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284 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The Modified Law method for TMJs requires a ____ rotation of the skull and a _____ angle of the CR.

15 degree, 15 degree

When performing a Waters projection for the sinuses, the CR should exit at what point?

Acanthion

What is the largest immovable bone of the face?

Maxilla

Functions of the Gallbladder include:


1. storing bile


2. concentrating bile


3. storing cholecystokinin

1 and 2

At what age are all of the sinuses completely developed?

18

A blowout fracture is normally best demonstrated on which projection?

Waters

How much difference in degrees is there between the OML and the IOML?

7 to 8

When performing an SMV for sinuses, what is the correct centering point for the CR?

Midway between the angles of the mandible

Where are the petrous ridges seen on a parietocanthial (Waters Method) radiograph?

inferior to the floor of the maxillary sinuses

What adjustment to a standard PA Axial Caldwell projection must be made when performing this projection for the paranasal sinuses? Please select all that apply.


A. Tube angle is inc to 30 degrees


B. Tube angle is removed and horizontal beam used


C. Head must be adjusted so that OML is angle 15 degrees from IR


D. No adjustments are made. A Caldwell view is done the same for sinuses

B. Tube angle is removed and horizontal beam used


C. Head must be adjusted so that OML is angle 15 degrees from IR

A properly positioned AP Axial (Towne) projection should project the dorsum sellae in to the middle aspect of the:

Foramen Magnum

There are a total of _____ fontanels in the infant skull.

6

Which 3 cranial bones articulate directly with the zygomatic bone?

Frontal, Sphenoid, Temporal

A specific radiographic examination of the biliary ducts is termed:

cholanigiography

A radiograph of an SMV projection of the cranium reveals that the mandibular condyles are projected into the petrous pyramids. What must be altered during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic radiograph?

Inc the extension of the skull

Biliary sytem

Be able to label


Gallbladder


Cystic Duct


Common hepatic duct


common bile duct

The liver lies in the:

Upper R Quadrant

The main function of bile is to:

emulsify fats

Which of the following are included as functions of the sinuses?


1. dec weight of skull


2. warm and moisten inhaled air


3. provide resonating chamber for voice

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following should be clearly demonstrated on a lateral projection of the paranasal sinuses?


1. all 4 sinus groups


2. superimposed orbital roofs


3. superimposition of demonstrated portions of the mandible

1, 2, and 3

Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?

Zygomatic

Waters method

Ne able to know when its being demonstrated in a picture

Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones?

Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus

T or F: Infections involving the upper teeth may involve the frontal sinuses.

F

T or F: All of the sinuses intercommunicate with each other and with the nasal cavity.

t

Which sinus is projected through the oral cavity with a parietocanthial transoral projection?

Sphenoid

Which facial bone forms the majority of the hard palate?

Maxilla

Along with the use of erect positions, what other technical factor is important to demonstrate air/fluid levels in the paranasal sinuses?

Horizontal X-Ray Beam

A radiograph of a Lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital roofs (plates) are not superimposed--- one is slightly superior to the other. Which positioning error led to the radiographic outcome?

Tilt

Which cranial bone possesses the superior nasal conchae?

Ethmoid

What is the radiologically important primary function of the liver?

Formation of bile

Gallbladder image

label fundus

A fracture involving the facial bones where a blow to one side causes a fracture to the opposite side is termed a _______ fracture.

contrecoup

The ________ sinuses develop last and are not fully developed until the teenage years.

ethmoid

A radiograph of a Lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital roofs (plates) are not superimposed--- one is slightly superior to the other. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome?

Tilt

A radiograph of a Parietocanthial (Waters) projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower 30% of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this radiographic finding?

insufficient extension

matching on waters projection

Frontal SInuses


Maxillary Sinuses


Zygoma


Petrous Ridge


Mandibular ramus


nasal septum


orbital floor


sphenoid sinuses

The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct join together to form the:

common bile duct

Which projections will demonstrate the Ethmoidal sinuses?


1. Lateral


2. PA Axial (Caldwell)


3. SMV

1, 2, and 3

Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?

Zygomatic

Which sinuses are best demonstrated with a Parietocanthial projection?

Maxillary

Where is the CR centered for a Lateral projection of the facial bones?

Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus

The Liver lies in the:

Upper R Quadrant

biliary structure

label cystic duct

What can the technologist do if the patient cannot extend the head and neck adequately for the routine SMV projection of the Zygomatic arches?

Angle CR to place it perpendicular to the IOML

Which of the following must be projected BELOW the maxillary sinuses for the parietocanthial projection (Waters method) of the sinuses?

petrous pyramids

Which of the following convey(s) blood to the liver?


1. hepatic veins


2. hepatic artery


3. portal vein

2 and 3

The two main hepatic ducts join to form the:

common hepatic duct

The liver is divided into _____ major and minor lobes.

4

A specific radiographic examination of the biliary ducts is termed:

cholangiography

A blowout fracture is normally best demonstrated on which projection?

Waters

Which sinus is projected through the oral cavity with a parietocanthial transoral projection?

Sphenoid

Functions of the Gallbladder include:


1. storing bile


2. concentrating bile


3. sotring cholycystokinin

1 and 2

What is the CR angulation for the axiolateral oblique projection of the TMJ?

15 degrees

A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series on a cart. She is unable to stand or sit erect for any of the projections. Which projection will best detect any air/fluid levels present in the maxillary sinuses?

Horizontal Beam Lateral

Along with the use of erect positions, what other technical factor is important to demonstrate air/fluid levels in paranasal sinuses?

Horizontal X-Ray Beam

What is the CR angulation for the axiolateral oblique projection of the TMJ?

15 degrees

To successfully demonstrate the Ethmoidal and Sphenoidal sinuses on the SMV projection, which of the following must occur?


1. patient must be recumbent


2. infraorbitomeatal line must be parallel with the IR


3. CR must be perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line and horizontal

2 and 3

When performing a Lateral facial bones image, which of the following does NOT need to be included on the image?


A. Entire Mandible


B. Entire Maxilla


C. Entire Zygoma


D. Entire Frontal Bone

Entire Frontal Bone

When performing a PA Caldwell projection of the sinuses, the CR should exit at what point?

Nasion

You have performed a PA Caldwell of the sinuses. The petrous ridges are projected into the lower third of the orbits. What adjustment should be made to improve this image?

Nothing, this is an acceptable image

An infant is brought to the ED with a possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition?

Barium or Air Enema

T or F: Postreduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest the fracture site.

T

A male patient comes to radiology for a voiding cystourethrogram. Which of the following projections and/or positions would be performed for this procedure?

30 degree RPO

T or F: CT (computed tomography) of the kidney for renal calculi does not require the use of intravenous contrast media.

T

Which one of the following devices is best during a c-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment?

Shower Curtain

T or F: Retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system.

T

an advantage of using a capacitor-discharge mobile unit would be:


1. small size


2. long battery life


3. ease of movement around the hospital

1 and 3

When are small bowel series deemed to be complete?

Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve

Which term describes the leakage of contrast media from a vein into the surrounding tissues of the arm?

Extravasation

T or F: a true allergic reaction is also termed as an anaphylactic reaction.

T

during the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

toward the umbilicus

the rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed:

Bolus Injection

Which of the following conditions may produce the "cobblestone" or "string" sign?

regional enteritis (Crohn's Disease)

a patient experiences a hot flash after the injection of an iodinated contrast media. what should be the next action taken by the technologist?

comfort the pateint; this is a common side effect

the abbreviation ORIF refers to:

open reduction internal fixation

What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit?

6 feet

Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a _____ SID.

60 to 72 in

Which of the C-arm orientation in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator's head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine)?

AP projection (x-ray tube above anatomy)

The ideal kV range for a double-contrast barium enema is:

90 to 100

Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1-hour small bowel radiograph should be:

at the level of the Iliac Crest

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

perpendicular to the long axis of the Sternum

T or F: The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon, is considered sterile.

F

T or F: The technologist should leave a butterfly needle in the vein for the first part of the IVU following injection.

T

the frequency with which breast cancer occurs in American women is:

1 in 8

Why is it important for the technologist to review the patient's chart and inform theradiologist before beginning the BE exam if a biopsy was performed as part of a prior sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy procedure?


a. The radiologist would want to confer with the referring physician to see whether the biopsy revealed a malignancy.


b. The biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion of the colon, which could lead to a perforation during the BE exam.


c. A sigmoidoscopy or colonoscope would make the barium enema exam unnecessary.


d. None of the above; the radiologist does not need to know this information prior to theBE exam.

b. The biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion of the colon, which could lead to a perforation during the BE exam.

a twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:

volvulus

During mobile radiography, the least amount of scattered radiation will occur at what angle to the object being radiographed?

90 degrees

Which of the following is true with nonionic type contrast media?


a. low osmolatiy


b. the inability to dissociate into 2 separate ions


c.less chance of reation


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm. The physician reduces the fracture and places a fiberglass cast on the forearm. The initial analog technique was 55 kV and 5 mAs. Which of the following technical factors is best for the postreduction study?


A.. 59 kV;5 mAs


B. 62 kV;5 mAs


C. 67 kV; 5 mAs


D. 72 kV; 5 mAs

A.. 59 kV;5 mAs

Which region of the spine is scanned during a DXA procedure?

T-12 to the iliac crest

Which of the following terms is commonly applied in describing child abuse?

Nonaccidental Trauma NAT)

Situation: You are performing a portable chest on an ICU patient. The patient is unresponsive and on a ventilator. What can be done to reduce respiratory motion during the exposure?


1. Increase your kV and reduce your mA using the 15% rule


2. Turn off the ventilator during the exposure


3. Monitor the respirations and expose during the pause at peak inspiration


4. Ask the patient to hold their breath

1 and 3

Which of the following may cause grid artifacts when performing a portable radiograph using a grid?


1. CR off center to grid


2. CR angle parallel to grid lines


3. CR angle across grid lines


4. Incorrect SID


5. IR not flat

1, 3, 4, and 5

Which vessel is the preferred site for arterial puncture for most angiography?

Femoral Artery

Which other region of the body can be scanned (DEXA) if the patient has spine or hip artifacts (i.e., advanced arthritis)?

Forearm

Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures?

Distance

Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment?

Shower Curtain

Which of the following devices are allowed within the external magnetic field of an MRI unit?


A.Cochlear implants


B.Internal drug infusion pumps


C.Neurostimulators


D.None of the above

D.None of the above

Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator’s head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine)?

Anteroposterior (AP) projection (x-ray tube above anatomy)

Where is the contrast media instilled during a myelogram?

Subarachnoid Space

What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure

Notify a member of the surgical team immediately.

What kV range should be used for analog (film-screen) mammography?

23 to 28

What is the name of the technique commonly used to introduce a catheter into a vessel for interventional and angiographic procedures?

Seldinger

The purpose of the hysterosalpingography is to demonstrate the:

uterine cavity and the patency of the uterine tubes.

The neonate is defined as a child:

newly born

The frequency with which breast cancer occurs in American women is:

1 in 8

The contrast medium of choice for angiography is:

nonionic water-soluble iodinated.

The common lumbar puncture site is located at the vertebra level of:

L3-4

The U.S. Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) of October 1994 requires that:

all sites (except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS

The American College of Radiology recommends that metformin (a drug used for diabetes mellitus) be withheld for ____ hour(s) following a contrast media procedure.

48

Patients with cardiac pacemakers must not be allowed within the ____-gauss line of an MRI unit.

5

Percutaneous biliary drainage (PBD)

A procedure for stone removal, biopsy, dilation of obstructed bile duct, internal and external drainage

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

Dilation of a stenosed vessel

Thrombolysis

A procedure wherein a clot or thrombus is disintegrated (lysed)

Inferior vena cava filter

A procedure for patients at high risk for developing pulmonary emboli

Embolization

Cease blood flow to a site of pathology

Stent placement

Placement of cagelike metal device in the lumen of a vessel

Kyphoplasty

A procedure performed to restore and stabilize a compression fracture by placing a balloon device with the body of the vertebra

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

A procedure to treat variceal bleeding caused by portal hypertension

Percutaneous vertebroplasty

A procedure for vertebral pain due to instability and compression fractures caused by osteoporosis and/or other reasons

T or F:MRI uses a low-energy form of ionizing radiation.

F

In CT, the ratio between the relationship between table speed and slice thickness defines

Pitch

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum

Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for:

EWSL

During a myelogram performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block (bolster) placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?

To widen the interspinous spaces

A radiographer receives 400 mR/hr standing 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit. What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?

25 to 50 mR/hr

A patient’s Z-score given in a bone density report:

compares the patient’s BMD with an average individual of the same sex and age.

A patient’s T-score given in a bone density report:

compares the patient’s BMD with a young, healthy person of the same gender

A patient with a possible ureteric stone comes from the emergency department (ED) for an IVU. She has a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 50. Which of the following imaging modalities is recommended for this patient?

CT

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible pneumothorax of the right lung. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition?

Left lateral decub

With a Horizontal C-arm, there is inc exposure at _____

X-ray tube end

With a 30° C-arm tilt, there is an inc exposure to _____ and _____ by a factor of _____.

Face


Neck


4

Three Cardinal Principles of Radiation Protection

1. Distance


2. Time


3. Shielding

In fluoroscopy, the radiation source is under the patient, so shielding should be placed:

between source and patient

T or F: Backs and below knees of “clean” staff are considered contaminated

T

T or F: The floor is always considered contaminated

T

T or F: Lengthy or complex proceduresincrease risk of sterile field contamination

T

T or F: Mobile radiography can produce some of the highest occupational radiation exposure forradiographers if proper procedures are not followed

T

The IV pole/enema bag is no farther than _____ above the table for the beginning of a barium enema procedure.

24 in

What is the recommended kV range when a water-soluble contrast agent is used?

80 to 90 kV

The most common type of colon cancer is _____.

Adenocarcinoma

The typical adult’s small intestine (intact) measures _____.

15 to 18 ft

What digestive function does the Large Intestine serve?

Elimination

What digestive function does the Jejunum serve?

reabsorption

What digestive function does the Duodenum serve?

Absorption

What digestive function does the Small Intestine serve?

Digestion

Which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate?

It rarely produces an allergic reaction.

One radiograph of an upper GI series needs repeating. The technologist is unsure which projection and/or position is seen on this radiograph. The fundus is filled with barium, and the pylorus and duodenal bulb are profiled and air filled. The patient was recumbent for all projections. Which projection and/or position needs to be repeated?

LPO

Urinary incontinence

Constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine

Horseshoe kidney

Fusion of the kidneys during development of the fetus

Staghorn kidney stone

Large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis

BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

Age-associated enlargement of the prostate gland

Ectopic kidney

Normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen, but rather, remains in the pelvis

Vesicocolonic fistula

Artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine

Hematuria

Blood in the urine

Polyuria

Passage of a large volume of urine

Anuria

Complete cessation of urinary secretion

Micturition

act of voiding

Oliguria or hypouresis

Excretion of diminished amounts of urine

Renal agenesis

Absence of a functioning kidney

How is contrast media normally introduced during a retrograde cystogram?

Gravity flow through a catheter

Where is the IR centered for all abdominal radiographs taken during examinations of the urinary system?

Iliac crest

Contraindications for intravenous urography include:


1.) anuria


2.) renal failure


3.) elderly patients

1 and 2

A radiographic examination of the urinary bladder is termed:

cystography

Why is the posteroanterior (PA) rather than the AP projection recommended for a small bowel series?

Better separation of loops of small intestine

An infant is brought to the ED with a possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition?

Barium or air enema

A patient comes to radiology for a barium enema (BE). He has a possible fistula extending from the rectum to the urinary bladder. Which one of the following projections and/or positions would best demonstrate the fistula?

Lateral rectum position

With automatic exposure control (AEC), which ionization chamber(s) should be activated for an AP projection taken during an IVU?

L and R Upper Chambers

The American College of Radiology recommends that metformin (a drug used for diabetes mellitus) be withheld for ____ hour(s) following a contrast media procedure.

48

The normal creatinine level (diagnostic indication of kidney function) for an adult is _____ mg/dL.

0.6 to 1.5

During an IVU, the patient develops severe urticaria. What should be the next action taken by the technologist?

Get medical assistance.

A patient experiences a hot flash after the injection of an iodinated contrast media. What should be the next action taken by the technologist?

Comfort the patient; this is a common side effect.

A patient comes to radiology for an IVU. He has a clinical history of renal hypertension. How should the IVU procedure be altered for this patient?

Shorten the time between exposures.

Why is it important for the technologist to review the patient's chart and inform the Radiologist before beginning a BE if the patient had a colonoscopy with a biopsy just prior the the BE?

A biopsy of the colon could weaken the wall of the colon and lead to a perforation during the BE.

Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with a neoplasm or adenocarcinoma of the large intestine?

"Napkin ring" or "apple core" sign

What condition would contraindicate the use of a laxative before a barium enema?

Obstruction

What are contraindications to oral barium for a small bowel series?

-Possible ileus


-Possible perforation of bowel


-Possible large bowel obstruction

Which flexure of the colon normally extends more superiorly than the rest of the large bowel?

Left colic flexure

Where is the IR centered for a 15 minute AP/PA small bowel image?

2 inches above the iliac crest

When is a small bowel series deemed to be complete?

Once the contrast media pases the ileocecal valve

The term describing a double contrast small bowel procedure is:

enteroclysis

Adynamic or paralyitic ileus

Obstruction of the small intestine due to the cessation of peristalsis

Giardiasis

Common parasitic infection of the small intestine

Crohn's disease (regional enteritis)

Chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract

Enteritis

Inflammation of the intestine

Neoplasm

New growth or mass observed in intestine

Ileus

Obstruction of the small bowel

In which quadrant of the abdomen does the terminal ileum connect with the large bowel?

RLQ

Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the right colic flexure?

PA oblique, RAO

How far above the anus is the enema bag placed during a barium enema?

18 to 24 in

Which projection of the colon will best demonstrate the medial aspect of the ascending colon and the lateral aspect of the descending colon when the colon is inflated with air?

AP, right lateral decubitus

What is the respiration phase for the PA projection of the upper ribs?

Full inspiration

The condition of the lumbar spine in which there is anterior displacement of one vertebra over another is termed:

spondylolisthesis

Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum on an oblique projection?

Use a breathing technique

How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique positions for the sacroiliac joints?

25 to 30 degrees

An ambulatory patient enters the ED with a possible injury to the right upper posterior ribs. Which of the following routines should be taken to demonstrate the involved area?

Erect AP and RPO

Fracture of adjacent ribs in two or more places with associated pulmonary injury is known as a(n) _____ rib fracture.

Flail Chest

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is a congenital condition termed:

Scoliosis

How much should the body be rotated for a PA oblique projection of the sternum?

15 to 20 degrees

T or F:The LPO position for sacroiliac joints will best demonstrate the right joint.

T

Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the sacrum?

2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

How much is the body rotated for an AP or PA axillary projection of the ribs?

45 degrees

The end of the spinal cord is at what vertebral level?

L1-2

The easily palpable superior border of the manubrium is called the:

Jugular Notch

T or F: The degree of rotation for the right anterior oblique (RAO) projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity.

T

Which joints articulate with a vertebra?


(1) costovertebral


(2) costotransverse


(3) costochondral

1 and 2

A patient enters the ED with an injury to the left anterior lower ribs. Which of the following projections should be taken to demonstrate the involved area?

PA and RAO

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?

AP and LPO

T or F: The use of 125 kV is recommended for AP and PA projections of the ribs to reduce skin dose.

F

Which ribs are considered to be true ribs?

1 through 7

What type of CR angulation is required for an AP axial projection of the coccyx?

10 degree caudad

The costal cartilages of the eighth through tenth ribs attach to:

the costal cartilage of the seventh rib

Which projection and body position will demonstrate the sternum through the heart?

PA Oblique and RAO

A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?

Inc rotation of body

What is the minimum number of ribs that must be demonstrated for a unilateral rib study above the diaphragm?

ribs 1-10

Which ribs are called the true ribs?

1-7

A radiograph of an RAO projection of the sternum demonstrates excessive lung markings obscuring the sternum. A 1-second exposure time and an orthostatic (breathing) technique were used. Which of the following will produce a more diagnostic image of the sternum?

Increase the exposure time; decrease the mA.

Which ribs are demonstrated on an AP oblique projection?

Side closest to the IR

Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum?

Costocartilage

On each side of the sacral base is a large winglike mass called the :

Ala

A patient presents for rib radiographs. The patient is an elderly female, thin in body habitus with slight kyphosis. Her pain is in the left axillary area and she states there was no injury, but after coughing, she now has rib pain. She is able to stand, sit and co-operate. Which of the listed imaging adjustments or procedural techniques should be used for this patient?

-kVp range of 70-75


-Obtain AP and LPO projections

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the ASIS?

S1-2

What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position?

60 to 72 in

How many ribs attach directly to the sternum?

7

The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the sacrum is:

15 degrees cephalad

A key advantage of a PA projection taken during a pediatric scoliosis study as compared with the AP projection is:

it reduces breast and thyroid dose by 90%

Where is the bottom of the IR positioned for an AP projection of the ribs (below the diaphragm)?

at the iliac crest

The condition, flail chest, is most commonly caused by:

blunt trauma

Which analog kV range is recommended for an AP study of the ribs found below the diaphragm?

70 to 70 kV

A patient has a clinical history of spondylolisthesis of L5. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the severity of this condition?

Lateral L5- S1 projection

Where is the CR centered for posterior oblique projections of the SI joints?

1 inch (2.5 cm) medial to upside ASIS

A radiograph of a submentovertex projection reveals that the mandible is superimposed over the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses. Which of the following modifications will eliminate this problem?

Increase the extension of the head and neck.

A radiograph of a lateral cranium reveals that the mentum was cut off from the bottom of the radiograph. A 24 ´ 30-cm (10 ´ 12-inch) IR was used, and it was placed crosswise. What must be altered if a repeat exposure is performed?

None of the above; all of the structures were demonstrated.

A patient comes to radiology for a sinus series on a cart. She is unable to stand or sit erect for any of the projections. Which of the following projections will best detect any air/fluid levels present in the maxillary sinuses?

Horizontal Beam Lateral

A fracture involving the facial bones where a blow to one side causes a fracture to the opposite side is termed a ____ fracture.

Contrecoup

The ________ position best demonstrates the frontal sinuses without superimposition or excessive distortion

Caldwell

The OML is tilted ______________ degrees from perpendicular for a modified PA Caldwell for paranasal sinuses.

15

For a lateral projection of the skull or sinuses, the _______________ line must be perpenidcular to the image receptor to insure there is no tilt.

IPL

When performing an SMV for sinuses, what is the correct centering point for the CR?

Midway between the angles of the mandible

Which one of the following pathologic indications may require a decrease in manual exposure factors?

Multiple Myeloma

Which sinus projection demonstrates all four sets of sinuses?

Lateral

You have performed a PA Caldwell of the sinuses. The petrous ridges are projected into the lower third of the orbits. What adjustment should be made to improve this image?

Nothing, this is an acceptable image

When performing a lateral facial bones image, which of the following does NOT need to be included on the image?

Entire frontal bone

An enlarged or eroded sella turcica seen on a lateral skull image may indicate what pathology?

Pituitary Adenoma

A properly positioned AP axial (Towne) projection should project the dorsum sellae in to the middle aspect of the:

Foramen Magnum

You are performing an AP axial (Towne) projection for TMJs. As compared to a standard Towne for a skull, what adjustments must be made in order to properly demonstrate the TMJ's?

-Collimation to a smaller area


-CR centered lower, placing TMJ's in center of field


-Perform images both open mouth and closed mouth

The maxillary sinuses are best shown with the ______________ projection

Water's

Which of the following is true regarding positioning for the Waters method?


1.) the orbitomeatal line forms a 37-degree angle with the plane of the IR


2.) the mentomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR plane


3.) the coronal plane is perpendicular to the IR plane

1 and 2

Where is the IR centered for the parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection of the sinuses?

Acanthion

Which of the sinuses is developed at birth and visible radiographically?

Maxillary

For a lateral projection of the facial bones, the IR is centered to the:

Zygomatic Bone

To successfully demonstrate the ethmoidal and sphenoidal sinuses on the SMV projection, which of the following must occur?


1.) the patient must be recumbent


2.) the infraorbitomeatal line must be parallel with the IR


3.) the central ray must be perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line and horizontal

2 and 3

For the submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the central ray is directed perpendicular to the:

IOML

Which facial bones are clearly demonstrated on the parietoacanthial projection (Waters method)?


1.) orbits


2.) maxillae


3.) zygomatic arches

1, 2, and 3

A blowout fracture of the orbit may be indicated by an air fluid level in which of the paranasal sinuses?

Maxillary Sinuses

A radiograph of a Waters projection reveals that the petrous ridges are superimposed over the lower third of the maxillary sinuses. What specific positioning error (if any) led to this radiographic finding?

Insufficient extension of the chin

A radiograph of a PA Caldwell projection for sinuses reveals that the petrous ridges are projected into the lower one third of the maxillary sinuses. Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image?

Decrease the extension of the head and neck

Which ribs are demonstrated on an AP oblique projection?

Side closest to the IR

Which ribs are called the false ribs?

8 to 12

What is the respiration phase for the PA projection of the upper ribs?

Full Inspiration

Where is the bottom of the IR positioned for an AP projection of the ribs (below the diaphragm)?

At the Iliac Crest

Where should the patient's hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum?

Locked behind the back

The costal cartilages of the eighth through tenth ribs attach to:

the costal cartilage of the seventh rib

How much is the body rotated for an AP or PA axillary projection of the ribs?

45 degrees

How many ribs attach directly to the sternum?

7

Which of the following techniques should be utilized to decrease radiation dose during scoliosis radiography?


(1) high kVp


(2) breast shields


(3) PA projection instead of AP

1, 2, and 3

Situation: A young female patient comes to radiology for a scoliosis study. The patient has had this series performed frequently. How much will the breast dose be decreased if a PA rather than an AP projection is taken?

90%

Which of the following statements is true about floating ribs?

They do not possess costocartilage

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs?

Left Posterior Oblique (LPO)

Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs?

Hemothorax

The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of:

T9-10

What is the minimum number of ribs that must be demonstrated for a unilateral rib study above the diaphragm?

Ribs 1-10

Which analog kV range is recommended for an AP study of the ribs found below the diaphragm?

70 to 80 kV

Which aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body?

Head

The condition, flail chest, is most commonly caused by:

Blunt Trauma

An ambulatory patient enters the ED with a possible injury to the right upper posterior ribs. Which of the following routines should be taken to demonstrate the involved area?

Erect AP and RPO

Why is the RAO sternum preferred to the LAO position?

The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart.

What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic type of patient?

20 degrees

What is the recommended SID for the lateral sternum position?

60 to 72 in

Fracture of adjacent ribs in two or more places with associated pulmonary injury is known as a(n) _____ rib fracture.

Flail Chest

A radiograph of an RAO projection of the sternum demonstrates excessive lung markings obscuring the sternum. A 1-second exposure time and an orthostatic (breathing) technique were used. Which of the following will produce a more diagnostic image of the sternum?

inc rotation of the body

A patient presents for rib radiographs. The patient is an elderly female, thin in body habitus with slight kyphosis. Her pain is in the left axillary area and she states there was no injury, but after coughing, she now has rib pain. She is able to stand, sit and co-operate. Which imaging adjustments or procedural techniques should be used for this patient?

-kVp range of 70-75


-Obtain AP and LPO projections

A patient enters the ED with an injury to the left anterior lower ribs. Which of the following projections should be taken to demonstrate the involved area?

PA and RAO