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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Name the 3 ways that normal motion is restricted.
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Soft tissue distension, bone and soft tissue approximation
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Name two common examples of extra-articular accessory joint motion.
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The scapula needs to move to achieve full elevation of the shoulder and the patella must be mobile to achieve full knee range of motion at the knee.
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None
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Differentiate active and passive ROM.
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Active ROM requires the patient to contract his/her muscles. PROM the patient does not help, the therapist or a machine moves the patient
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Name the 4 conditions that could restrict AROM
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Muscle weakness, willingness for the patient to move, restrictions in PROM and pain
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True or False: PROM is greater then AROM
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TRUE
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Name six conditions that can restrict PROM
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Shortening of soft tissues, edema (swelling), adhesions due to scar tissue formation, mechanical block (piece of cartilage in the joint), herniated disk, and a nerve that has scarred down due to adhesions.
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Differentiate osteokinematics from arthrokinematics.
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Osteokinematics are movementss that occur between the bone segments while arthrokinematics describes the movements between the joint surfaces.
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None
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What three terms are used to describe arthrokinematic movement.
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Roll, spin and glide
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According to the law of Convex/concave describe the arthrokinematics that occur when the concave surface is fixed and the convex surface is moving.
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When the convex surface moves on a fixed concave surface, the roll and glide occur in opposite directions.
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Restricted motion in a joint can be classified by what two terms?
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Capsular or Non-capsular
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None
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Define what is meant by a capsular restriction.
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The entire capsule is involved and motion follows a predicable pattern of loss.
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What is meant by a non-capsular restriction of motion?
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Restricted motions do not follow a predictable pattern. Tissues other the capsule are causing the restriction. If the capsule is involved, only part of it has been effected.
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None
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Differentiate contractile and non-contractile tissues
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Contractile tissues contain actin and myosin, therefore they have the capacity to contract.
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Describe the pathomechanics (abnormal movements) that occur when collagen extensibility is compromised.
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Cross-links develop where different collagen fibers come in contact with one another. These links prevent the normal elongation of collagen tissue.
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None
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Define Creep.
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A tissue will lengthen when a constant force is applied for a long period of time.
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None
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Differentiate plastic deformation from elastic deformation
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With plastic deformation when a force is applied to a tissue, the length of the tissue is permanently changed. With elastic deformation, once the force has been removed, the tissue returns to its original length.
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Define muscle tone.
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muscle tension at rest, readiness to move or hold a position, priming or tuning of the muscles or the degree of activation prior to movement.
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How do we assess muscle tone?
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We would perform PROM and assess the amount of resistance the we encournter during the motion.
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None
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Name the structure that lies within the muscle belly and monitors the length of the muscle during motion.
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Muscle spindles
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Name the structure that lies within the muscle's tendon and monitors the tension created in the muscle during motion.
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Golgi Tendon Organs
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What is the name of the motor nerve that carries the electral impulse from the brain to the msucle?
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Alpha motor neuron
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True or False: afferent nerves send information towards the spinal cord and brain.
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TRUE
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Define an action potential.
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An action potential is a "spike" of electrical discharge that travels along the membrane of a cell.
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True or False: In order for an action potential to occur, the excitory imput must be greater then the inhibitory input.
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True
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True or False: afferent nerves send information towards the spinal cord and brain.
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TRUE
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Define an action potential.
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An action potential is a "spike" of electrical discharge that travels along the membrane of a cell. For more info go to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Action_potentials
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True or False: In order for an action potential to occur, the excitory imput must be greater then the inhibitory input.
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True
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Define Flaccidity
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lack of tone or resistance to passive movement w/in the middle range of a muscle’s length. Associated with total paralysis of the muscle.
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Define Hypertoncity
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increased resistance to stretch compared with normal muscles.
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Name some clinical conditions that could contribute to loss of muscle tone.
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Injury to the alpha motor neuron (Polio, laceration to the nerve, spinal cord injury, disk herniation)
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Describe a scenario that would cause hypertoncity in a muscle.
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The brain balances the amount of excitatory and inhibitory input that occurs at the anterior horn of the spinal cord. If the inhibitory information was somehow eliminated due to injury (like a stroke or head injury) to the part of the brain that monitors this function, then spasticiity would result.
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None
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When positioning a patient in the supine position, what bony protuberances need to be considered?
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Occipital bone, olecranon process in the elbow, sacrum, and calcaneous.
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When positioning a patient in the sidelying position, what bony protuberances need to be considered?
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Acromion, greater trochanter, epicondlye of the knee and malleoli of the ankle.
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Where should you position the wheelchair when performing a Stand-pivot-sit transfer?
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The patient's uninvolved side should be positioned closest to the surface you are transfering the patient to.
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Prior to performing a sit to stand transfer, what should you have the patient do?
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Move to the edge of the surface they are sitting on.
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What is purpose of drapping a patient?
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Protect patient modesty and not embarrass other patients.
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When moving a patient in bed what should the PTA do prior to performing the task?
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Tell the patient what you are going to do and explain their role.
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True or False: When performing a lift it is important to have the object you are lifting close to your center of gravity.
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True
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True or False: when perfroming a sliding board transfer from a wheelchair to mat table, it is not necessary to have the patient move to the front of the chair.
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False, they need to move forward to chair so that they clear the wheel.
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If a patient requires Minimal assistance during a transfer how much of the activity are they performing 25%, 50%, or 75%?
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75%
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Name three ways you can assure that you are practicing safe transfer techniques.
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1. Be organized and have everything ready.
2. Make sure that the brakes on bed and/chair are on. 3. Ask for help if needed. 4. Use of gait belt (unless otherwise contraindicated) 5. Communicate with the patient what you expect from them. |
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What type of transfer would be appropriate for an amputee who is unable to stand on their good leg?
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Slide board transfer
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After a Total Knee Replacement, is it a good idea to place a pillow under the patient's knee and why?
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No, it may cause a contracture
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To position a patient in sidelying, what can you do to avoid skin breakdown on the knees?
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Place a pillow between their legs.
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A patient had a stroke and requires contact guard to go from his bed to chair, what type of transfer would be appropriate to complete this task?
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Stand pivot sit
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True or False: If you do not have a gait belt, for patient safety during a transfer hold them from under their arm to add support
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False
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True or False: when performing a Stand-Pivot-Sit transfer from a wc to mat, the armrests should be removed.
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False, the armrests should stay in so that the patient has somthing to push off of when standing.
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When perform a Stand-Pivot-Sit transfer from a wc to a mat table, what angle should the wc be angled at to perform the transfer?
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45 degrees
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What is the most important criteria needed to perform a Stand-Pivot-Stand transfer?
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The patient must be able to put weight on at least 1 LE.
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True or False: it is not necessary to use a gait belt to transfer a patient who has had recent abdominal surgery.
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False, just place the belt in a region that does not effect the surgical incision. It might have to be around the upper chest region.
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