Type A3 is a rare hereditary condition seen in _____.

Back 103

male Landrace pigs

Front 104

Congenital Tremor Type A4 is a rare hereditary condition seen in _____.

Back 104

British Saddleback pigs

Front 105

Congenital Tremor Type A5 is due to ____.

Back 105

toxins (take care when treating pregnant sows with organophosphates)

Front 106

Piglets suffering from Congenital Tremor Type A2 will ____.

Back 106

most likely make a full recovery if they survive the first 7 days

Front 107

Porcine Multisystemic Wasting Syndrome is associated with Porcine Circovirus Type 2 and another stimulant to the immune system (ie parvovirus, PRRS, bacteria) and is characterized by the virus localizing in what tissues?

Back 107

-Lymphoid tissue (especially follicles and B cells)
-Lungs
-Kidneys

Front 108

What is the most common skin condition in pigs?

Back 108

Mange caused by sarcoptes scabei var suis

Front 109

What condition in pigs is characterized by an allergic type dermatitis in weaners that resolves over 1-2 months?

Back 109

Pityriasis Rosea

Front 110

Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome is due to ____.

Back 110

immune complex deposition

Front 111

Zinc deficiency or high phytic acid in the diet (from soya or wheat) causes what condition in pigs?

Back 111

Parakeratosis

Front 112

Osteochondrosis is a common degenerative joint disease in pigs, mostly affecting ____.

Back 112

the medial aspect of the largest weight bearing bones

Front 113

Why do some pigs that have been elecrocuted dog sit?

Back 113

They tend to break their backs at the thoracolumbar junction

Front 114

The Movement of Pigs Order has helped to limit the spread of notifiable diseases. Describe this mandate.

Back 114

Pigs must not be moved off a farm within 21 days of arrival.

Front 115

Classical Swine Fever is caused by a ___ which degenerates _____cells.

Back 115

Togavirus (pestivirus); endothelial

Front 116

Compare the aetiologies of Classical Swine Fever and African Swine Fever.

Back 116

CSF: caused by a pestivirus; direct, aerosol and transplacental transmission.
ASF: soft tick born iridovirus; direct transmission

Front 117

Foot and Mouth Disease in pigs is caused by ____.

Back 117

an aphtovirus

Front 118

What is the first presenting sign of a pig with suspected FMD?

Back 118

Pallor of the snout prior to vesicle eruption.

Front 119

Which disease spurred the introduction of the 21 day movement ban on pigs?

Back 119

Swine Vesicular Disease

Front 120

Swine Vesicular Disease is caused by _____ and is indistinguishable from ____.

Back 120

an enterovirus; FMD

Front 121

Vesicular Exanthema of Swine is caused by ______.

Back 121

calicivirus

Front 122

Which disease in pigs is related to San Miguel Sealion Virus?

Back 122

Vesicular Exanthema of Swine

Front 123

Anthrax is caused by _____.

Back 123

bacillus anthracis

Front 124

A methylene blue slide shows square ened bacilli with pink/blue capsules - what do you suspect?

Back 124

Anthrax

Front 125

What are the three forms of Anthrax in the pig?

Back 125

Pharyngeal form
Intestinal form
Septicaemic form

Front 126

Aujeszky's Disease in pigs is caused by ______.

Back 126

a herpesvirus

Front 127

How long does villous restoration take in a pig recovering from clinical enteric disease?

Back 127

5-10d

Front 128

How often is abattoir monitoring done for each herd in British Pig scheme/Wholesome pigs Scotland scheme?

Back 128

Once every 3 months

Front 129

What type of flooring systems are most commonly associated with enteric disease in pigs?

Back 129

Straw, solid floor +/-scraper,

Front 130

Which defined health status would give you the most healthy pigs?

Back 130

"Minimal disease"

Front 131

What is the treatment of choice for coccidiosis in piglets?

Back 131

Toltrazuril

Front 132

What is the avg growth rate of grow/finish pigs in the UK (g/day)?

Back 132

650gm

Front 133

What is the most common serotype of E.coli causing neonatal colibacillosis in pigs in the UK?

Back 133

K88

Front 134

Name some potential sources of enteric infections in pigs?

Back 134

-vehicles
-fomites
-visitors
-carrier pigs
-vermin
-birds

Front 135

At what age is rotavirus diarrhea most commonly seen in pigs?

Back 135

5-14 days

Front 136

How would you describe the genetic trait for E.coli K88 resistance in pigs?

Back 136

Autosomal recessive

Front 137

Approximately how much villus atrophy occurs in piglets as a physiological response to weaning?

Back 137

50%

Front 138

Gastric ulceration of pars esophagia in pigs is caused by:

Back 138

-High wheat diets
-fine particle size
-pelleted feed
-low fiber content of diet

Front 139

Name some therapeutic agents that can be used to treat porcine hemorrhagic enteropathy (PHE) caused by L.intracellularis?

Back 139

-Tiamulin
-Tylosin
-Chortetracycline

Front 140

“White spot” liver in pigs are caused by which parasitic infection?

Back 140

Ascaris suum

Front 141

“Button ulcers” in the colonic mucosa in pigs are:

Back 141

-Sometimes seen in pigs w/PDNS
-A possible indicator of CSF

Front 142

What type of sample can be used for Salmonella serology in pigs?

Back 142

-Meat juice
-Serum