Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
156 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The large intestine of the horse reabsorbs approx _____ per day.
|
100L
|
|
|
Name 5 mechanisms of diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-Malabsorption
-Increased secretion (of solute and water by inflamed colon) -Abnormal motility -Osmotic overload -Increased hydraulic pressure |
|
|
Name three causes of acute infectious diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-Salmonella typhimurium
-Clostridium perfingens -Clostridium difficile (assoc'd with erythromycin therapy) |
|
|
What are the four syndromes recognized in the horse with salmonellosis?
|
-latent carrier state
-depression, fever, anorexia, and neutropaenia -enterocolitis with diarrhoea -septicaemia (+/- diarrhoea) |
|
|
Name two toxic causes of acute diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-NSAIDs
-arsenic |
|
|
Name three miscellaneous causes of acute diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-anaphylaxis
-carbohydrate overload -antibiotic use |
|
|
Name three infectious causes of chronic diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-salmonellosis
-cyathostomiasis -Lawsonia intracellularis |
|
|
Name two inflammatory causes of chronic diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-sand ingestion
-NSAID toxicity |
|
|
Name three infiltrative disorders that cause chronic diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-granulomatous enteritis
-lymphocytic/plasmacytic enteritis -multisystemic eosinophilic epitheliotropic disease |
|
|
Name three non-GI related causes of chronic diarrhoea in the horse.
|
-liver disease
-congestive heart failure -renal disease |
|
|
Name some important clinical findings in a horse with acute diarrhoea.
|
-ventral oedema
-fever -dehydration -endotoxaemia -abdominal distension -abnormal auscultation -laminitis |
|
|
Name some important clinical pathology findings in a horse with acute diarrhoea.
|
-PCV (elevated with dehydration)
-leucopenia (neutropenia w/left shift and toxic changes, thrombocytopenia) and coagulopathies -serum proteins (lower albumin, raised globulin) -acid-base status -electrolyte abnormalities -serum BUN |
|
|
Name some clinical indications of dehydration in the horse.
|
-increased skin turgor
-increase CRT -sunken eyes -dry mucous membranes |
|
|
Name some clinical indications of endotoxaemia in the horse.
|
-injected mucous membranes
-tachycardia -prolonged CRT -poor pulse quality |
|
|
What are the 4 priorities in treating acute diarrhoea in the horse?
|
-replace fluid losses
-replace electrolyte losses -replace protein losses -acid/base collection |
|
|
Name some general treatment approaches for acute diarrhoea in the horse. (9)
|
-Correct fluid, electrolyte, and protein losses
-Control colonic inflammation and reduce secretion -Promote mucosal repair -Analgesia -Antibiotics -Anticoagulation -Re-establish normal flora -Nutrition |
|
|
Name some general treatment approaches for chronic undifferentiated diarrhoea in the horse. (5)
|
-Discontinue NSAIDs or Antibiotics
-Change diet -Re-establish normal flora -Larvicidal dose of anthelmintics -Corticosteroids |
|
|
Horses exhibiting "false colic" may actually be painful due to:
|
-Cholangiohepatitis
-Pleuritis -Peritonitis |
|
|
Horses are said to be in severe colic (as opposed to mild or moderate) when they begin to:
|
-sweat
-roll -self-inflict trauma |
|
|
Name the three categories of causes of colic in the horse.
|
-Obstruction of ingesta or gas flow within the bowel
-Obstruction of blood flow to the bowel -Both |
|
|
Name some clinical examination that can be carried out in a suspected horse with colic.
|
-Degree & nature of pain (visceral)
-Abdominal distension (large colon or caecum in adults) -Rectal Temperature (shock, inflamm) -Heart/pulse rate and quality (toxic, dehydrated) -MMC & CRT (toxic, anemic) -Changes on abdominal ausculation -Digital pulses increased -Temperature of distal extremeties (poor perfusion) -Muscle tremors -Faeces (abn consistency or contents) -Rectal exam ->2L refluxed with nasogastric tube placement -Abdominal paracentesis -Blood/faecal analysis |
|
|
Name some specific causes of colic in the horse that may be felt during rectal palpation.
|
-Impaction of pelvic flexture (very common)
-Small intestinal distension -Caecal intussusception -Large intestinal gaseous obstruction -Nephrosplenic entrapment of large colon -Intra-abdominal abscess or neoplasia |
|
|
Name some clinical indications for surgery or euthanasia in colic horses. (7)
|
-unrelenting pain
-pulse >60; progressively rising and weakening -progressive cardiovascular collapse; PCV>55, injected or cyanotic MMC -rectal exam suggests acute abdominal disease -prolonged ileus or gastric reflux of bile/alkaline fluid -increasing abdominal distension -serosanguinous peritoneal fluid |
|
|
What are six things to do when referring a colic horse?
|
-Refer early
-Decompress the stomach -Provide minimal but appropriate analgesia -Stabilise the horse -Put a rug on the horse and apply leg bandages -Send owner with written referral letter, history, treatments, and directions |
|
|
Gastric ulcers, a cause of medical colic, are most commonly found _____.
|
on the squamous border of the margo plicatus
|
|
|
Gastric dilatation, a cause of medical colic, can be diagnosed by ____.
|
nasogastric intubation
|
|
|
Gastric impaction, a cause of medical colic, is difficult to diagnose and treat. Name three potential causes.
|
-ingestion of beet pulp or bran
-dental disease causing improper mastication -terminal hepatic disease causing neurological defects. |
|
|
Anterior enteritis results in the distension of _____.
|
the stomach and proximal small intestine
|
|
|
What is the most common type of colic in horses in the UK?
|
Spasmodic colic
|
|
|
What clinical signs might you use to differentiate tympanic colic, a medical colic, from more severe colonic displacement or torsion?
|
-Heart rate
-Endotoxic shock |
|
|
What is the most common site of impaction in the GI tract of the horse?
|
the pelvic flecture of the large colon
|
|
|
___ impaction is more common in small ponies and arabians, and they are at higher risk for post-op _____.
|
Small colon; salmonellosis
|
|
|
What is the most common site of small intestinal intraluminal obstruction in the horse?
|
ileum
|
|
|
Ileal impaction in the horse is associated with _____.
|
heavy Anoplocephela perfoliata or ascarid burden
|
|
|
Which type of GI impaction in the horse is associated with previous surgery or hospitalization?
|
caecal impaction
|
|
|
Are horses with type 1 or type 2 caecal impaction more prone to caecal rupture?
|
type 2
|
|
|
Why might phenlyephrine be useful in the treatment of a left dorsal displacement of the colon in the horse?
|
LDDC usually involves entrapment by the nephrosplenic ligament; phenylephrine causes splenic contraction
|
|
|
Which form of pelvic flecture movement in a right dorsal displacement of the colon is most common, craniocaudad->craniad or caudocraniad?
|
craniocaudad->craniad
|
|
|
Poor performance in the horses are commonly due to cardiac _____ or ______.
|
arrhythmia; decompensated murmur
|
|
|
Name some non-cardiac causes of poor performance in the horse.
|
-Musculoskeletal problems
-Respiratory disease -Lack of fitness -Unrealistic expectations of the owner -Inappropriate training |
|
|
Horses have a massive cardiac reserve and can increase cardiac output from ____ to _____ during exercies.
|
35L/min to 350L/min
|
|
|
Name 5 cardiac causes of poor performance in the horse.
|
-Cardiac arrhythmias
-Cardiac murmurs -Myocardial disease -Pericardial disease -Diseases of the vessels |
|
|
Horses that exhibit jugular distension >1/3 up the neck may be suffering from.....(3)
|
-Cranial thoracic obstruction/mass
-Pericardial effusion -Right sided hear failure |
|
|
Name the seven key components to a cardiovascular exam in the horse.
|
-Palpate pulse
-Mucous Membranes -Palpate cardiac area -Auscultate cardiac area -Examine respiratory system -Examnine orthopaedic system -Further tests (echo, ECG, blood analyses) |
|
|
Name some common respiratory diseases in the neonatal foal (5).
|
-Neonatal pneumonia
-Prepartum EHV-1 -Fractured ribs -Meconium aspiration -Prematurty/Dysmaturity |
|
|
Describe the respiratory function of a horse during racing.
|
Oxygen requirement is 50-80L met by:
-2 breaths/second -15L/breath -1800L/min |
|
|
What is the best way to detect low grade airway dysfunction?
|
Ancillary diagnostics:
-Endoscopy (Tracheal Secretion Volume Score, airway masses) -Transthoracic ultrasonography -Arterial Blood Gas -Pulmonary Mechanics and Airway Reactivity Testing -Cytology of endoscopic Tracheal Aspirates -Bacteriology of Percutaneous trans-tracheal aspirates -Bronchoalveolar lavage (catheter or endoscopic) -Pleural fluid aspirate -Lung biopsy |
|
|
What structures can be evaluated using transthoracic ultrasonography in the horse?
|
-Thoracic wall
-Pleura -Subpleura |
|
|
What diseases might you suspect if neutrophilia (>5% of cells) is seen on cytology of broncho-alveolar lavage fluid?
|
-RAO
-SPAOPD -IAD -Bronchopneumonia -Lung abscess -Pleuropneumonia -acute viral disease |
|
|
What is the most common clinical sign seen in a foal with neonatal pneumonia?
|
tachypnoea (HR>35bts/min)
|
|
|
Neonatal fractured rib syndrome occurs in ___-___% of foals.
|
20-40%
|
|
|
What disease might you suspect if eosinophilia (>5%) is seen on cytology of broncho-alveolar lavage fluid?
|
-Lungworm (Dictyocaulus arnfieldi)
-Parascaris equorum migration -Idiopathic pulmonary eosinophilia -eosinophilic sub-type of IAD |
|
|
What disease might you suspect if erythrocytes and haemosiderophages are seen on cytology of broncho-alveolar lavage fluid?
|
-EIPH
-trauma during sampling -neoplasia, abscess, coagulopathy |
|
|
Describe the collection sites for pleural fluid in the thorax of a horse.
|
Just dorsal to the lateral thoracic vein.
RHS: 6-8th intercostal space LHS: 7-9th intercostal space |
|
|
Prognosis is poor if foals are born <___ days gestation because of inadequate _____.
|
300; lung maturation
|
|
|
Name two organisms implicated in respiratory disease of growing foals.
|
-Rhodococcus equi
-Streptococcus equi var zooepidemicus |
|
|
Describe the aetiology of Rhodococcus Equine Pneumonia.
|
Rhodococcus (gram positive intracellular cocci) are ingested or inhaled within the first 48hrs of life. Clinical signs such as pyrexia, ill thrift, progressive dyspoea, diarrhoea, polysynovitis seen at 2-6 months of age
|
|
|
Describe the treatment for Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus in a foal.
|
This is more of a nuisance disease. Potential treatments include ignoring the disease, a short course of penicillin and turning the foal out to pasture
|
|
|
Name the five most common acute, infectious respiratory diseases in adult horses.
|
-Equine Influenza
-Equine Herpes Virus -Rhinovirus -Equine Viral Arteritis -Strangles (Streptococcus equi equi |
|
|
In the face of an acute respiratory disease in an adult horse, name one disease that should always be tested for. Why?
|
Strangles. The method of control, treatment and sequelae differs from the other respiratory diseases.
|
|
|
Which acute respiratory disease in the adult horse is notifiable?
|
Equine Viral Arteritis
|
|
|
What factors enhance the infectivity of Equine Influenza?
|
-few viral particles can cause infection
-aerosol dissemination rapidly spreads particles |
|
|
Which horses are likely to acquire EHV?
|
All horses acquire EHV in early life but immunity is short lived.
|
|
|
What is the most common equine respiratory infection?
|
Equine Herpes Virus -4
|
|
|
Which equine respiratory disease exhibits primarily upper respiratory tract symptoms?
|
Rhinovirus
|
|
|
Which equine respiratory disease is characterized by periorbital oedema, severe conjunctivitis, and profound depression?
|
Equine Viral Arteritis
|
|
|
Describe the role of antibiotics in the treatment of Streptococcus equi equi in horses.
|
Antibiotics such as penicillin may alleviate clinical signs in early disease but should not be used in horses with lymph node abscessation
|
|
|
Name three sequelae of strangles in the horse.
|
-Bastard Strangles
-Purpura Haemorrhagica -Guttural pouch empyaema |
|
|
What are the clinical signs of Recurrent Airway Obstruction in the horse?
|
coughing that is exacerbated by exercise but disappears in organic dust free environments; may lead to expiratory dyspnoea, tachypnoea and audible wheezes and crackles
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of cough in the horse?
|
Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO, "heaves", historically known as COPD)
|
|
|
What clinical sign differentiates RAO from SPAOPD (summer pasture associated obstructive pulmonary disease)?
|
no coughing or nasal discharge is seen in SPAOPD - seasonal severe dyspnoea is most common presentation
|
|
|
What presentation differentiates Inflammatory Airway Disease from Recurrent Airway Obstruction?
|
IAD horses may be of any age while RAO affects horses >5 years old.
|
|
|
How would a diagnosis of Dictyocaulus arnfieldi infection in a horse be made?
|
Upon history (pastured with donkeys?), clinical signs (coughing, nasal discharge, increased expiratory effort), and eosinophilia (>3%) of TA or BALF
|
|
|
What disease of the horse is characterized by acute or chronic inflammatory alveolitis with injury to type 1 epithelial and endothelial cells?
|
Interstitial (restrictive) lung disease
|
|
|
What are the three stages seen in pulmonary abscess and pleuropneumonia in the horse?
|
1. local infiltration of mixed bacteria extending to pleura
2. pleural effusion and locule formation 3. organisation phase includes fibrin formation |
|
|
Why are horses predisposed to Exercise Induced Pulmonary Haemorrhage?
|
1. high pulmonary capillary pressure
2. sub-atmospheric inspiratory pressure 3. presence of other predisposing respiratory and cardiac disorders |
|
|
What stain would be helpful in diagnosing haemochromatosis in a horse histo sample?
|
Prussian blue
|
|
|
Name two primary neoplasms of the liver.
|
-Hepatocellular carcinoma (young horses, solitary multilobulated mass)
-Cholangiocacinoma (older horses, multiple hepatic mass) |
|
|
What is the most likely cause of cholangiohepatitis in the horse?
|
Reflux of intestinal contents up the bile ducts leading to inflammation or sludge/calculi formation
|
|
|
What is the second most common cause of 2° liver failure in the horse?
|
Fatty liver
|
|
|
Icterus in the horse is indicative of:
|
-decreased excretion of bilirubin (liver or biliary tract disease)
-increased production of bilirubin (haemoyltic anaemia -impaired hepatic uptake or conjugation of bilirubin (liver disease) |
|
|
In the horse, increases in conjugated bilirubin >25% is suggestive of ____, while increases >30% indicate ____.
|
hepatocellular disease; cholestasis
|
|
|
Name two important hepatocyte derived liver enzymes in the horse.
|
GLDH and AST
|
|
|
Name two important biliary derived liver enzymes in the horse.
|
GGT and AP
|
|
|
An increase in bile acids in the horse is suggestive of ____.
|
liver failure
|
|
|
Name some non-specific signs of liver disease in the horse.
|
-Anorexia
-Depression -Weight loss -Abdominal pain |
|
|
Name some specific signs of liver disease in the horse.
|
-Icterus
-Photosensitization (phylloerythrin accumulation) -Hepatic Encephalopathy (increased ammonia and false neurotransmitters) -Coagulopathy -Bilateral laryngeal paralysis (related to HE) |
|
|
Hyperproteinaemia and hypoalbuminaemia are ____ in horses with liver disease.
|
rare
|
|
|
Equine Grass Sickness is thought to be associated with _____.
|
toxicoinfection with Closdridium botulinum types C and D (resident bacteria produce toxins in GIT)
|
|
|
What body system does Equine Grass Sickness target?
|
The autonomic nervous system (including the enteric nervous system) and possibly the somatic nervous system.
|
|
|
Which should be palpable during a rectal exam in the horse?
|
-faeces
-pelvis (bladder, small colon, gravid uterus?) -aorta (int/ext iliac vessels on dorsal midline) -mesenteric roots (dorsoventral) -left kidney (caudal pole, retroperitoneal just left of aorta) -nephrosplenic ligament (between dorsomedial spleen and left kidney -spleen (caudal margin along left body wall) -left/right inguinal area (freely movable intestine) -left large colon/pelvic flexure (cranial and just left of pelvic brim) -caecum (4 taenial bands along right abdomen) -small colon (two taenial bands, faecal balls) -peritoneum (visceral and parietal) |
|
|
When placing a nasogastric tube in the horse, the tube should be introduced into the ______ and then the head flexed ____ so that the tube passes into the oesophagus.
|
ventral nasal meatus
ventrally |
|
|
Name four things that can be done to check proper placement of a nasogastric tube in the horse.
|
-feel for moderate resistance as tube passes down oesophagus which lessens with each swallow
-watch/palpate the tube pass down the left side of the neck -suction applied to the tube will create resistance -once in the stomach, gas may be expressed |
|
|
On the horse, what is the site of entry for a percutaneous liver biopsy?
|
14th intercostal space on a line between the point of the shoulder and tuber coxae
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of heart failure in horses in the UK?
|
Mitral regurgitation
|
|
|
What are the three most common cardiac murmurs in horses?
|
-Mitral regurgitation (7-21%)
-Tricuspid regurgitation (12-54%) -Aortic regurgitation (0-4%) |
|
|
How does cardiac output in the horse compare at rest to the cardiac output during exercise?
|
Qt can increase from 35L/min to 350L/min
|
|
|
What are five cardiac causes of poor performance in the horse?
|
-Cardiac arrythmias
-Cardiac murmurs -Myocardial disease -Pericardial disease -Disease of the great vessels |
|
|
Name three "normal" cardiac arrhythmias in the horse.
|
-Sinus block
-2nd Degree AV block -Sinus arrhythmia |
|
|
Name three abnormal cardiac arrhythmias in the horse.
|
-Atrial fibrillation
-Premature beats (atrial or ventricular) -Bradydysrythmias |
|
|
Valvular stenosis is ____ in the horse.
|
rare
|
|
|
Ventricular septal defects may be detected as a ____ sided ____ murmur.
|
right sided systolic murmur
|
|
|
Abnormalities with ventricular filling and aortic are categorized as ____ murmurs.
|
diastolic
|
|
|
The murmur associated with blood flow into the pulmonary artery and aorta is called a ______.
|
functional ejection murmur
|
|
|
_____ is not associated with thickening and fibrosis of the valve leaflets and usually does not progress.
|
Tricuspid regurgitation (cf mitral regurgitation and aortic insufficiency)
|
|
|
Name six causes of mitral regurgitation in the horse.
|
-intense exercise or training
-thickening/fibrosis of valve leaflets -rupture of chordae tendoneae -diseases causing dilation of the valve annulus (DCM, AI, VSD) -endocarditis (rare) -congenital annomalies |
|
|
Mitral regurgitation ____ the risk of sudden cardiac death.
|
does not increase
|
|
|
How could you differentiate a functional ejection murmur from a murmur of mitral regurgitation in the horse?
|
-PMI: aortic valve or mitral valve?
-Timing: ejection murmurs do not extend to S2 -Response to exercise: ejection murmurs usually decrease after exercise -Variability: flow murmurs are variable -Presence of thrill: no thrill in flow murmurs |
|
|
Which murmur might concern you about the possibility of sudden death in the horse? Why does sudden death occur?
|
a decrescendo murmur over the aortic valve suggestive of aortic insufficiency. This is associated with decreased coronary perfusion.
|
|
|
What is the most common congenital abnormality in large animals?
|
Ventricular septal defects
|
|
|
Ventricular septal defect is associated with ____ ventricular overload and cardiac failure.
|
left
|
|
|
What is the most common site for a VSD?
|
in the membranous septum between the aortic and tricuspid valves
|
|
|
Describe normal urination in the horse.
|
10-30ml/kg/day (5-15L/day)
|
|
|
What are the daily fluid requirements in the horse?
|
50ml/kg/day
|
|
|
What constitutes polyruia?
|
urinating >50ml/kg/day (>25L/day)
|
|
|
What constitutes polydipsia?
|
drinking >100ml/kg/day (>50L/day)
|
|
|
Name the three more common disorders causing PU/PD in the horse.
|
-Primary/psychogenic Polydipsia
-Equine Cushing's Disease -Primary Renal Disease |
|
|
Name some clinical presentations of uraemia in the horse.
|
-depression
-poor hair coat -tartar |
|
|
What are some further diagnostics that can be done in a PU/PD horse showing signs of renal disease?
|
-rectal exam
-ultrasonography -fractional excretion of electrolytes -renal biopsy (fatal haemorrhage may occur!) |
|
|
What are some further diagnostics that can be done in a horse showing PU/PD but no signs of renal disease?
|
-water deprivation test
-ADH stimulation test |
|
|
Name the three catagories of pathology seen in incontinence in the horse.
|
-UMN (reflex) bladder
-LMN (paralytic) bladder -Non-neurogenic: inflammatory, myogenic, neoplasia, mechanical (ectopic ureter, trauma), hypo-oestrogenism |
|
|
Ectopic ureters are more common in ____.
|
foals, especially fillies
|
|
|
Cystometry, the ______, may be a useful if not practical diagnostic test in the incontinent horse.
|
evaluation of pressure in the bladder
|
|
|
Name 5 general causes of acute renal failure in the horse.
|
-Acute tubular necrosis (toxicity)
-Vasomotor nephropathy (alteration in perfusion -Acute glomerulonephropathy (immune mediated or bacterial) -Acute interstitial nephritis -Primary bacterial (Leptospirosis) |
|
|
Name 4 general causes of chronic renal failure in the horse.
|
-Glomerular disease
-Chronic interstitial nephritis -End stage kidney disease -Other (amyloidosis, neoplasia....) |
|
|
When undergoing treatment in a horse in renal failure, a decrease in creatinine of ___ in the first 24hours signals a more favorable prognosis.
|
30%
|
|
|
Name some causes of haematuria or discoloured urine in the horse.
|
-urethral tears
-cystitis, UTI, urolithiasis -idiopathic renal haematuria -neoplasia -drugs -vaginal varicosities -exercise induced haematuria -systemic disease (haemolysis, acute myopathies, coagulopathy) |
|
|
What is the most common congenital abnormality of the urogenital tract?
|
Ectopic Ureter
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of PU/PD in stabled horses?
|
Psychogenic Polydipsia
|
|
|
What clinical sign is pathognomonic for Equine Cushings Disease? Name some other clinical signs.
|
Hirsutism!
-BW loss -Fat redistribution -Polyphagia -Lethargy -Change in demeanor -Hyperhidrosis (sweating) -Predisposition to infection -Predisposition to laminitis -Blindness -Seizure |
|
|
There may be seasonal effects on diagnostic testing for Equine Cushings Disease. It is generally best to avoid testing in the _____.
|
autumn
|
|
|
Pergolide, a ____ ____, is the gold standard treatment for Equine Cushings Disease
|
dopamine agonist
|
|
|
Cyathostomes are refractory to anthelmintic treatment dut to resistance and insusceptible encysted stages. Outline a deworming regimen that may work.
|
-5 days of Fenbendazole
-1 day of Ivermectin or Moxidectin -repeat 3 times at 10 day intervals (moxidectin only used on days 6 and 36) -concurrent administration of steroids may minimise inflammation |
|
|
In evaluating a horse with weight loss, an oral glucose absorption test of <15% absorption is suggestive of ____.
|
small intestinal pathology
|
|
|
Which horses are at risk for laminitis?
|
-horses with Equine Cushings Disease
-obese horses -native bred ponies -horses with prolonged endogenous or exogenous steroid levels |
|
|
Insulin resistance in the horse is implicated in what three diseases?
|
-infertility
-osteochondrosis -laminitis |
|
|
Define Equine Metabolic Syndrome.
|
Obese horses that are prone to laminitis.
|
|
|
What are the two main categories of treatment in Equine Metabolic Syndrome?
|
-Feeding (low glycaemic index, stable diet, antioxidants)
-Exercise (improves insulin sensitivity) |
|
|
What are two categories of clinical signs in neuromuscular disease of the horse?
|
-Weakness/Myasthenia (myopathies, botulism, equine motor neuron disease, electrolyte disorders, grass sickness, myasthenia gravis)
-Spasicity/Hypertonia (tetanus, myopathies, electrolyte disorders, shiver, stiff horse syndrome) |
|
|
Name some clinical signs associated with weakness in the horse.
|
-lethargy/increased periods of recumbancy
-inappetance -weight loss -narrow base stance -dysphagia -low head carriage -muscle tremors -toe dragging |
|
|
Name some clinical signs associated with spasticity and hypertonia in the horse
|
-gait abnormalities
-fasciculation -trismus (facial swelling) -dysphagia |
|
|
What muscle masses are most commonly affected in Sporadic Exertional Rhabdomyolysis?
|
-gluteals
-lumbar mm -femoral mm |
|
|
LDH, AST, and CK correlate well with ____ in a horse with suspected Sporadic Exertional Rhabdomyolysis but not with _____.
|
-degree of damage
-clinical signs |
|
|
What serum enzyme test is most specific for skeletal muscle damage?
|
Creatinine Kinase (CK)
|
|
|
Describe the timeframe of elevations in serum muscle enzymes, LDA, CK, and AST.
|
-CK rises and disappears first with a peak 2-12hrs after onset and returning to normal at 24-36hrs
-LDH peaks at 15hrs -AST peaks at 24hrs and may stay elevated for weeks |
|
|
Many horses with sporadic rhabdomyolysis are ____ic but more severe cases may be ____ic.
|
-alkalotic (contrary to what you'd expect)
-acidosis (is seen in more severe cases) |
|
|
What is the cause of myocyte death in cases of Rhabdomyolysis?
|
It remains uncertain, but though to be oxidant injury rather than lactic acid accumulation.
|
|
|
What should the treatment of Polysaccharide Storage Disease not include may be a part of other Rhabdomyolysis treatments?
|
Drugs such as Acepromazine and Dontrolene
|
|
|
What three ways might botulism intoxification occur?
|
-ingestion of preformed toxins
-growth of organism in GI tract -contamination of wound |
|
|
Name some key clinical signs of botulism in the horse.
|
-descending myasthaenia
-bilateral cranial nerve deficits -decreased anal/tail tone |
|
|
Outline a treatment for botulism.
|
-supportive care
-Abx (metronidazole, penicillins) -antitoxin |
|
|
What are the toxins involved in tetanus?
|
-tetanospasmin (inhibits GABA and glycine)
-tetanolysin (promotes tissue necrosis and toxin spread) |
|
|
What are the key clinical signs in tetanus in the horse?
|
-dysphagia
-stilted gait -spastic muscle contractions -elevated tail head -head/neck extension -anxious expression |
|
|
Outline a treatment for tetanus in the horse.
|
-Management: elevate and moisten feed, deep bedding, quiet/dark stall, gentle handling
-Thx: Acepromazine, benzepen, procaine pen, antitoxin, hydrogen peroxide |
|
|
What is the underlying cause of most Recurrent Exertional Rhbdomyopathies?
|
inherited defect in the control of intracellular Ca in skeletal muscle
|
|
|
What is the difference between Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (PSSM) and Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (EPSM)?
|
PSSM has been described in Quarter Horses while EPSM is in draft horses.
|
