• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/129

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

129 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
hangman's fracture
pars fracture of C2
burst fracture
communuted fracture with retropulsed fragments in the neural canal
How are burst fractures treated differently from compression fractures?
They require surgical decompression of the nural canal fragments to avoid SC injury; compression fractures are treated conservatively.
Name some CT views of the spine
Axial slice
Sagital reformation
Lytic bone tumors come mainly from what 3 sites?
lung, thyroid, kidney

LyTiK
Main source of blastic bone lesions
prostate in men
What sites cause lytic bone lesions that can turn blastic with therapy?
breast
What is the best initial survey for bone mets? Why?

What is its limitation?
Bone scan, because it covers the entire body.

It is sensitive but not specific. If it finds hot spots CT or MRI may be needed to determine what they are.
Primary bone malignancies by age:
children
10-25
over 40
children: Ewings
10-25 osteogenic sarcoma
over 40: chondrosarcoma
characteristics of giant cell tumor
epiphyseal
abuts articular surface
eccentric location in bone
sharply defined border
not sclerotic
Main source of blastic bone lesions
prostate in men
What sites cause lytic bone lesions that can turn blastic with therapy?
breast
What is the best initial survey for bone mets? Why?

What is its limitation?
Bone scan, because it covers the entire body.

It is sensitive but not specific. If it finds hot spots CT or MRI may be needed to determine what they are.
Primary bone malignancies by age:
children
10-25
over 40
children: Ewings
10-25 osteogenic sarcoma
over 40: chondrosarcoma
characteristics of giant cell tumor
epiphyseal
abuts articular surface
eccentric location in bone
sharply defined border
not sclerotic
expanding cartilaginous tumor in metaphysis of long bones of hand or ribs
enchondroma
bone tumor in young male, intense bone pain, responds to aspirin
osteoid osteoma
What color is meniscus on MR? What color is tear?
dark
light
fish vertebrae
(biconcave)
osteoporosis
Describe the appearance of osteoporosis on plain film.
plain film: greater lucency, thinned cortex, disc spaces "lozenge" shaped (vertebrae are biconcave)
How does compression fracture appear on MR?
bright signal b/c of marrow fat signal (T1) from hemorrhage
Where do radiologists most often miss fractures?
pelvis
normal intercarpal distance
3 mm
What should you see on a lateral view of wrist?
smooth articulation radius/lunate/capitate/3rd metacarpal

scapholunate angle 30-60 degrees
What is the "Terry Thomas" sign?
scapholunate widening (gap-tooth)
What is the most common ligamentous injury of wrist?
scapholunate dissociation
What are the 3 radiographic signs of scapholunate dissociation from FOOSH?
1. scapholunate dissociation
2. signet ring sign, density at top of scaphoid b/c of rotation
3. on lateral, scapholunate angule > 60
What is perilunate dissociation?
How do you get it?
What are complications?
PA: smooth arc of capitate disrupted
lat: capitate not aligned with lunate and radius.

from hyperextension

median nerve injury, SLAC
What is the most commonly fractured bone of wrist?

second most?
radius

second: scaphoid
Snuffbox tenderness but normal xray. What should you do?
spica cast anyway; scaphoid fracture often doesn't show up
Complications of scaphoid injury?
avascular necrosis
SLAC: scaphoid/lunate AVN and collapse
What two lines can check elbow alignment?
anterior humeral: lateral view, bent elbow, line along anterior humerus should bisect capitellum, or at least run through middle third.

radiocapitellate line: on both lateral and AP, line through midshaft radius should bisect capitellum.

misalignment suggests supracondylar fracture.
signs of occult radial head fracture from FOOSH?
posterior fat pad, anterior fat pad sail sign
What should you do if a sail sign + pain is seen?
sling elbow
** What are the six lines to check in the normal anatomy of the pelvis?
iliopectineal
ilioischial
teardrop
acetabular roof
anterior lip
posterior lip
At what pelvic line should you look for sacral fractures?
arcuate
Disruption of iliopectineal line suggests fracture of ?
anterior column of acetabulum
Disruption of ilioischial line suggests fracture of ?
posterior column of acetabulum
Disruption of teardrop suggests fracture of ?
medial aspect of acetabulum
What is the most commonly missed hip fracture?
femoral neck fracture
t/f Elderly patients can sometimes weight bear on a femoral neck fracture.
true
What is the xray sign of sacral alar fracture?

What other views should you get?
broken alar lines

pelvic outlet
CT
What (old) view helps with acetabular fracture?
Judet
What is the main mechanism of tibial plateau fracture?
valgus force + axial load
(car bumper vs knee)
What views should you always obtain for blunt trauma to knee?
obliques added to ap and lateral (4 views)
What extra view for patellar fracture?
sunrise view (bent knee, shin on plate)
What is a Segond fracture?

ass w?
small lateral tibial avulsion fx

ass w/ ACL tear
What alignment should you check in the foot (PA)?

(oblique)?
2nd metatarsal, 2nd cuneiform

3rd mt, 3rd cuneiform
What lines do you check on the lateral view of the foot?

what does abnormality suggest?
Bohler's angle
line across top of calcanus + line across subtalar surface
normally 20 40 degrees, if < 20, suggestive of occult calcaneal fracture
What is a Lisfranc injury?
fracture of 2nd metatarsal and avulsion of 2nd metatarsal base from 2nd cuneiform

mts 2-5 can thus be displaced, but needn't be
What is a complication of Lisfranc injury?
compartment syndrome
How do you diagnose an occult calcaneal fracture?
Bohler's line < 20- degrees
** What is the most important view to diagnose an elbow fracture?
lateral
(to see fat pads)
acute anterior wedging: what is first step? second step
localize pain
then get MRI
What are three patterns of bone destruction, from most benign to worst?
geographic: discrete delimited area
permutive: edges blended
motheaten: edges blended, plus holes
What is a "fallen fragment"?
geographic area of destruction in bone, + fragment from a bone cyst
What are the three compartments that spinal tumors can occur in?
extradural
intradural - extramedullary
intradural - intramedullary
What is the most common type of extradural spinal tumor?
mets (prostate, breast, lung)
What is the most common type of intradural-extramedullary spinal tumor?
nerve sheath tumor (schwannoma > neurofibroma)
What is the most common type of intradural-intramedullary spinal tumor in adults?
ependymoma
What is the most common type of intradural-intramedullary spinal tumor in kids?
astrocytoma
Where do spinal meningiomas occur?
thoracic spine
multiple meningiomas are ass w what condition?
neurofibromatosis type 2
t/F schwannomas usually invade the nerve.
false
t/f schwannomas are encapsulated.
true
t/f neurofibromas usually invade the nerve.
true
Besides initial diagnosis, what are four other indications for a bone xray for fracture?
post-reduction and immobilization
1-2 week follow up to assess soft tissue swelling
6-8 week followup to assess callus
after any cast change
Name three examples of geographic bone destruction.
Non-ossifying fibroma
Chrondromyxoid fibroma
Eosinophilic granuloma
Name three types of moth-eaten bone destruction.
Myeloma
Lymphoma
Metastases
Ewing’s Sarcoma
Name five types of permutive bone destruction.
Lymphoma
Leukemia
Ewing’s Sarcoma
Myeloma
Neuroblastoma
A well-defined non-sclerotic border suggests what kind of tumor?
fast-growing, benign
What is butressing?
what does it indicates?
a thick single layer of periosteal reaction
indicates slow growth or benign tumor
What do spiculated margins indicate?
rapid growth
What are two types of spiculated margins?
"hair on end" (perpendicular)
"sunburst" (divergent)
What is Codman's triangle?
triangle between elevated periosteum and adjacent cortex
What does a sunburst pattern indicate?
osteoid production due to extraosseous tumor
What does hair on end pattern indicate?
mets, osteosarcoma

often seen in Ewings sarcoma
What does Codman's triangle indicate?
process lifiting periosteum away from bone
What is the difference in matrix between benign and malignant tumors?
Matrix more likely to be central in malignant chondroid and osteoid tumors, more likely to be peripheral in benign lesions.
Four types of tumor matrix?
osteoid (dense, homogeneous, cloudlike)
chondroid (arcs, circles)
intermediate (ground glass)
cellular (radiolucent)
Which type of matrix does not always mineralize? Which has diffuse uniform mineralization (ground glass)?
osteoid does not always mineralize

intermediate has diffuse mineralization
Which type of matrix does not always calcify?
Which type of matrix has no calcification?
chondroid does not always calcify

cellular has no calcification
In general, in what kind of tissue do primary tumors arise?
in areas of rapid growth
(distal humerus, proximal tibia, humerus)
In general, mets arise in what kind of tissue?
well vascularized
spine, iliac wings
What are the identifying characteristics of osteoid osteoma?
nidus < 2 cm surrounded by sclerotic cortex
usually in femur or tibia, or hands/feet
pain worse at night, relieved by aspirin
What is the course and treatment for osteoid osteoma?
no malignant potential
NSAIDs, percutaneous RF ablation
* What is the most common MALIGNANT PRIMARY bone tumor in young adults and children?
osteosarcoma
* What is the 5 year survival for osteosarcoma?
41%
* Osteosarcoma comprises what percent of all primary bone malignancies?
20%
* What are the two types of osteogenic sarcoma?
Which has the worse prognosis?
conventional OSA (85%)
telangiectatic (5%) --worse prognosis
* Describe a telangiectatic osteosarcoma.
purely lytic
cystic cavities filled with blood and necrosis
poor prognosis
* Describe a conventional osteosarcoma.
poorly defined intramedullary mass extending through cortex
aggressive periosteal reaction
--Codman's, sunburst
may have soft tissue mass, possibly with calcification
* What are three areas that a secondary osteosarcoma can arise?
any pre existing bone lesion, e.g.
Paget's
prior radiation
bone infarct
* T/F Osteosarcoma is usually located in the spine.
False. Usually in tubular bones like femur (esp knee), tibia, humerus
* What is the main imaging modality for assessing osteosarcoma?
CT (XR for presumptive dx)
* Why would you use MRI to assess osteosarcoma?
to stage
bone scan also used
* Why would you use CXR for osteosarcoma?
to look for mets
* What is the usual clinical presentation of enchondroma?
usually asymptomatic
may present as painless swelling or fracture
What is the epidemiology of enchondroma?
10-30 years
gender?
* What is the usual location of enchondroma?
tubular bones of HAND AND FOOT,
then femur/tibia/humerus
* Describe an enchondroma.
lytic lesion with chondroid matrix
well-defined border
rings and arcs from calcification
cortex expands without breaking
no soft tissue mass
* Does an endochondroma have a soft tissue mass?
no
* T/F Endochondromas have "rings and arcs."
true
* T/F Endochondromas have periosteal reaction.
false
* How are endochondromas treated?
if asymptomatic - no treatment

if symptomatic (malignant) - curettage
* T/F If an endochondroma is painful, it is likely malignant.
true
* What is Ollier's disease?

What is the risk of malignant transformation?
multiple endochondromas.
Risk of malignant transformation (to chondrosarcoma) is 25%
Describe an osteochondroma.
bony projection on exterior of bone, covered by cartilage, slow-growing;
stops growing with skeletal maturity
What is the epidemiology of osteochondroma?

What are its clinical features?
< 20 years

slow growing, painless
What are the usual locations of osteochondromas?
TIBIA, femur, humerus
What are the two types of osteochondroma?
peduncular and sessile
What is the chance of malignant transformation of osteochondroma?
1%
Fragment of epiphyseal growth plate grows through periosteal cuff.
osteochondroma
medullary cavity is replaced with fibrous material, woven bone, and spindle cells
fibrous dysplasia
T/F Fibrous dysplasia is a developmental anomaly which does not spread.
true
Associations of fibrous dysplasia
hyperthyroidism
hyperparathyroidism
MC CUNE ALBRIGHT
Most fibrous dysplasia is [monostotic, polyosteoic].
mono 85%
What are the usual locations of fibrous dysplasia?
femur and tibia.
monostotic also occurs in ribs
polyostotic also occurs in craniofacial bones, pelvis
What are the complications of fibrous dysplasia?
fractures
limb deformity
sarcomatous transformation
What are the radiographic features of fibrous dysplasia?
ground glass
well defined sclerotic margins
EXPANSILE MEDULLARY LESIONS
bowing deformities (Shepherd's crook)
sclerotic base of skull
Shepherd's crook deformity
fibrous dysplasia
Sclerotic base of skull
fibrous dysplasia
Medullary lesions
fibrous dysplasia
Most common LYTIC bone mets:
LyTiK to Bone:
Lung thyroid kidney breast
(not in that order)

kidney lung thyroid breast
Most common SCLEROTIC bone mets
Prostate, Breast
ivory vertebrae
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Intramedullary fluid filled lesion, benign
unicameral bone cyst
Do bone cysts have periosteal reaction?
only if there is a fracture caused by cyst growth
Acutely painful benign lesion, blood filled cystic cavities
aneurysmal bone cyst