Pta 201 Hip Quiz

Front 1

Where are the two most common areas which hip fractures occur?

Back 1

Extracapsular or trochanteric, Femoral neck (intracapsular), and proximal femoral shaft

Front 2

What is the most common complication of hip fractures?

Back 2

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Front 3

True or False: Arterial thrombosis is the most common complication after hip fracture in the elderly.

Back 3

False, venous thrombosis

Front 4

What are the three clinical complications associated with subtrochanteric fractures?

Back 4

Mal-union, delayed union and nonunion

Front 5

What is the most important criteria used to progress a patient with a hip fracture from the maximum to minimum phase of rehab?

Back 5

Rate of bone healing

Front 6

What exercises are commonly done in the maximum phase of rehab after a ORIF for a fractured hip?

Back 6

Active ankle pumps, isometric quad sets, gluteal sets, heel slides, hip abd and add, and supine IR and ER.

Front 7

True or False: during the max protection phase, exercises should be done sub-maximally.

Back 7

TRUE

Front 8

True or False: treadmill walking can be done in the late healing phase of a fractured hip rehab program.

Back 8

TRUE

Front 9

True or False: exercises which combine diagonal or rotatory forces are contraindicated in the late phase of rehab following a fractured hip.

Back 9

False, they contraindicated in the early phase

Front 10

Name two exercises which are contraindicated in the early phase of rehab following a hip fracture treated with ORIF.

Back 10

Active SLR and supine hip bridges

Front 11

What weight bearing status is encouraged 2 days post-operatively?

Back 11

Touch down or PWB

Front 12

When can closed chain exercises be added to a post-op ORIF hip fracture?

Back 12

When the patient has achieved FWB status

Front 13

True or False: hemiarthroplasties are commonly performed in patients with arthritis.

Back 13

False, since this procedure requires a normal acetabular surface it is not done with arthritic patients.

Front 14

True or False: the most significant complication after THR is thromboembolic disease.

Back 14

TRUE

Front 15

What is a common complication that patients experience after noncemented THR?

Back 15

Thigh pain with an antalgic gait (painful limp gait)

Front 16

True or False: cemented THR patients should be able to achieve FWB status by 8 weeks post-op.

Back 16

False, three weeks post-op

Front 17

What are the universal hip precautions associated with a posterior approach for a THR?

Back 17

Avoid hip adduction, IR and flexion beyond 90 degrees and the combination of motions for up to 4 months post-op.

Front 18

What are some functional activities that are contraindicated following a posterior THR?

Back 18

Do not sit in low chairs, cross legs, sleep on the side, avoid bending over, and do not squat.

Front 19

True or False: Legg-Perthes disease is caused by avascular necrosis to the femoral head in growing children.

Back 19

True

Front 20

What are the goals of treatment for Legg-Perthes disease?

Back 20

Maintaining the femoral head in the acetabulum, regaining motion and reducing pain and dysfunction.

Front 21

True or False: the Thomas test is used to assess tightness in the ITB.

Back 21

False, its used to check tightness in the Iliopsoas.

Front 22

True or False: a + positive Ober test is commonly seen with trochanteric bursitis.

Back 22

True, stretching to the ITB is an important part of the rehab

Front 23

What combined motions should be avoided in the acute phase of a hamstring strain?

Back 23

Full knee extension combined with forward trunk flexion and full leg flexion.

Front 24

What structures does the Faber Test access?

Back 24

hip joint, SI joint, iliopsoas spasm

Front 25

What muscle strength does the Trendelenburg test access?

Back 25

Gluteus Medius

Front 26

What tests access the length of the rectus femoris?

Back 26

Kendell and Ely

Front 27

What anatomical landmarks are used to measure a true leg length?

Back 27

ASIS and the medial malleolus

Front 28

What combined motions are performed to assess a piriformis syndrome?

Back 28

Passive Hip flexion concurrent with IR or resistring hip extension and hip ER

Front 29

What hip imbalances are associated with an anterior pelvic tilt posture?

Back 29

Short TFL and IT band, limitation in ER, weakness in the gluteus medius and piriformis

Front 30

What hip imbalances are associated with a slouched posture?

Back 30

Shortened Rectus Femoris and hamstrings, weakness in the iliopsoas and gluteus medius, gluteus maximus

Front 31

What hip imbalances are associated with a flat back posture?

Back 31

Shortened Rectus Femoris and IT band and gluteus maximus

Front 32

What exercises should be used to correct a slouched posture?

Back 32

Stretch the Rectus Femoris and hamstrings and strengthen the iliopsoas and gluteus medius, gluteus maximus

Front 33

What exercises should be used to correct an anterior pelvic tilt posture?

Back 33

Stretch TFL and IT band and the internal rotators, strengthen the gluteus medius and piriformis

Front 34

Define a "hip pointer."

Back 34

Contusion to subcutaneous tissues of the iliac crest

Front 35

In an open kinetic chain, what direction would a PT mobilize the head of the femur to gain IR?

Back 35

Posterior glide

Front 36

What are the ROM percautions associated with a THR performed with an anterior approach?

Back 36

Avoid flexion >90 degrees, hip extension, adduction and ER past neutral

Front 37

What are the mechanisms of injury associated with a hip pointer?

Back 37

1. Direct contact from an external force or falling on the exposed iliac crest.
2. Sudden forceful contraction or overstretching of the muscles which originate to the iliac crest.

Front 38

What assistive device would be best for a 74 year old male who suffers from dyspnea and who recently underwent a THR?

Back 38

Walker

Front 39

What surgical approach for THA has the highest rate of dislocation?

Back 39

Posterolateral

Front 40

True or False: an anterior joint mobilization to the head of the femur would increase hip extension.

Back 40

True

Front 41

True or False: an inferior joint mobilization to the head of the femur would increase hip adduction.

Back 41

False, hip abduction

Front 42

Name the 3 special tests used to detect congenital hip dysplasia or dislocation.

Back 42

Barlow and Ortolani and telescoping sign

Front 43

Name the common impairments associated with hip OA.

Back 43

Groin pain (L3 dermatome), loss of IR, stiffness after rest, limited extension, antalgic gait and impaired balance and posture