Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/84

Click to flip

84 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1.
What is the normal range of potassium (K) in the blood?
Normal K+ = 3.5-5.0
Potassium <3 hypokalemia
> 5.0 = Hyperkalemia
2.
Name some antiplatelet medications
ASA,Plavix (clopidogrel), Effient (prasugrel), Ticlid (ticlopidine)
3. Ture or Flase
Heparin is an antiplatelet
False
4. A patient has a high creatinine, what should you do?
Use as small amt. of contrast as possible and Pre-procedure hydration with IV fluids 6-12hrs before and 12 hours after the procedure (NS solution)
5. How does Heparin prevent clot formation?
Heparin prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Heparin combines antithrombin to make it more effective
6. What is the action of Reopro?
Reopro inhibits IIb/IIIa receptors
7. INR measures the level of which drug?
Coumadin
8. Lovenox impacts what?
Antithrombin and factor Xa.
9. What short action benzodiazepine is commonly used in the cath lab for sedation?
Versed (Midazolam)
10. What is a quick easy way to check a patients clotting time after heparin has been given?
ACT (Activated Clotting Time)
11. How do Ticlid and Plavix act?
They turn off the receptor sites on the platelets (super-aspirin)
12. If a patient is on NPH insulin, What medication should not be given?
Protamine
13. What does ASA do?
ASA prevents platelet adhesion
14. TPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator) acts by?
Dissolving fibrin
Activates Plasminogen
15. What labs look at kidney function?
BUN, CREATiNINE
GRF(glomerular filtration rate)
Creatinine Clearance
16. The most accurate measure of cardiac muscle fiber damage after an MI is what?
Troponin
17. Which lab value does not evaluate the extent of an MI?
SGOT
Serum Creatinine
CK-MB
LDH
Serum creatinine
18. Post procedure renal dysfunction is more likely to occur in patients with?
diabetes
Pre-procedure dehydration
frequent use of NSAID
Ace Inhibitors
19. What is a pseudoaneurysm?
Pseudoanuerysm is a false anuerysm. Often pulsatile mass near the sheathsite with a bruit present
20. It the transducer is positioned too LOW at the side of the table, the pt's pressure will read?
The pressure will read falsely HIGH
21. If you are checking the radial/ulnar pulse when you
press and release one at a time, this is called what kind of test?
ALLEN'S Test
22. What is the best way to calculate a patient's pulse rate?
Check the pulse for one minute
23. If the patients IV site is infiltrated, what should you do?
Turn it off
24. Metabolic Acidosis has a low level of what?
Bicarb (HCO3)
25. A blood PH less than 7.35 or greater than 7.45 is called?
Uncompensated
26. What would be the appropriate intervention for a patient with Respiratory Acidosis?
Increase Ventilations
27. The primary drive to breathe comes from the patient's ?
C02 level
28. Hyperventilating a patient prior to suctioning is done to?
Increase arterial PO2
29. Interpret the following blood gas:
PH=7.25
PCo2=60
HCO3(bicarb)= 22
uncompensated resipratory Acidosis
30. A high C02 will impact the PH how?
It will lower the PH level in the blood.
31. Increased Bicarb will do what to the blood PH?
Elevated HCO3 will increase the PH
32. The innermost layer of an artery is what?
The intima
33. What type of intervention is used for a calcified lesion?
Rotablator (calcified is the key word)
34. What type of balloon is best used on a calcified lesion?
Cutting balloon
35. The symptoms of incrreased heart rate, decreased BP and SOB during a biopsy may indicate what?
Cardiac Perforation
36. What diagnostic catheter is best utilized for visualizing the LAD when the patient has a dilated aortic root?
JL5
37. 2.66mm diameter is what size catheter?
8 french
( 1 french = .335mm)
38. What device uses saline to dissolve and suction thrombus during an acute MI?
Angiojet
39. During a Rotoblador intervention, what is the most common cause of "no flow"?
Distal embolization
40. Where does the needle enter for a pericardialcentesis?
Sub-Xyphoid process
41. What is a possible complication of over tightening the toughy?
Unable to inflate the balloon
42. If a patient has a heart rate of 150 BPM, assist on the IABP should be set at what?
2:1
43. What is the best balloon to use on an artery that has a tendency to close?
A Perfusion balloon
44. Jugular Vein distension can be caused by?
RV infarct
Pulmonary Hypertension
Tricuspid Regurgitation
45. Shortness of breath indicates right or left sided heart failure?
Left-sided heart failure
46. Ventricular arrythmias are the most common during the injection of which cornary artery?
RCA
47. Osmolality refers to the ability of the contrast to?
Pull fluid into the intravascular space
48. The ideal contrast volume to be given to the patient is?
3ml/kg
49. Synchronous(demand) pacemakers have what unique ability?
They sense the hearts intrinsic activity and pace only when needed.
50. In order, the first three letters of the pacemaker code mean what?
1- Chamber paced
2- Chamber sensed
3- Chamber triggered
51. The purpose of Bi-Ventricular pacemakers is to?
To synchronize the contraction of the ventricles
52. The purpose of an ICD is to?
Monitor brady and tachycardia, VT, and V-fib and convert if necessary
53. In the terms RAO and LAO, the R and the L refer to what?
The position of the image intensifier
54. what is the best view to see the LAD and CX bifurcation?
Spider view
55. On an EKG, what shows a true posterior infarct?
V7-V9, V1 and V2
56. What catheter does an Internal Mammary catheter resemble?
JR4
57. If a patient has a dilated aortic
root, which catheter might you need to cannulate the right coronary system?
JR5
58. In a routine PTCA, what might be some complications caused by the handling of the wire?
Arterial dissection or perforation
59. What does RAD stand for?
Radiation absorbed dose
60. The most important factor in decreasing X-ray exposure to a patient is to?
Decrease the time of exposure
61. What is the max dose of radiation a worker can receive in a year?
5 REM
62. What converts x-rays to light rays?
Image intensifier
63. What is the best choice of catheter to use on an LCA with a high take-off?
Amplatz
64. To view pulmonary stenosis, where do you inject the contrast?
Right ventricle
65. Pulmonic stenosis is generally associated with what?
Congenital anomalies
66. What is the normal PR interval?If the PR interval is .25, where is the delay?
Normal PR interval is .12-.20
PR interval >.20 the conduction delay occurs in the AV Node
67. What is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium?
50ml
68. When are the coronary arteries perfused?
During ventricular diastole
69. In what condition do you get the equalization of LVEDP and RVEDP?
Constrictive Pericarditis
70. Where is the most common renal stenosis located?
Ostial
71. Greatest % of peripheral stenosis occurs where?
Lower extremities
72. what will cause a pacemaker to fail to capture in the RV
Lead dislodgement
73. You have a 50 year old admitted to the cath lab. HR 200, BP 90/50, what would you do?
Synchronized cardioversion
74. Vascular resistance is most greatly influenced by?
The radius of the tube (vessel)
75. What is the ACLS protocol for monophasic Defibrillation?
200-300-360joules
76. How do you test a defibrillator?
Discharging paddles into the dummy load
77. If there is a valve stenosis or regurg, which CO should you use?
Fick CO
78. What does the C wave represent?
Onset of ventricular contraction
79. Where do you measure thermal dilution cardiac outputs?
Inject in the RA and read in the PA
80. What are the 4 anomalies associated with Tetrology of Fallot?
Pulmonic Stenosis
VSD
RV Hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
81. Which valve has the smallest valve area?
Aortic valve
82. A PDA (Patent ductus arteriosus) most likely causes?
increased pulmonary blood flow and possibly pulmonary edema
83. What is a sign of right sided heart failure?
Jugular venous distension
84. What is the purpose of an IABP?
Increase coronary artery perfusion and decrease afterload