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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Fluid or debris motion AWAY from the cupula of the right horizontal canal causes ______________ of that canal and will generate a _____________ beating nystagmus? (when you turn your head to the left)
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Inhibition, Left
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Fluid or debris motion TOWARD the cupula of the left horizontal canal causes ______________ of that canal and will generate a _____________ beating nystagmus? (when you turn your head to the left)
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Excitation, Left
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Fluid or debris motion AWAY from the cupula of the left horizontal canal causes ______________ of that canal and will generate a _____________ beating nystagmus? (when you turn your head to the right)
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Inhibition, Right
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Your patient suffered an inner ear infection or vestibular neuritis and has a LEFT paretic vestibular lesion. Upon clinical evaluation you will see:
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Corrective saccades to the LEFT head impulse, RIGHT beating after head shake nystagmus
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Your patient suffered an inner ear infection or vestibular neuritis and has a RIGHT paretic vestibular lesion. Upon clinical evaluation you will see:
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Corrective saccades to the RIGHT head impulse, Left beating after head shake nystagmus
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Vertigo that is ________ to __________ in duration with _____________ onset that is accompanied by hearing loss, tinnitus, and aural fullness is consistent with Meniere’s disease.
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minutes, hours, spontaneous
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Vertigo that is _______ to _________ that comes on _____________ usually results in a Emergency Department ED visit is consistent with Vestibular neuritis
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hours, days, spontaneously
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Clinical abnormalities when you complete saccade testing include:
1. 2. 3. |
Conjugate Eyes (eyes move together)
Accuracy of the eye motion (<1-2 motions) Speed of the motion (instantaneous) |
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Each canal can only generate one eye motion?
T/F |
False - they can be inhibited and excited
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You completed a clinical examination on a dizzy patient and found that all of your central tests were normal (smooth pursuit, saccade, VOR cancellation) but then you saw corrective saccades to head impulse to the right and to the left, your interpretation is:
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Bilateral Peripheral Vestibular Hypofunction
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All of the following are nystagmus patterns that can be generated due to peripheral vestibular disease EXCEPT
A. Torsional-upbeating nystagmus B. Downbeating nystagmus C. Torsional-downbeating nystagmus D. Horizontal nystagmus |
B. Downbeating nystagmus
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The driving stimulus for VOR that provides the error message in vestibular rehab/vestibular healing is:
A. Retinal Slip B. Induced Postural Disturbances C. Sensory Mismatch D. Oscillopsia E. Dizziness |
A. Retinal Slip
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Besides dizziness/vertigo, the triad that leads you to suspect Meniere’s disease is aural fullness, _________________, and hearing loss.
A. Sense of imbalance B. Oscillopsia C. Photosensitivity D. Tinnitus |
D. Tinnitus
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The Semicircular Canals are designed to detect angular acceleration.
A. True B. False |
A. True
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Positive results in all of the following but _________supports a CENTRAL DEFICIT.
A. Smooth Pursuit B. Saccade C. Vestibular-Ocular Reflex Cancellation D. Dynamic visual acuity. |
D. Dynamic Visual Acuity
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The “Brand” name of Canalith Repositioning is__________________ maneuver. (vertical canals)
A. Vernucci B. Modified Brand Daroff C. Epley’s D. Fukuda’s |
C. Epley's
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Which of the diagnoses are NOT an example of an irritative lesion?
A. BPPV B. Meniere’s (acute state) C. Labrynthitis |
C. Labrynthitis
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Under the umbrella of customized treatment protocols, the most common exercise for Gaze Stabilization is?
A. Saccades B. VOR C. VOR Cancellation D. Smooth pursuit |
B. VOR
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You are performing the roll test with your patient, when you turn the head to the right you see apogeotropic horizontal nystagmus. You suspect?
A. Horizontal Canal BPPV—Canalithiasis B. Horizontal Canal BPPV—Cupulolithiasis C. Posterior Canal BPPV—Canalithiasis D. Posterior Canal BPPV—Cupulolithiasis |
B. Horizontal Canal BPPV—Cupulolithiasis
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In order to treat BPPV, the otoconia must be mechanically repositioned to their correct location.
A. True B. False |
B. False
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The reason you see torsional upbeat nystagmus with BPPV in the posterior canal is because of the eye muscles that are associated with it. What are the muscles involved that produce the observed eye mvmts? (BPPV is an irritative lesion, and named after the fast phase)
A. Ipsilateral medial rectus and contralateral lateral rectus B. Ipsilateral superior rectus and contralateral inferior oblique C. Ipsilateral lateral rectus and contralateral medial rectus D. Ipsilateral superior oblique and contralateral inferior rectus (remember that the nystagmus is named for the fast phase and BPPV is an irritative lesion) |
D. Ipsilateral superior oblique and contralateral inferior rectus (remember that the nystagmus is named for the fast phase and BPPV is an irritative lesion)
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The 3 primary sensory modalities that contribute to postural control are: vestibular, somatosensory and
A. Orientation B. Visual C. Cognition D. Sensation E. None of the above |
B. Visual
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The vestibular system has 3 major components: _______________, central processing system, and the motor output system.
A. Peripheral sensory apparatus B. Visual system C. Sensorimotor functioning D. Cerebellar system E. None of the above |
A. Peripheral Sensory Apparatus
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The peripheral sensory apparatus consists of 5 sensory organs. There are 3 semicircular canals and 2 swellings (collectively called the otolith) within the vestibule. The two swellings are the utricle and ____________.
A. Ampulla B. Labyrinth C. Saccule D. Stapes E. Specialized hair cells |
C. Saccule
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The central processors of the vestibular system are the vestibular nuclei AND the ____________.
A. Brain stem B. Cerebral Cortex C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum |
D. Cerebellum
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In the otoliths, when the cilia of the hair cells are displaced toward the kinocilium, firing rates:
A. Increase and the vestibular nerve is excited B. Increase and the vestibular nerve is inhibited C. Decrease and the vestibular nerve is inhibited D. Decrease and the vestibular nerve is excited |
A. Increase and the vestibular nerve is excited
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The primary function of the VOR is to maintain gaze stability during head motion. In a healthy person, the gain of the VOR at velocities associated with the most functional activities is approximately equal to:
A. 0.5 B. 10.0 C. 1.0 D. 5.0 |
C. 1.0
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An example of distorted vestibular function is:
A. Neuritis B. Perilymphatic fistula C. Drug-induced toxicity D. Ménière disease E. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo |
E. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
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Which of the three types of peripheral vestibular disorders shows the strongest evidence to support the use of Physical Therapy to resolve symptoms and dysfunction.
A. Reduced vestibular function B. Distorted vestibular function C. Fluctuating vestibular function |
B. Distorted Vestibular Function
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On the dizziness handicap inventory. Your patient scores 84/100. Do they display greater or lesser disability?
A. Greater B. Lesser |
A. Greater
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To test saccadic eye movements you:
A. Ask the patient to follow a moving target in all directions with his or her eyes while keeping the head stable B. Ask the patient to look back and forth quickly between 2 targets placed vertically and horizontally |
B. Ask the patient to look back and forth quickly between 2 targets placed vertically and horizontally
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If you lie a patient down into the DixHallpike test position and then sit them back up, the crystal(s) will move TOWARD the cupula of the vertical canal and will cause ____________ of that canal.
A. Excitation B. Inhibition |
B. Inhibition
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Vestibular problems are NOT common but can BE VERY disabling.
A. True B. False |
B. False
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What is the mechanism by which vestibular rehab works?
A. Mechanical repositioning B. Adaptation of residual pathways/function C. Facilitates the development of alternative pathways D. Progressive desensitization E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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When you lie a patient with Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) down in a DixHallpike test, the crystal will move AWAY from the cupula of the vertical canal (posterior or anterior) and will cause ________ of that canal and you will see a strong paroxsymal burst of nystagmus.
A. excitation B. inhibition |
A. excitation
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Fluid or debris motion TOWARD the cupula of the right horizontal canal causes ______________ of that canal and will generate a _____________ beating nystagmus? (when you turn your head to the right)
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excitation, right
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The Peripheral Sensory Apparatus (PSA) is located in the:
A. inner ear B. saccule C. utricle D. cerebellum |
A. Inner ear
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The PSA senses:
A. Head angular velocity B. Head linear velocity C. Head position against gravity D. Both A and B E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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Which labyrinth structure contains perilymphatic fluid?
A. Bony labyrinth B. Membranous labyrinth |
A. Bony labyrinth
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Hair cells in the PSA are innervated by:
A. Efferent neuron B. Afferent neuron |
B. Afferent neuron
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Hair cells in the PSA are not gravity sensitive:
T/F |
False
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The vestibular nerve is ____________ when cilia are displaced TOWARD the kinocilium and _____________ when the cilia are displaced AWAY from the kinocilium.
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excited, inhibited
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The semicircular canals are sensitive to:
A. Low frequency motion B. High frequency motion C. Linear acceleration of the head D. None of the above |
B. High frequency motion
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The anterior and posterior semicircular canals are excited when the crystal moves ___________ from the cupula.
A. Away B. Toward |
A. Away
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The lateral semicircular canal is excited when a crystal moves _________ from the cupula.
A. Away B. Toward |
B. Toward
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The vestibule in the PSA is sensitive to _____-frequency movements.
A. High B. Low C. Medium |
B. Low
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An otolith is made up of:
A. Saccule B. Utricle C. Cupula D. A and B E. A and C |
D. A and B
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The utricle detects _____________ acceleration.
A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Balanced D. Unbalanced |
B. Horizontal
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The saccule detects ______________ acceleration.
A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Balanced D. Unbalanced |
A. Vertical
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The Central Processing System (CPS) is located in the ________________ within the ___________ stem and ______________.
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vestibular nuclear complex, brain, cerebellum
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The purpose of the CPS is to:
A. Receive input from the ipsilateral vestibular nerve B. Process information from PSA about head position and movement. C. Process information from PSA about electrolyte levels in the nuclei. D. Both A and B E. All of the above |
D. Both A and B
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Lesions of the anterosuperior portion of the vermis primarily affect the _________________, resulting in postural and gait instability.
A. Peripheral Sensory Apparatus (PSA) B. Vestibulospinal Reflex (VSR) C. Central Processing System (CPS) D. Vestibulo-ocular Reflex (VOR) |
B. VSR
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The Motor Output System (MOS) is mediated through the ____________ and ______________.
A. CPS and PSA B. VOR and PSA C. VSR and PSA D. VOR and VSR |
D. VOR and VSR
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The ___________ generates gaze stability and postural stability.
A. VSR alone B. VOR alone C. PSA and CPS D. MOS |
D. MOS (motor output system)
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In a normal patient, a rotation to the LEFT 40 degrees results in a ______ degrees of eye rotation to the RIGHT in order to maintain stable gaze.
A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60 |
B. 40
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Which three cranial nerves comprise the output neurons of the VOR?
A. I, III, VI B. II, IV, VI C. III, V, VI D. II, IV, V E. III, IV, VI |
E. III, IV, VI
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The _______ reflexes affect the whole body equilibrium by ____________ extensor muscle activity.
A. Vestibulo-ocular, exciting B. Vestibulo-ocular, inhibiting C. Vestibulospinal, exciting D. Vestibulospinal, inhibiting |
D. Vestibulospinal, inhibiting
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_______________ Reflex acts on the neck muscles to stabilize the head.
A. Vestibulospinal B. Vestibulo-ocular C. Vestibulocollic D. Vestibulocochlear |
C. Vestibulocollic
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Anterior horn cell activity is influenced by 3 major pathways, including Lateral and Medial vestibulospinal tracts, and ____________________.
A. Vertical vestibulospinal tract B. Horizontal vestibulospinal tract C. Reticulospinal tract |
C. Reticulospinal tract
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The _______________ tract controls responses to acceleration, deceleration, and tilting of the body.
A. MVST B. LVST C. RST |
B. LVST
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The _________ tract helps to maintain gaze stability.
A. MVST B. LVST C. RST |
A. MVST
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The __________ tract mediates postural adjustments.
A. MVST B. LVST C. RST |
C. RST
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Peripheral vestibular disorders include:
A. PSA B. RST C. Reduced Vestibular Function D. Distorted Vestibular Function E. Fluctuating Vestibular Function F. All of the above G. C, D, and E |
G. C, D, and E
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Reduced sensitivity of the PSA to stimuli refers to what classification?
A. Reduced Vestibular Function B. Distorted Vestibular Function C. Fluctuating Vestibular Function |
A. Reduced Vestibular Function
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Inaccurate transduction of sensory stimuli within the PSA due to mechanical disruption refers to what condition?
A. Reduced Vestibular Function B. Distorted Vestibular Function C. Fluctuating Vestibular Function |
B. Distorted Vestibular Function
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A patient experiencing impaired gaze stability, disequilibrium, and left-side only induced vertigo is said to have:
A. Bilateral, hypofunction B. Unilateral, hyperfunction C. Bilateral, hyperfunction D. Unilateral, hypofunction |
D. Unilateral, hypofunction
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A patient has no vertigo, but does have disequilibrium, gait ataxia, and oscillopsia. Your diagnosis is:
A. Bilateral, hypofunction B. Unilateral, hyperfunction C. Bilateral, hyperfunction D. Unilateral, hypofunction |
A. Bilateral, hypofunction
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A patient has a free-floating otoconia in the endolympth, they likely have:
A. Canalithiasis B. Cupulolithiasis C. Should be treated with canal repositioning maneuvers D. Should be referred to the ER immediately E. A and C F. B and D |
E. A and C
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Otoconia displaced into the cupula is said to have:
A. Canalithiasis B. Cupulolithiasis C. BPPV D. Central Vestibular Disorder |
B. Cupulolithiasis
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Upon examination and blood tests, a patient is found to have episodic vertigo and low electrolyte levels. Your diagnosis would be:
A. Perilymphatic fistula B. Central Vestibular Disorder C. Endolymphatic hydrops D. BPPV |
C. Endolymphatic hydrops
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A patient recently recovered from an IA and is experiencing vertigo, nausea, nystagmus, and impaired VOR cancellation. You suspect:
A. Fluctuating Vestibular Function B. Distorted Vestibular Function C. Central Vestibular Disorder D. Peripheral Vestibular Disorder |
C. Central Vestibular Disorder
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A patient recently had a tumor removed from their brainstem. They are experiencing ataxia and disequilibrium. You suspect:
A. Fluctuating Vestibular Function B. Distorted Vestibular Function C. Central Vestibular Disorder D. Peripheral Vestibular Disorder |
C. Central Vestibular Disorder
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Demyelinating diseases commonly affect the:
A. Vestibular Nuclear Complex B. Medial Longtudinal Fasciculus C. Cerebellum D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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A patient recently had an infarction of the dorsal lateral aspect of the medulla and is experiencing diplopia, headaches, hemiparesis, impaired smooth-pursuit eye movements, and sensory loss. You suspect:
A. Fluctuating Vestibular Function B. Distorted Vestibular Function C. Central Vestibular Disorder D. Peripheral Vestibular Disorder |
C. Central Vestibular Disorder
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A patient complains of dizziness so you have them take the Dizziness Handicap Inventory. They have a score of 35. This represents what level of patient-perceived disability?
A. Greater B. Lesser |
B. Lesser
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The Activities-Specific Balance Confidence Scale measures a patient's confidence in performing how many activities without falling?
A. 5 B. 16 C. 23 D. 35 E. 50 |
B. 16
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You want to screen a patient's oculomotor and vestibular function, specifically the lateral semicircular canal. Which test would be best to use?
A. Rotary Chair Test B. Electronystagmogram C. Visual-vestibular Interaction Rotation Test (VVI) D. Dynamic Posturography Testing |
B. Electronystagmogram
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Which test would be best to measure bilateral canal function?
A. Rotary Chair Test B. Electronystagmogram C. Visual-vestibular Interaction Rotation Test (VVI) D. Dynamic Posturography Testing |
A. Rotary Chair Test
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Which test would be best to demonstrate and localize CNS lesions involving vestibular, cerebellar, and ocular pathways?
A. Rotary Chair Test B. Electronystagmogram C. Visual-vestibular Interaction Rotation Test (VVI) D. Dynamic Posturography Testing |
C. Visual-vestibular Interaction Rotation Test (VVI)
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Which test would be best to quantify standing balance function under various sensory conditions and response to perturbations?
A. Rotary Chair Test B. Electronystagmogram C. Visual-vestibular Interaction Rotation Test (VVI) D. Dynamic Posturography Testing |
D. Dynamic Posturography Testing
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The ______________ test is performed by having a patient follow a moving target while holding the head stable.
A. Saccadic Eye Movement B. Ocular Alignment C. Smooth-pursuit D. VOR Cancellation |
C. Smooth-pursuit
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___________________ is tested by having the patient read a visual acuity wall chart with head stationary, then actively or passively rotating the head at ______ Hz.
A. Saccadic Eye Movement, 3 Hz B. Ocular Alignment, 1 Hz C. Smooth-pursuit, 2 Hz D. VOR Function, 2 Hz |
D. VOR Function, 2 Hz
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Rapid head thrust test has a high ______ of 95%.
A. Sn B. Sp C. Both A and B |
B. Sp
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The VOR function test has a high ______.
A. Sn B. Sp C. Both A and B |
C. Both A and B
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VOR Cancellation tests the function of which lobe of the brain?
A. Parietal B. Temporal C. Occiptal D. Frontal |
A. Parietal
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The ____________________ is used to diagnose Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)
A. VOR Cancellation B. VOR C. Cranial Nerve Test D. Dix-Hallpike Maneuver |
D. Dix-Hallpike Maneuver
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During the Dix-Hallpike Maneuver, the canal being tested is the _________________, _________________ to the direction the head is turned.
A. Vertical canal, contralateral B. Vertical canal, ipsilateral C. Posterior canal, contralateral D. Posterior canal, ipsilateral |
D. Posterior canal, ipsilateral
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Nystagmus should resolve within ____ to _____ seconds during a Dix-hallpike maneuver for a canalithiasis.
A. 20 to 30 B. 30 to 40 C. 30 to 65 D. 20 to 60 E. 30 to 60 |
E. 30 to 60
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You perform the dix-hallpike maneuver on a patient you suspect to have BPPV. The patient experiences a nystagmus for 2 minutes. You suspect:
A. BPPV B. Peripheral Nervous System Disorder C. Central Vestibular Disorder D. Peripheral Vestibular Disorder |
C. Central Vestibular Disorder
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A patient struggles to balance during a gait analysis. You suspect:
A. VOR function disorder B. VSR function disorder C. CPS function disorder D. Patient will fail a TUG test |
B. VSR function disorder
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You suspect that your patient has a unilateral vestibular dysfunction or a bilateral vestibular dysfunction. Which test would be best to test for both at the same time?
A. Dynamic Gait Index B. WOFEC C. Fuduka's Stepping Test D. Functional Reach Test |
C. Fuduka's Stepping Test
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You want to assess a patient's balance during gait and you determine that the patient can walk without assistance. Which test would be best to assess the patient?
A. Dynamic Gait Index B. WOFEC C. Fuduka's Stepping Test D. Functional Reach Test |
A. Dynamic Gait Index
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You assess a patient's postural control during marching in place for 50 steps. The patient falls down. You just performed the __________________ and your conclusion is that the patient has a __________________.
A. WOFEC, Unilateral Vestibular Dysfunction B. WOFEC, Bilateral Vestibular Dysfunction C. Fuduka's Stepping Test, Unilateral Vestibular Dysfunction D. Fuduka's Stepping Test, Bilateral Vestibular Dysfunction |
D. Fuduka's Stepping Test, Bilateral Vestibular Dysfunction
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You assess a patient's balance by having them reach forward. The patient can reach 5". You just performed the __________________ and your conclusion is that the patient has a(n) __________________.
A. WOFEC, decreased risk of falling B. WOFEC, increased risk of falling in elderly women C. Functional Reach Test, decreased risk of falling D. Functional Reach Test, increased risk of falling in elderly men |
D. Functional Reach Test, increased risk of falling in elderly men
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You assess a patient's balance by having them reach forward. The patient can reach 9". You just performed the __________________ and your conclusion is that the patient has a(n) __________________.
A. WOFEC, decreased risk of falling B. WOFEC, increased risk of falling C. Functional Reach Test, decreased risk of falling D. Functional Reach Test, increased risk of falling |
C. Functional Reach Test, decreased risk of falling
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Which test times a patient's ability to walk with eyes open and closed along a measured pathway; with a normal base, a tandem base, and a foam surface?
A. WOFEC B. Functional Reach Test C. Qualitative Gait Analysis D. Temporal-distance Gait Measurement |
D. Temporal-distance Gait Measurement
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An examination of a patient's functional abilities (ADLs), which test can be used?
A. Brody Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale B. Frenchay Activities Index C. The German ADL Complex Index D. A and B E. A and C |
D. A and B
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You determine during a medical history that a patient has damage to their vestibular nuclei and cerebellum. How will this affect their functional recovery of vestibular dysfunction?
A. No affect B. Improve C. Prevent or limit D. All of the above |
C. Prevent or limit
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Which of the following is NOT part of the VOR function classification?
A. Rhythmic B. Oscillating C. Static D. Dynamic E. Two of the above F. None of the above |
E. Two of the above (rhythmic and oscillating)
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________________ VOR imbalance resolves within a few days.
A. Rhythmic B. Oscillating C. Static D. Dynamic E. Two of the above F. None of the above |
C. Static
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________________ VOR imbalance is classified during eye movement in relation to head movement.
A. Rhythmic B. Oscillating C. Static D. Dynamic E. Two of the above F. None of the above |
D. Dynamic
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VSR classifications include:
A. Sensory Organization B. Motor Organization C. Both |
C. Both
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A patient's ability to use visual, somatosensory, and vestibular inputs for postural control falls into which classification?
A. Sensory Organization B. Motor Organization C. Both |
A. Sensory Organization
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The identification of musculoskeletal or neuromuscular impairments falls into which classification?
A. Sensory Organization B. Motor Organization C. Both |
B. Motor Organization
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According to Diener et al, patients with _______________ peripheral vestibular loss might not be able to use ________ strategies because they are monitored by the damaged vestibular system.
A. Unilateral, ankle B. Unilateral, hip C. Bilateral, ankle D. Bilateral, hip |
D. Bilateral, hip
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Patient's with proprioceptive loss may not be able to use which strategy?
A. Head B. Arm C. Hip D. Ankle |
D. Ankle
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A patient with reduced vestibular function would best benefit from which procedural intervention?
A. Adaptation B. Substitution C. Replace VOR D. Postural control exercises |
A. Adaptation
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A patient with no remaining vestibular function would best benefit from which procedural intervention?
A. Adaptation B. Substitution C. Replace VOR D. Improve postural control |
B. Substitution
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General conditioning should be performed _____ to _____ times per week.
A. 1 to 3 B. 2 to 4 C. 3 to 5 D. 4 to 6 |
C. 3 to 5
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A patient complaining of motion-induced vertigo would best be treated with which type of exercise?
A. Habituation Exercises B. Brandt-Daroff Exercises C. Liberatory Maneuver D. Canalith Maneuver |
A. Habituation Exercises
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You repeatedly move your patient from sitting to side-lying, several times in a row, several times a day, until there are no symptoms for at least 2 days. You have just performed which type of exercise?
A. Habituation Exercises B. Brandt-Daroff Exercises C. Liberatory Maneuver D. Canalith Maneuver |
B. Brandt-Daroff Exercises
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You place your patient in a side-lying position for 2-3 minutes and then slowly rotate your patient's head to the opposite side. You then rotate the patient to the opposite side for another 2-3 minutes and then sit the patient up for 48 hours. Which exercise have you just performed?
A. Habituation Exercises B. Brandt-Daroff Exercises C. Liberatory Maneuver D. Canalith Maneuver |
D. Canalith Maneuver
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You suspect a posterior canal involvement. Which exercise would be best to perform?
A. Habituation Exercises B. Brandt-Daroff Exercises C. Liberatory Maneuver D. Canalith Maneuver |
C. Liberatory Maneuver
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Habituation exercises are equally effective at _____% remission in _____ weeks.
A. 70%, 6 B. 80%, 6 C. 90%, 6 D. 96%, 5 |
C. 90%, 6
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Which of the following exercises would you perform for a distorted vestibular function?
A. Habituation Exercises B. Brandt-Daroff Exercises C. Liberatory Maneuver D. Canalith Maneuver E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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Which exercises would benefit a patient with a central vestibular dysfunction?
A. VOR B. VOR Cancellation C. Habitual Exercises D. All of the above |
B. VOR Cancellation
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Rehabilitation is effective for patients with which of the following conditions?
A. Unilateral vestibular dysfunction B. BPPV C. Bilateral vestibular dysfunction D. Vestibular carcinoma E. A and B F. All of the above |
E. A and B
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Regular exercise is more beneficial than vestibular rehabilitation for patients with dizziness symptoms.
T/F |
F
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____________ intervention may aid in recovery of _______ function of postoperative patients.
A. Early, VSR B. Early, VOR C. Post, VSR D. Post, VOR |
A. Early, VSR
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Dizziness symptomatic patients are ______x more likely to fall.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14 |
C. 12
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WAD stands for:
A. Wild A** Dog B. Wimpleton Association of Drivers C. Whiplash Associated Disorders |
C. Whiplash Associated Disorders
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Inner ear will heal best if you don't provoke it.
T / F |
F - Inner ear only heals when you move it
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A membrane bursts from too much endolymph pressure is indicative of what condition?
A. Alexander's disease B. Meniere's disease C. Pigliacci's disease D. Ewald's disease |
B. Meniere's disease
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The 3 vestibular nystagmus laws include alexander's, ewald's, and _____________.
A. Pigliacci's B. Meniere's C. Flouren's |
C. Flouren's
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Vestibular Nystagmus does NOT change directions.
T / F |
T
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Jerking a patient's head to the same side as the suspected hurt ear will cause a corrective saccade to the ______________ side.
A. Same B. Opposite |
B. Opposite
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An intense nystagmus without dizziness means that it's coming from the ____________.
A. Spinal cord B. Brain C. Hypothalamus D. Parathyroid |
B. Brain
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There are ____________ receptor hair cells in the utricular macula and _____________ in the saccular macula.
A. 19,000, 33,000 B. 33,000, 19,000 C. 17,000, 46,000 D. 46,000, 17,000 |
B. 33,000, 19,000
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Fear of crowds refers to what condition?
A. Dyplopia B. Agoraphobia C. Agoraphilia D. iPhonia |
B. Agoraphobia
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_____% of patients with BPPV have ______________.
A. 80%, cupulolithiasis B. 90%, cuplulolithiasis C. 80%, canalithiasis D. 90%, canalithiasis |
C. 80%, canalithiasis
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BPPV is a common vestibular problem that is diagnosed with the Dix-Hallpike maneuver. What is its cause?
A. Car Accident B. CVA C. IA D. Idiopathic cause |
D. Idiopathic cause
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Vestibular neuritis, stable meniere's, acoustic neuroma, ataxic walk may be signs of what condition?
A. Bilateral vestibular loss B. General vestibular hyperfunction C. Unilateral Vestibular loss or hypofunction D. None of the above |
C. Unilateral Vestibular loss or hypofunction
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Treatment of Unilateral Vestibular Loss may include:
A. Adaptation B. Habituation C. Balance Reeducation D. All of the above E. None of the above |
D. All of the above
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Head thrust and Nystagmus testing would be used to diagnose which condition?
A. Unilateral Vestibular Loss B. Bilateral Vestibular Loss |
A. Unilateral Vestibular Loss
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__________________ lasts minutes to hours and may include a triad of roaring tinnitus, aural fullness, and hearing loss.
A. Bilateral vestibular loss B. Unilateral vestibular loss C. Meniere's disease |
C. Meniere's disease
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You test a patient and determine that they cannot walk in the dark and have a positive head jerk to both sides. You suspect which condition?
A. Bilateral vestibular loss B. Unilateral vestibular loss C. Meniere's disease |
A. Bilateral vestibular loss
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Your patient experiences nystagmus from 30 minutes to 3-4 hours and drinks alcohol. You suspect:
A. Periodic Alcohol Nystagmus I B. Periodic Alcohol Nystagmus II |
A. Periodic Alcohol Nystagmus I
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Your patient experiences nystagmus for 5-10 hours and drinks alcohol. You suspect:
A. Periodic Alcohol Nystagmus I B. Periodic Alcohol Nystagmus II |
B. Periodic Alcohol Nystagmus II
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The gold standard diagnostic test that includes eye motion exam, spontaneous / positional nystagmus exam, and caloric stimulation exam is:
A. Vestibular Evoked Myogenic Potential (VEMP) B. Eye gaze and stabilization test C. Videonystagmography (VNG) |
C. Videonystagmography (VNG)
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To assess nystagmus, you observe which of the following?
A. Spontaneous B. Position C. Provoked D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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Balance quantification refers to the assessment of _____ function.
A. VOR B. VSR |
B. VSR
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What areas do you rule out when performing bedside tests of vestibular function?
A. Cervical B. Vascular C. Psychosomatic D. Lumbopelvic E. Patellofemoral F. A, B, and C G. C, D, and E H. All of the above |
F. A, B, and C
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A patient complains of dizziness with exercise. You recognize this as a ______ flag.
A. Yellow B. Red |
B. Red
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A patient stands up from a sitting position and experiences dizziness. You recognize this as a _______ flag.
A. Yellow B. Red |
B. Red
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Commonly involved vessels in Central Vestibular Disorders include:
A. Vertebral B. Basilar C. Subclavian D. Anterior Cerebellar E. Posterior Inferior Cerebellar F. All of the above |
F. All of the above
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The Red Flag 5 D's include all of the following except:
A. Drop B. Dizziness C. Diplopia (double vision) D. Dysarthria E. Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) F. Dyspareunia |
F. Dyspareunia
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A positive Central Coordination Test means a patient has a central deficit. This test tests which of the following?
A. Smooth Pursuit B. Saccade C. VOR Cancellation D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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A deficit in which area(s) may indicate a stroke?
A. Smooth Pursuit B. Saccade C. VOR Cancellation D. All of the above |
C. VOR Cancellation
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A patient drops 3 lines in the Snellen Dynamic Visual Acuity Test. This means the patient likely has a:
A. Unilateral vestibular loss B. Bilateral vestibular loss |
A. Unilateral vestibular loss
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A patient drops 5 lines in the Snellen Dynamic Visual Acuity Test. This means the patient likely has a:
A. Unilateral vestibular loss B. Bilateral vestibular loss |
B. Bilateral vestibular loss
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A patient lies on their right side and you see a left-beating nystagmus. You interpret the patient as having a:
A. Left apogeotropic cupulolithiasis in the posterior canal B. right geotropic cupulolithiasis in the vertical canal C. left geotropic canalithiasis in the vertical canal D. right apogeotrophic cupulolithiasis in the posterior canal |
D. right apogeotrophic cupulolithiasis in the posterior canal
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When testing for BPPV, perform the Dix-Hallpike Maneuver on the ________ side first so you can go right in a CRT on the involved side.
A. Involved B. Uninvolved |
B. Uninvolved
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The following acronyms stand for what?
SNF = RUG = MDS = PPS = IDT = CMS = RAI = COT = EOT = OMRA = |
SNF = Skilled Nursing Facility
RUG = Resource Utilization Group MDS = Minimum Data Set PPS = Prospective Payment System IDT = Interdisciplinary Team CMS = Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services RAI = Resident Assessment Instrument COT = Change of Therapy EOT = End of Therapy OMRA = Other Medicare Required Assessment |
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A 66 year old patient comes to you without insurance. Would they qualify for medicare?
Y / N |
Yes
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A 34 year old military veteran patient comes to you with a permanent disability. Would they qualify for medicare?
Y / N |
Yes
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A 15-year-old girl comes to you with end-stage renal disease requiring a transplant or dialysis. Would she qualify for medicare?
Y / N |
Yes
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"The original plan" covers hospital stays, inpatient care, SNFs, hospice, and home health?
T / F |
T
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|
Part A Medicare Plans require a premium.
T / F |
F - Most people do not pay a premium for Part A
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|
Part A Medicare Plans cover co-pays and deductibles?
T / F |
F
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Part B Medicare Plans covers what percentage of medical care?
A. 20% B. 50% C. 80% D. 100% |
C. 80% - the patient is responsible for 20%
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|
Part D Medicare Plan is referred to as the:
A. "Dumb" plan B. "Delusional" plan C. "Drug" plan |
C. "Drug" plan
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Medicare A Benefits for SNF cover ______ days.
A. 30 B. 90 C. 100 D. 120 |
C. 100
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Which 2 criteria must be met in order for a patient to stay in a SNF?
A. Age 65+ B. Must participate in therapy C. Must make progress D. B and C E. A and B F. All of the above |
D. B and C
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PPS refers to:
A. Pretty Please Sir B. A time period for which we are getting paid C. Poor People Stink |
B. A time period for which we are getting paid
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For Medicare A, the patient pays for all x-rays, labs, medications, etc upfront.
T / F |
F - the facility pays for everything upfront
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For SNFs, the Minimum Data Set (MDS) is a minimum of ___ pages and is ____________ for a facility to get paid.
A. 72, required B. 73, required C. 72, not required D. 73, not required |
B. 73, required
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What determines the RUG score?
A. Days B. Minutes C. Hours D. Months |
B. Minutes
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|
Minutes are recorded on the other documents besides the MDS.
T / F |
F - ONLY on the MDS
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Minutes determine Units.
T / F |
T
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A therapist logs 23 minutes, which equals ____ units.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2
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8 * (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15) - (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7) = Minimum number of minutes for a given unit tier.
(number of minutes) / 8 - 1 = Units This refers to what rule? A. 5 minute rule B. 6 minute rule C. 7 minute rule D. 8 minute rule |
D. 8 Minute Rule
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Part B Medicare covers therapy, Dr appts, labs, x-rays, supplies, etc. in a long-term care facility?
T / F |
T
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Medicare pays for medications, room and board, etc. in long-term facilities?
T / F |
F - Medicaid is usually the payor
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|
In a SNF, therapy must be:
A. In a group setting B. 1 therapist with 1 patient |
B. 1 therapist with 1 patient
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If a therapist is training 4 patients at the same time for 60 minutes, the therapist can bill for ______ minutes for each patient.
A. 20 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60 |
B. 15
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The goals of the Interdisciplinary team (IDT) are to make the __________ , the ___________ of the patient, and the ___________ happy and to get the patient home as ___________ as possible ASAP.
|
patient, families, doctor, functional
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An RN can start an IV, hang blood & give different medications?
T / F |
T
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Which type of nurse is more task oriented and provides direct 1 on 1 care?
A. RN B. DNP C. LPN |
C. LPN
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|
Which of the following areas is the main money maker for a SNF?
A. Nursing B. Therapy C. Cafeteria D. Parking |
B. Therapy
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|
__________ score determines what Medicare pays per day for a particular patient.
|
RUG
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|
The RUG score is calculated based on:
A. Therapy minutes in a 7 day period B. Frequency of therapy in a 7 day period C. ADL score in a 7 day period D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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It takes ______ minutes to count as a day.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 30 |
C. 15
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Evaluation minutes count toward the RUG level?
T / F |
F
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A therapist logs 720 minutes per week with at least 5 days of one discipline and 3 days of another. The RUG category would be:
A. Ultra High B. Very High C. High D. Medium E. Low F. Nursing Category |
A. Ultra High
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A therapist logs 500 minutes per week with at least 5 days of one discipline. The RUG category would be:
A. Ultra High B. Very High C. High D. Medium E. Low F. Nursing Category |
B. Very High
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A therapist logs 325 minutes per week with at least 5 days of one discipline. The RUG category would be:
A. Ultra High B. Very High C. High D. Medium E. Low F. Nursing Category |
C. High
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A therapist logs 150 minutes per week with at least 5 days of any combination of disciplines. The RUG category would be:
A. Ultra High B. Very High C. High D. Medium E. Low F. Nursing Category |
D. Medium
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A therapist logs 45 minutes per week with at least 3 days of any combination of disciplines PLUS restorative nursing for at least 15 minutes per day for at least 6 days. The RUG category would be:
A. Ultra High B. Very High C. High D. Medium E. Low F. Nursing Category |
E. Low
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Activities such as PROM, brace / prosthetic assistance, bed mobility, transfers, walking, grooming, etc. that a nurse provides for the maintenance of a patient are typically classified as a "______________" in order to get paid on it.
|
Skilled Need
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To reach Ultra High, a PT and an OT must both log ____ minutes per day x 5 days to reach 720 minutes total.
A. 144 minutes B. 72 minutes C. 360 minutes D. 720 minutes |
B. 72 minutes
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To reach Very High, a DPT and OT must both log ____ minutes per day x 5 days to reach 500 minutes total.
A. 100 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 200 minutes D. 250 minutes |
50 minutes
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The 4 "Late Loss ADLs" include which of the following?
A. Bed mobility B. Transfers C. Eating D. Toileting E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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|
ADLs are collectively scored out of _____ points and then indicated as A, B, or C.
A. 10 B. 16 C. 22 D. 38 |
B. 16
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|
Isolation of Infection, Tracheostomy, or a Ventilator / Respirator, combined with a late loss ADL, produce an ADL score of ____ or ____.
|
L, X
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|
A: Late loss ADL numbers between ___ and ___
B: Late loss ADL numbers between ___ and ___ C: Late loss ADL numbers between ___ and ___ L: Above score of ___ or ___, PLUS isolation, tracheostomy, or ventilator X: Above score of ___, PLUS isolation, tracheostomy, or ventilator |
0, 5
6, 10 11, 16 A, B C |
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There are ___ Rehab RUGs and ___ Nursing RUGs.
A. 22, 25 B. 23, 42 C. 23, 43 D. 22, 42 |
23, 43
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|
How many assessment periods are in 100 days?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 |
C. 5
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When walking with a walker, the pt advances the uninvolved leg to be:
A. Parallel with the walker B. Just beyond the involved leg C. Beyond the crossbar on the front of the walker |
A. Parallel with the walker
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Walkers tend to promote:
A. Step-to pattern B. Dependence on the ambulatory assistive device C. Reluctance to venture out of the home, because they are ugly D. A feeling of being old, as only old people use walkers E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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A Patient, walking with a walker using a three-point gait pattern, advances the walker first and then advances with which LE?
A. Uninvolved B. Involved C. Doesn’t matter |
B. Involved
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|
Check the final fit of the crutches. The top of each crutch should be about ____ finger widths from the underarm and the anatomical snuffbox should be ________ with the hand grips when his arms hang at his side.
A. 3 , above B. 2 , even C. 4 , below |
B. 2 , even
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To fit for crutches, measure from the fold under the person's arm to a spot on the floor that is approximately ___ inches ahead and ____ inches to the side of his foot if the person is standing up. If the person is lying down, measure from the front of the underarm fold to the heel and subtract ___ inches.
A. 3, 6, 3 B. 3, 5, 3 C. 2, 6, 2 D. 4, 6, 2 |
C. 2, 6, 2
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Walking with crutches and a 3-poing gait pattern, the patient advances the crutches first and then
A. The involved LE B. The uninvolved LE C. Either LE |
A. The involved LE
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Generally, a patient walking with crutches using a partial weight-bearing gait pattern and initially advances the uninvolved LE:
A. Beyond the involved LE B. Even with the involved LE C. Behind the involved LE D. Beyond the crutches |
B. Even with the involved LE
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When walking with crutches using a 3-point PWB gait pattern, the pt advances the involved LE:
A. Beyond the crutches B. Behind the crutches C. Even with the crutches |
C. Even with the crutches
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|
There is only one way of using a 2-point gait pattern with bilateral forearm crutches?
A. True B. False |
B. False
Who might use both means of 2-point gait pattern with crutches? swing-through with somebody in BKAFO’s Contralateral UE and LE. Somebody that walks well with AFO’s or full weight bearing person who needs balance. |
|
|
Should all wheelchairs have anti-tippers?
A. Yes B. No |
B. No - anti-tippers can get in the way and prevent independence for people who are highly active, who need to ride wheelies to jump curbs, descend steep hills, etc.
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|
Sling upholstery is _____________ than rigid inserts.
A. Lighter B. Heavier C. The same weight |
A. Lighter
|
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|
Which type of upholstery would provide the BEST support for posture control in a wheelchair?
A. Adjustable tension upholstery B. Rigid inserts C. Sling upholstery |
B. Rigid inserts
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|
|
What is the standard size of drive wheel on a wheelchair?
A. 20" B. 22" C. 24" D. 26" E. 29" |
C. 24"
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|
All of the following are drive wheel sizes for wheelchairs except?
A. 20" B. 22" C. 24" D. 26" E. 29" |
B. 22"
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|
110 degree hanging angle in the front rigging of a wheelchair decreases the overall dimensions of the wheelchair but it may cause sores on the back of the patient's legs because _____________________________.
A. Set depth is increased B. Set depth is eaten up C. Wheelchair no longer supports the legs |
B. Set depth is eaten up
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|
|
"Squeeze / bucket" refers to what part of the wheelchair?
A. The footrest angle B. The seat to backrest angle C. The seat to floor height |
B. The seat to backrest angle (90º is standard)
|
|
|
How high do you want the height adjust backrest?
A. 2" below the top of the shoulders B. T12 C. Below the shoulder blades to allow arm function D. L2 |
C. Below the shoulder blades to allow arm function
|
|
|
eMotion power-assist wheels can cost how much?
A. $1,000 - $3,000 B. $3,000 - 5,000 C. $5,000 - $8,000 D. $8,000 - $12,000 |
C. $5,000 - $8,000
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|
|
A power wheelchair for a C4 quad with tilt and recline options, power elevating legs, power elevating seat could cost upwards of:
A. $5,000 B. $20,000 C. $100,000 D. One million dollars |
B. $20,000
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|
|
Which drive system is the most common in powered wheel chairs?
A. Rear-wheel B. Front-wheel C. Mid-wheel |
C. Mid-wheel
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|
During a CTSIB test, condition 1, what system is being challenged?
A. Vision B. Somatosensory C. Vestibular D. None of the above E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
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|
|
During a CTSIB test, condition 4, what system is being challenged?
A. Vision B. Somatosensory C. Vestibular D. A and C E. B and C |
D. A and C
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|
|
During a CTSIB, condition 5 and 6, which system is being challenged?
A. Vision B. Somatosensory C. Vestibular D. None of the above E. All of the above |
C. Vestibular
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|
A slow growing, benign tumor secondary to excessive growth of schwann cells resulting in 90% to 95% hearing loss and direction fixed nystagmus (horizontal), refers to what condition:
A. Brain cancer B. Bone cancer C. Acoustic Neuroma D. Vestibular Schwannoma E. Two of the above F. None of the above |
E. Two of the above - Acoustic Neuroma and Vestibular Schwannoma
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|
A patient has a positive hyperventilation test and has an abnormal CTSIB with specific deficits of 5/6. You suspect what condition?
A. Mastitis B. Acoustic Neuroma C. Cerebellar Carcinoma D. Leukemia |
B. Acoustic Neuroma
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|
A patient presents with no nystagmus, but tests positive with abnormal VOR on both sides, even at slow speeds. You suspect what condition?
A. Unilateral vestibular loss B. Bilateral vestibular loss C. Acoustic Neuroma D. Neuritis |
B. Bilateral vestibular loss
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|
|
A patient complains that the "world is bouncing." This is called:
A. Visual distortion B. Oscillopsia C. Double vision D. Disequilibrium |
B. Oscillopsia
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|
A patient complains of lightheadedness which may indicate a cardiac issue. This condition is called:
A. Disequilibrium B. Vertigo C. Presyncope D. Oscillopsia |
C. Presyncope
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|
A patient complains of dizziness and says that she has felt tired and 'cold' more than normal. You suspect what type of condition?
A. Neurologic: peripheral neuropathy B. Cardiovascular: heart attack C. Metabolic: thyroid D. Psychological: depression |
C. Metabolic: thyroid
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|
|
The incidence of BPPV is _____ times greater in patients age 60+.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 F. 7 |
F. 7
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|
|
BPPV can always be diagnosed solely by taking a patient history.
T / F |
F - in 50% of cases in the Katsarkas et al study, a clinical test was required.
|
|
|
Dizziness is more prevalent in_____________.
A. Men B. Women |
B. Women
|
|
|
______% of community dwelling elderly fall each year.
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% |
B. 30%
|
|
|
_____% of falls are related to "intrinsic" factors?
A. 25% B. 55% C. 75% D. 95% |
C. 75%
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|
|
Falls are the leading cause of death in people over the age of ______.
A. 55 B. 65 C. 75 |
C. 75
|
|
|
According to Agrawal et al, patients who complained of dizziness with vestibular dysfunction were _____ times more likely to fall.
A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 D. 18 |
C. 12
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|
|
Patients with chronic dizziness secondary to WAD need to be screened for vestibular disorders and for possible BPPV, even acutely.
T / F |
T
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|
|
Following a TBI, incidence of vertigo with those who had a skull fracture is ____%, and those with a temporal bone fracture had a ____% incidence rate.
A. 40%, 80% B. 50%, 100% C. 80%, 40% D. 100%, 50% |
B. 50%, 100%
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|
|
There is moderate to strong evidence that vestibular rehab is a safe, effective treatment option for unilateral peripheral vestibular dysfunction.
T / F |
T
|
|
|
The horizontal canal sits _____ degrees off from true horizontal.
A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 |
B. 30
|
|
|
Endolymph has ________ K levels and perilymph has ________ levels of Na.
A. High, Low B. Low, High C. Low, Low D. High, High |
D. High, HIgh
|
|
|
Endolymph has ________ Na levels and perilymph has ________ levels of K.
A. High, Low B. Low, High C. Low, Low D. High, High |
C. Low, Low
|
|
|
The kinocilium in the horizontal canal is closer to the __________.
A. Utricle B. Canal |
A. Utricle
|
|
|
The kinocilium in the anterior and posterior canals are closer to the __________.
A. Utricle B. Canal |
B. Canal
|
|
|
If the head is vertically pitched downward, the eye responds with what movement?
A. Horizontal eye motion B. Torsional with up motion C. Torsional with down motion |
B. Torsional with up motion
|
|
|
If the head is vertically pitched up, the eye responds with what movement?
A. Horizontal eye motion B. Torsional with up motion C. Torsional with down motion |
C. Torsional with down motion
|
|
|
If the head is turned horizontally, the eye responds with what movement?
A. Horizontal eye motion B. Torsional with up motion C. Torsional with down motion |
A. Horizontal eye motion
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|
|
In a paretic lesion, the nystagmus beats _________ the involved side.
A. Toward B. Away from |
B. Away from
|
|
|
In an irritative lesion, the nystagmus beats _________ the involved side.
A. Toward B. Away from |
C. Toward
|
|
|
Nystagmus is named by the ___________ phase.
A. Slow B. Fast |
B. Fast
|
|
|
A gaze toward the fast phase of the nystagmus intensifies the nystagmus. This is which law?
A. Alexander's B. Ewald's C. Flouren's |
A. Alexander's
|
|
|
Eye / head movements occur in the plane of the canal being stimulated, and excitatory inputs are more effective than inhibitory inputs. This is which law?
A. Alexander's B. Ewald's C. Flouren's |
B. Ewald's
|
|
|
Which muscles cause the observed torsional upbeat nystagmus?
A. Ipsilateral medial rectus, contralateral lateral rectus B. Ipsilateral superior oblique, contralateral inferior rectus C. Ipsilateral superior rectus, contralateral inferior oblique |
B. Ipsilateral superior oblique, contralateral inferior rectus
|
|
|
Which muscles cause the observed horizontal beating nystagmus?
A. Ipsilateral medial rectus, contralateral lateral rectus B. Ipsilateral superior oblique, contralateral inferior rectus C. Ipsilateral superior rectus, contralateral inferior oblique |
A. Ipsilateral medial rectus, contralateral lateral rectus
|
|
|
Which muscles cause the observed torsional downbeating nystagmus?
A. Ipsilateral medial rectus, contralateral lateral rectus B. Ipsilateral superior oblique, contralateral inferior rectus C. Ipsilateral superior rectus, contralateral inferior oblique |
C. Ipsilateral superior rectus, contralateral inferior oblique
|
|
|
A nystagmus is never purely:
A. Vertical B. Horizontal |
A. Vertical
|
|
|
A nystagmus can change directions in one position or change in gaze.
T / F |
F
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If you tilt a patient's head to the left, what will the patient's eyes do?
A. right eye elevates & extorts with left eye lowering and intorting B. left eye elevates & intorts with right eye lowering and extorting C. right eye lowering & intorts with left eye elevating and intorting |
B. left eye elevates & intorts with right eye lowering and extorting
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Which VSR pathway goes to muscles for antigravity postural motor control?
A. Lateral vestibular nucleus B. Medial, superior, descending vestibular nuclei C. All Nuclei |
A. Lateral vestibular nucleus
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Which VSR pathway goes to the cervical axial musculature?
A. Lateral vestibular nucleus B. Medial, superior, descending vestibular nuclei C. All Nuclei to the reticulospinal tract |
B. Medial, superior, descending vestibular nuclei
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Which VSR pathway goes to the balance reflexes?
A. Lateral vestibular nucleus B. Medial, superior, descending vestibular nuclei C. All Nuclei to the reticulospinal tract |
C. All Nuclei to the reticulospinal tract
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Interruption of nerve conduction refers to which pathology?
A. Vestibular Neuritis B. Meniere's disease C. BPPV D. Fistula |
A. Vestibular Neuritis
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Abnormal pressure communication due to an opening in the oval or round window refers to which pathology?
A. Vestibular Neuritis B. Meniere's disease C. BPPV D. Fistula |
D. Fistula
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Mechanical disruption refers to which pathology?
A. Vestibular Neuritis B. Meniere's disease C. BPPV D. Fistula |
C. BPPV
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Fluid pressure / membrane rupture refers to which pathology?
A. Vestibular Neuritis B. Meniere's disease C. BPPV D. Fistula |
B. Meniere's disease
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You suspect your patient to have unilateral vestibular loss. Which diagnostic tests would you perform?
A. Head Thrust B. VOR C. Nystagmus Testing D. Dix Hall-pike Maneuver E. A and C F. All of the above |
E. A and C
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Vestibular neuritis results in vertigo / nausea for _____ to _____.
A. Seconds to minutes B. Minutes to hours C. Hours to days |
C. Hours to days
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Which condition is referred to as the "plumbing problem of the inner ear that lasts minutes to hours?
A. Unilateral vestibular loss B. Bilateral vestibular loss C. Meniere's disease D. Central vestibular dysfunction |
C. Meniere's disease
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A patient presents with impaired coordination and severe lateralopulsion. You suspect what condition?
A. Unilateral vestibular loss B. Bilateral vestibular loss C. Meniere's disease D. Central vestibular dysfunction |
D. Central vestibular dysfunction
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PAN I results in:
A. Geotrophic Nystagmus B. Ageotrophic Nystagmus |
A. Geotrophic Nystagmus
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PAN II results in:
A. Geotrophic Nystagmus B. Ageotrophic Nystagmus |
B. Ageotrophic Nystagmus
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Dizziness with loss of consciousness is likely an inner ear problem.
T / F |
F - You can't pass out from an inner ear problem. Requires a medical referral to rule-out cardiovascular problem.
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Abnormal extraocular eye movements (EOMs) always indicates a:
A. Peripheral deficit B. Central deficit |
B. Central deficit
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Smooth pursuit, Saccade, and VOR cancellation test for which type of deficit?
A. Peripheral deficit B. Central deficit |
B. Central deficit
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During the Snellen Dynamic Visual Acuity Test, a patient must remove their glasses.
T / F |
F - they can wear their glasses
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You perform the head shake test and you see >3 beats left beating nystagmus. You suspect what condition?
A. Left vestibular loss B. Right vestibular loss C. Central vestibular dysfunction D. Peripheral vestibular dysfunction |
B. Right vestibular loss
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You perform the head shake test and you see >3 beats right beating nystagmus. You suspect what condition?
A. Left vestibular loss B. Right vestibular loss C. Central vestibular dysfunction D. Peripheral vestibular dysfunction |
A. Left vestibular loss
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You determine that your patient has apogeotrophic cupulolithiasis of the horizontal canal. Which treatment would you recommend?
A. Canalith repositioning maneuver B. Liberatory maneuver C. Brandt-Daroff exercises D. Substitution exercises |
B. Liberatory maneuver
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Medication should be the primary form of treatment for patient's with BPPV.
T / F |
F - There is no evidence that any medication is a replacement for treatment maneuvers.
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The process by which the gaze stability system recovers when there is a permanent loss to the vestibular balance system by facilitating alternate pathways to "get the job done" and lots of exposure errors to stimulate reorganization, refers to which of the following?
A. Habituation B. Substitution C. Adaptation |
B. Substitution
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You instruct your patient to "turn your head slowly while trying to focus on an object." Which exercise does this refer to?
A. Saccade facilitation B. Central Pre-programming Facilitation C. Enhancing Cervical Ocular Reflex (COR) |
C. Enhancing Cervical Ocular Reflex (COR)
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You instruct your patient to "close your eyes and imagine focusing on a point, then turn your head slightly, trying to maintain focus on the point." This exercise is called what?
A. Saccade facilitation B. Central Pre-programming Facilitation C. Enhancing Cervical Ocular Reflex (COR) |
B. Central Pre-programming Facilitation
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A reduction in pathologic response to a specific movement, brought about by repeated exposure (no more than 3 motions) to the provocative stimulus, refers to which of the following?
A. Habituation B. Substitution C. Adaptation |
A. Habituation
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Perilymph Fistula can only be treated by a medical doctor.
T / F |
T
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Center of gravity, limits of stability, ankle and hip strategies, protective stepping, and single leg capacity refer to what type of retraining:
A. Sensory retraining B. Motor retraining |
B. Motor Retraining
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Somatosensory, visual, and vestibular refer to what type of retraining?
A. Sensory retraining B. Motor retraining |
A. Sensory retraining
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A patient complains of unsteadiness and lightheadedness and dizziness. You suspect what condition?
A. Central vestibular loss B. Unilateral vestibular loss C. Peripheral vestibular loss D. Cervical vertigo |
D. Cervical vertigo
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Which of the following treatments would you recommend for cervicogenic pathologies?
A. ROM / Stretching B. Deep tissue massage C. Manual therapy D. Deep neck flexor strengthening E. Kinesthetic re-education F. All of the above G. None of the above |
F. All of the above
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_____% of patients with definable inner ear problems have secondary psychological problems.
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% |
C. 40%
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A patient complains of dizziness and describes that it feels like the world is spinning around them. You classify their dizziness as:
A. Dizziness B. Vertigo C. Lightheadedness D. Imbalance |
B. Vertigo
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A patient complains of feelings of imbalance, especially in the dark, and is accompanied by lower extremity numbness and weakness. Upon examination and testing you find no signs of oscillopsia or VOR abnormalities. You suspect what condition?
A. Bilateral vestibular loss B. Unilateral vestibular loss C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Cervical myopathy |
C. Peripheral neuropathy
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Your patient complains of sudden onset severe vertigo (ER), which continued for 2 days. She further explains that she has head/movement provoked imbalance and lightheadedness. She has no neurological complaints, but has had life long problems with migraines. You suspect what condition?
A. Bilateral vestibular loss B. Unilateral vestibular loss C. Vestibular neuritis D. Meniere's disease |
C. Vestibular neuritis
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Recommended treatment for meniere's disease and unilateral and bilateral vestibular loss includes which of the following?
A. Vestibular Balance Rehabilitation Therapy (VBRT) B. CRT C. Saccade facilitation D. VOR retraining |
A. Vestibular Balance Rehabilitation Therapy (VBRT)
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The 6 Elements of Patient Management include which of the following?
A. Examination B. Evalulation C. Diagnosis D. Prognosis (including POC) E. Intervention F. Outcomes G. All of the above |
G. All of the above
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All of the following are part of the patient examination EXCEPT:
A. Patient History B. Systems Review C. Tests & Measures D. Prognosis |
D. Prognosis
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Under prognosis and plan of care, ABCD stands for what?
1. Individual (A___________) 2. B__________ / Activity 3. C__________ 4. Time (D___________) |
Audience - Who will perform the specific behavior?
Behavior - What behavior will be demonstrated? Condition - Condition under which the behavior will be measured? Degree - How long will it take to achieve the goal? |
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Grading a patient's rehab potential as excellent, good, fair, or poor refers to:
A. Examination B. Evaulation C. Diagnosis D. Prognosis |
D. Prognosis
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Promoting optimal function using residual abilities refers to what type of interventions?
A. Restorative B. Compensatory C. Preventative |
B. Compensatory
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Remediating or improving the patient's status in terms of impairments, functional limitations, and recovery of function.
A. Restorative B. Compensatory C. Preventative |
A. Restorative
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Minimizing potential impairments, functional limitations, disabilities and maintaining health.
A. Restorative B. Compensatory C. Preventative |
C. Preventative
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The FITT acronym stands for:
A. Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type B. Fall In The Toilet C. Frequently Intense Time Trial D. Females In Technology and Telecommunications |
A. Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
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The information the patient reports is:
A. Subjective B. Objective |
A. Subjective
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What the therapist observes, tests, or measures:
A. Subjective B. Objective |
B. Objective
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