Pt 736 Orthotics And Prosthetics Exam 2B

Front 1

Ankle Joint - most frequently injured joint in athletics, _____% of all injuries involving
running and jumping
a.25%
b.30%
c.35%
d.45%

Back 1

a.25%

Front 2

The weakest and most commonly injured ligament in the ankle is the (2/3 of all ankle sprains)
a.Calcaneofibular
b.ATFL
c.PTFL
d.Deltoid ligament

Back 2

b.ATFL

Front 3

Calcaniofibular ligament is ____ times stronger than the ATFL
a.2
b.2.5
c.4
d.4.5

Back 3

b.2.5

Front 4

The strongest and least injured lateral ligament in the ankle is
a.ATFL
b.Calcaneofilubular
c.PTFL

Back 4

c.PTFL

Front 5

Most common mechanism for injury in the foot is
a.Plantar and inversion
b.Plantar and eversion
c.Dorsiflexion and inversion
d.Dorsiflexion and eversion

Back 5

a.Plantar and inversion

Front 6

50% of patients with repeated ankle sprains exhibit weakness of the ______muscles.
a. plantar flexer
b. dorsiflexor
c. peroneal

Back 6

c. peroneal

Front 7

T/F Adhesive taping is more cost effective than orthotics.

Back 7

F

Front 8

T/F Semi rigid orthosis are made of canvas or neoprene rubber.

Back 8

F

Front 9

T/F The US military showed that wearing an aircast sports stirrup in conjunction with high top shoes resulted in fewer injuries to the anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments during contact sports than wearing high top shoes only.

Back 9

T

Front 10

T/F A study showed that an early mobilization group experienced more pain in the rehabilitation process than an immobilization group.

Back 10

F

Front 11

T/F In the same study as above, the immobilization group and the mobilization group showed no difference in the 1 year follow up in regards to swelling or functional abilities.

Back 11

T

Front 12

Which of the following statements about Pneumatic compresson on stress fracture healing is not true
a. Pneumatic leg brace causes increased hydrostatic and venous pressures resulting in shifting of fluids and electrolytes from the capillary space to the interstitial fluid space.
b.Increases bone rate of repair
c. Used to reduce the effects of edema
d. Unloads the tibia and fibula by stabilizing surrounding musculature permitting the bone to heal.

Back 12

c. Used to reduce the effects of edema

Front 13

How do orthotics aid in the treatment of achilles tendinitis?
a. Reduces stress by changing the pull on the achilles tendon.
b. The extra padding relieves stress
c. Puts the foot into subtalar neutral

Back 13

a. Reduces stress by changing the pull on the achilles tendon.

Front 14

All of the following are linked to plantar fasciitis except____
a. Inflammation as a result of trauma, overuse, abnormalities in foot structure/function, and tightness.
b. Decreased flexibility of achilles tendon
c. Excessive supination
d.Pes cavus

Back 14

c. Excessive supination

Front 15

T/F The patellofemoral joint has been judged to be the least congruent joint in the body.

Back 15

T

Front 16

Which of the following is not true about the patella?
a. Increases the lever arm of the quadriceps, and improves mechanical advantage.
b. Prevents excessive friction on the quadriceps tendon
c. Absorbs shear forces imparted to femur.

Back 16

c. Absorbs shear forces imparted to femur.

Front 17

The average Q angles is between ___-____degrees for men and ___-___ degrees for women.
a.10-12, 15-18
b.15-18,10-12
c. 13-15. 16-19
d. 16-19, 13-15

Back 17

a.10-12, 15-18

Front 18

Maximum contact force occurs at ____ degrees of knee flexion.
a. 0 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 120 degrees

Back 18

c. 90 degrees

Front 19

Throughout the ROM of the PF joint, the _______aspect receives the most contact.
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. False, they receive the same amount of forces.

Back 19

a. Medial

Front 20

Fill in the blanks-
PFJR forces during dynamic motion
1. During gait - _______ body weight
2. Stair climbing or running - _______ times body weight
3. Cycling - _______ times body weight
4. Deep knee bends - _______ times body weight

Back 20

Fill in the blanks-
PFJR forces during dynamic motion
1. During gait - ___.5____ body weight
2. Stair climbing or running - ____3.3___ times body weight
3. Cycling - __1.5_____ times body weight
4. Deep knee bends - ___7.8____ times body weight

Front 21

The most common knee pathology is
a. Patellar tendonitis
b. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
c. Subluxation/dislocation
d. Articular cartilage lesion

Back 21

b. Patellofemoral pain syndrome

Front 22

T/F After a patellar subluxation/dislocation, the surrounding structures heal with less tensile strength.

Back 22

T

Front 23

The most common site of patellar tendonitis is_____
a. Lateral side of patella
b. Medial side of patella
c. attachment site on the superior portion of the patella
d. attachment site on the inferior portion of the patella

Back 23

d. attachment site on the inferior portion of the patella

Front 24

Above the age of 40, most tendonitis is_______
a. quad tendonitis (superior)
b. patellar tendonitis (inferior)

Back 24

a. quad tendonitis (superior)

Front 25

Chondromalacia patellae is_______
a. Hardening of the articular cartilage
b. Softening of the articular cartilage
c. Necrosis of the articular cartilage.

Back 25

b. Softening of the articular cartilage

Front 26

The goal of orthotics in PFPS is to_____
a. Reduce pain and inflammation
b. Pull the patella medially
c. Attain/maintain optimal patellar tracking
d. Pull the patella laterally

Back 26

c. Attain/maintain optimal patellar tracking

Front 27

Neoprene knee sleeves are designed to apply tension ______and counter balance _____displacement of the patella.
a. Laterally, Medially
b. Medially, Laterally
c. Superiorly, Inferiorly
d. Inferiorly, Superiorly

Back 27

b. Medially, Laterally

Front 28

Patellofemoral straps are worn on the _______ part of the patella and pushes/draws the patella ______ in order to relieve compressive forces between articular surfaces.
a. medial, laterally
b. superior, inferiorly
c. lateral, medially
d. distal, superior

Back 28

d. distal, superior

Front 29

Patellar taping corrects patellar orientation & controls tracking; reduces pain so as to permit retraining of the ______
a. Vastus Lateralis
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Rectus femoris

Back 29

b. Vastus medialis oblique

Front 30

T/F Research suggests a strong relationship between foot position & knee function

Back 30

T

Front 31

Orthotics are suggested for valgus and varus problems of greater than ___ degrees
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 12

Back 31

a. 5

Front 32

Cho-Pat Straps are Velcro straps that facilitates tracking of the patella by _________
a. Lowering the patella from its articular surface
b. Raising the patella from its articular surface
c. Pushing the patella medially
d. Pushing the patella laterally

Back 32

b. Raising the patella from its articular surface

Front 33

Fill in the blanks:
ACL - provides ___% of the passive restraint of anterior movement of tibia on femur
PCL - provides ___% of the passive restraint of posterior movement of tibia on femur
MCL - provides ___% restraint of a valgus load on the knee.

Back 33

Fill in the blanks:
ACL - provides _95__% of the passive restraint of anterior movement of tibia on femur
PCL - provides _86__% of the passive restraint of posterior movement of tibia on femur
MCL - provides __80_% restraint of a valgus load on the knee.

Front 34

There are 3 common mechanism of an ACL tear, pick the correct mechanism in each bullet point.
- Knee slightly flexed -or- knee fully extended?
- Leg in open chain -or- foot fixed on ground?
- IR of femur with valgus stress at knee -or- ER of femur with varus stress at knee?

Back 34

Knee slightly flexed
foot fixed on ground
IR of femur with valgus stress at knee

Front 35

T/F The ACL has very little vascular supply

Back 35

F

Front 36

The objective of functional ACL bracing is preventing _______
a. Deep flexion, posterior tibial translation, and tibial rotation
b. Hyper-extension, anterior tibial translation, and tibial rotation.
c. Both deep flexion and hyper extension, anterior and posterior tibial translation, and tibial rotation

Back 36

b. Hyper-extension, anterior tibial translation, and tibial rotation.

Front 37

T/F Research has been able to consistently demonstrate the effectiveness of prophylactic knee braces.

Back 37

F

Front 38

Match the knee braces
___ Unloader Knee Brace
___ Rehabilitation
___ Prophylactic Knee Brace
a. Designed to prevent or reduce the severity of knee injuries
b. Designed for patients with arthritis
c. Designed to allow protected motion of injured knees which have been treated operatively

Back 38

Match the knee braces
_B__ Unloader Knee Brace
_C__ Rehabilitation
_A__ Prophylactic Knee Brace
a. Designed to prevent or reduce the severity of knee injuries
b. Designed for patients with arthritis
c. Designed to allow protected motion of injured knees which have been treated operatively.

Front 39

T/F A functional ACL Knee Brace can produce a slight increase in oxygen consumption on a treadmill.

Back 39

T

Front 40

Short answer: What are the 5 goals of orthotics as found in the slides “Orthotics for Adult Neurologic Involement”?

Back 40

1. Re-establishing an Appropriate Base of Support:
2. Controlling Rate, Excursion, and Direction of Segmental Movement:
3. Improving Energy Efficiency:
4. Positioning the Foot for Clearance & Weight Acceptance:
5. Central Nervous System Input/Output

Front 41

Answer T of F to the following statements about rigid polypropylene AFOs

-Heavy in design-
-Cosmetically appealing-
-Can be worn with different footwear-
-Allows for ankle dorsiflexion-
-Easy to go from sit to stand? –
-While wearing it is difficult to bend over and climb stairs?

Back 41

-Heavy in design- F
-Cosmetically appealing- T
-Can be worn with different footwear-T
-Allows for ankle dorsiflexion- T
-Easy to go from sit to stand? – F
-While wearing it is difficult to bend over and climb stairs? -T

Front 42

Answer T of F to the following statements about bichannel adjustable ankle locking AFOs.

-This AFO is not adjustable-
-Is cosmetically appealing-
-Wearer is unable to use different footwear-
-Heavy in design-
-Designed for patients that have difficulty in plantar flexion-

Back 42

-This AFO is not adjustable- F
-Is cosmetically appealing- F
-Wearer is unable to use different footwear-T
-Heavy in design- T
-Designed for patients that have difficulty in plantar flexion- T

Front 43

T/F- Combined metal and plastic designed AFOs are indicated for stance phase control

Back 43

T

Front 44

What are the 3 main muscle groups that are weak in a patient that uses KAFOs

a. Hamstrings, hip flexors, and dorsiflexors.
b. Hip adductors, Hip flexors, and plantar flexors
c. Quadriceps, hip extensors, and plantar flexors.
d. Quadriceps, hip flexors, and dorsiflexors.

Back 44

c. Quadriceps, hip extensors, and plantar flexors.

Front 45

Patient with bilateral KAFO and a swing through crutch assisted gait pattern demonstrate a _____% greater energy cost.
a. 50
b. 200
c. 500
d.1000

Back 45

c. 500

Front 46

As scoliosis progresses, the vertebrae and spinous processes in the area of the major curve rotate________ the concavity of the curve.
a. Toward
b. Away from

Back 46

a. Toward

Front 47

In scoliosis, the entire thoracic cage takes on an ovoid shape, causing the ribs on the concave side to protrude _____________ while the ribs on the opposite side are recessed.
a. Anteriorly
b. Posteriorly
c. Medially
d. Laterally

Back 47

a. Anteriorly

Front 48

Matching: Label each sentence as either an example of structural or non structural scoliosis.
a.=Non structural scoliosis b.= Structural scoliosis C=Transient structural

-___ Sciatic Scoliosis - Not true scoliosis; an irritative form caused by pressure on the nerve roots from a herniated disc.
- ___Hysterical Scoliosis - rare; usually requires psychiatric treatment.
-___ Postural Scoliosis - usually noted in later years of first decade. Curves are always slight and disappear on lying down.
- ___ Compensatory Scoliosis - Usually the result of a leg length discrepancy. Pelvis dips down on the short side.
-___ Inflammatory Scoliosis - seen with perinephric (kidney) abscess or similar infection.

Back 48

Matching: Label each sentence as either an example of structural or non structural scoliosis.
a.=Non structural scoliosis b.= Structural scoliosis

-_B__ Sciatic Scoliosis - Not true scoliosis; an irritative form caused by pressure on the nerve roots from a herniated disc.
- _B __Hysterical Scoliosis - rare; usually requires psychiatric treatment.
-_A__ Postural Scoliosis - usually noted in later years of first decade. Curves are always slight and disappear on lying down.
- _A__ Compensatory Scoliosis - Usually the result of a leg length discrepancy. Pelvis dips down on the short side.
-_B__ Inflammatory Scoliosis - seen with perinephric (kidney) abscess or similar infection.

Front 49

Structural Scoliosis Matching:

A= Idiopathic, B=Congenital, C=Neuromuscular, D=Neurofibromatosis, E=Mesenchymal disorder, F=Trauma

-___ Related to congenital (Marfan’s syndrome, amyotonia congenita, dwarfism), acquired (rheumatoid/juvenile arthritis), and other (scheuermann’s disease, juvenile ankylosing spondylitis) causes
-___ Has a vertebral and non vertebral component that are related to myelomeningocele, spina bifida, congenital fissures of spinal cord, hemivertebra, and congenital rib fusion.
-___ Neuropatich form: Polio, cerebral palsy, and syringomyelia. Myopathic form: muscular dystrophy and amyotonia congenita. Other form: Freidrich’s ataxis.
-___ AKA genetic scoliosis, and accounts for about 70% of all cases, and is classified by age of onset: infantile, juvenile, and adolescent
-___ Due to Vertebral fractures, irradiation, or surgery. Also related to thoracic burns and surgeries.
-___ Caused by von Recklinghausen’s disease-tumors on the peripheral nerves

Back 49

A= Idiopathic, B=Congenital, C=Neuromuscular, D=Neurofibromatosis, E=Mesenchymal disorder, F=Trauma

-_E__ Related to congenital (Marfan’s syndrome, amyotonia congenita, dwarfism), acquired (rheumatoid/juvenile arthritis), and other (scheuermann’s disease, juvenile ankylosing spondylitis) causes
-_B__ Has a vertebral and non vertebral component that are related to myelomeningocele, spina bifida, congenital fissures of spinal cord, hemivertebra, and congenital rib fusion.
-_C__ Neuropatich form: Polio, cerebral palsy, and syringomyelia. Myopathic form: muscular dystrophy and amyotonia congenita. Other form: Freidrich’s ataxis.
-_A__ AKA genetic scoliosis, and accounts for about 70% of all cases, and is classified by age of onset: infantile, juvenile, and adolescent
-_F__ Due to Vertebral fractures, irradiation, or surgery. Also related to thoracic burns and surgeries.
-_D__ Caused by von Recklinghausen’s disease-tumors on the peripheral nerves

Front 50

The Milwaukee Brace can successfully halt progression of scoliosis curve in ___% of cases.
a. 25
b. 40
c. 55
d. 70

Back 50

d. 70

Front 51

T/F Incidence of the success of the Milwaukee Brace for the treatment of scoliosis raises with the addition of an exercise program.

Back 51

T

Front 52

Which of the following is not a factor or indication that would call for scoliosis bracing.
a. Patient should be skeletally immature and willing to wear a brace.
b. The spinal curvature should be progressive.
c. Patient is not paralytic
d. All structural curves 20 to 40 degrees of skeletally immature adolescents

Back 52

c. Patient is not paralytic

Front 53

T/F-The sacroiliac corset supports only the sacroiliac joint.

Back 53

T

Front 54

Match the type of traditional metal & leather Spinal orthosis to the description that it best fits.

A=Chairback Orthosis, B= Knight Orthosis, C= Williams Orthosis, D=Jewett & Cash Orthosis.

-___Sagittal coronal control lumbosacral orthosis. Designed for patients with tuberculosis of spine, low back pain, and stable non-compression fractures of lumbar spine.
-___Extension resist orthosis. Dynamic orthosis that allows minimal trunk flexion in the sagittal plane. Used in treatment of spondylolisthesis.
-___Hyperextension orthosis. Compression fractures of lumbar or low thoracic spines require limitations in trunk flexion during healing.
-___Sagittal control lumbosacral orthosis. Prescribed when reduction of gross & intersegmental flexion & extension of the trunk. Used primarily for pain management

Back 54

Match the type of traditional metal & leather Spinal orthosis to the description that it best fits.

A=Chairback Orthosis, B= Knight Orthosis, C= Williams Orthosis, D=Jewett & Cash Orthosis.

-_B__Sagittal coronal control lumbosacral orthosis. Designed for patients with tuberculosis of spine, low back pain, and stable non-compression fractures of lumbar spine.
-_C__Extension resist orthosis. Dynamic orthosis that allows minimal trunk flexion in the sagittal plane. Used in treatment of spondylolisthesis.
-_D__Hyperextension orthosis. Compression fractures of lumbar or low thoracic spines require limitations in trunk flexion during healing.
-_A__Sagittal control lumbosacral orthosis. Prescribed when reduction of gross & intersegmental flexion & extension of the trunk. Used primarily for pain management

Front 55

Match the type of thermaoplastic spinal orthosis to the description that it best fits
A=Raney Flexion Lumbosacral Orthosis, B= Boston Overlap Braces, C= Custom Molded Thoracolumosacral orthosis
-___Most commonly used in post surgical management of patients with fracture or spinal deformity of thoracic & upper lumbar spine. Limits movement in all three planes.
-___Holds LS spine in flexed position (posterior tilt). Used in management of spinal instability &pain produced by spondylosis & spondylolisthesis.
-___Immobilization in a neutral pelvic position or with minimal lordosis. Used in stable, non-displaced fractures of mid and lower lumbar spine, spondylolysis, or spondylolisthesis.

Back 55

Match the type of thermaoplastic spinal orthosis to the description that it best fits
A=Raney Flexion Lumbosacral Orthosis, B= Boston Overlap Braces, C= Custom Molded Thoracolumosacral orthosis
-_C__Most commonly used in post surgical management of patients with fracture or spinal deformity of thoracic & upper lumbar spine. Limits movement in all three planes.
-_A__Holds LS spine in flexed position (posterior tilt). Used in management of spinal instability &pain produced by spondylosis & spondylolisthesis.
-_B__Immobilization in a neutral pelvic position or with minimal lordosis. Used in stable, non-displaced fractures of mid and lower lumbar spine, spondylolysis, or spondylolisthesis.

Front 56

What is a Wiss Test Orthosis?
a. Short term acute low back pain orthosis
b. Long term chronic low back pain orthosis
c. Temporary testing orthotic
d. A onetime use orthosis for spinal surgery patients

Back 56

c. Temporary testing orthotic

Front 57

This neck orthosis is used primarily as a kinesthetic reminder for patients with mild whiplash injury or neck pain to restrict cervical motions.
a. Cervical halo
b. Soft collars
c. Philadelphia collar
d. Yale Cervicothoracic orthosis

Back 57

b. Soft collars

Front 58

Yale cervical collars are used for spinal instability or injury below the ___vertebral level.
a. C3
b.C4
c.C5
d.C6

Back 58

b.C4

Front 59

T/F- The lumbosacral corset is the most frequently prescribe orthosis for patients with low back pain.

Back 59

T

Front 60

T/F- The lumbosacral corset is most effective with chronic low back pain

Back 60

F

Front 61

Matching: A= articular splints, B= Non-articular splints
-___Most common type
-___Do not cross a joint
-___Stabilize the body segment to which they are applied
-___Cross a joint line

Back 61

Matching: A= articular splints, B= Non-articular splints
-_A__Most common type
-_B__Do not cross a joint
-_B__Stabilize the body segment to which they are applied
-_A__Cross a joint line

Front 62

Fill in the blank: 3 purposes of a splint (hand)
___________ _____________ _____________

Back 62

Fill in the blank: 3 purposes of a splint (hand)
____Immobilization_______ ______Mobilization_______ _____Restriction________

Front 63

T/F When using a splint to mobilize, the tissues will lengthen due to cell growth and not stretching of the tissues.

Back 63

T

Front 64

Static splints are used to meet which of the 3 goals of splinting?
a. Immobilization
b. Mobilization
c. Restriction

Back 64

a. Immobilization

Front 65

T/F-As the muscle is lengthened, a new static splint must be made to continue the therapy.

Back 65

F

Front 66

Matching: A=Proximal transverse arch, B= Distal transverse arch, C= Longitudinal arch

-___Contains the carpal tunnel and long flexors and also has the median nerve pass en route to the hand.
-___ A disruption of this arch occurs with an ulnar nerve injury resulting in loss of intrinsic muscle function.
- ___Involved in prehension type activities. Increases the mobility of the peripheral digits allowing for optimal grasping abilities.

Back 66

Matching: A=Proximal transverse arch, B= Distal transverse arch, C= Longitudinal arch

-_A__Contains the carpal tunnel and long flexors and also has the median nerve pass en route to the hand.
-_C__ A disruption of this arch occurs with an ulnar nerve injury resulting in loss of intrinsic muscle function.
- _B__Involved in prehension type activities. Increases the mobility of the peripheral digits allowing for optimal grasping abilities.

Front 67

T/F-When immobilizing the hand, avoid long term immobilization in the position of function.

Back 67

T

Front 68

The Antideformity position prevents contractures at the ____ joints.
a. Wrist
b. MP
C. IP

Back 68

b. MP

Front 69

Fill in the blank: Name 3 precautions of older adults when preparing orthotics.

Back 69

Fill in the blank: Name 3 precautions of older adults when preparing orthotics.
• May report pain, redness, & irritation over the bony areas
• Use padding or gel
• Flare the mold away during the molding process.

Front 70

T/F-Splints for burns are often worn during rest and at night during sleep

Back 70

T

Front 71

T/F- about Fabricated splints in burn care
-Can be used during any phase of healing-
-They are fabricated in 3 different sizes-
-Has potential to breakdown skin-
-Easily applied by anyone-
-Good for patients with decreased ROM-

Back 71

T/F- about Fabricated splints in burn care
-Can be used during any phase of healing- T
-They are fabricated in 3 different sizes- F
-Has potential to breakdown skin- T
-Easily applied by anyone- F
-Good for patients with decreased ROM- T

Front 72

____% of splints contain micro-organisms that may cause infection
a.10%
b. 35%
c. 50%
d. 95%

Back 72

c. 50%

Front 73

T/F-Quaternary ammonia at 1 ounce per gallon is 100% effective at killing infectious micro organisms

Back 73

T

Front 74

The Pavlik Harness limits ______ and _______
a. Flexion and adduction
b. Flexion and abduction
c. Extension and adduction
d. Extension and abduction

Back 74

c. Extension and adduction

Front 75

The Pavlik Harness allows _______and _______
a. Flexion and adduction
b. Flexion and abduction
c. Extension and adduction
d. Extension and abduction

Back 75

b. Flexion and abduction

Front 76

In infants who did not receive treatment early, a more aggressive approach is needed, such as a hip abduction orthosis set at ______degrees of hip flexion and ________degrees of hip abduction.
a. 45/90
b. 90/45
c. 90/120
d. 120/90

Back 76

c. 90/120

Front 77

Legg-calve-perthes disease is
a. two times as common in males 4-8
b. four times as common in males 4-8
c. two times as common in females 4-8
d. four times as common in females 4-8

Back 77

b. four times as common in males 4-8

Front 78

All of the following are true about the Atlanta/Scottish-Rite hip abduction orthosis except___
a. Most commonly used orthosis for LCPD
b. Permits both flexion and extension
c. Is worn under the clothes
d. Holds hips at 45 degrees of abduction

Back 78

c. Is worn under the clothes

Front 79

T/F-A hip orthosis is generally not indicated for elective hip arthroplasties unless a hip fracture or hip trauma occurs.

Back 79

T

Front 80

When a hip orthosis is used after a hip arthroplasty, it is designed to limit ____and _____ of the hip joint.
a. Flexion/adduction
b. Flexion/abduction
c. Extension/adduction
d. Extension/abduction

Back 80

a. Flexion/adduction