Rcis Practice Questions All Topics 12/7/2011

Front 1

1.
What is the normal range of potassium (K) in the blood?

Back 1

Normal K+ = 3.5-5.0
Potassium <3 hypokalemia
> 5.0 = Hyperkalemia

Front 2

2.
Name some antiplatelet medications

Back 2

ASA,Plavix (clopidogrel), Effient (prasugrel), Ticlid (ticlopidine)

Front 3

3. Ture or Flase
Heparin is an antiplatelet

Back 3

False

Front 4

4. A patient has a high creatinine, what should you do?

Back 4

Use as small amt. of contrast as possible and Pre-procedure hydration with IV fluids 6-12hrs before and 12 hours after the procedure (NS solution)

Front 5

5. How does Heparin prevent clot formation?

Back 5

Heparin prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Heparin combines antithrombin to make it more effective

Front 6

6. What is the action of Reopro?

Back 6

Reopro inhibits IIb/IIIa receptors

Front 7

7. INR measures the level of which drug?

Back 7

Coumadin

Front 8

8. Lovenox impacts what?

Back 8

Antithrombin and factor Xa.

Front 9

9. What short action benzodiazepine is commonly used in the cath lab for sedation?

Back 9

Versed (Midazolam)

Front 10

10. What is a quick easy way to check a patients clotting time after heparin has been given?

Back 10

ACT (Activated Clotting Time)

Front 11

11. How do Ticlid and Plavix act?

Back 11

They turn off the receptor sites on the platelets (super-aspirin)

Front 12

12. If a patient is on NPH insulin, What medication should not be given?

Back 12

Protamine

Front 13

13. What does ASA do?

Back 13

ASA prevents platelet adhesion

Front 14

14. TPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator) acts by?

Back 14

Dissolving fibrin
Activates Plasminogen

Front 15

15. What labs look at kidney function?

Back 15

BUN, CREATiNINE
GRF(glomerular filtration rate)
Creatinine Clearance

Front 16

16. The most accurate measure of cardiac muscle fiber damage after an MI is what?

Back 16

Troponin

Front 17

17. Which lab value does not evaluate the extent of an MI?
SGOT
Serum Creatinine
CK-MB
LDH

Back 17

Serum creatinine

Front 18

18. Post procedure renal dysfunction is more likely to occur in patients with?

Back 18

diabetes
Pre-procedure dehydration
frequent use of NSAID
Ace Inhibitors

Front 19

19. What is a pseudoaneurysm?

Back 19

Pseudoanuerysm is a false anuerysm. Often pulsatile mass near the sheathsite with a bruit present

Front 20

20. It the transducer is positioned too LOW at the side of the table, the pt's pressure will read?

Back 20

The pressure will read falsely HIGH

Front 21

21. If you are checking the radial/ulnar pulse when you
press and release one at a time, this is called what kind of test?

Back 21

ALLEN'S Test

Front 22

22. What is the best way to calculate a patient's pulse rate?

Back 22

Check the pulse for one minute

Front 23

23. If the patients IV site is infiltrated, what should you do?

Back 23

Turn it off

Front 24

24. Metabolic Acidosis has a low level of what?

Back 24

Bicarb (HCO3)

Front 25

25. A blood PH less than 7.35 or greater than 7.45 is called?

Back 25

Uncompensated

Front 26

26. What would be the appropriate intervention for a patient with Respiratory Acidosis?

Back 26

Increase Ventilations

Front 27

27. The primary drive to breathe comes from the patient's ?

Back 27

C02 level

Front 28

28. Hyperventilating a patient prior to suctioning is done to?

Back 28

Increase arterial PO2

Front 29

29. Interpret the following blood gas:
PH=7.25
PCo2=60
HCO3(bicarb)= 22

Back 29

uncompensated resipratory Acidosis

Front 30

30. A high C02 will impact the PH how?

Back 30

It will lower the PH level in the blood.

Front 31

31. Increased Bicarb will do what to the blood PH?

Back 31

Elevated HCO3 will increase the PH

Front 32

32. The innermost layer of an artery is what?

Back 32

The intima

Front 33

33. What type of intervention is used for a calcified lesion?

Back 33

Rotablator (calcified is the key word)

Front 34

34. What type of balloon is best used on a calcified lesion?

Back 34

Cutting balloon

Front 35

35. The symptoms of incrreased heart rate, decreased BP and SOB during a biopsy may indicate what?

Back 35

Cardiac Perforation

Front 36

36. What diagnostic catheter is best utilized for visualizing the LAD when the patient has a dilated aortic root?

Back 36

JL5

Front 37

37. 2.66mm diameter is what size catheter?

Back 37

8 french
( 1 french = .335mm)

Front 38

38. What device uses saline to dissolve and suction thrombus during an acute MI?

Back 38

Angiojet

Front 39

39. During a Rotoblador intervention, what is the most common cause of "no flow"?

Back 39

Distal embolization

Front 40

40. Where does the needle enter for a pericardialcentesis?

Back 40

Sub-Xyphoid process

Front 41

41. What is a possible complication of over tightening the toughy?

Back 41

Unable to inflate the balloon

Front 42

42. If a patient has a heart rate of 150 BPM, assist on the IABP should be set at what?

Back 42

2:1

Front 43

43. What is the best balloon to use on an artery that has a tendency to close?

Back 43

A Perfusion balloon

Front 44

44. Jugular Vein distension can be caused by?

Back 44

RV infarct
Pulmonary Hypertension
Tricuspid Regurgitation

Front 45

45. Shortness of breath indicates right or left sided heart failure?

Back 45

Left-sided heart failure

Front 46

46. Ventricular arrythmias are the most common during the injection of which cornary artery?

Back 46

RCA

Front 47

47. Osmolality refers to the ability of the contrast to?

Back 47

Pull fluid into the intravascular space

Front 48

48. The ideal contrast volume to be given to the patient is?

Back 48

3ml/kg

Front 49

49. Synchronous(demand) pacemakers have what unique ability?

Back 49

They sense the hearts intrinsic activity and pace only when needed.

Front 50

50. In order, the first three letters of the pacemaker code mean what?

Back 50

1- Chamber paced
2- Chamber sensed
3- Chamber triggered

Front 51

51. The purpose of Bi-Ventricular pacemakers is to?

Back 51

To synchronize the contraction of the ventricles

Front 52

52. The purpose of an ICD is to?

Back 52

Monitor brady and tachycardia, VT, and V-fib and convert if necessary

Front 53

53. In the terms RAO and LAO, the R and the L refer to what?

Back 53

The position of the image intensifier

Front 54

54. what is the best view to see the LAD and CX bifurcation?

Back 54

Spider view

Front 55

55. On an EKG, what shows a true posterior infarct?

Back 55

V7-V9, V1 and V2

Front 56

56. What catheter does an Internal Mammary catheter resemble?

Back 56

JR4

Front 57

57. If a patient has a dilated aortic
root, which catheter might you need to cannulate the right coronary system?

Back 57

JR5

Front 58

58. In a routine PTCA, what might be some complications caused by the handling of the wire?

Back 58

Arterial dissection or perforation

Front 59

59. What does RAD stand for?

Back 59

Radiation absorbed dose

Front 60

60. The most important factor in decreasing X-ray exposure to a patient is to?

Back 60

Decrease the time of exposure

Front 61

61. What is the max dose of radiation a worker can receive in a year?

Back 61

5 REM

Front 62

62. What converts x-rays to light rays?

Back 62

Image intensifier

Front 63

63. What is the best choice of catheter to use on an LCA with a high take-off?

Back 63

Amplatz

Front 64

64. To view pulmonary stenosis, where do you inject the contrast?

Back 64

Right ventricle

Front 65

65. Pulmonic stenosis is generally associated with what?

Back 65

Congenital anomalies

Front 66

66. What is the normal PR interval?If the PR interval is .25, where is the delay?

Back 66

Normal PR interval is .12-.20
PR interval >.20 the conduction delay occurs in the AV Node

Front 67

67. What is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium?

Back 67

50ml

Front 68

68. When are the coronary arteries perfused?

Back 68

During ventricular diastole

Front 69

69. In what condition do you get the equalization of LVEDP and RVEDP?

Back 69

Constrictive Pericarditis

Front 70

70. Where is the most common renal stenosis located?

Back 70

Ostial

Front 71

71. Greatest % of peripheral stenosis occurs where?

Back 71

Lower extremities

Front 72

72. what will cause a pacemaker to fail to capture in the RV

Back 72

Lead dislodgement

Front 73

73. You have a 50 year old admitted to the cath lab. HR 200, BP 90/50, what would you do?

Back 73

Synchronized cardioversion

Front 74

74. Vascular resistance is most greatly influenced by?

Back 74

The radius of the tube (vessel)

Front 75

75. What is the ACLS protocol for monophasic Defibrillation?

Back 75

200-300-360joules

Front 76

76. How do you test a defibrillator?

Back 76

Discharging paddles into the dummy load

Front 77

77. If there is a valve stenosis or regurg, which CO should you use?

Back 77

Fick CO

Front 78

78. What does the C wave represent?

Back 78

Onset of ventricular contraction

Front 79

79. Where do you measure thermal dilution cardiac outputs?

Back 79

Inject in the RA and read in the PA

Front 80

80. What are the 4 anomalies associated with Tetrology of Fallot?

Back 80

Pulmonic Stenosis
VSD
RV Hypertrophy
Overriding aorta

Front 81

81. Which valve has the smallest valve area?

Back 81

Aortic valve

Front 82

82. A PDA (Patent ductus arteriosus) most likely causes?

Back 82

increased pulmonary blood flow and possibly pulmonary edema

Front 83

83. What is a sign of right sided heart failure?

Back 83

Jugular venous distension

Front 84

84. What is the purpose of an IABP?

Back 84

Increase coronary artery perfusion and decrease afterload