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173 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The three types of flow that need to be managed are:
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product and service flow, information flow, and financial flow.
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What are the 6 key tactical responsibilities of supply chain management?
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Forecasting: Prepare and evaluate forecasts. Sourcing: Choose suppliers and some make-or-buy decisions.
Operations planning: Coordinate the external supply chain and internal operations. Managing inventory: Decide where in the supply chain to store the various types of inventory (raw materials, semifinished goods, finished goods). Transportation planning: Match capacity with demand. Collaborating: Work with supply chain partners to coordinate plans. |
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What are the 8 key operational responsibilities of supply chain management?
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Scheduling: Short-term scheduling of operations and distribution. Receiving: Management of inbound deliveries from suppliers. Transforming: Conversion of inputs into outputs. Order fulfilling: Linking production resources and/or inventory to specific customer orders. Managing inventory: Maintenance and replenishment activities. Shipping: Management of outbound deliveries to distribution centers and/or customers. Information sharing: Exchange of information with supply chain partners. Controlling: Control of quality, inventory, and other key variables and implementing corrective action, including variation reduction, when necessary.
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elements of supply chain management:
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customers, forecasting, product and service design, processing, inventory, purchasing, suppliers, location and logistics
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The current interest in supply chains is due to a variety of factors. Among them are:
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increased competitive pressures, increased levels of outsourcing, increasing transportation costs, increasing globalization, and the need to manage inventories
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___________is concerned not only with the movement of materials, but also with the movement of information in a supply chain.
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Logistics
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involves processing returned goods, which generally involves sorting, examining/testing, restocking items that are in good condition, repairing defectives, reconditioning products, recycling materials, and disposing of obsolete or hazardous materials
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Reverse Logistics
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The goal of reverse logistics management is to
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recapture or create value in returned goods, or to properly dispose of items of goods that cannot be resold.
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Performance drivers of supply chain management include
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quality, cost, flexibility, information, inventory velocity and customer service.
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The benefits of effective supply chain management include:
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lower inventories, lower costs, higher productivity, greater agility, shorter lead times, higher profits, and greater customer loyalty.
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Possible challenges to successfully implementing a supply chain include
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barriers to the integration of separate organizations,
getting top management “on board,” coping with inventory and transportation trade-offs, coping with lead time and transportation cost trade-offs, coping with product variety and inventory trade-offs, coping with cost and customer service trade-offs, and dealing with small businesses. |
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responsible for selecting suppliers that can reliably deliver quality goods and or services in a timely manner in addition to establishing mutually beneficial relationships with suppliers
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purchasing
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is responsible for obtaining the material inputs for the operating system
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purchasing
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Purchasing objectives are to
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determine (from operations) the quality, quantity and timing requirements;
to obtain the best possible price; (not necessarily the lowest price, because other factors such as quality, flexibility, ethics, timely deliveries, and flexibility are also important) to maintain good relations with vendors, to maintain sources of supply; and to be knowledgeable on prices, new products and new services |
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lets companies reduce overhead by shifting responsibility for owning, managing, replenishing inventory to vendors.
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Vendor-managed inventory (VMI)
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involves looking at price, quality, financial stability, location, and the degree to which a supplier is willing to be flexible about product changes, and the supplier’s lead times and on-time delivery.
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Evaluating sources of supply (vendor analysis)
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Cross docking occurs when ships are between two docks so they can be unloaded from both sides, thereby cutting unloading time in half.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Cross docking occurs when the cargo from an inbound truck if offloaded "across a loading dock" and onto an outbound truck. |
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Every business organization is part of a supply chain.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Inventory velocity refers to the rate at which inventory moves through the supply chain.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Outsourcing can reduce some of the need for actively managing a supply chain.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Outsourcing is one reason for the increased need for managing the supply chain. |
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Logistics involves the flow of goods and the flow of information in a supply chain.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Active RFID requires more worker involvement than passive RFID, which can operate independently.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Neither requires much worker involvement. |
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CPFR depends on centralized purchasing for its success.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: CPFR stands for collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment. |
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Service organizations often have shorter supply chains than manufacturing organizations.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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A key different between active and passive RFID tags is that active tags have a power supply.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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An important goal of purchasing is to obtain low prices for goods and services.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Price is only one of several important factors, and might not be the most important. Other factors include quality, reliability, flexibility, and lead time. |
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Supplier audits are intended to keep current on suppliers' production or service capabilities.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Supply chain visibility is enhanced when supply trucks have a company's name prominently displayed.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Visibility refers to the ability of supply chain partners to access sales and inventory records and other aspects of supply chain partners' operations. |
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Fill rate refers to the rate at which goods are loaded onto ships or trucks.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: The fill rate is the percentage of demand that is filled from supply on hand. |
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E business enhances the ability of small businesses to compete with large businesses.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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VMI is a way that companies can reduce costs related to replenishing inventory.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: Vendors manage replenishment with their employees. |
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The term bullwhip effect is most closely related to:
A) assertive customers B) demand variations C) inventory turnover D) return of inventory E) inventory security |
B) demand variation
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Cross docking results in cost savings associated with
A) dock space B) ordering goods C) cargo ships D) storage space E) down time |
D) storage space
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Which one is not an a requirement of effective supply chain management?
A) low cost B) trust C) event management D) visibility |
A) low cost
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The term "3PL" is most closely associated with
A) outsourcing B) e-commerce C) learning curves D) mass customization E) cross docking |
A) outsourcing
Feedback: 3PL stands for third party logistics, meaning outsourcing of the logistics function. |
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The letters RFID are most closely associated with
A) outsourcing B) tracking items C) cross docking D) event management E) None of these. |
B) tracking items
Feedback: RFID tags on shipments provide tracking capability. |
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Which one of these would have a negative impact on inventory costs?
A) disintermediation B) delayed differentiation C) cross docking D) bullwhip effect |
D) bullwhip effect
Feedback: Demand oscillations lead to inventory shortages and excesses at various points in the supply chain. |
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Which one is not a reason for increased emphasis on supply chain management?
A) increased levels of outsourcing B) increased transportation costs C) trends towards globalization D) the need to improve internal operations |
D) the need to improve internal operations
Feedback: Companies have the least control over external operations, and hence, more need to manage those portions of the supply chain. |
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Which one of these best describes disintermediation?
A) The mediation of supply chain disputes by a disinterested third party. B) Elimination of supply chain middlemen. C) Delayed differentiation. D) Overcoming the bullwhip effect. |
B) Elimination of supply chain middlemen.
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Which one of these relates to avoiding warehousing costs?
A) cross docking B) delayed differentiation C) disintermediation D) gatekeeping E) strategic partnering |
A) cross docking
Feedback: Cross docking involves transferring goods from incoming trucks directly to outbound trucks, thereby avoiding a warehouse. |
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Which one refers to reverse logistics?
A) cross docking B) delayed differentiation C) customer refusal to accept damaged goods D) returned goods E) retracing the steps in a supply chain |
D) returned goods
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Inventories are held for a variety of reasons, such as:
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meeting anticipated demand
smoothing production, decoupling internal operations protecting against stockouts taking advantage of quantity discounts hedging against price increases. |
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The requirements for effective inventory management are:
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an accounting system to keep track of on-hand and on-order merchandise
reliable forecasting of demand estimates of lead times between placing an order and receiving goods and lead-time variability, estimates of inventory holding costs, ordering costs and shortage (backorder) costs, and a classification system |
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Explain the ABC Classification
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The A-B-C approach can be used to classify inventory items according to some measure of importance, often in annual dollar volume
Generally there will be a small percentage of items (10% to 15%) with relatively high annual volumes. These should be classified as A items, and given disproportionately high attention by management. At the other end of the scale will be a large percentage of items (around 50% to 60%) that have relatively low annual volume. These should be classified as C items and given disproportionately low attention by management. The middle group in terms of annual volume (25% to 40%) should be classified as B items and given moderate attention by management. |
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identify the optimal order quantity by minimizing the sum of certain annual costs that vary with order size.
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an Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model
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The fundamental versions of the deterministic EOQ model include:
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a. EOQ for purchased end items or semi-finished goods acquired from outside vendors.
b. Economic Production Quantity (EPQ) for internal production orders in batch processing and non-instantaneous replacement. c. EOQ for quantity discounts. |
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keeps track of removals from inventory on a continuous basis, so the system can provide information on the current level of inventory for each item. When the amount on hand reaches a predetermined minimum, a fixed quantity, Q, is ordered.
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perpetual inventory system
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a very elementary system, uses two containers for inventory. Items are withdrawn from the first bin until its contents are exhausted. It is then time to reorder. Sometimes an order card is placed at the bottom of the first bin. The second bin contains enough stock to satisfy expected demand until the order is filled, plus an extra cushion of stock that will reduce the chance of a stockout if the order is late or if usage is greater than expected.
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two-bin system
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the time between submitting an order and receiving it
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lead time
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_________relate to physically having items in storage. Costs include interest, insurance, taxes (in some states), depreciation, obsolescence, deterioration, spoil- age, pilferage, breakage, and warehousing costs (heat, light, rent, security)
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Holding, or carrying, costs
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the costs of ordering and receiving inventory. They are the costs that vary with the actual placement of an order. Besides shipping costs, they include determining how much is needed, preparing invoices, inspecting goods upon arrival for quality and quan- tity, and moving the goods to temporary storage.
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Ordering costs
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______result when demand exceeds the supply of inventory on hand. These costs can include the opportunity cost of not making a sale, loss of customer goodwill, late charges, and similar costs.
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Shortage costs
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a physical count of items in inventory
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cycle counting
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occurs when the quantity on hand drops to a predetermined amount. That amount generally includes expected demand during lead time and perhaps an extra cushion of stock,
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reorder point (ROP)
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used when orders must be placed at fixed time intervals (weekly, twice a month, etc.): The timing of orders is set. The question, then, at each order point, is how much to order.
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fixed-order-interval (FOI) model
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The two basic questions in inventory management are how much to order and when to order.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Using the EOQ model, if an item's holding cost increases, its order quantity will decrease.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: It will decrease because holding cost is in the denominator of the EOQ formula. |
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Use of the fixed-interval model requires having a perpetual inventory system.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: A periodic system would be used. |
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With the A-B-C approach, items which have high unit costs are classified as A items.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: A-B-C is based on the product of unit cost and annual volume. |
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When using EOQ ordering, the order quantity must be computed in every order cycle.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Unless demand, holding cost, or ordering cost changing, the order quantity will not change. |
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The economic order quantity cannot be used when holding costs are a percentage of purchase cost.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Refer to Example 3 in the textbook. |
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Companies that can successfully use the A-B-C approach can avoid using EOQ models.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: They still need to determine how much to order. |
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Inventory might be held to take advantage of order cycles.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: Using an economic order quantity is an example of this. |
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The objective of inventory management is to minimize holding costs.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: The objective of inventory management is to minimize total cost, which includes ordering costs and sometimes purchase costs (e.g., quantity discount models). |
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Holding and ordering costs are inversely related to each other.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: Changes in order quantity will cause one to increase and the other to decrease. |
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A two-bin system is essentially a simple reorder point system.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: Reorder when the first bin is empty. |
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In the basic EOQ model, annual ordering cost and annual ordering cost are equal for the optimal order quantity.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Increasing the order quantity so that it is slightly above the EOQ would not increase the total cost by very much.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: The total cost curve is flat to the right of the EOQ. |
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A fixed-interval ordering system would be used for items that have independent demand.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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A store that sells daily newspapers could use the single-period model for reordering.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: The period is one day, and the news in "perishable" beyond one day. |
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Other things beings equal, an increase in lead time for inventory orders will result in an increase in the:
A) order size B) order frequency C) reorder point |
C) reorder point
Feedback: Quantity models do not involve lead time. |
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If average demand for an item is 21 units per day, safety stock is 4 units, and lead time is 2 days, the ROP will be:
A) 84 B) 46 C) 42 D) none of these |
B) 46
Feedback: ROP = d x LT + SS = 21 x 2 + 4 = 46. |
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In an A-B-C system, B items typically represent about this percentage of items:
A) 90% B) 75% C) 50% D) 30% E) 15% |
D) 30%
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Which model does not take into account the amount of inventory on hand?
A) FOI B) ROP C) EOQ |
C) EOQ
Feedback: The EOQ factors are demand, ordering costs, and carrying costs. |
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Which product is usually bought on an ROP basis?
A) textbooks B) wedding gifts C) sugar D) newspaper |
C) sugar
Feedback: Buy more went the quantity on hand gets low. |
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Which product is usually bought on a fixed interval basis?
A) textbooks B) wedding gifts C) sugar D) brownies |
A) textbooks
Feedback: Usually bought once a semester. |
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In the two-bin system, the quantity in the second bin is equal to the:
A) EOQ B) ROP C) FOI D) None of these. |
B) ROP
Feedback: The second bin holds the reorder point quantity. |
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Using the basic EOQ model, if the ordering cost doubles, the order quantity will be
A) double if former value B) about 50% of its former value C) about 71% of its former value D) unaffected |
C) about 71% of its former value
Feedback: Because S in under the square root sign, multiplying its value be 2 will increase the EOQ by the square root of 2, which is .707. |
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Which area is not strategic for reducing inventory costs?
A) Record keeping B) Supply chain management. C) Lean operation. D) Variance reduction E) Internet ordering |
E) Internet ordering
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Setup costs are analogous to which one of these costs?
A) shortage B) holding C) excess D) ordering |
D) ordering
Feedback: Both setup and ordering costs are in the numerator of the quantity formula; and both are independent of order size. |
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planning for general levels of employment and output to balance supply and demand typically for periods of one year or less.
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Aggregate planning
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What are the elements of aggregate planning that planners take into account?
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projected demand, capacity, and costs of various options in devising an aggregate plan. Among the variables available to planners are adjustments in output rate, employment level, overtime/undertime, and subcontracting
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The goal of aggregate planning is
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to achieve a production plan that will effectively utilize the firm’s resources.
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In order to effectively plan, in addition to knowledge of company policy, estimates of the following items must be available to planners:
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a. Demand for each period
b. Capacity for each period c. Costs (regular time, overtime, subcontracting, backorders, etc.) |
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In order to translate an aggregate plan into meaningful terms for production, it must be
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In order to translate an aggregate plan into meaningful terms for production, it must be
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indicates the desired quantity and timing of deliveries
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A master schedule
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three basic inputs to the master schedule
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Beginning inventory, forecasts for each period in the schedule, and customer orders.
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Outputs of the scheduling process include
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projected inventory, production requirements, and the amount of uncommitted inventory, which is referred to as available-to-promise (ATP) inventory.
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Among the strategies aggregate planners might try are to:
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a. maintain a level work force and meet demand variations in some other manner, such as holding inventories or subcontracting.
b. use some combination of pricing differentials, promotions and back orders to smooth out fluctuations in demand. c. match demand period by period with some combination of overtime and part time work, or putting workers on leave. d. Use a combination of decision variables |
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Aggregate planning is intermediate range planning for goods and services.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Aggregate planning typically covers a time interval of 2 to 4 years.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: The typical range is 6 to 18 months |
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Sales and operations planning is intermediate-range decisions to balance supply and demand, integrating financial and operations planning.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Aggregate planning is concerned with both the quantity and timing of anticipated demand.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Supply options include pricing and using part-time workers.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Pricing is a demand option. |
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Use of backorders is a demand option rather than a supply option.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: Backorders shift demand to a later period |
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Inventories can enable firms to increase capacity in future periods.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: Firms can produce during slow periods and hold the inventory for a later period. |
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A level capacity strategy attempts to keep capacity level with demand.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: That is the goal of a chase strategy. |
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A level strategy is more dependent on forecast accuracy than is a chase strategy.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: This is due to the inflexibility associated with a level strategy |
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An advantage of a level approach is lower inventories than with a chase approach.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: It is just the opposite: chase involves lower investment in inventory. |
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A level approach works best when demand is stable.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Automobile assembly plants and oil refineries are well-suited for a chase approach.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: They are designed for high, steady output. |
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Yield management involves the application of pricing strategies to alter supply.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Pricing strategies alter demand |
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Goods producers are the primary users of yield management because it enhances their bottom lines.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Airlines, theaters, motels, and restaurants are among the primary users. |
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A master schedule is used to assign workers to specific jobs.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: A master schedule shows quantity and timing of end items for a time horizon. |
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Rough cut capacity planning is used to test the feasibility of a proposed master schedule.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Disaggregating the aggregate relates to
A) yield management B) planning a chase approach C) master scheduling D) short-range planning |
C) master scheduling
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Which one is not considered a capacity option?
A) Use of backorders. B) Use of overtime. C) Use of subcontractors. D) Use of temporary workers. |
A) Use of backorders.
Feedback: Backorders are a demand option because they shift demand to another time period. |
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Which one is not a disadvantage of a level approach compared to a chase approach?
A) greater inventory costs. B) increased overtime and idle time C) varying resource utilization D) varying workforce levels |
D) varying workforce levels
Feedback: Workforce levels are stable. |
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The terms frozen, slushy, and liquid are most closely associated with
A) yield management B) time fences C) rough-cut capacity planning D) a chase strategy |
B) time fences
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The term available-to-promise is most closely associated with
A) sales and operations planning B) rough-cut capacity planning C) disaggregating the aggregate plan D) master production scheduling |
D) master production scheduling
Feedback: An output of the master production scheduling process is the amount of uncommitted inventory that is available. |
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Which one is unrelated to the master scheduling process?
A) yield management B) rough-cut capacity planning C) time fences. D) available-to-promise |
A) yield management
Feedback: Yield management relates to pricing strategies to allocate capacity. |
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Capacity requirements can be more difficult to predict for services than for manufacturing.
A) True B) False |
A) True
Feedback: For example, the time to allow for doctors' office visits and the time to repair an appliance are more difficult to predict than the time to assemble an automobile. |
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variations in demand are met by using some combination of inventories, overtime, part-time workers, subcontracting, and back orders while maintaining a steady rate of output
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level capacity strategy
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the planned output for any period would be equal to expected demand for that period
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chase demand strategy
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an approach that seeks to maximize revenue by using a strategy of variable pricing; prices are set relative to capacity availability. Thus, during periods of low demand, price discounts are offered to attract a wider population. Conversely, during peak periods, higher prices are posted to take advantage of limited supply relative to demand
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Yield management
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involves testing the feasibility of a proposed master schedule relative to available capacities, to assure that no obvious capacity constraints exist. This means checking capacities of pro- duction and warehouse facilities, labor, and vendors to ensure that no gross deficiencies exist that will render the master schedule unworkable.
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rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP)
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divide a scheduling time horizon into three sec- tions or phases, sometimes referred to as frozen, slushy, and liquid, in reference to the firm- ness of the schedule
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Time fences
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uncommitted inventory
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available-to-promise (ATP) inventory.
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the average amount of inventory in a system is equal to the product of the average rate at which inventory units leave the system (i.e., the average demand rate) and the average time a unit is in the system
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Little’s Law
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atio of annual cost of goods sold to average inventory investment
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inventory turnover,
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a physical count of items in inventory is made at periodic intervals (e.g., weekly, monthly) in order to decide how much to order of each item.
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periodic system,
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the order size that minimizes total annual cost
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economic order quan- tity (EOQ)
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Aggregate planning strategies can be described as
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proactive, reactive, or mixed.
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_________ strategies involve demand options: They attempt to alter demand so that it matches capacity.
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Proactive
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strategies involve capacity options: They attempt to alter capacity so that it matches demand
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Reactive
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Demand options include
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pricing, promotions, using back orders (delay- ing order filling), and creating new demand.
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Supply options include
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hiring/laying off workers, overtime/slack time, part-time or temporary workers, inventories, and subcontractors.
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When demand for items is derived from plans to make certain products, as it is with raw materials, parts, and assemblies used in producing a finished product, those items are said to have
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dependent demand
|
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a computer-based information system that translates the finished product requirements of the master schedule into time-phased require- ments for subassemblies, component parts, and raw materials, working backward from the due date using lead times and other information to determine when and how much to order
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Material requirements planning (MRP)
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An MRP system has three major sources of information:
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a master schedule, a bill-of-materials file, and an inventory records file
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The quantities in a master schedule come from a number of different sources, including
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customer orders, forecasts, and orders from warehouses to build up seasonal inventories.
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amounts to the sum of the lead times that sequential phases of the production or assembly process require
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cumulative lead time
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contains a listing of all of the assemblies, subassemblies, parts, and raw materials that are needed to produce one unit of a finished product.
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bill of materials (BOM)
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provides a visual depiction of the subassemblies and components needed to assemble a product.
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product structure tree,
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what is this chart
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A master schedule
|
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total expected demand for an item or raw material during each time period without regard to the amount on hand
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Gross requirements
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Open orders (orders that have been placed and are scheduled to arrive from vendors or elsewhere in the pipeline by the beginning of a period)
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Scheduled receipts
|
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he expected amount of inventory that will be on hand at the begin- ning of each time period: scheduled receipts plus available inventory from last period.
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Projected on hand
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The quantity expected to be received by the beginning of the period in which it is shown
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Planned-order receipts
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a planned amount to order in each time period; equals planned-order receipts offset by lead time
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Planned-order releases
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approach that updates MRP records periodically
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regenerative system
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approach that updates MRP records continuously
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net-change system
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a procedure in which an end item’s bill of materials (BOM) is periodically exploded to determine the quantities of the various components that were used to make the item, eliminating the need to collect detailed usage information on the production floor.
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Backflushing
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integration of financial, manufacturing and HR on a single computer system
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ERP
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There are three major reasons why companies undertake ERP
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To integrate financial data
To standardize manufacturing processes To standardize HR information |
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puts a given type of assembly at the same level in the tree, no matter what levels the "parents" may be at: a parent is the next higher level of assembly.
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Low-level coding of a product-structure tree
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Benefits of MRP.
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a. Low levels of in-process inventories.
b. The ability to keep track of material requirements. c. The ability to evaluate capacity requirements generated by a given master schedule. d. A means of allocating production time. |
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integrate marketing and finance into production planning and enable capacity requirements planning.
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MRP II systems
|
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MRP is used for independent demand items.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: It is used for dependent demand items (i.e., assembled goods). |
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MRP applications are limited to manufacturing; services do not use it.
A) True B) False |
B) False
|
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Pegging can be used to identify the supplier that provided a specific component of an item.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: It is used to show what parent items have generated the demand for a component. |
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With lot-for-lot order, planned order releases equal net requirements.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Planned order releases and planned order receipts must be equal.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Planned order releases differ from planned order receipts in terms of timing, but not in terms of quantity.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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A bill of materials contains a listing of all the materials needed to produce an item.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Capacity requirements planning involves determining short-range capacity requirements.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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A regenerative system updates MRP records continuously.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: Records are updated periodically. |
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MRP II is an expand approach to production resource planning.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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Backflushing refers to cleaning out the system in preparation for the next job.
A) True B) False |
B) False
Feedback: It refers to exploding an end items bill of materials to determine the quantities of components that were used to assemble it. |
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The planned order releases at each level of MRP are one determinant of the gross requirements at the next lower level.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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MRP is typically part of an ERP system.
A) True B) False |
A) True
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MRP is primarily used in this setting:
A) job shop B) continuous C) batch |
C) batch
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Which of these describes lot sizing? Determining
A) planned order releases B) net requirements C) when to order D) how much to order E) None of these. |
D) how much to order
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In MRP, planned order receipts must always equal
A) scheduled receipts B) planned order releases C) net requirements D) gross requirements |
B) planned order releases
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Which is true about scheduled receipts?
A) They are orders previously placed, and not yet completed or received. B) They must be less than the Net Requirements in any period. C) They are included in Planned Order Receipts. D) They are added to Gross Requirements to get Net Requirements. |
A) They are orders previously placed, and not yet completed or received.
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In MRP, the listing of all the subassemblies and components needed to produce a unit of an end item is called the:
A) material requirements plan B) master schedule C) bill of materials D) master production schedule |
C) bill of materials
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Which one is not a primary report for MRP?
A) Planned orders B) Order releases. C) Changes. D) Exceptions. |
D) Exceptions.
Feedback: Exception reports are secondary reports. |
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Low level coding refers to
A) Having low level employees input product codes into computer data banks. B) Structuring a bill of materials so that multiple occurrences of an item coincide with the lowest level that the item occurs. C) Using low levels of coding to simplify identification of components in an MRP setup. D) None of these. |
B) Structuring a bill of materials so that multiple occurrences of an item coincide with the lowest level that the item occurs.
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In MRP, which one of these could not be a factor in determining the net requirements of a component?
A) Planned Order Releases B) Scheduled Receipts C) Projected on-hand D) Gross Requirements |
B) Scheduled Receipts
Feedback: Net requirements are determined by the other three choices. |
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Closed loop MRP relates most closely to:
A) Capacity planning B) ERP C) Scheduled Receipts D) Planned Order Receipts. |
A) Capacity planning
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A key goal of MRP is to:
A) Avoid cost overruns. B) Use Scheduled Receipts only when necessary. C) Match supply and demand. D) Order early to avoid late-order penalties. E) All are key goals. |
C) Match supply and demand
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Which one is not included in a list of ERP hidden costs?
A) Waiting for ROI. B) Consultants ad infinitum. C) Data analysis and conversion. D) High purchase costs. E) Integration and testing. |
D) High purchase costs.
Feedback: Purchase costs are not "hidden." |
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Which one would not be a reason for using ERP, or would all be reasons?
A) Integration of financial data. B) Standardize production processes. C) Standardize HR information. D) Interconnect production, sales, and distribution on a single server. E) All are reasons. |
E) All are reasons.
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