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PT 726 Wound Care

Pt 726 Wound Care

by joshualee, Oct. 2013

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892 Cards in this Set

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	Which of the following layers of skin contain melanocytes which create the pigment color? A. Stratum Basale B. Stratum Spinosum C. Stratum Granulosum D. Stratum Lucidum E. Stratum Corneum	A. Stratum Basale
	Which of the following phases of healing lasts 4-21 days? A. Hemostasis B. Inflammatory Phase C. Proliferative Phase D. Maturation Phase	C. Proliferative Phase
	Which of the following is not a growth factor in wound repair during the Proliferative Phase? A. Neovascularization B. Fibroblast C. Keratinocyte Migration D. Leukocyte Extravasation	D. Leukocyte Extravasation
	Which of the following wound classifications and categories deals with both pressure and trauma? A. Mechanical B. Thermal C. Chemical D. Radiation E. Vascular	A. Mechanical
	While all health-care practitioners need to posses a working knowledge of clinical nutrition, the responsibility for determining the nutritional requirements of the patients rests primarily with whom? A. Medical Doctor B. Physical Therapist C. Registered Dietitian D. Occupational Therapist	C. Registered Dietitian
	Within the realm of wound closures, what does the term Delayed Primary Closure mean? A. Initial closure by the surgeon B. Initial cleaning by a PT and then removal of sutures by MD C. Healed by scarring D. None of the above	B. Initial cleaning by a PT and then removal of sutures by MD
	Which of the following is not an important factor when performing a wound assessment and evaluation? A. Patient demographics B. Medical diagnosis C. Patient’s salary D. Patient’s employment	C. Patient’s salary
	During a general wound assessment and evaluation, which color is indicative of drainage and infection? A. Red B. Black C. Yellow D. Brown	C. Yellow
	The following description falls under which stage for pressure ulcers: “Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle.” A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4	D. Stage 4
	An elongated injury in which the skin is torn, cut and may have smooth or jagged edges is called a: A. Laceration B. Puncture C. Abrasion D. Avulsion	A. Laceration
	Which degree of frostbite results in the skin becoming waxy and hard thus becoming edematous and necrotic? A. First Degree B. Second Degree C. Third Degree D. None of the above	C. Third Degree
	All of the following are factors that help keep blood moving in the leg veins for a venous insufficiency ulcers except: A. Pressure from behind (heart) B. External air pressure C. Lung suction while breathing inward D. Pumping of the leg muscles	B. External air pressure
	(Diabetic Foot Ulcerations) The physical examination of the extremity having a diabetic ulcer can be divided into 3 areas. Which of the following is not one of the examination areas? A. Examination of the ulcer and general condition of the extremity B. Assessment of the possibility of vascular insufficiency C. Assessment for possibility of peripheral neuropathy D. Examination of muscle strengthen	D. Examination of muscle strengthen
	A third degree acute burn involves which one of the following layers of the skin? A. Epidermis B. Extends into superficial dermis C. Extends through the skin and into underlying muscle and bone D. Extends through entire dermis	D. Extends through entire dermis
	Which of the following components of burn therapy is not encouraged to the patient? A. Minimizing passive ROM B. Decreasing edema C. ADL training D. Initial scar management	A. Minimizing passive ROM
	Pain that is non-protective and serves no biological purpose is considered to be which of the following? A. Acute pain B. Chronic pain C. Spontaneous pain D. Reffered pain	B. Chronic pain
	There are 3 categories of wound closure. Which of the following categories best describes the following? A delayed primary closure that involves debridement of the wound for an extended period and then formal closure with suturing or by another mechanism. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. None of the above	C. Tertiary
	Light therapy is a physical therapy modality that uses _________, the basic unit of light, to heal and repair tissue in the body. A. Electron B. Neutron C. Photon D. Atom	C. Photon
	During compression therapy, the physical therapist should apply compression stockings in which of the following correct ways? A. Start strong at the ankle and continue with strong compression going up the leg B. Start strong at the ankle and continue with light pressure going up the leg C. Start strong at the knee and continue with strong compression going down the leg D. Start light at the knee and continue with strong compression going down the leg	B. Start strong at the ankle and continue with light pressure going up the leg
	When applying a vacuum pump to a low back wound to an immobilized patient in supine, which of the following is the correct set up? A. Apply dressing and vacuum normally B. Apply dressing and vacuum through a process called bridging C. Force patient into side-lying and apply dressing and vacuum D. This patient cannot receive negative pressure wound therapy	B. Apply dressing and vacuum through a process called bridging
	Which of the following is not one of the main type sources for oxygen therapy? A. Liquid storage B. Compressed gas storage C. Instant usage (electrical concentrator) D. Solid storage	D. Solid storage
	Within the Physician’s Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) that refers to codes which category entails “performance meaurements codes used as tracking codes to facilitate data collection to decrease the need for record abstraction and chart review? A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III D. None of the above	B. Category II
	In developing a team of wound care experts, who should not be included? A. Physician B. Physical therapist C. Lawyer D. Dietitian	C. Lawyer
	The person or entity that has suffered damages as the result of another’s negligent act or failure to act is known as? A. Defendant B. Plaintiff C. Lawyer D. None of the above	B. Plaintiff
	Which of the following is not a contraindication of electro physiotherapy? A. Pregnancy B. Cancer C. Growth plate D. Scar tissue	D. Scar tissue
	Which of the following phases is described in the following definition? This phase deals with the start of self-management and involves the patient wearing a compression garment during the day and night. A. Phase 1 B. Phase 2 C. Phase 3 D. Phase 4	B. Phase 2
	Which of the following body areas is the most unlikely place to find a pressure ulcer on an elderly individual with organ failure? A. Sacrum B. Elbow C. Posterior head D. Medial knee	A. Sacrum
	What percentage of burn incidents are reported as being preventable? A. 30% B. 50% C. 70% D. 90%	C. 70%
	Which phase of healing does the following information describe? Lasts for years, wound strength continues, collagen fibers align to increase strength, and it’s the longest periods of healing because scar tissue is greater. A. Inflammatory B. Proliferative C. Maturation	C. Maturation
	Which of the following dimensions of pain describe the following information? “It mediates the quality, intensity, duration and location of the pain.” A. Sensory discriminative B. Motivational affective C. Cognitive evaluate D. None of the above	A. Sensory discriminative
	The donor skin is taken from a different site on the same individual’s body is known as which of the following terms? A. Isogenic B. Autologous C. Xenogeneic	C. Xenogeneic
	, Heliotherapy is defines as: A. The therapeutic use of ultrasound B. The therapeutic use of ice C. The therapeutic use of sunlight D. The therapeutic use of stretch	C. The therapeutic use of sunlight
	Which resisted pressure is appropriate for short stretching? A. 10-30 mm Hg B. 30-60 mm Hg C. 60-90 mm Hg D. None of the above	B. 30-60 mm Hg
	White blood cells kill bacteria if they are in an environment of <_____mm Hg of partial pressure. A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60	A. 30
	Failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise in like circumstances is known as which of the following? A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Duty D. Deposition	A. Negligence
	What is a continuous layer of undifferentiated columnar stem cells that divide frequently? a. Keratinocytes b. Single layer of epidermal cells c. Glabrous cells d. Langerhan cells	a. Keratinocytes
	Which of the following is not a phase of healing? a. Hemostasis b. Inflammation c. Granulation d. Proliferation	c. Granulation
	3. Which of the following is not used to classify and categorize wounds? a. Condition b. Degree c. Neuropathy d. APTA Guide	a. Condition
	4. Which of the following is a process that occurs in normal wound healing? a. Contraction b. Granulation c. Epithelialization d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	1. What percentage of LE wounds are ulcers? a. 20-30% b. 40-50% c. 60-70% d. 80-90%	d. 80-90%
	1. Which of the following is not a type of selective debridement? a. Autolytic b. Mechanical c. Enzymatic d. Mechanical	b. Mechanical
	2. Which of the following is indicated for partial and full-thickness wounds, infected wounds, draining wounds, and deep wounds that require packing? a. Fillers b. Foams c. Gauze d. Hydrocolloids	a. Fillers
	1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for venous insufficiency? a. Male b. Obesity c. Smoking d. Varicose Veins	a. Male
	2. According to the text, which of the following is important to correctly diagnose lymphedema? a. Proper Instrument b. Background Knowledge c. Thorough Examination d. All of the above	c. Thorough Examination
	3. When trying to avoid pressure ulcers in the supine position, where should pillows not be placed? a. Knees b. Thighs c. Calf d. Heels	d. Heels
	4. Which of the following values is associated with diabetes? a. HbA1c > 6.5 b. OGTT< 200 2 hrs c. FBG < 126 d. Random Glucose >126	a. HbA1c > 6.5
	5. When assessing a diabetic ulcer during the inflammatory phase, all of the following are clinical activities except: a. Erythema b. Vasodilation c. Pain d. Warmth	b. Vasodilation
	6. When monitoring a patient with more than 30% TBSA, which of the following is not monitored? a. Blood Pressure b. PO2 c. Urine Output d. ABI	d. ABI
	7. Which of the following types of exercises is often the least painful? a. PROM b. AAROM c. AROM d. All are painful	c. AROM
	8. All of the following are used to treat pain except: a. Pharmacology b. Recreational Therapy c. Physical Therapy d. Psychology	b. Recreational Therapy
	9. Which of the following would not affect wound healing? a. Malnutrition b. Aging c. Osteomyelitis d. Ethnicity	d. Ethnicity
	1. Which of the following is not one of the 3 types of EMR used in phototherapy? a. Infrared b. Visible Light c. Ultraviolet Radiation d. LED	d. LED
	2. Which of the following is not one of the 4 principles in selecting a compressive bandage? a. What are the elastic properties of the bandage and how is it constructed? b. What is the size and shape of the person? c. How skilled is the clinician, patient, or caregiver at bandage application? d. What will be the level of physical activity the patient will undertake?	b. What is the size and shape of the person?
	3. What is the purpose of applying a drape over the wound before placing the wound VAC? a. Prevent maceration b. Allow better suction c. Avoid infection d. All of the above	a. Prevent maceration
	4. Which of the following is a contraindication to using an HBOT? a. Pneumothorax b. Sinus infection c. Amputee d. Hypochondriac	a. Pneumothorax
	1. Which of the following may require referral to other practitioners in order to receive reimbursement? a. Neurological disorder b. Muscle contracture c. Underlying comorbidities d. Burn victim	c. Underlying comorbidities
	2. When developing a wound care program, which of the following is important to consider? a. Have team members that are passionate for the service b. Have a transdisciplinary approach c. Create a holistic approach d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	3. Which of the following is not a non-economic damage to a patient? a. Medical or living expenses b. Loss of enjoyment of life c. Pain and suffering d. Loss of consortium and disfigurement	a. Medical or living expenses
	1. What is the purpose of the “lollipop”? a. Calm down the screaming child of a patient b. To protect the area and skin around the wound to prevent breakdown c. Used to pack into a wound bed to help disinfect the wound and create a sterile environment d. A silver algenate in which the “head” of the lollipop dressing is placed directly over the wound and the “stick” is then able to wrap around the limb and secure the bandage	b. To protect the area and skin around the wound to prevent breakdown
	What are the 2 different types of skin? a. glaborous and hairy b. Epidermis and dermis c. Dermis and hairy d. Dermis and glaborous	a. glaborous and hairy
	Which one happens during hemostasis? a. Fibrin clot b. Macrophages c. Leukocyte extravasation d. Fibroblasts	a. Fibrin clot
	PDGF is released in what stage? a. Hemostasis and initiates chemotaxis b. Inflammatory and initiates chemotaxis c. Hemostasis and causes wound contraction d. Inflammatory and causes wound contraction	a. Hemostasis and initiates chemotaxis
	Which one of the following are the correct wound classifications? a. Mechanical, thermal, chemical, radiation and vascular impairment b. Mechanical, thermal, conduction, convection, radiation and vascular impairment c. Mechanical, thermal, conduction, radiation and arterial impairment d. None of the above	a. Mechanical, thermal, chemical, radiation and vascular impairment
	If your serum albumin level is less than _____g/dl, it increases the risk of complication 4x as much. a. 2.5 b. 3.5 c. 4.5 d. None of the above	b. 3.5
	What happens during scar formation during the secondary closure? a. Contraction b. Granulation c. Epithilialization d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	The Braden and Norton scales are great assessment tools for? a. Debridement b. Risk for pressure ulcerations c. Drainage d. None	b. Risk for pressure ulcerations
	Which one of the following is the correct type(s) of debridement? a. Mechanical, autolytic, chemical b. Autolytic c. Mechanical, autolytic d. Mechanical, autolytic, chemical and surgical	a. Mechanical, autolytic, chemical
	Foams are topical agents such as polyurethane that are used mainly as a. bacteria prevention b. cushion c. both d. none	b. cushion
	Which is the BEST indicator for a Venous insufficiency problem? a. Blue/discolored leg b. Doppler ultrasound c. Doctors diagnosis d. sleeps in elevated position	b. Doppler ultrasound
	Which statement is FALSE regarding diabetic neuropathy? a. Affects sensory, motor and autonomic nervous system b. Over diagnosed c. Total costs $37 billion d. Type 1 and 2 are at equal risk	b. Over diagnosed
	Lymphedema is _____________ a. Curable and non progressive b. Progressive c. Non curable but manageable d. Non curable nor manageable	c. Non curable but manageable
	People who have a higher risk in developing pressure ulcers are the following: _________. a. Elderly b. Terminally ill patients c. Multiple organ failure patients d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	Third degree burns are: _______. a. Possible blisters with erythematous or whitish base with a fibrinous exudate. Sensitive to touch and may blanch with pressure b. Burns may appear white and pliable; black, charred, leathery; or bright red. Do not blanch with pressure. Generally anesthetic, and hairs are easily pulled from follicles. c. Burns are red and very sensitive to touch. The surface blanches to light pressure, no blisters. d. Severe burns	b. Burns may appear white and pliable; black, charred, leathery; or bright red. Do not blanch with pressure. Generally anesthetic, and hairs are easily pulled from follicles.
	Which statement about scar massage is NOT true? a. Recommended to elongate, soften, and Increase immature scar pliability b. Exact methods unknown c. 3-6x daily, spending 10 min on each scar area d. None. All are true	d. None. All are true
	Which statement regarding pain and wound healing is NOT true? a. Impairs wound healing inhibiting Substance P, CGRP b. Applying topical morphine on wound. It decreases nociceptor activation c. decreases release of neuropeptides and decreases inflammatory response d. NONE. all are True	d. NONE. all are True
	Which one of the following wound healing risk factors is false? a. Nutrition b. Aging c. Osteomyelitis d. Tissue oxygenation	a. Nutrition
	Which one of the following statements regarding biological effects of laser light is true? a. high level exposure stimulates collagen b. decreases O2 transfer c. produces a blue light d. increases cellular proliferation	d. increases cellular proliferation
	which one of the following principles regarding selecting proper bandaging in compression treatment is False? a. finding the most economic type b. What is the size and shape of the extremity? c. How skilled is the clinician, patient, or caregiver at bandage application? d. What will be the level of physical activity the patient will undertake?	a. finding the most economic type
	Negative pressure wound therapy promotes wound healing by? a. applying a vacuum through a special sealed dressing b. sealing the wound with plastic c. using high suction vacuum d. sealing the wound completely letting no air out	a. applying a vacuum through a special sealed dressing
	which statement regarding oxygen function in wound healing is false ? a. Both hypoxia and normal oxygen levels are necessary for wound healing b. Brief hypoxia stimulates macrophages to release mitogens that stimulate fibroblast replication and the release of angiogenic factors c. Oxygen stimulates fibroblasts to make collagen d. Maturation of collagen, development of new endothelium and healthy granulation tissue are all oxygen independent	d. Maturation of collagen, development of new endothelium and healthy granulation tissue are all oxygen independent
	Which one is correct regarding hyperbaric O2 therapy? a. Treatment during which a patient inhales 100% oxygen at pressures exceeding 1.4 atmospheres absolute (1.4 times a normal atmosphere of pressure) and Treatments are given in an airtight chamber b. Treatment during which a patient inhales 150% oxygen at pressures exceeding 1.4 atmospheres absolute (1.4 times a normal atmosphere of pressure) and Treatments are given in an airtight chamber c. Treatment during which a patient inhales 200% oxygen at pressures exceeding 1.4 atmospheres absolute (1.4 times a normal atmosphere of pressure) and Treatments are given in an airtight chamber d. None of these	a. Treatment during which a patient inhales 100% oxygen at pressures exceeding 1.4 atmospheres absolute (1.4 times a normal atmosphere of pressure) and Treatments are given in an airtight chamber
	Which of the following do insurers mainly look for in order for reimbursement to occur? a. Previous treatments Time in/out b. Type, location, number of Indication of regular wounds assessment of the wound c. History of wound, Wound tissue characteristics Extent of tissue derided Wound measurements a. All of the above	a. All of the above
	Which one of the following is most important when it comes down to legal issues? A. DOCUMENT EVERYTHING CONSISTENTLY B. DON’T DO ANYTHING OUT OF YOUR SCOPE OF PRACTICE C. COMMUNICATE WITH PATIENT AND STAFF AND TREAT PATIENT AND FAMILY WITH RESPECT. D. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE IMPORTANT AND CRITICAL	D. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE IMPORTANT AND CRITICAL
	High Volt (+) positive polarity electrotherapy works best for? a. edema b. pain c. both d. none	b. pain
	1. Which one of these is not one of the 3 basic components of the dermis: a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Extrafibrillar matrix d. keratinocytes	d. keratinocytes
	1. How long does hemostasis last? a. 5-10 min b. 1-2 days c. 1-2 hours d. 30 min	a. 5-10 min
	1. Which of these would be a definition of a stage 2 pressure ulcer? a. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness of localized area b. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as shallow open ulcer with red pink wound bed c. Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat visible but bone, tendon, or muscle not exposed d. Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle.	b. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as shallow open ulcer with red pink wound bed
	1. What is the definition of an infection as discussed in class? a. Foreign material in the area b. 10^15th organism in tissue c. 10^5 organism in tissue d. Swelling or edema in tissue	c. 10^5 organism in tissue
	1. What are the four areas of PT addressed in the patient assessment a. Neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, cardiopulmonary, integumentary b. Neurovascular, skeletal, psychological, integumentary c. Neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, neurological, cardiopulmonary d. Musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, pulmonary, integumentary	a. Neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, cardiopulmonary, integumentary
	1. Technique used to debrede tissue by scoring use what type of pattern? a. Checker board b. Triangular c. Plad d. circular	a. Checker board
	1. What are biological and biosynthetic dressings used in substitution of? a. Dressing b. Gausses c. Skin graft d. Temporary covering	c. Skin graft
	1. Venous ulcers are a condition which is often caused by . A. chronic, hypotension B. acute, hypertension C. chronic, hypertension D. acute, hypertension	C. chronic, hypertension
	1. What diet would be encouraged to reduce lymphedema a. Low sodium b. Low carbohydrates c. Low fat d. High carbohydrates	a. Low sodium
	1. What is not a problem caused by the femoral shaft not being parallel to seat surface? a. Knees up, causing more pressure b. Puts hips in ER c. Increases pressure on sacrum d. Causes patient to fall forward	d. Causes patient to fall forward
	1. Diabetes is a group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from deficits in a. Insulin secretion b. Insulin action c. Both a and B d. None of the above	c. Both a and B
	1. What is the gold standard for treating diabetic foot ulcers? a. Debridement b. Dressing c. Amputation d. Total contact casting	d. Total contact casting
	1. Why do people survive lightning strike? a. They were not directly struck b. They received prompt medical attention c. They were not in water d. They were not holding a metal object	a. They were not directly struck
	1. When are casts used for burns? a. Prior to splinting b. Only in adults c. To reduce ROM d. Prevent graft movement	d. Prevent graft movement
	1. What percent of amputees report pain 8 days after amputation? a. 15% b. 72% c. 24% d. 92%	b. 72%
	1. What are the three types of skin grafts? a. Half thickness b. Full thickness c. Split thickness d. B and C e. A and B	d. B and C
	1. Heliotherapy is… a. Color therapy b. Therapeutic sunlight c. Therapeutic wavelengths d. Therapeutic laser	b. Therapeutic sunlight
	1. Compression therapy cannot be used for… a. CVI b. Varicose veins c. Edema d. Arterial insufficiency	d. Arterial insufficiency
	1. Which is one of the three components to the wound vac? a. sensitrac, b. granufoam c. the vacuum d. a, b and c	d. a, b and c
	1. Which is not one of the types of hyperbaric oxygen chambers? a. Multiplace b. Upright c. Monoplace d. All are types	b. Upright
	1. Documentation must include all of the following but… a. Physicians orders b. Patient education c. All normal responses to treatment d. Change of medical status	c. All normal responses to treatment
	1. Key thing in marketing is… a. Advertising b. Personal selling c. Sales promotion d. Public relations	b. Personal selling
	1. What is a healthcare providers legal duty a. Provide health care within standard of care b. To provide specialty care to all patients c. To protect the public d. To practice	a. Provide health care within standard of care
	I. ABI’s, VAC presentation, Bio physical devices (E-stim, US, Light Therapies), Offloading Devices (TCC, Crow, Felt and Foam, Shoes. Crutches). 1. What is an abnormal TBPI (toe brachial pressure index)? a. <.64-.7 b. <.64 c. <.7 d. >.64	b. <.64
	a. Which of the following is not a basic component of the dermis? i. Collagen ii. Elastin iii. Fibrin iv. Ground substance	iii. Fibrin
	a. Which phase of healing involves fibrinolysis? i. Hemostasis ii. Inflammatory iii. Proliferative iv. Maturation	i. Hemostasis
	a. How would you classify a wound caused by extravasation? i. Mechanical ii. Thermal iii. Chemical iv. Radiation	iii. Chemical
	a. Which of the following is used as a nutritional assessment? i. Serum albumin <3.5 g/dl ii. Skin color iii. Urine output iv. GUG	i. Serum albumin <3.5 g/dl
	1. General Patient assessment a. Which of the following is not affected by aging? i. Physiology ii. Anatomy iii. Functionality iv. Nutrition	iv. Nutrition
	1. Wound Bed Preparation/Debridemnent a. Which of the following is not a form of debridement? i. Mechanical ii. Autolytic iii. Chemical iv. Cauderization	iv. Cauderization
	a. What is a composite dressing? i. Dressing that combines distinct components into a single product ii. Dressing that can be used for multiple dressing changes iii. Dressing composed of alginates iv. Dressing with multiple layers	i. Dressing that combines distinct components into a single product
	1. Venous Insufficiency and Arterial Ulceration management a. Which of the following is not a risk factor for venous insufficiency? i. Inactivity ii. Smoking iii. Female iv. BP <110/70	iv. BP <110/70
	a. Which of the following describes mild lymphedema? i. Less than 3 cm differential between affected limb and unaffected limb ii. 3-5 cm differential between affected limb and unaffected limb iii. 5+ differential between affected limb and unaffected limb iv. No difference between affected and unaffected limb	i. Less than 3 cm differential between affected limb and unaffected limb
	3. Prevention and treatment of Pressure Ulcer a. Why is it important to not put pillows under a patients heels? i. It is not important ii. Because it will keep pressure off the heels iii. Because it is not important to elevate the patients feet iv. Because it will keep the patient pain free	ii. Because it will keep pressure off the heels
	a. What is the definition of gestational diabetes? i. A pregnant mother with diabetes ii. A fetus with elevated blood sugar levels iii. Any glucose intolerance during pregnancy iv. Insulin resistance in pregnant mother	iii. Any glucose intolerance during pregnancy
	a. Which of the following is not a treatment modality for a diabetic foot ulceration? i. Off-loading ii. Debridement iii. Amputation iv. Acupuncture	iv. Acupuncture
	a. Describe a 2nd degree burn. i. Burns are red and very sensitive to touch. The surface blanches to light pressure, no blisters. ii. Possible blisters with erythematous or whitish base with a fibrinous exudate. Sensitive to touch and may blanch with pressure iii. Burns may appear white and pliable; black, charred, leathery; or bright red. Do not blanch with pressure. Generally anesthetic, and hairs are easily pulled from follicles. iv. Bone is visible in wound bed	ii. Possible blisters with erythematous or whitish base with a fibrinous exudate. Sensitive to touch and may blanch with pressure
	a. Which skin layer is only present on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet? i. Stratum corneum ii. Stratum lucidum iii. Stratum basale iv. Stratum spinosum 8. Managing Wound-Related Pain a. What is primary hyperalgesia? i. An increased pain response that occurs at site of injury. Thought to reflect changes in the peripheral nervous system. ii. Occurs outside the site of injury. Thought to be mediated by changes in the central nervous system. iii. Pain in response to a normally non-painful stimuli. iv. Convergence of 1st order neurons in the spinothalamic tract. 9. Surgical Considerations in Wound Care a. What is an example of healing through secondary intention? i. Suturing ii. Debridement iii. Drainage of an abcess and subsequent healing iv. A management technique that allows closure of the wound in a delayed fashion E. Modalities for Wound Healing (Biophysical Technologies) 1. Light Therapies a. How are UVC applied to a patient i. Artificially ii. Through direct sunlight iii. Through a UVU machine iv. Through ointments 2. Compression Therapy a. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for compression therapy? i. Critical limb ischemia ii. Diabetes iii. Pneumonia iv. Venous insufficiency 3. Oxygen Therapy—Management of the Hypoxic Wound a. Which of the following is a contraindication for HBOT? i. Patients with pneumothorax ii. Diabetic foot ulcer iii. Osteoradionecrosis iv. Chronic refractory osteomylitis	i. Patients with pneumothorax
	a. Why is a risk assessment used during examination? i. It can save on cost and guide toward better outcomes ii. It is not good to use in the initial examination iii. It is essential for correct documentation iv. None of the above	i. It can save on cost and guide toward better outcomes
	a. Which of the following would not be on a wound care team? i. PT ii. OT iii. Nurse iv. Lawyer	iv. Lawyer
	a. Which of the following is not a way to avoid litigation? i. Document everything consistently ii. Don’t do anything out of your scope of practice iii. Communicate with patients and staff iv. Bill for every code possible on every therapy session	iv. Bill for every code possible on every therapy session
	a. How do you correctly compute an ABI? i. Highest arm systolic pressure/highest ankle systolic pressure ii. Lowest arm systolic pressure/lowest ankle systolic pressure iii. Highest ankle systolic pressure/highest arm systolic pressure iv. Lowest ankle systolic pressure/lowest arm systolic pressure	iii. Highest ankle systolic pressure/highest arm systolic pressure iv. Lowest ankle systolic
	1. Anatomy of the skin includes? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous layer d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	2. What is the 1st phase of wound healing a. Hemostasis b. Inflammatory Phase c. Proliferative Phase d. Maturation Phase	a. Hemostasis
	3. According to the NPUAP description of pressure ulcers. A full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle would be classified under what stage? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4	d. Stage 4
	4. Factors affecting wound closure include(s)? a. Infections b. Swelling/edema c. Aging d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	5. During patient assessment, while checking for signs of edema, you would want to? a. Compare the extremity with the opposite limb or measure b. Not check edema, because it is not checked during the patient assessment. c. Apply lots of compression to the extremity d. Leave it alone, let the next health care provider deal with it.	a. Compare the extremity with the opposite limb or measure
	6. Tweezers or pinchers are used to primarily apply what force during debridement of tissue a. Compression b. Traction c. Friction d. None	b. Traction
	7. What dressing is the oldest dressing and 100% occlusive? a. Hydrocolloids b. Imprgnated c. Silicone Gel sheets d. Coban 2	dressing and 100% occlusive? a. Hydrocolloids
	8. Signs of Venous Insufficiency/disease is primarily found in what location on the human body? a. Abdominal region b. Gaiter region c. Head d. Wrist	b. Gaiter region
	9. Secondary Lymphedema caused by identifiable insult to lymphatic system A. Inflammation B. Infection C. Radiation therapy D. All the above	D. All the above
	10. Patients should be turned every ____ hours? a. 1/2 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8	b. 2
	11. Rapid-Acting Insulin medication duration lasts how long? a. 3-5 hours b. 18-24 hours c. 24-36 hours d. 1-5 days.	a. 3-5 hours
	12. _____________ is defined as: A localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure or pressure in combination with shear and friction a. Pressure ulcer b. Infection c. Inflammation d. Claudication	a. Pressure ulcer
	13. The depth of burns considered to be third degree burns can be described as? a. Partial thickness b. Full thickness c. Chemical d. 1 cubit	b. Full thickness
	14. 2 primary layers of the skin include: a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Epidermis and dermis d. Merkel’s cells and Langerhan’ cells	c. Epidermis and dermis
	15. Pain felt outside the area of injury and is not associated with a response to an applied stimuli is referred to as: a. Referred Pain b. Spontaneous c. Acute d. Emotional	a. Referred Pain
	16. Surgical debridement under primary intention of a wound can be classified under what 2 forms? a. Blunt and Sharpe b. Mechanical and Enzymatic c. Autolytic and Biological d. Wet-to dry and sutures.	a. Blunt and Sharpe
	17. The distance between identical points of a propagating wave of a given frequency in light therapies is defined the? a. Wavelength b. Peak c. Trough d. Photon.	a. Wavelength
	18. Prior to doing compression therapy. What should be done? a. ABI or checking peripheral pulses. b. No considerations are needed for compression therapy.	a. ABI or checking peripheral pulses.
	19. What can be used to link two wounds during Negative Pressure wound therapy? a. Bridge b. Dowel c. Debride the tissue between the 2 wounds to make it 1 bigger wound.	a. Bridge
	20. During oxygen therapy management of hypoxic wounds, which element is used? a. Nitrogen b. Hydrogen c. Potassium d. Oxygen	d. Oxygen
	21. What is required before an intervention can be performed? a. Examination b. Nothing c. Only need the patient history d. Patient goals	a. Examination
	22. When developing a clinical wound care program, what should you consider most? a. Patients needs b. Physical therapists needs c. Family needs d. Nursing staff’s needs.	a. Patients needs
	23. ________ is defined as doing something that a reasonable person would not do under the same or similar circumstances or not doing something that a reasonable person would do under the same or similar circumstances. a. Burden of proof b. Negligence c. Standard Care d. Duty	b. Negligence
	24. The offloading device the “Crow” stands for? a. Charcot restraint orthotic walker b. Compression resisted orthotic walker c. Constant repair of wounds d. Complex reusable orthotic walker	a. Charcot restraint orthotic walker
	Which of the following epidermal layers consists of dead keratinocytes that help repel water from entering the skin? 1. Stratum corneum 2. Stratum lucidum 3. Stratum basale 4. Stratum granulosum	1. Stratum corneum
	Which of the following is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation? 1. Redness 2. Stiffness 3. Heat 4. Pain	1. Redness 2. Stiffness
	A stage 4 ulcer often includes all of the following except: 1. Exposed bone or muscle 2. Tunneling 3. Slough or eschar 4. Blisters in the wound bed	4. Blisters in the wound bed
	Scar formation is a process. Which of the following is not part of that process? 1. Contraction 2. Granulation Formation 3. Collagen Construction 4. Epithelial Migration	3. Collagen Construction
	Which is not one of CDC’s universal precautions? 1. Wearing gloves when handling bodily fluids 2. Avoid handling sharp objects 3. Wear protective glasses 4. Wash immediately skin surfaces contaminated with blood	2. Avoid handling sharp objects
	Which of the following is a disadvantage of selective-autolytic debridement? 1. Causes extreme pain to the patient 2. The process is not as safe as chemical-enzymatic debridement 3. It is not as fast as surgical debridement 4. It causes damage to the surrounding skin	3. It is not as fast as surgical debridement
	Gauzes are primarily used for all of the following except: 1. Cleansing a wound 2. Packing a wound 3. Covering a wound 4. Reducing risk of infection of a wound	4. Reducing risk of infection of a wound
	Arterial Disease presents with signs of all of the following except: 1. Absent pulses 2. Loss of hair on limb 3. Painless ulceration 4. Cool skin	3. Painless ulceration
	Which of the following is the most common location to develop lymphedema? 1. Lower extremities 2. Scrotum 3. Arms 4. Neck	1. Lower extremities
	As covered in the presentation, which of the following type of patient will not develop an unavoidable ulcer? 1. Elderly patients 2. Terminally ill patients 3. Stroke patients 4. Patients with multiple organ failure	3. Stroke patients
	Which of the following provides the best diagnosis of diabetes? 1. Random Glucose > 200, HbA1c >6.5, FBG > 126 2. Random Glucose >200, HbA1c >5.7, OGTT > 200 3. HbA1c > 6.5, FBG > 126, hypouria 4. HbA1c > 6.5, FBG > 156, hypouria	1. Random Glucose > 200, HbA1c >6.5, FBG > 126
	When performing a peripheral neuropathy screen, do all of the following except: 1. Assess toe and ankle strength 2. Use the monofilaments 3. Assess ankle reflexes 4. Assess standing balance	4. Assess standing balance
	When electrocuted, the electricity will follow the path of least resistance. Which of the following systems will the electricity follow? 1. Circulatory 2. Nervous 3. Digestive 4. Musculoskeletal	2. Nervous
	What types of interventions would be best to use during the inflammatory stage? 1. ROM, edema control, and splinting 2. ROM, muscle strengthening, and stretching 3. Muscle strengthening, functional activities, stretching 4. Functional activities, splinting, and stretching	1. ROM, edema control, and splinting
	Which of the following is known as the cornerstone of effective management of pain? 1. PENS 2. Opioids 3. Hypnosis 4. TENS	2. Opioids
	Which of the following is not a factor that would impede wound healing? 1. Poor tissue oxygenation 2. Malnutrition 3. Poor muscle strength 4. Old age	3. Poor muscle strength
	Which of the following is not an adverse effect of UVR Therapy? 1. Loss of elasticity of the skin 2. Carcinoma 3. Burns 4. Development of a DVT	4. Development of a DVT
	According to the slide presentation, what is the pressure that can be applied with a long stretch bandage? 1. 20-30 mmHg 2. 25-40 mmHg 3. 40-50 mmHg 4. 45-60 mmHg	3. 40-50 mmHg
	Contraindications when using the Wound VAC include all of the following except: 1. Presence of necrotic tissue 2. Malignancy in the wound 3. Osteomyelitis 4. Chronic Wounds	4. Chronic Wounds
	Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy provides a patient with ________ oxygen relative to what a patient normally has in the body. 1. More 2. Less 3. The same amount	1. More
	When documenting the characteristics of a wound, which of the following is not required? 1. Size and depth 2. Location 3. Smell 4. Amount of exudate	3. Smell
	Generally, which of the following is not part of the wound management team? 1. Orthotist/Prosthetist 2. Dietician 3. Physical Therapist 4. Chiropractor	4. Chiropractor
	What is the time limit that a plaintiff has to file a law suit? 1. 6-18 months 2. 1-2 years 3. 5-6 years 4. 10-15 years	2. 1-2 years
	A normal ABI is: 1. >1 2. >.8 3. <1 4. <.8	1. >1
	1. Collagen forms ___% of the skins dry weight? a. 25% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75%	d. 75%
	2. The Repair Phase (Proliferative) of wound healing occurs on or thru the following day(s)? a. Day 4 thru 14 b. Day 8 thru 18 c. Day 5 thru 15 d. Day 10 thru 20	a. Day 4 thru 14
	3. What stage would you classify the pressure ulcer shown in the picture? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 e. Un-stage-able	d. Stage 4
	4. Which leukocyte is responsible for managing bacteria in or at the wound site? a. Macrophage b. B lymphocyte c. Neutrophil d. T lymphocyte	c. Neutrophil
	1. When performing a Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test how many grams of force must be applied for a patient to test positive for protective sensation loss? a. 50 b. 25 c. 15 d. 10	b. 25
	1. Wound bed preparation includes all of the following except a. Cleaning the wound b. Use of biological dressing c. Management of infection d. Debridement of nonviable tissue	b. Use of biological dressing
	2. The primary role of a dressing is to…? a. Seal the wound b. Manage tissue hydration c. Promote tissue desiccation d. Dry out the wound	b. Manage tissue hydration
	1. Venous insufficiency can cause ulcers to occur, what part of the body do they present most commonly? a. Knee cap b. Sacrum c. Medial malleolus d. Posterior Heel	c. Medial malleolus
	2. Lymphedema complicates healing, currently there is only one reliable clinical test to diagnose lymphedema. Which of following is the name of that test? a. Ober’s test b. Two-point discrimination c. Limb measurements d. Stemmer sign	d. Stemmer sign
	3. Positioning patients is critical to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer would best be assisted by placing them in what position(s)? a. Tilt pelvis so sacral spinous processes are unweighted b. Supine with head elevated c. Using a low air mattress or foam pad d. A and C are both correct	d. A and C are both correct
	4. A patient with diabetes, what is the most important factor to consider for the development of a foot ulcer? a. Motor neuropathy b. Autonomic neuropathy c. Sensory neuropathy d. Vascular impairments	c. Sensory neuropathy
	5. Off loading of fore-foot ulcers has been found effective in diabetic patients, of the following devices which has been found most effective? a. Total contact cast b. Extra depth custom orthotics c. Padding applied directly to the injury site d. Wheelchair	a. Total contact cast
	6. A patient present with a chemical burn, it is best to use what method to initially when performing first aid? a. Wash the burn with soap b. Neutralize with alkaline substance like milk of magnesia c. Run water over the wound d. Neosporin	c. Run water over the wound
	7. What are the two types of burn wound surgical excision commonly used during surgical treatment of burn wounds? a. Horizontal and vertical b. Dermal and epidermal c. Tangential and fascial d. Electrocautery and striatial	c. Tangential and fascial
	8. Pain is defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage to nociceptors. Nociceptors are activated by all of the following stimuli except? a. Mechanical b. Electrical c. Thermal d. Chemical	b. Electrical
	9. When is it appropriate to remove sutures or stitches from a wound? a. 7-10 days b. 10-15 days c. 12-14 days d. 15-20 days	a. 7-10 days
	1. Which of the following ultraviolet bands is effective is killing MRSA? a. UVB b. UVA c. UVC d. UVE	c. UVC
	2. A Unna’s boot is classified as what type of compression? a. Short stretch b. Pneumatic compression c. Long stretch d. Graduated compression	c. Long stretch
	3. What should you first assess before using negative pressure wound therapy treatments? a. Patients pain level b. Level of necrotic tissue in the wound c. Stage of skin graft d. Blood sugar level	a. Patients pain level
	4. The Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services has approved HPOT for diabetic foot ulcers if which if following criteria have been met? a. Patient is Type 2 diabetic b. Patient is Type 1 diabetic c. Wound failed standard wound care methods d. If it will reduce the risk for amputation	c. Wound failed standard wound care methods
	1. When assessing wound for documentation for reimbursement what is the correct time for assessing the wound? a. Daily b. Bi-weekly c. Weekly d. Bi-monthly	c. Weekly
	2. What is needed for a wound care program to be successful? a. PUSH tool b. Transdisciplinary team c. Algorithms d. Treatment interventions	b. Transdisciplinary team
	3. Negligence is best defined as: a. Not doing something that a reasonable person would not do under the same or similar circumstances. b. Doing something that a reasonable person would not do under the same or similar circumstances. c. A only d. Both A and B	d. Both A and B
	1. Total contact casts enclose the toes for what purpose? a. To eliminate toe ulcers b. To prevent injury and foreign objects from entering the wound c. To make an air tight seal around the ulcer d. So the patient can kick the door open when caring in groceries	b. To prevent injury and foreign objects from entering the wound
	1. How many people in the United States are affected my Primary Lymphedema? a. 1 million b. 5 million c. 2 million d. 10 million	c. 2 million
	2. Which of the following are the primary factor(s) for causing pressure ulcers? a. Loading and external pressure b. Shearing c. Sitting for long periods time d. Incontinence	a. Loading and external pressure
	3. When is it appropriate to use customized cushions on wheel chair patients? a. Physical abnormalities b. Trunk Supports c. Bilateral below knee amputees d. Spasticity	a. Physical abnormalities
	4. What constitutes partial thickness burns? a. First degree burns only b. First and second degree burns c. Second and third degree burns d. Second degree burns only	b. First and second degree burns
	5. The majority of grafting for burns occurs at least ____ hours post burn? a. 24hrs b. 36hrs c. 72hrs d. 120hrs	c. 72hrs
	6. The stratum lucidum is only found on what part(s) of the body? a. Top of the head b. Elbows c. Palms of hands, soles of feet d. Back of the calves and thighs	c. Palms of hands, soles of feet
	7. When should the initial evaluation be performed? a. 10-15 hrs after admission b. 1-5 hrs after admission c. 16-24 hrs after admission d. 24-48 hrs after admission	d. 24-48 hrs after admission
	8. Of the following which is a unidimensional pain assessment rating scale a. Visual analog scale b. McGill pain questionnaire c. Numerical rating scale d. Brief pain inventory e. A and C f. A only	e. A and C
	9. What is the leading reason surgical wound debridement fails? a. Aging b. Osteomylitis c. Malnutrition d. Tissue Oxygenation	c. Malnutrition
	Which of the following is not a type of skin graft? a. Split thickness b. Full thickness c. Composite d. Flap	d. Flap
	12. Short Stretch bandages supply ____mmHg pressure? a. 30-60mmHg b. 25-40mmHg c. 30-40mmHg d. 15-20mmHg	a. 30-60mmHg
	WBC’s kill bacteria in an environment of ___ mmHg. e. <15mmHg f. <20mmHg g. <30mmHg h. <120mmHg	g. <30mmHg
	13. To ensure payment documentation must include all of the following except? a. ICD9 billing code b. Plan c. The problem d. Goal of treatment	a. ICD9 billing code
	14. What is the statue of limitation for Physical therapy treatment? a. 2-3 yrs b. Depends on the state c. 1yr d. Depends on the severity of the issue	b. Depends on the state
	Papillary Dermis contains which of the following weaker collagen? A. I, II B. I,III C. II, III D. III, IV	D. III, IV
	Which type of collagen is the strongest and is found in the reticular dermis? A. 1 B. II C. III D. IV	A. 1
	Mast cells are most active during which phase of wound healing? A. Proliverative Phase B. Inflimation Phase C. Hemostasis D. Maturation Phase	B. Inflimation Phase
	Stage 2 pressure ulcer is defined as A. intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. Darkly pigmented skin may not have visible blanching; its color may differ from the surrounding areas. B. Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be sizable but bone, tendon or muscle is not exposed. Slough may be present but does not obscure the depth of tissue loss. May include undermining and tunneling. C. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with red pink wound bed, without slough. May also present as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister. D. Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present on some parts of the wound bed. Often include undermining and tunneling.	C. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with red pink wound bed, without slough. May also present as an intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister.
	During evaluation, which of the following is not a sign or symptom of vein disease found at the skin surface? A. Hair loss on feet B. Redness C. Itching D. Dry skin	A. Hair loss on feet
	Which is not a type of debridement? A. Autolytic B. Pneumatic C. Chemical D. Mechanical	B. Pneumatic
	Secondary lymphedema is cause by all but? A. Inflammation B. Infection C. Radiation therapy D. Protein buildup	D. Protein buildup
	Arterial ulcers treatment include all of the following except A. Local wound care B. Bed rest with leg elevation C. Reduction of risk factors D. Limb protection	B. Bed rest with leg elevation
	Type 1 diabetes A. Is usually diagnosed after age 40 and is caused by insensitivity to insulin B. Is diagnosed before age 30 and is caused by insensitivity to insulin. C. Is usually diagnosed after age 40 and is caused by damaged beta cells of the pancreas. D. Is diagnosed before age 30 and is caused by damaged beta cells of the pancreas.	D. Is diagnosed before age 30 and is caused by damaged beta cells of the pancreas.
	All of the following are scales and grading tools for the diabetic foot except A. Wagner Scale B. Curative Health System C. University of Texas D. Rancho de Los Amigos	D. Rancho de Los Amigos
	First degree burns A. Sensitive to touch and appears as reddening of the skin B. Is black in appearance and has no sensation due to dead nerve endings C. Blisters and has risk of infection D. Exposure of bone is common	A. Sensitive to touch and appears as reddening of the skin
	Which stage of burn wound healing takes the most time? A. Inflammatory B. Primary C. Secondary D. Maturation	D. Maturation
	An increased pain response to a normally noxious stimulus A. Hyperalgesia B. Allodynia C. Acute pain D. Chronic pain	A. Hyperalgesia
	Mechanical debridement consists of all the following except. A. Forced irrigation of saline from a 50 mL syringe through an 18-G catheter applies about 15 pounds per square inch of pressure to remove loose necrotic tissue. B. An alternative is to wet-to-dry dressing method, in which moist gauze dressing is allowed to dry on the wound. Removal without wetting results in removal of fibrin and slough. This method is often insufficient, can be painful and may damage underlying epithelium. C. Topical negative pressure (vacuum-assisted closure) removes exudate and necrotic tissue, and is used in variety of wounds to reduce the size of reduce the size of the defect (eg. Laparostoies, wounds after pilonidal sinus excision). D. Medical-grade larvae of dudilia sericata are necrophagous and are useful in selected chronic wounds.	D. Medical-grade larvae of dudilia sericata are necrophagous and are useful in selected chronic wounds.
	Heliotherapy is A. Color therapy B. Therapeutic use of sunlight C. Therapeutic exposure to specific wavelengths of light through any variety of medical devices D. Controlled doses of helium inhaled in a hyperbolic chamber	B. Therapeutic use of sunlight
	Short stretch bandaging is A. limited extensibility and elasticity, rigid B. unna’s boot C. controlled easier D. potentially dangerous for patients with arterial occlusive disease	D. potentially dangerous for patients with arterial occlusive disease
	HBOT stands for A. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy B. Heliotherapy Barrage Therapy C. Hydrobariac Therapy D. Hepatic Bio Therapy	A. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
	Which is not one of the four steps of reimbursement a. Investigate pt’s health plan in order to understand coverage for services and care. b. Required by law to provide probono if Pt. can’t pay. c. Documentation: Know exactly what information the payer requires for reimbursement. d. Appeal of denied claims.	b. Required by law to provide probono if Pt. can’t pay.
	If I as a therapist notice a arteriole lesion, I will immediately? A. Treat with a compression cast B. Elevate the legs C. Refer the patient to an MD D. Treat the exposed wounds with standard topical treatments.	C. Refer the patient to an MD
	These are written requests sent from one clients attorney to another asking for items such as billing documents, medical records, correspondence, etc... also to be produced in a certain time period. A. Interrogatories B. Request for production C. Request for admissions D. Deposition	B. Request for production
	Which statement is not correct about the wound VAC system? A. Treatment slows the process of healing, but is less expensive than other alternatives B. Decreases bacterial infections C. Increases blood flow to wound D. Creates a negative pressure in the wound	A. Treatment slows the process of healing, but is less expensive than other alternatives
	1. What is the outermost layer of the epidermis? a. Stratum Spinosum b. Stratum Lucidum c. Stratum Basale d. Stratum Corneum	d. Stratum Corneum
	1. Put the phases of healing in the order that they happen (first to last)? a. Inflammatory, Proliferative, Hemostasis, Maturation b. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation c. Proliferative, Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Maturation d. Hemostasis, Proliferative, Inflammatory, Maturation	b. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation
	1. Which of the following is not a classification of a wound? a. Mechanical b. Thermal c. Anatomical d. Radiation	c. Anatomical
	1. Which of the following does not affect wound healing? a. Age b. Infections c. Psychological d. Nutrition e. All of the above affect wound healing	e. All of the above affect wound healing
	1. When assessing the wounds you want to look at which of the following? a. Color b. Drainage c. Odor d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	1. Which of the following is an advantage of mechanical/surgical debridement? a. Fast and selective b. Time consuming c. Costly d. Painful	a. Fast and selective
	1. If a patient has an infection in the wound which would be the BEST dressing? a. Silicone Gel Sheet b. Hydrogel c. Antimicrobial d. Hydrocolloid	c. Antimicrobial
	1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for chronic venous insufficiency? a. Obesity b. Smoking c. Male d. Inactivity	c. Male
	1. What clinical test is used to diagnose lymphedema? a. Hoffman’s b. Stemmer’s sign c. Kleiner sign d. Dix-Hallpike	b. Stemmer’s sign
	1. To prevent a pressure sore from occurring in a patient that is wheelchair bound which do you not want to do? a. Have a cushion seat that is molded to the patient b. Have a firm cushion seat c. Have a gel cushion seat d. Have an air cushion seat	b. Have a firm cushion seat
	1. Which of the following are examples of self-management for diabetes? a. Healthy Eating b. Being Active c. Monitoring d. Taking medications e. All of the above	e. All of the above
	1. Which of the following is not a symptom of peripheral neuropathy? a. Tingling b. Good Balance c. Sharp pains, cramps d. Prickling/burning	b. Good Balance
	1. What factor is the most important indicator in the survival prognosis of a burn patient? a. Age b. TBSA c. Co-morbidities d. Weight	b. TBSA
	1. 50% of hand burns occur where? a. Home b. Camping c. Workplace d. School	c. Workplace
	1. Referred Pain is? a. An increased pain response to a normally noxious stimulus b. A pain response to a normal non-painful stimuli c. Pain felt outside the area of injury that is not associated with an applied stimuli d. An increase pain response at the site of injury	c. Pain felt outside the area of injury that is not associated with an applied stimuli
	1. Which of the following is not a type of skin graft? a. Split-thickness grafts b. Full thickness grafts c. Composite grafts d. Resection Graft	d. Resection Graft
	1. Which of the following is a biological effect of laser light? a. Increased mitochondrial ATP production b. Promotes epithelial hyperplasia c. Increases pigmentation of skin d. There are no biological benefits to laser light	a. Increased mitochondrial ATP production
	1. For which of the following can get relief by the use of Compression Therapy? a. Edema b. Vericose Veins c. CVI d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	1. Which of the following is a contra-indication for negative-pressure wound therapy? a. Pressure ulcer b. Diabetic ulcer c. Patient with bleeding disorder d. Partial-thickness burns	c. Patient with bleeding disorder
	1. Which of the following is a contraindication for HBOT? a. Pnemothorax b. Diabetic foot ulcers c. Necrotizing soft tissue d. Osteoradionecrosis	a. Pnemothorax
	1. Which of the following is correct about documentation? a. You do not have to record time because it does not matter in wound care b. You should use your own abbreviations c. You should always be very thorough d. You can fudge on the measurements on occasion	c. You should always be very thorough
	1. Who are team members in a wound care program? a. PT b. OT c. Physician d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	1. To protect yourself from mal practice law suits you should? a. Always document everything b. Do not do anything out of your scope of practice c. Communicate with patient, patient’s family, staff, and medical team d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	1. What is considered normal (no obstruction) for an ABI reading? a. Above 0.90 mm Hg b. 0.71-0.89 mm Hg c. 0.41-0.70 mm Hg d. 0.00-0.40 mm Hg	a. Above 0.90 mm Hg
	a. Which layer of skin is described as a “Spiny layer containing keratinocytes and langerhans cells i. Stratam basale ii. Stratum Spinosum iii. Stratum Granulosum iv. Stratum Lucidum	ii. Stratum Spinosum
	What are the four phases of healing in the correct order: i. Hemostasis, proliferative, inflammatory, maturation ii. Inflammatory, proliferative, maturation, hemostasis iii. Hemostatsis, inflammatory, proliferative, maturation iv. Maturation, inflammatory, hemostasis, proliferative	iii. Hemostatsis, inflammatory, proliferative, maturation
	What is the correct definition of a full thickness wound: i. Total loss of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. ii. Limited to epidermis or upper dermal layer iii. Total loss of epidermis and dermis tissue iv. Total loss of epidermis.	i. Total loss of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.
	Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting wound closure: i. Infections ii. Drying iii. Depth of wound iv. aging	iii. Depth of wound
	According to the lecture how often should wound location and measurements of the wounds be documented: i. Daily ii. Weekly iii. Bi-weekly iv. Monthly	ii. Weekly
	Which of the following is not a major category of debridement: i. Mechanical ii. Autolytic iii. Electrical iv. Chemical	iii. Electrical
	Why is silver used in wound healing: i. Aids in vasodilation ii. Aids in vasoconstriction iii. An Antimicrobial agent iv. Aids in wound closure	iii. An Antimicrobial agent
	Which of the following is NOT a sign of venous insufficiency i. Excessive sweating ii. Dryness iii. Redness iv. Itching	i. Excessive sweating
	_____ fluid accumulates in the lymphatic system. i. High protein ii. Low protein iii. High fat iv. Low Fat	i. High protein
	What is one way that muscle atrophy increases the likelihood of pressure ulcers: i. Increased bony prominences ii. Decreased AROM iii. Increased venous circulation iv. Decreased lymphatic drainage	i. Increased bony prominences
	Which of the following is most important for the treatment of type 1 diabetes: i. Medication ii. Weight Loss iii. Nutrition iv. Exercise	i. Medication
	Which of the following is NOT a pathway to a diabetic foot ulceration i. Neuropathy ii. Low intensity trauma over an extended time period iii. High intensity trauma over a short time period iv. Pressure over bony prominence	iv. Pressure over bony prominence
	a. Which phase of burn management is defined as days 2 and 3 post burn: i. Acute ii. Early iii. Intermediate iv. Delayed	ii. Early
	Which of the following is a Trunk exercise for post burn patients according to the text: i. Touch the floor forward flexing ii. Back extension exercise iii. Reaching while twisting iv. Side bends	iii. Reaching while twisting
	a. Which term is defined as pain in response to a normally non-painful stimuli: i. Hyperalgesia ii. Allondynia iii. Referred pain iv. Spontaneous pain	ii. Allondynia
	What type of wound closure is often called “spontaneous healing” i. Secondary Intention ii. Quaternary intention iii. Tertiary intention iv. Primary intention	i. Secondary Intention
	Which is not a form of Light therapy: i. Heliotherapy ii. Lasotherapy iii. Chromotherapy iv. Phototherapy	ii. Lasotherapy
	a. be most effective by the presenter from 3M i. Long Stretch ii. Medium Stretch iii. Short Stretch iv. No Stretch	iii. Short Stretch
	How long can a patient use a disposable wound V.A.C. before it should be thrown away: i. 3 days ii. 7 days iii. 14 days iv. 28 days	ii. 7 days
	Quantitative studies have shown that topical oxygen therapies have shown: i. Inconclusive results ii. Improved wound healing iii. Impeded wound healing iv. No change to wound healing	iii. Impeded wound healing
	Documentation for patients should: i. Assign blame to parties at fault ii. Be subjective iii. Be brief/use abbreviations as much as possible iv. Be on time	iv. Be on time
	What is the most important type of marketing? i. Positive Patient feedback ii. TV commercials iii. Sponsorships iv. Bill Boards	i. Positive Patient feedback
	What is the key to avoiding litigation: i. Documentation ii. Communication iii. Mediation iv. Translation	ii. Communication
	Which of the following is not FDA approved for wound healing i. Ultrasound ii. Sharp debridement iii. Electrical stimulation iv. Light therapy	iv. Light therapy
	1. What is the deepest layer of the epidermis? A. Stratum Corneum B. Stratum Basale C. Stratum Lucidum D. Stratum Granulosum	B. Stratum Basale
	1. What is the predominant cell in the latter part of the inflammatory phase? A. Fibroblasts B. Mast cells C. Myofibroblasts D. Macrophages	D. Macrophages
	A full thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat but no visible bone, muscle, or tendon is a? A. Stage 2 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 4 D. Unstageable	B. Stage 3
	Which of these is NOT a common sign of infection A. Erythema B. Edema C. Decrease in WBC D. Pain	C. Decrease in WBC
	Which of these scales is NOT a wound assessment tool? A. Braden B. Norton C. Glascow D. Gosnell	C. Glascow
	The use of the body’s own enzymes and moisture to rehydrate, soften, and liquefy hard eschar and slough is known as ________ debridement? A. Mechanical B. Autolytic C. Chemical D. Natural	B. Autolytic
	Gels, solutions or semi-permeable sheets derived from a natural source are known as? A. Antimicrobials B. Alginates C. Biologicals/Biosynthetics D. Absorptive	C. Biologicals/Biosynthetics
	What is the key to treating venous insufficiency ulcers? A. Elevation B. Ambulation C. Compression D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	Which treatment is the cornerstone of lymphedema training? A. Compression B. Manual drainage C. Complete Decongestive Therapy D. Prevention	A. Compression
	What is the primary factor leading to pressure ulcers? A. Friction B. Moisture C. Shear D. Tissue Loading	D. Tissue Loading
	What percent of patients with diabetes are obese at time of diagnosis? A. 40% B. 60% C. 80% D. 90%	C. 80%
	What is the most effective method of debridement with diabetic foot ulcers? A. Autolytic B. Mechanical C. Chemical D. Don’t ever debride a diabetic foot ulcer	B. Mechanical
	What degree of burn can have blisters and is sensitive to touch that may blanch to pressure? A. First Degree B. Second Degree C. Third Degree D. Fourth Degree	B. Second Degree
	A cast should only be used during which phase of healing with a burned patient? A. Inflammatory Phase B. Proliferative Phase C. Maturation Phase D. Phase 10—sadly when I play Phase 10 there are burns and a need for casting!	C. Maturation Phase
	What is the cornerstone of acute pain management? A. Pt education B. Compression C. TENS D. Opiods	D. Opiods
	Direct closure of a wound by sutures or grafts is known as? A. Primary intention B. Secondary Intention C. Tertiary intention D. Quaternary intention	A. Primary intention
	Which light therapy is most effective for bactericidal effects? A. SLD B. UVA C. UVB D. UVC	D. UVC
	Multi-component compression bandages deliver gradient pressure of ___ mm Hg at the ankle and decrease to ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬___ mm Hg at the proximal calf. A. 60:30 B. 40:17 C. 20:10 D. 45:25	B. 40:17
	What is the purpose of negative pressure wound therapy units? A. Maintain a moist wound healing environment B. Remove excess wound fluids and infectious material C. Create an environment that promotes perfusion and granulation tissue formation D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	Which of these is a contraindication for hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A. Diabetes B. Osteoradionecrosis C. Necrotizing soft tissue infections D. Pnuemothorax	D. Pnuemothorax
	What is the key to reimbursement? A. Investigate Pt’s health plan B. Educate Pt on policy coverage C. Documentation D. Appeal denied claims	C. Documentation
	The main goal of wound care programs is to? A. Make money B. Cover yourself against lawsuits C. Provide excellent care with excellent outcomes D. Make more procedures for PT’s to follow	C. Provide excellent care with excellent outcomes
	What can you do to stay out of legal trouble? A. Document everything consistenly B. Don’t do anything out of scope of practice C. Communicate with pt, staff and family D. ALL of the above.	D. ALL of the above.
	Which is the best wrap to use for proper and consistent compression(according to 3M rep)? A. Coban B. Ace C. Compression stockings D. Gauze wrap	A. Coban
	1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for venous insufficiency: a. Obesity b. Malignancy c. Immobilization d. Lesions	d. Lesions
	1. When pulling short wrap tight during application, it applies ______mmHg of pressure a. 30-40 b. 10-15 c. 5-10 d. 50-60	a. 30-40
	1. On the Wound Care Evaluation form it’s important to record the size of the ulcer. Which of the following is NOT a measurement that should be taken? a. Length b. Width c. Height d. Depth	c. Height
	1. Glabrous skin is located on the… a. Ankles and top of feet b. Palms hands and soles of feet c. Shoulders and back d. Arms and legs	b. Palms hands and soles of feet
	2. The cardinal signs of inflammation include all but which of the following? a. Rubor b. Heat c. Tumor d. Discharge	d. Discharge
	In the Maturation phase tensile strength increases 50% that of normal tissue by ___ months a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months	a. 3 months
	4. Slough that covers the base of the ulcer can be all but which color? a. Yellow b. Green c. Red d. Brown	c. Red
	1. When assessing and evaluating the actual wound, you want to check for a. Ointments b. Drainage c. Blood d. Nutrition	b. Drainage
	1. Having this in a wound allows a place for Bacteria? a. Gauze b. Ointment c. Void d. Foam	c. Void
	1. Classification of Type 1 diabetes include a. Develops usually before age 30 b. Not prone to ketosis c. Frequently asymptomatic d. Approximately 80% obese at diagnosis	a. Develops usually before age 30
	2. Treatment Modalities for Diabetic Foot Wound Care include all BUT which of the following? a. Debridement b. Off-loading c. Long term rest d. Amputation	c. Long term rest
	1. In order for lymphedema to be classified as Mild, it has to be… a. Less than 3cm between affected limb and unaffected limb b. Less than 5cm between affected limb and unaffected limb c. Greater than 3cm between affected limb and unaffected limb d. Greater than 5cm between affected limb and unaffected limb	a. Less than 3cm between affected limb and unaffected limb
	1. What malady is preventable and considered the most unnecessary and often tragic manifestations of wounds on the human body? a. Lymphedema b. Pressure Ulcer c. Arterial Ulceration d. Acute Burn	b. Pressure Ulcer
	1. After an acute burn a pt needs an IV and fluid replacement within the first 24 hours. The best clinical measure that the patient is getting enough fluid is a. Sweating b. Measure of IV input c. Urine Output d. Skin condition	c. Urine Output
	1. Days 1-5 of the inflammatory stage of burn wound healing, the purpose is to a. Cause contraction and closure of wound b. Increase strength of collagen fibers c. Stop hemorrhage and cellular response d. Increase circulation	c. Stop hemorrhage and cellular response
	1. When measuring pain _____ _____ is imperative because of the contrast in how pt’s and staff perceive pain levels a. Self reporting b. Body diagram c. Number scales d. McGill pain questionnaire	a. Self reporting
	1. What phase of wound healing is when a wound is allowed to heal by contraction and re-epitheliazation and often called “spontaneous healing”? a. Primary intention b. Secondary intention c. Tertiary Intention d. None of the above	b. Secondary intention
	1. Low level laser exposure on specific wound healing has been shown to stimulate a. Collagen production b. Accumulation of white blood cells c. Epithelial hyperplasia d. Vascular endothelial growth	a. Collagen production
	1. Which of the following are oxygen dependant a. Maturation of collagen b. Development of new endothelium c. Healthy granulation tissue d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	1. Today’s documentation includes all but which of the following a. Handwritten notes b. Computer generated notes c. Photographs d. Verbal communication	d. Verbal communication
	1. One of the biggest concerns for large hospitals and clinics is a. Malpractice lawsuits b. Inconsistent documentation c. Subjective documentation d. Miscommunication with patient and staff	b. Inconsistent documentation
	1. All are effective marketing tools for your Physical Therapy practice except: a. Advertising b. Inexpensive therapy c. Public Relations d. Word of Mouth	b. Inexpensive therapy
	1. The skin is made up of two different types—glabrous and hairy. What is the name of the 5th epidermal layer in glabrous skin? a. Stratum lucidum b. Straum basale c. Stratum corneum d. Stratum granulosum	a. Stratum lucidum
	2. During the homeostasis phase, the body is subject to__________? a. Vasodilation b. Vasodilation and coagulation c. Vasoconstriction d. Vasoconstriction and coagulation	d. Vasoconstriction and coagulation
	3. What is the difference between a Stage 3 and a Stage 4 pressure ulcer? a. Full thickness b. Visible fat c. Exposure of tendon, bone, or muscle d. Undermining	c. Exposure of tendon, bone, or muscle
	4. Infection can be defined as an increase of an organism on the tissue in what magnitude? a. 10E3 b. 10E4 c. 10E5 d. 10E6	c. 10E5
	5. Upon doing a patient examination, which things do NOT belong in the System’s Review? a. Cardiopulmonary b. Integument c. Musculoskeletal d. Neuromuscular e. All belong	e. All belong
	6. Which type of debridement is virtually painless, safe, and uses the body’s own defense mechanisms to clean the necrotic tissue? a. Enzymatic b. Selective-autolytic c. Mechanical d. Physical	b. Selective-autolytic
	7. Which skin dressing is derived from seaweed? a. Antimicrobial b. Collagens c. Composites d. Alginates	d. Alginates
	8. You can tell the difference between venous insufficiency and arterial ulcerations by: a. Pain in the LE b. Claudication c. Increased pain with elevation d. Pain in the UE	c. Increased pain with elevation
	9. The Lymphatic system is not able to clear interstitial tissues of fluid. Because of that, _______ are accumulated. a. fats b. carbohydrates c. proteins d. vitamins	c. proteins
	10. Pressure ulcers are very expensive to treat. According to Xakellis and Frantz, it is more than a. 1,000 b. 3,000 c. 7,000 d. 2,500	d. 2,500
	11. Which one of the below is NOT found to be prevalent in diabetics? a. Neuropathy b. Nephropathy c. Hepatopathy d. Retinopathy	c. Hepatopathy
	12. In diabetics, how is the homeostasis phase of healing changed? a. Increase in growth factors b. Shorter phase c. Longer phase d. Shorter vasoconstriction	c. Longer phase
	13. What is the Parkland formula used to measure? a. The amount of silver to put in the wound b. The weight of the patient c. The TBSA of the patient d. The amount of IV to give a burn victim	d. The amount of IV to give a burn victim
	14. What is one of the benefits of fiberglass casting versus plaster? a. Heavier b. Quicker drying c. Weaker d. Lots of layers for protection	b. Quicker drying
	15. The release of substance P does what to wound healing? a. Promotes b. Impairs c. Multiplies d. Decreases pain	a. Promotes
	16. If the ulcer in a chronic wound infects into the bone, it is called? a. Tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Osteomyelitis d. Osteochondritis	c. Osteomyelitis
	17. When using light therapy, which UV ray would you use for bactericidal healing? a. UVA b. UVB c. UVC d. UVD	c. UVC
	18. When trying to optimize edema release, you should use which type of compression wrap? a. Short stretch b. Long stretch c. Weaved d. Granulated	a. Short stretch
	19. How long can you use the disposable VAC before needing to be changed? a. 1 day b. 3 days c. 5 days d. 7 days	???
	20. WBC cannot kill bacteria while using HBOT if they are in an environment of: a. < 60 mm Hg b. < 50 mm Hg c. <40 mm Hg d. <30 mm Hg	d. <30 mm Hg
	21. If you have a multidisciplinary team, which of the following practitioners need to have their own documentation? a. PT b. MD c. OT d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	22. What is the most important type of marketing? a. Advertising b. Personal selling c. Sales promotion d. Positive patient feedback	d. Positive patient feedback
	23. The Statute of Limitations gives a person the chance to do what within 2-3 years? a. Be treated b. Pay their medical bills c. Get out of jail if indigted d. Sue for malpractice	d. Sue for malpractice
	24. Which one of the following ABI readouts is considered acceptable for compression? a. .33 b. .66 c. .99 d. 1.3	c. .99
	1. What are the phases of wound healing in order? a. Proliferative, Inflammatory, Hemostasis, Maturation b. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Maturation, Proliferative c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation d. Maturation, Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative	c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation
	2. What are the 3 main layers of skin? a. Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis b. Dermis, Glabrous, Hairy c. Hypodermis, Stratum Basale, Stratum Corneum, d. Reticular Dermis, Dermis, Epidermis	a. Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis
	3. What are the wound classifications and categories? a. Vascular, Dermal, Thermal, Mechanical b. Radiation, Chemical, Thermal, Mechanical, Vascular c. Chemical, Burns, Ulcers, Accident, Purposeful d. Small, Medium, Large, Huge	b. Radiation, Chemical, Thermal, Mechanical, Vascular
	4. What are the types of wound closures? a. Stitches, Staples, Glue b. Physician, PA, Nurse c. Primary, Secondary, Delayed Primary d. Primary, Secondary, Delayed Secondary	c. Primary, Secondary, Delayed Primary
	5. What are the essential elements to documentation? a. Factual, Correct, Complete, Timely b. Fictional, Correct, Complete, Timely c. Factual, Correct, Complete, Whenever d. Historical, Relative, In-depth, On time	a. Factual, Correct, Complete, Timely
	6. The three types of debridement are: a. Electrical, Mechanical, Chemical b. Chemical, Autolytic, Mechanical c. Autolytic, Electrical, Mechanical d. Chemical, Electric, Autolytic	6. The three types of debridement are: a. Electrical, Mechanical, Chemical b. Chemical, Autolytic, Mechanical c. Autolytic, Electrical, Mechanical d. Chemical, Electric, Autolytic
	7. How do you care for an arterial ulcer? a. Local wound care, Bed rest, Reduce risk Factors, Limb protection b. Bed Rest, Local wound care c. Reduce risk factors, Wound care, Limb Protection d. Whirlpool, Wound care, Bed rest	a. Local wound care, Bed rest, Reduce risk Factors, Limb protection
	8. What is a theory of venous ulcers? a. Smoking b. Calf pump failure c. Age d. Diet	b. Calf pump failure
	1. How does lymphedema occur? a. Lack of fluid in a system b. Excess accumulation of fluid c. Loss of a lymph node d. After a bad date	b. Excess accumulation of fluid
	1. What is the easiest ulcer to treat? a. Diabetic ulcer b. Pressure ulcer c. Stomach ulcer d. Pig ulcer	b. Pressure ulcer
	1. How are burns rated? a. 0-4 degrees b. 1-3 degrees c. 1-4 degrees d. 0-3 degrees	c. 1-4 degrees
	1. How many layers are in the epidermis? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6	c. 5
	1. Sensitization causes? a. An increase in nocioceptor activity; an increase in CNS output b. A decrease in nocioceptor activity; a decrease in CNS output c. An increase in propioceptive activity; an increase in CNS output d. A decrease in propioceptive activity; a decrease in CNS output	a. An increase in nocioceptor activity; an increase in CNS output
	1. Spontaneous healing is? a. Primary intention b. Secondary intention c. Tertiary intention d. None of the above	b. Secondary intention
	1. What is chromotherapy? a. Heat light b. Cold light c. Color light d. Timed light	c. Color light
	1. What are the two types of bandaging? a. Long and short b. Short and tight c. Long and loose d. There is only one type	a. Long and short
	1. How many types of hyperbaric oxygen therapies are there? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4	b. 2
	1. ICD-9 codes are? a. For evaluations b. For reimbursements c. For marketing d. For court	b. For reimbursements
	1. How much time does a plaintiff have to file a law suit? a. 1-6 months b. 6 months- 1 year c. I -2 years d. 2- 3 years	d. 2- 3 years
	In which layer of skin contains melanocytes, merkel cells and keratinocytes? a- Stratum Basale b- Stratum Spinosum c- Stratum Granulosum d- Stratum Lucidum e- Stratum Corneum	a- Stratum Basale
	Which of the following is nota phase of healing? a- Proliferative Phase b- Hemostasis c- Acute Phase d- Inflammatory Phase e- Maturation Phase	c- Acute Phase
	Which is not a cardinal sign of inflammation? a- Swelling (tumor) b- Heat (calor) c- Redness (rubor) d- Drowsiness (torpor) e- Pain (dolor	d- Drowsiness (torpor)
	T/F Partial thickness wounds heal by regeneration and no scar tissue is formed.	T
	As a general rule, patients healing from a wound require approximately ____% more calories per day. a- 5% b- 10% c- 25% d- 40% e- 50%	d- 40%
	Which of the following factors help a wound close? a- Proper nutrition b- Keeping wound dry c- Infections d- Psychological problems	a- Proper nutrition
	Which is not a part of a general patient assessment? a- Patient history b- Surgical management c- Risk assessment d- Photo of wound e- Wound examination	b- Surgical management
	Which is not a type of debridement a PT is authorized to perform? a- Mechanical b- Autolytic c- Chemical d- Simple surgical	d- Simple surgical
	Which type of dressing is non-woven, non-adhesive composed of natural polysaccharide fibers or xerogel derived from seaweed and on contact with exudate form a moist gel through a process of ion exchange? a- Absorptive dressings b- Alginate dressings c- Collagen dressings d- Hydrocolloid dressings	b- Alginate dressings
	At rest a normal venous system has about 90 mm Hg of pressure and calf contraction raises it to 200 mm Hg. Following the contraction the pressure drops to 10 mm Hg in the deep system and 30 mm Hg in the superficial. With venous insufficiency pressure ¬¬________________and with muscle contraction _______________ the veins, oftentimes _________________ the heart. a- Remains high; is forced through; away from b- Decreases; remains in; close to c- Increases; prevented from entering; overworking d- Plateaus; remains in; clogging	a- Remains high; is forced through; away from
	Which of the following is not a function of the Coban 2 Layer Lite Compression System for ABPI’s? a- Decreases swelling by applying 30-40 mmHg of uniform pressure. b- Facilitates healing of venous insufficiency wounds. c- Prevents slippage of the bandage by clinging to the skin. d- Facilitates functionality of the LE in the elderly	d- Facilitates functionality of the LE in the elderly
	Which of the following is false regarding the effects of lymphedema? a- Infection b- Arterial ulceration c- Embarrassment d- Social Barriers	b- Arterial ulceration
	Which is not a common factor in the development of a pressure ulcer? a- Friction, sheer forces, moisture b- Dehydration, bad hygiene c- High loads over a short time d- Low loads over a long time	b- Dehydration, bad hygiene
	Which is not a type of burn? a- Thermal b- Radioactive c- Chemical d- Smoke Inhalation	b- Radioactive
	What percentages of burns occur at home? a- 25% b- 50% c- 75% d- 80%	c- 75%
	Which of the following is a function of hair follicles? a- Repithelialization b- Insulation c- Sensation d- combats infection e- All of the above	e- All of the above
	What is not a description of chronic pain? a- Repeated damage to a tissue causing long-lasting pain. b- Outlasts normal tissue-healing time. c- Pain is greater than would be expected from extent of injury. d- Pain occurs in the absence of identifiable tissue damage.	a- Repeated damage to a tissue causing long-lasting pain.
	Which technique of wound closer is also known as “Spontaneous Healing”? a- Primary Intension b- Secondary Intension c- Tertiary Intension d- Quaternary Intension	b- Secondary Intension
	What percentage of air is oxygen? a- 12% b- 21% c- 31% d- 67%	b- 21%
	Which is not a biological effect of the use of UVRtherapy? a- Promotion of angiogenesis b- Promotion of white blood cell accumulation c- Promotion of protein synthesis d- Promotion of epithelial hyperplasia e- Promotion of oxygen uptake into cells	e- Promotion of oxygen uptake into cells
	Which condition is not controlled with the use of compression? a- Arterial insufficiency b- Venous insufficiency c- CVI d- Edema	a- Arterial insufficiency
	Which of the following does a prosecuting lawyer not need to prove through preponderance of evidence? a- Duty b- Breach c- Negligence d- Harm/Damages e- All of the above	e- All of the above
	Which of the following is not a risk factor for venous insufficiency wounds? a- DVT b- Varicose veins/Family history of varicose veins c- Pregnancy d- Smoking e- Absent pulse,	e- Absent pulse,
	Which of the following is not a sign of arterial disease? a- Pulselessness of the extremity b- Cool or Cold skin c- Atrophic appearing skin (shiny, thin, dry) d- Loss of digital and pedal hair e- All of the above	e- All of the above
	1. Anatomy of the Skin/Wound Healing Topics Glabrous skin covers which parts of the body? - Soles of the feet and palms of the hand - Soles of the feet and top of the head - Palms of the hand and top of the head - Top of the head and over ears and nose	- Soles of the feet and palms of the hand
	PDGF starts the chemotaxis of what during the hemostasis phase of wound healing? - Neutrophils - Macrophages - Smooth muscle cells - Fibroblasts - All of the above	- All of the above
	A partial thickness wound passes through which layers of tissue? (Select the deepest layer) - Epidermis - Dermis - Fascia - Muscle	- Epidermis
	Which of the following isn’t part of the Maturation Phase? - Increase of Type I Collagen - Phagocytosis and removal of bacteria and other foreign materials - Blood vessels decrease - Scar begins to blanch blood vessels removed	- Phagocytosis and removal of bacteria and other foreign materials
	One of the signs of venous disease can be found by taking the pulse on which part of the body? - Brachial artery - 10 cm above medial malleolus - Popliteal fossa - Carotid artery	- 10 cm above medial malleolus
	1. Wound Bed Preparation/Debridemnent Eschar comes in what colors? - Yellow, brown, black - Yellow, blue, black - Yellow, red, black - Yellow, grey, black	- Yellow, brown, black
	Which of these is a purpose for wound dressings? - Minimize further trauma - Minimize infection risk - Optimize the environment - All of the above	- All of the above
	What is Homan’s theory? - Venous ulcerations are caused by valve problems of in communicating veins. - Venous hypertension is caused by a dysfunctional calf muscle pump - Leukocytes become trapped in postcapillary venules	- Venous ulcerations are caused by valve problems of in communicating veins.
	Which of these is not a common comorbity associated with lymphedema? - Venous insufficiency - Obesity - Heart problems - Stroke	- Stroke
	Excessive external loading ________ heat in the skin and __________ blood flow which can lead to the formation of a pressure ulcer. - Decreases, decreases - Increases, increases - Increases, decreases - Decreases, increases	- Increases, decreases
	Which of these is a positive effect of physical activity for those with diabetes? - Increased cardiovascular fitness - Better mental health - Better lipid control - All of the above	- All of the above
	Excess supination puts you at risk for an ulceration where? - Distal tip of toes - Medial forefoot - Lateral forefoot - Metatarsal heads	- Lateral forefoot
	Full thickness skin graft sites are usually closed using what? - Tape - Sutures - Staples - Fibrin glue	- Sutures
	Volar burns on the forearm, wrist, and hand will predispose the patient to what? - Wrist flexion contracture - Wrist extension contracture - Supination contracture - Radial deviation contracture	- Wrist flexion contracture
	Which of these indicate chronic pain? - Pain outlasts normal tissue healing time - Pain is greater than would be expected from the extent of the injury - Pain occurs in the absence of identifiable tissue damage - All of the above	- All of the above
	Which of the following are factors that impede wound healing? - Malnutrition - Aging - Osteomyelitis - Gender	- Gender
	What is defined as the therapeutic use of sunlight? - Heliotherapy - Chromotherapy - Chemotherapy - Phototherapy	- Heliotherapy
	Which pair of words describes short stretch bandaging the best? - Limited extensibility, limited elasticity - Limited extensibility, high elasticity - Highly extensible, high elasticity - Highly extensible, limited elasticity	- Limited extensibility, limited elasticity
	Which of these is not a positive effect of negative pressure wound therapy? - Increased blood flow to the affected area - Reduction of edema - Increase in bioburden - All of the above	- Increase in bioburden
	Which is not an absolute contraindication for use of hyperbaric oxygen? - Patients with pneumothorax - Patients taking Doxorubicin - Patients taking Bleomycin - Pulmonary disease	- Pulmonary disease
	Which of these is not a general documentation guideline? - Be accurate - Be thorough - Avoid late entries - All of the above	- All of the above
	How many levels of CPT Codes are there? - 1 - 2 - 3 - 4	- 3
	How long does a person have to sue you after an incident? - 1-2 years - 2-3 years - 5-10 years - 20 years	- 2-3 years
	How often must a new vac mechanism be put in when caring for a wound? - Everyday - Every 3 days - Every week - Every month	- Every week
	What is the innermost layer of the Epidermis? A. Stratum Spinosum B. Stratum Basale C. Stratum Lucidem D. Stratum Corneum	B. Stratum Basale
	The inflammatory phase begins at approximately day ________? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4	A. 1
	Some things to consider during local wound care are: A. Whirlpool B. Avoid strong adhesives C. Avoid topical agents D. Dressings for moist environment	A. Whirlpool
	An unstageable pressure ulcer includes all of the following criteria, EXCEPT? A. Full thickness tissue loss B. Base of the ulcer is covered by slough C. Tendon, bone or muscle will be present D. Base of the ulcer is covered by escar	C. Tendon, bone or muscle will be present
	Who is going to be the most critical of your documentation? A. Patient B. Staff C. Insurance company (third party payer) D. Referring Physician	C. Insurance company (third party payer)
	What type of wound bed preparation includes cutting the tissue like a checker board? A. Muscle preparation B. Shaving C. Scoring D. Tendon Preparation	C. Scoring
	What is one of the main reasons for dressing a wound? A. Aesthetic purposes B. Minimize infection risk C. Clean the wound D. Decrease itching	B. Minimize infection risk
	The four steps in helping with reimbursement include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Document patient progress B. Investigate insurance C. Coordinate with other healthcare providers D. Appeal denied claims.	C. Coordinate with other healthcare providers
	One of the cardinal signs of Arterial Disease is___________. A. Loss of hair B. Redness C. Itching D. Dry skin	A. Loss of hair
	Lymphedema A. Has a cure B. Is easy to treat C. Can be classified by stages or grades D. Cannot be found in individuals under the age of 40	C. Can be classified by stages or grades
	____________ is the defining causative factor in development of pressure ulcer A. Friction B. Shear C. Pressure D. Heat	C. Pressure
	What is one common treatment type for type 1 and type 2 diabetes? A. Exercise/Physical Activity B. Radiation Therapy C. Physical Therapy D. Compression Therapy	A. Exercise/Physical Activity
	Which diabetic complication is the most prevalent? A. Neuropathy B. Nephropathy C. Cardiovascular Disease D. Retinopathy	D. Retinopathy
	All of the following are types of burns, EXCEPT? A. Thermal Burn B. Chemical Burn C. Abrasion D. Ingestion	D. Ingestion
	Which of the following is the deeper and thicker component of the dermis? A. Papillary B. Reticular C. Dermal D. Epidermis	B. Reticular
	True or False...Hypnosis is supported by literature in helping with wound pain.	True
	Which light has the highest wavelength (nm)? A. Green B. Yellow C. Orange D. Red	D. Red
	Short stretch bandages can produce__________ of pressure. A. 10-30 mm HG B. 20-80 mm HG C. 30-60 mm HG D. 50-100 mm HG	C. 30-60 mm HG
	When the Granufoam is applied and negative pressure is given. It will _________ in size. A. Increase B. Decrease C. Will not change	B. Decrease
	What does HBOT stand for? A. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy B. High botox oxygen therapy C. Happy boys often tumble D. High botox occupational therapy	A. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
	True or false…Accurate and complete patient outcomes MUST be documented in the medical record.	True
	Clinical and professional team members are important. Who is another integral part of the team? A. Patient B. Nurse C. Transportation specialist D. Meals on wheels	A. Patient
	What word is defined by “…doing something that a reasonable person would not do…” A. Duty B. Standard of Care C. Damages D. Negligence	D. Negligence
	True or False…The ABI is taken by dividing the pressures of the right wrist and right leg.	False
	Referring to secondary lymphedema, all of the following are identifiable insults to the lymphatic system, EXCEPT? A. Inflammation B. Infection C. Chemo therapy D. Trauma	C. Chemo therapy
	True/False…You can cure lymphedema.	False
	Intrinsic factors of pressure ulcers include all of the following, EXCEPT? A. Muscle hypertrophy B. Medications C. Malnutrition D. Medical conditions	A. Muscle hypertrophy
	What percentages of burns are categorized as accidental or preventable? A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%	C. 70%
	The skin is the largest organ of the body. It comprises what percent of body weight? A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25%	B. 15%
	What is the cornerstone of effective management of acute pain? A. NSAIDS B. Hypnosis C. Opioids D. Physical Therapy	C. Opioids
	Two types of surgical debridement are blunt and¬¬_______. A. Sharpe B. Dull C. Scaling D. Scoring	A. Sharpe
	True or False…If irritation occurs during UV treatment, treatment should continue	False
	Multicomponent compression can provide sustained compression for up to ¬¬¬________. A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7 days	D. 7 days
	Typical treatment time for oxygen therapy is________. A. 60 min B. 90 min C. 120 min D. 150 min	B. 90 min
	Statute of limitation is USUALLY _________. A. 1-2 B. 2-3 C. 3-4 D. 4-5	B. 2-3
	The Braden Scale identifies all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Reliability B. Activity C. Mobility D. Nutrition	A. Reliability
	Which of the following layers of skin is described as the “basement membrane zone”? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Subcutaneous Layer D. Mid-Dermal Layer	B. Epidermis
	What is the first phase of healing and lasts 1-4 days? A. Proliferative Phase B. Remodeling C. Maturation Phase D. Inflammatory Phase	D. Inflammatory Phase
	Which of the following would make a pressure ulcer unstageable? A. Partial Thickness Loss B. In-tact skin C. Expose Bone D. Unable to see the base of the wound	D. Unable to see the base of the wound
	Which of the following is NOT a classification of wound closure? A. Primary Closure B. Full Closure C. Secondary Closure D. Delayed Primary Closure	B. Full Closure
	What is important to find out from the patients in their history that may affect wound healing? A. How tall they are B. Time of treatment C. Medications that they are taking D. Occupation	C. Medications that they are taking
	How should you hold the scalpel in your hand? A. Like a baton B. Like a sword C. Like a cup D. Like a Pencil	D. Like a Pencil
	Which of the following dressings is made of sea weed? A. Alginates B. Composites C. Collagens D. Antimicrobial	A. Alginates
	What position is most comfortable for patients with Venous Insufficiency? A. Legs Elevated B. Standing C. Sitting D. Lying down with Legs elevated	D. Lying down with Legs elevated
	Which part of the body is most commonly involved in lymphedema? A. Head B. Abdomen C. UE D. LE	D. LE
	Where should I not put pillows when I am positioning my patient? A. Head B. Calf C. Knees D. Heels	D. Heels
	What is the outcome of the maturation stage of healing in a patient with diabetes? A. Good B. Strong Tissue C. Reduced Ultimate strength of tissue D. Same as a patient without diabetes	C. Reduced Ultimate strength of tissue
	Often, diabetic foot ulcers are caused because lack of sensation in the foot and LE. What is the lack of sensation called? A. Neuropathy B. Radiculopathy C. Sensationopathy D. Dermopathy	A. Neuropathy
	What percentage of burns occur in or around the home? A. 10% B. 30% C. 55% D. 75%	D. 75%
	Which scar scale has been used since 1990 and offers an objective measure of healing? A. Calgary Scar Scale B. Boston Scar Scale C. Vancouver Scar Scale D. Salt Lake Scar Scale	C. Vancouver Scar Scale
	3 Dimensions of pain include: Sensory Discriminative, Motivational Affective and __________? A. Emotional B. Physical C. Occupational D. Cognitive Evaluate	D. Cognitive Evaluate
	A skin graft is consider a ________ Intention Closure? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. None of the above	A. Primary
	What should you NOT during wound prep for light therapy? A. Expose the periwound to UV rays B. Drape Skin C. Cover Area with Petroleum Jelly D. Remove all dressings and clean wound bed.	A. Expose the periwound to UV rays
	Short stretch bandages apply 30-60 mm HG of compression, Long stretch bandages apply _________ mm Hg of compression. A. 10-20 B. 90-100 C. 50-80 D. 40-50	D. 40-50
	The amount of bacteria without the wound vac is ____, the amount of bacteria with the wound vac is ______? A. 10^8, 10^4 B. 10^1, 10^2 C. 10^4, 10^8 D. 10^2, 10^1	A. 10^8, 10^4
	Oxygen pressure above 30 mm Hg allow the _____ to increase its ability to kill bacteria? A. Red Blood Cells B. White Blood Cells C. Plasma D. Blue Blood Cells	B. White Blood Cells
	To ensure payment- documentation must include? A. A Plan B. The Problem C. Goal of Treatment D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	Which of the following facilities might use a RUG to determine type of care, frequency of care, and funding for care? A. SNF B. Outpatient C. Pediatric D. Acute Care	A. SNF
	The duty of a health care provider is: A. To protect the public B. to practice their specialty in compliance with certain standard accounting practices C. To clean the hospital D. To provide health care within the standard of care to patients	D. To provide health care within the standard of care to patients
	Where do you measure the systolic pressure from when getting an ABI score? A. Brachial B. Pedal C. Posterior Tib D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	1- Which of the following is not one of the 5 layers of the epidermis? a. Stratum Corneum b. Stratum Spinosum c. Stratum Granulosum d. Stratum Helgesum e. Stratum Basale	d. Stratum Helgesum
	1- Neutrophils enter in large numbers during what phase in the cascade of healing? a. Hemostasis b. Proliferative c. Inflammatory d. Maturation e. Continuation	c. Inflammatory
	1- In the APTA Preferred Practice Patterns for the intumentary the prognosis for classification 7C is; 4 weeks highest function and integument integrity. What is the visit per episode? a. 1-6 visits for 80% b. 4-15 visits for 60% c. 4-30 visits for 80% d. 15-50 visits for 80% e. 12-90 Visits for 60%	c. 4-30 visits for 80%
	1- “Pulling away of one tissue from another” is a description of what traumatic wound? a. Abrasion b. Laceration c. Puncture d. Avulsion e. Bites and Stings	d. Avulsion
	1- When taking a patient history, what is the least important to note? a. Location b. Pain c. Patient’s favorite food d. Risk Factors e. Signs of edema	c. Patient’s favorite food
	1- Autolytic , enzymatic, as well as mechanical are types of this classification on debridement? a. Non-selective b. Ancillary c. Exclusive d. Selective e. Sharp	d. Selective
	1- The type of dressing that is designed to donate moisture to a dry wound and to maintain a moist healing environment is best considered as a? a. Silicone Gel Sheet b. Hydrogel c. Transparent d. Filler e. Armani	b. Hydrogel
	1- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for chronic venous insufficiency? a. Smoking b. Extended periods of standing or sitting c. Female d. Age over 50 e. Male	e. Male
	1- What factor most differentiates Lymphedema from normal Edema? a. High content of fluid b. High content of Plasma Proteins c. Swelling d. Interstitial fluid e. High content of hemoglobin	b. High content of Plasma Proteins
	1- The Fowler’s position is also known as? a. Reclined prone position b. Reclined supine position c. Semi-reclined prone position d. Semi-reclined supine position e. Duck-hunting position	d. Semi-reclined supine position
	1- When testing for diabetic neuropathy, the “normal” length of time that the patient should be able to feel the vibration of the tuning fork is… a. 7-10 seconds b. 3-4 seconds c. 12-15 seconds d. 10-12 seconds e. 3-10 seconds	a. 7-10 seconds
	1- According to Wagners classification of neuropathic foot ulcers, and infected ulcer is classified as? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 1 e. 6	b. 3
	1- According to the American Burn Association which is not criteria for transfer to a burn center? a. Burns to genitals or perineum b. Chemical burns c. 1st degree sunburns d. Inhalation injury e. Burns to face	c. 1st degree sunburns
	1- Which phase of burn rehabilitation is considered the most important according to the power-point presentation? a. Acute b. Early (Phase 1) c. Intermediate d. Delayed e. Phase 10	a. Acute
	1- Which is not considered an alternate intervention in managing wound related pain? a. Hypnosis b. Relaxation techniques c. Therapeutic touch therapy d. Virtual reality e. Compression therapy	e. Compression therapy
	1- What level of intention is also referred to as “spontaneous healing”? a. Secondary intention b. Primary intention c. Tertiary intention d. Poly intention e. Hearts intention	a. Secondary intention
	1- Which of the following is not an example of light therapy? a. Heliotherapy b. Hippotherapy c. Chromotherapy d. Phototherapy e. Infrared therapy	b. Hippotherapy
	1- The resting pressure of a short stretch compression bandage is? a. 40-50 mm Hg b. 40-50 mm Ag c. 30-60 mm Hg d. 20-30 mm Ag e. 100-150 mm Hg	c. 30-60 mm Hg
	1- V.A.C. therapy is an acronym standing for? a. Ventilated Assisted Cardiopulmonary therapy b. Vacuum Always Clean therapy c. Vertigo Assisted Closure therapy d. Vacuum Assisted Closure therapy e. Vacuum Assisted Cleaning therapy	d. Vacuum Assisted Closure therapy
	1- What is one advantage to a Multi-place chamber in oxygen therapy a. Very expensive and large b. Breathe only 80% oxygen c. Several patients can be treated at the same time d. Single patient gets the best treatment e. Increase hyperbaric advantages	c. Several patients can be treated at the same time
	1- According to the video we saw in lab what is “probably the most important step of reimbursement” a. Educate the patient b. Investigate c. Appeal Denied claims d. Documentation e. None of the above	d. Documentation
	1- Which of the professionals would not normally be a team member in a multidisciplinary clinic? a. Podiatrists b. Case Manager c. Nurse d. Billing e. Yodelers	e. Yodelers
	1- According to the power-point slide show is the main responsibilities of an expert witness a. Give expert opinions concerning the case b. Perform a mediation c. Avoid litigation d. Request for production e. Request for admission	a. Give expert opinions concerning the case
	1- A ankle-brachial pressure index score of < 0.5 is classified as? a. Moderate ischemia b. Mild ischemia c. Normal d. Severe ischemia e. ischemia	d. Severe ischemia
	The 5th layer found only on glabrous skin is the: a)Stratum basale b)Stratum spinosum c)Stratum granulosum d)Stratum lucidum e)Stratum corneum	d)Stratum lucidum
	Stage of healing where fibrin clot is formed a)Hemostasis b)Inflammatory c)Proliferative d)Maturation	a)Hemostasis
	A full thickness wound includes total loss of A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous tissue D) none of the above E) All of the above	E) All of the above
	Which of these hormones are released during Hemostasis? a)Epidermal growth factor b)Transforming growth factor alpha c)insulin-like growth factor d) transforming growth factor beta	????
	Which of these is NOT a risk factor for developing a pressure ulcer? A) Inactivity B) Poor nutrition C) Impaired mental status D) Ethnic background	D) Ethnic background
	Which modality is considered the most desirable to facilitate wound closure? A) Oxygenation B) Debridement C) Proper Nutrition D) None of the above	B) Debridement
	Dressings should function to: A)Absorb excess moisture B) Add moisture C) Maintain existing moisture D) All of the above	D) All of the above
	The Ankle Brachial Index (ABI) is used to: A) Rule out arterial disease B) Rule out venous insufficiency C) Rule in arterial disease D) None of the above	A) Rule out arterial disease
	Secondary Lymphedema is caused by A) Inflammation B) Infection C) Radiation Therapy D) All of the Above	D) All of the Above
	Pressure Ulcers are caused by: A)High loads, short duration B) Low loads, long duration C) None of the above D) All of the above	D) All of the above
	What percentage of people with diabetes has type II diabetes? A) 60% B) 70% C) 80% D 90%	D 90%
	Diabetes impairs healing of ulcers by: A) Extending healing phases B) ↓ tensile strength of tissue C) ↓ migration of cells for healing D) All of the above	D) All of the above
	One possible treatment of a burn is: A) Neosporin and a band-aid B) Irrigate with water C) Clean with hydrogen peroxide D) None of the above	B) Irrigate with water
	Management of hand burns does NOT include: A) Edema management B) Exercise C) Splinting D) All are included	D) All are included
	What is considered the cornerstone of acute pain management? A) NSAIDS B) Opioids C) Pt education D) Compression therapy	B) Opioids
	What is NOT an indication for UV therapy? A) Necrotic wounds B) Recalcitrant wounds C) Infected acute or chronic wounds D) Acute psoriasis	D) Acute psoriasis
	What is NOT a principle for selecting bandage? A) Elastic properties B) Size/shape of extremity C) Level of pt physical activity D) Age of patient	D) Age of patient
	Indications for negative pressure therapy include: A) Pressure ulcers (stage III and IV) B) Diabetic ulcers C) Open abdominal wounds D) All of the above	D) All of the above
	What is NOT an indication for O2 therapy? A) Diabetic foot ulcer B) Osteoarthritis C) Necrotizing soft tissue infections D) Osteoradionecrosis	B) Osteoarthritis
	Which of these should NOT be included in documentation? A) Size of wound B) Type of wound C) Type of treatment D) All should be included	D) All should be included
	What must be completed before moving forward with an outpatient wound care program? A) Physicians as a source of referral B) Managed Care Companies C) Regulating bodies D) All of the above	D) All of the above
	During legal matters, what can be requested for production? A) Billing documents B) Medical records C) Correspondences D) All of the above	D) All of the above
	What patient must the patient be in to perform the ABI? A) Prone B) Supine C) Sitting D) Standing	B) Supine
	1. What are the phases of wound healing in order? a. Proliferative, Inflammatory, Hemostasis, Maturation b. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Maturation, Proliferative c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation d. Maturation, Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative	c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation
	2. What are the 3 main layers of skin? a. Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis b. Dermis, Glabrous, Hairy c. Hypodermis, Stratum Basale, Stratum Corneum, d. Reticular Dermis, Dermis, Epidermis	a. Epidermis, Dermis, Hypodermis
	3. What are the wound classifications and categories? a. Vascular, Dermal, Thermal, Mechanical b. Radiation, Chemical, Thermal, Mechanical, Vascular c. Chemical, Burns, Ulcers, Accident, Purposeful d. Small, Medium, Large, Huge	b. Radiation, Chemical, Thermal, Mechanical, Vascular
	4. What are the types of wound closures? a. Stitches, Staples, Glue b. Physician, PA, Nurse c. Primary, Secondary, Delayed Primary d. Primary, Secondary, Delayed Secondary	c. Primary, Secondary, Delayed Primary
	5. What are the essential elements to documentation? a. Factual, Correct, Complete, Timely b. Fictional, Correct, Complete, Timely c. Factual, Correct, Complete, Whenever d. Historical, Relative, In-depth, On time	a. Factual, Correct, Complete, Timely
	6. The three types of debridement are: a. Electrical, Mechanical, Chemical b. Chemical, Autolytic, Mechanical c. Autolytic, Electrical, Mechanical d. Chemical, Electric, Autolytic	b. Chemical, Autolytic, Mechanical
	7. Which of the following is not a wound filler? a. Pads b. Beads c. Creams d. Gauzes	d. Gauzes
	8. How do you care for an arterial ulcer? a. Local wound care, Bed rest, Reduce risk Factors, Limb protection b. Bed Rest, Local wound care c. Reduce risk factors, Wound care, Limb Protection d. Whirlpool, Wound care, Bed rest	a. Local wound care, Bed rest, Reduce risk Factors, Limb protection
	9. What is a theory of venous ulcers? a. Smoking b. Calf pump failure c. Age d. Diet	b. Calf pump failure
	10. What is one way to prevent a pressure ulcer? a. Change position b. Eat more fiber c. Lay in bed d. Deep breaths	a. Change position
	11. A diabetic wound heals: a. Faster b. Slower c. No change d. Never	b. Slower
	12. Affects the hands and feet: a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Autonomic neuropathy c. Superficial neuropathy d. Internal neuropathy	a. Peripheral neuropathy
	13. How do you clean a chemical burn? a. Ointment b. Water c. Soap d. Dry cloth	b. Water
	14. Which joint becomes contracted in a burn victim? a. Knee b. Hand c. Shoulder d. Elbow	c. Shoulder
	15. Pain from an amputated limb is called? a. Chronic b. Centralized c. Phantom d. Noxious	c. Phantom
	16. What needs to be checked before debridement? a. B-12 b. Anticoagulation c. Serum levels d. Blood sugar	b. Anticoagulation
	17. What UV light can kill /MRSA? a. UVC b. UVA c. UVB d. UVD	a. UVC
	18. Compression stockings come in how many classes? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2	b. 4
	19. What is a contraindication for Negative-Pressure Wound Therapy? a. Diabetic ulcers b. Trauma wounds c. Malignancy in wound d. Open abdominal wound	c. Malignancy in wound
	20. What is an indication for HBOT a. Diabetic foot ulcer b. Pneumothorax c. AIDS d. Low VO2 max	a. Diabetic foot ulcer
	21. Which is not a documentation guideline? a. Accurate b. Truthful c. Blame d. Legible	c. Blame
	22. Which of the following is not a component of marketing? a. Personal selling b. Advertising c. Chamber of commerce d. Sales promotions	c. Chamber of commerce
	23. Which one is not an economic damage? a. Loss of wages b. Pain c. Medical expenses d. Loss of service	b. Pain
	24. What makes for a good ABI reading? a. Time of day b. Experience c. Equipment d. Patient	b. Experience
	. Glabrous skin is the only skin on the human body that a) has a natural glow and shimmer to it b) doesn’t sweat c) could be stretched to cover half a football field d) doesn’t grow hair	d) doesn’t grow hair
	Stages of burn healing include all of the following except: a) maturation b) inflammation c) reclamation d) proliferative	c) reclamation
	Which of the following was not one of the classifications or categories of wounds discussed in class? a) Mechanical b) Thermal c) hormonal d) Vascular impairment	c) hormonal
	Which of the following is not a barrier to wound healing? a) edema b) appropriate blood flow c) tissue paucity d) infection	b) appropriate blood flow
	A patient with arterial insufficiency would be most comfortable in which position? a) standing b) sitting c) laying down d) inverted	a) standing
	Autolytic debridment is the use of: a) the body’s own enzymes and moisture to hydrate, soften and finally liquefy hard eschar & slough b) chemical enzymes for the debridment of a wound c) a scalpel and other surgical instruments for the selective removal of necrotic tissue d) none of the above	a) the body’s own enzymes and moisture to hydrate, soften and finally liquefy hard eschar & slough
	The best choice to help reduce a hypertrophic or keloid scar would be a ____? a) wet to dry dressing b) a silver dressing c) silicone gel sheet d) a hydrogel dressing	c) silicone gel sheet
	An absent pulse is a sign of which type of vascular insufficiency? a) Venous b) Arterial c) Lymphatic d) None of the above	b) Arterial
	Moderate lymphedema is classified by a circumferential difference between limbs of: a) less than 3 cm b) more than 2 and a half inches c) between 3 and 5 cm d) between 1 and 2 inches	c) between 3 and 5 cm
	What is not a method to prevent pressure ulcers? a) make sure pt doesn’t have weight over bony prominences for extended periods of time (Rotate) b) rub cocoa butter or pt’s preferred lotion/ointment onto expected problem areas c) change wet bedding promptly (whether sweaty, from incontinence, etc…) d) properly fit them for their wheelchair	b) rub cocoa butter or pt’s preferred lotion/ointment onto expected problem areas
	Which of the following is not a goal of Medical Nutrition Therapy (MNT) for diabetics? a) achieve blood glucose goals b) achieve optimal lipid levels c) Provide adequate calories d) stimulate production of cytokines	d) stimulate production of cytokines
	According to the Wagner scale a “Deep ulceration with osteomyelitis” would be a grade__? a) 1 b) 5 c) 3 d) 7	c) 3
	If you encounter a burn wound you’re not comfortable treating you should? a) refer pt to a burn center b) put some Neosporin and a bandaide over the wound and call it good c) treat the pt and research and learn the best treatment for them as you go d) treat the pt for a week and if no improvement refer to a burn center	a) refer pt to a burn center
	Which is not an appropriate reason to cast a burn patient? a) to prevent scar formation b) to prevent movement of a graft c) the patient keeps picking at their healthy wound tissue d) when traditional splinting fails	c) the patient keeps picking at their healthy wound tissue
	which type of pain, “modulates both previous dimensions and puts pain in the context of past experiences and current state of the individual,”? a) sensory discriminative b) cognitive evaluate c) motivational affective d) psychological avoidance	b) cognitive evaluate
	A skin graft is considered what type of healing intention? a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Aviary	a) Primary
	Heliotherapy is: a) treatment with color b) reflecting something really bright into a friend’s eyes from across the room c) therapeutic exposure to specific wavelengths of light through any variety of medical devices d) therapeutic use of sunlight	c) therapeutic exposure to specific wavelengths of light through any variety of medical devices
	Long stretch bandaging are supposed to average what range of pressure? a) 15-25 mm Hg b) 20-30 mm Hg c) 30-50 mm Hg d) 40-50 mm Hg	d) 40-50 mm Hg
	One of the main goals/benefits of negative pressure wound therapy is _____? a) it rapidly decomposes eschar b) it has a 100% antimicrobial effect on the wound bed c) it speeds up the filling of the wound with granulation tissue d) reduction of scar tissue	c) it speeds up the filling of the wound with granulation tissue
	A common diagnoses treated with hyperbaric oxygen therapy include all the following except: a) Peripheral arterial disease b) soft tissue radionecrosis c) diabetic foot ulcer d) chronic refractory osteomylitis	a) Peripheral arterial disease
	Which of the following may be the most important factor of getting reimbursed for wound care tx? a) appropriate documentation b) establishing a healthy rapport with the patient c) discussing discharge recommendations with the patient d) having a validating second opinion for your treatments from a colleague	a) appropriate documentation
	In designing a form to perform wound evaluations which of the following would be good to include? a) treatment start and end times b) descriptors of peri-wound tissue c) current stage of healing d) all of the above	d) all of the above
	A deponent is the person in a legal case that is: a) the person or entity that has suffered damages as a result of another’s negligent act or failure to act b) the person undergoing deposition c) the party in the lawsuit who allegedly caused the plaintiff harm, resulting in damages d) an outside expert in a field offering opinion pertinent to the case	b) the person undergoing deposition
	An ABI (ankle brachial index) is a reference of the two ankle systolic blood pressures to the____? a) highest of the two brachial systolic pressures b) the left carotid systolic pressure c) the right coronary diastolic pressure d) the higher of the two radial systolic pressures	a) highest of the two brachial systolic pressures
	To insure payment wound care, and probably all, documentation should include all of the following except: a) the problem b) the goal of treatment c) the plan d) pt’s emergency contact information	d) pt’s emergency contact information
	Which layer of the Dermis is responsible for the fingerlike projections that make finger/foot prints? a. Reticular b. Papillary c. Corneum d. Stratum	b. Papillary
	Pick the option that has the phases of wound healing in the correct order. a. Inflammatory, Hemostasis, Proliferative, Maturation b. Maturation, Hemostasis, Proliferative, Inflammatory c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation d. Hemostasis, Proliferative, Inflammatory, Maturation	c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, Maturation
	All of the following are classifications/categories of wounds except: a. Mechanical b. Pressure c. Accidental d. Chemical	c. Accidental
	The three parts of secondary intention as reviewed in class include all of the following except: a. Granulation b. Epithelial Migration c. Contraction d. Neovascularization	d. Neovascularization
	All the following are important aspects of assessment except for: a. Demographics b. Medical Diagnosis c. Medications d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	When considering debridement, it is vital to know about which thing? a. Heparin b. Factor 8 c. Hemophilia d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	This type of dressing is used to prevent or improve hypertrophic and keloid scars. a. Transparents b. Hydrogels c. Silicone Gel Sheets d. None of the above	c. Silicone Gel Sheets
	Which of the following are theories of venous ulcers? a. Calf Pump Failure b. Trauma c. Leukocyte Trapping Theory d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	Edema can cause which of the following? a. An environment for infection b. Wound dehiscence c. A and B d. None of the above	c. A and B
	Pressure ulcers have a recurrence rate of up to: a. 90% b. 40% c. 10% d. 1%	b. 40%
	Which of the following can complicate wound healing in a person with diabetes? a. Neuropathy b. Narrow/Clogged Arteries c. A and B d. None of the Above	c. A and B
	Fill in the Blanks – Relating to diabetic foot ulcers. It is not what you ____ ____, but what you ____ ____. a. Hear about, learn about b. Put on, take off c. Enjoy doing, can do d. Said yesterday, say today	b. Put on, take off
	When dealing with burns, which of the following divisions of the body is not correct according to the rule of nines? a. Head = 9% b. Anterior Torso = 18% c. Each Leg = 9% d. Each Arm = 9%	c. Each Leg = 9%
	According to what we learned in class, with respect to burns, what does a pinching pain indicate? a. Nerve Damage b. Skin Folding on Self c. Elongation of Tissue d. Smoke Inhalation	b. Skin Folding on Self
	Which of the following treatments can increase wound-related pain? a. Debridement b. Mobility c. Dressing Changes d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	Surgical Closing of a wound is considered which type of intention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Automatic d. Glabrous	a. Primary
	Which of the following describes Heliotherapy? a. Color therapy b. Helicopter Therapy c. Therapeutic use of Light d. Helium Therapy	c. Therapeutic use of Light
	Which of the following is a principle to guide therapists in bandage selection? a. Patient’s race and gender b. Amount of hair under bandage area c. Size and shape of extremity d. Patient’s artistic talent	c. Size and shape of extremity
	Which of the following is a goal/function of negative pressure wound therapy? a. Draw wound edges together b. Remove fluid and infectious materials c. Dry out wound bed d. Promote granulation	c. Dry out wound bed
	During and immediately after HBOT, most of the oxygen utilized by the body comes from: a. Blood Plasma b. Hemoglobin c. Skin Absorption d. Lymph Nodes	a. Blood Plasma
	Which of the following is not a general guideline for documenting? a. Be Accurate b. Be Truthful c. Assign Blame d. Write Legibly	c. Assign Blame
	Which of the following is not a good way discussed to advance your wound care program? a. Word of Mouth b. Cheap Therapy c. A and B d. None of the above (both good ideas)	b. Cheap Therapy
	Economic damages include all of the following except: a. Lost Wages b. Loss of Particular Service c. Medical of Living Expenses Incurred d. Loss of Enjoyment of Life	d. Loss of Enjoyment of Life
	Which score on the ABI is interpreted as normal? a. Above .80 b. Above .90 c. Above .99 d. Above .70	b. Above .90
	1. The epidermis consists of 5 different layers, which of these layers is the outermost layer? a. Stratum Spinosum b. Stratum Corneum c. Stratum Basale d. Stratum Granulosum	b. Stratum Corneum
	2. Which growth factor starts the chemotaxis of neutrophils, macrophages, smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts; and is the most important in hemostasis? a. PDGF b. TGF-β c. GDF-9 d. TGF-α	a. PDGF
	3. Which is not a cardial sign of inflammation? a. Rubor b. Calor c. Dolor d. Color	d. Color
	4. Which stage is described as, “partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough”? a. Stage 1 b. Unstageable c. Stage 2 d. Stage 5	c. Stage 2
	5. A reddish color tissue indicates what type of tissue? a. Granulation b. Slough c. Eschar d. Necrotic	a. Granulation
	6. Hydrocolloids are useful on areas such as? a. Heel b. Toe c. Hand d. Thigh	a. Heel
	7. Initial dressing for venous ulcers should be changed: a. Daily b. Biweekly c. Once a week d. Once a month	b. Biweekly
	8. A clinical sign of arterial disease is? a. Presence of pulse b. Absence of pulse c. Redness d. Relief with elevation	b. Absence of pulse
	9. Which is not an advantage of total contact casting for diabetic ulcerations? a. Reduction of walking stress b. Reduces edema c. Easily removed d. Limits walking activities	c. Easily removed
	10. How many percent of the population have Type 2 Diabetes? a. 90% b. 85% c. 40% d. 75%	a. 90%
	11. Why is good hydration needed with patients who suffer from lymphedema? a. Because the patient looks thirsty b. It hydrates the skin c. It helps the lymphatic system flush toxins d. It makes the swelling go away	c. It helps the lymphatic system flush toxins
	12. Which is not an extrinsic factor of pressure ulcers? a. Shear b. Friction c. Muscle atrophy d. Moisture	c. Muscle atrophy
	13. How long do you monitor a patient after a pressure ulcer is closed? a. 2 years b. 1 year c. 1 month d. 6 months	a. 2 years
	14. Which is the most important factor for survival after burn a. Incision b. Excision c. Compression d. Massage	b. Excision
	15. Which is not a characteristic of fiberglass material? a. Lightweight b. Good conformity c. Strong d. Short drying time	b. Good conformity
	16. This tool for measuring pain is the most common. a. Body diagram b. Self report c. McGill Pain Questionnaire d. Number scales	d. Number scales
	17. This is a factor that impedes wound healing by placing the individual at risk for trauma and ulcers. a. Aging b. Malnutrition c. Osteomyelitis d. Tissue Oxygenation	a. Aging
	18. Which ultraviolet radiation penetrates to the stratum basale of the epidermis and also has a bactericidal effect? a. UVA b. UVB c. UVC d. UVR	b. UVB
	19. This type of compression should not be used for patients with acute DVT or severe ischemic disease. a. Circaid b. Multicomponent c. Intermittent Pneumatic Compression d. Graduated Compression Stockings	c. Intermittent Pneumatic Compression
	here is/are how many type(s) of Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy chambers? a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. 4	a. 2
	21. These are all general documentation guidelines, except? a. Be factual b. Be objective c. Avoid late entries d. Document only what you can understand	d. Document only what you can understand
	22. What is the biggest concern for large hospitals and clinics? a. Inconsistent documentation b. Communication c. Too many patients d. Reimbursement	a. Inconsistent documentation
	23. A contraindication of use of a Wound Vac is? a. Necrotic tissue with eschar wound b. Neuropathic ulcers c. Acute wounds d. Chronic pressure ulcers	a. Necrotic tissue with eschar wound
	24. Which is a disadvantage of using a TCC? a. Offloads the foot b. Controls edema c. Difficulty with bathing d. Protection from infection	c. Difficulty with bathing
	25. Which of these scales assesses mobility, activity, sensaition, nutrition and moisture? a. Braden Scale b. Waterlow Score c. Norton Scale d. Gosnell Scale	a. Braden Scale
	List in order from superficial to deep: a) Basale, Spinosum, granulosum, corneum lucidum b) Corneum, basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum c) Corneum, lucidum, granulsom, spinosum, basale d) Lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, corneum, basale	c) Corneum, lucidum, granulsom, spinosum, basale
	How long, according to the notes, is the inflammatory phase of healing? a) 0 – 24 hours b) 1 day - 4 days c) 4 days – (14 – 21)days d) 18 days – 1 year	b) 1 day - 4 days
	Which category of wound does not exist? a) Mechanical b) Thermal c) Radiation d) Vascular Impairment e) None of the above	e) None of the above
	What is the definition of a stage 4 wound? a) Full thickness tissue loss exposing bone b) Full thickness tissue loss without exposing bone c) Intact skin with non-blanchable redness d) Partial thickness loss of dermis	a) Full thickness tissue loss exposing bone
	True or False: It is important to do a systems review for an examination for a patient that is coming in to be treated for a wound. a) True b) False	a) True
	What is the similarity between selective and non-selective debridement? a) Autolytic b) Enzymatic c) Solutions d) Mechanical	d) Mechanical
	If a wound is macerated, what dressing would be appropriate to use for its wound care? a) Hydrogels b) Impregnated wound dressings c) Fillers d) Gauzes and non-woven	d) Gauzes and non-woven
	What is the strength of new tissue laid down by the body compared to the normal strength of the tissue before trauma? a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 80%	d) 80%
	What is not a risk factor for chronic venous insufficiency? a) Inactivity b) Female sex c) Overeating d) Age over 50	c) Overeating
	What phase of CDT is the phase that includes self-management? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4	b) Phase 2
	An albumin level less than _______ g/dL is considered malnourished. a) 2.5 b) 4.0 c) 3.0 d) 3.5	a) 2.5
	What is the highest prevalence of diabetic complication s with someone that has diabetes? a) Retinopathy b) Neuropathy c) Nephropathy d) Cardiovascular disease	a) Retinopathy
	Which grade on the Wagner Scale would you classify a Deep, Infected ulcer? a) Grade 0 b) Grade 1 c) Grade 3 d) Grade 5	c) Grade 3
	What is not a factor that give survival prognosis on burn severity? a) Age b) TBSA c) Co morbidities d) Weight	d) Weight
	How do you position a patient that has a burn on his anterior chest? a) Supine with towel alone spine b) Prone c) Doesn’t matter d) Supine with towels under his arms	a) Supine with towel alone spine
	What is the “cornerstone” for pain management with a wound? a) NSAIDS b) Stretching c) ROM d) Opiods	d) Opiods
	What is not a type of skin graft? a) Split-thickness b) Full-thickness c) Composite d) Half-thickness	d) Half-thickness
	Which light penetrates the deepest into the skin? a) UVC b) UVB c) UVA d) U of A	c) UVA
	When using short stretch compression wraps the resting pressure is? a) 30 – 60 mmHg b) 40 – 60 mmHg c) 40 – 70 mm Hg d) 30 – 70 mm Hg	a) 30 – 60 mmHg
	What does V.A.C. stand for with the Wound VAC? a) Vacuum Assisting Closure b) Very Active Closure c) Vacuum Aided Clamping d) Vacuum Airing Closure	a) Vacuum Assisting Closure
	The oxygen content that is consumed while in a HBO is? a) 50% b) 75% c) 85% d) 100%	d) 100%
	Which category of CPT codes has no payment assigned to it? a) Category 1 b) Category 2 c) Category 3 d) None of the above	c) Category 3
	Most states have a statutes of limitations of how many years? a) 1-2 years b) 2-3 years c) 3-4 years d) 6 months – 1 year	b) 2-3 years
	How many times per week should the initial dressing be changed? e) a) Once f) b) Twice g) c) Three times h) d) Wait to change till following week.	f) b) Twice
	1. What type of skin is found on the palms of the hands and souls of the feet? a. Epidermis b. Hypodermis c. Reticular dermis d. Papillary dermis	d. Papillary dermis
	2. Once tissue has completely finished the maturation stage it is ___% as strong as normal tissue. a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90%	c. 80%
	3. A pressure ulcer that has bone, tendon, or muscle exposed would be classified as… a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4	d. Stage 4
	4. An infection is classified as 10 to the ___ organisms/gm of tissue. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8	a. 5
	1. Which of the following is not part of the wound assessment? a. Debridement b. Gather history of wound c. Fill out Norton/Braden scale d. Document wound color	a. Debridement
	1. Which of the following is not one of the 3 main types of wound debridement? a. Mechanical b. Compression c. Autolytic d. Chemical	b. Compression
	2. Which of the following types of dressings is derived from seaweed? a. Antimicrobial b. Alginates c. Collagens d. Gauze	b. Alginates
	1. All of the following are signs of Venous Insufficiency except? a. Presence of edema b. Loss of hair on limb c. Palpable pulse d. Occurs after long periods of sitting	b. Loss of hair on limb
	2. What is the main substance that accumulates with lymphedema? a. Plasma Protein b. Blood c. Water d. Sweat	a. Plasma Protein
	3. Which of the following is not a common area for a pressure ulcer to develop? a. Heels b. Lower back/buttocks c. Over the patella d. Elbows	c. Over the patella
	4. Which of the following is not typical of diabetes type II? a. Usually onsets after the age of 40 b. Not prone to ketoisis c. Use of insulin injections for treatment d. Often linked to obesity	c. Use of insulin injections for treatment
	5. According to the slides, the gold standard of care for diabetic foot ulcers is… a. Pressure off loading with cast b. Autolysis c. Compression d. Neosporin	a. Pressure off loading with cast
	6. A partial thickness burn is classified as a. 1st degree burn only b. 2nd degree burn only c. 1st and second degree burns d. 3rd degree burns only	c. 1st and second degree burns
	7. What is the most frequently burned area of the body? a. Shoulder b. Face c. Feet d. Abdomen	b. Face
	8. What is an increased pain response to a normally noxious stimulus? a. Spontaneous pain b. Referred pain c. Chronic pain d. Hyperalgesia	d. Hyperalgesia
	9. After surgery a graft needs? a. Pressure b. Heat c. Ice d. Gauze	a. Pressure
	1. Evidence shows that laser therapy can aid in wound healing in all of the following except? a. Pain relief b. Stimuli tissue healing c. Reduce wound bioburden d. Provide therapeutic thermal effect	d. Provide therapeutic thermal effect
	2. Which type of compression therapy should be used on mobile patients? a. Long stretch b. Short stretch c. Long or short stretch d. Neither long of short stretch	c. Long or short stretch
	3. What does V.A.C. stand for? a. Vacuum adjusted care b. Vacuum advanced care c. Vacuum acquired closure d. Vacuum assisted closure	d. Vacuum assisted closure
	4. Oxygen makes up approximately what percent of the air we breath? a. 16% b. 21% c. 29% d. 34%	b. 21%
	1. All of the following are necessary for the examination except? a. Patient History b. Systems Review c. Tests and Measures d. Treatment	d. Treatment
	2. Which of the following is not a typical member of a wound care team? a. Nursing staff b. Orthotist c. Social Worker d. Recreational therapist	d. Recreational therapist
	3. A person or entity that has suffered damages as a result of another’s negligence or failure to act is the… a. Defendant b. Plaintiff c. Interrogator d. Deponent	b. Plaintiff
	a. Which layer of skin is in globulus skin which is not in skin i. Stratum Corneum ii. Stratum Granulosum iii. Stratum Spinosum iv. Stratum Lucidum	iv. Stratum Lucidum
	a. What is the predominate cell of the proliferative stage? i. Macrophage ii. Mast Cell iii. Fibroblast iv. Angioblast	iii. Fibroblast
	a. Which stage of pressure ulcer is classified by a full thickness tissue loss that may include visible subcutaneous fat but bones, tendons, and muscle is not exposed? i. Stage 1 ii. Stage 2 iii. Stage 3 iv. Stage 4 v. Unstageable	iii. Stage 3
	a. Which method of wound closure is categorized by allowing the wound to heal naturally for a few days then finishing the closure using sutures? i. Primary ii. Secondary iii. Tertiary iv. Quaternary	iii. Tertiary
	a. When performing an initial Examination and Evaluation of a wound, which of the following would you not expect to perform? i. MMT ii. Check for Drainage iii. Examine Wound edges iv. Patient History	iii. Examine Wound edges
	a. Which form of debridement is not considered a selective debridement i. Autolyic ii. Hydrotherapy iii. Enzymatic iv. Mechanical	ii. Hydrotherapy
	a. When treating a venous ulcer, what is the most critical aspect of the wound care dressing? i. Donning gloves ii. The unaboot iii. Patient Education iv. Multilayer dressing	iii. Patient Education
	1. Which of the following is not indicative of arterial disease? a. Cool Skin b. Absent Pulses c. Loss of hair d. Pain decreased with elevation	d. Pain decreased with elevation
	a. A patient presents to you with 5cm differential between limbs, How would you classify this lymphedema? i. Mild ii. Moderate iii. Severe	ii. Moderate
	a. When positioning a patient to avoid pressure ulcers, where should you not place a pillow? i. Head ii. Low Back iii. Calf iv. Heel	iv. Heel
	a. Which oral medication works by increasing the insulin output of the pancreas? i. Thiazolindinediones(TZDs) ii. Sulfonylureas iii. Metaformin iv. Insulin Stimulating Hormone	ii. Sulfonylureas
	a. T/F It is important to protect a diabetic foot because many people with diabetes have decreased sensation and may not notice a wound until it is too late	T
	a. When a patient with severe burns presents to the ER, what should be done almost immediately? i. Start IV ii. CPR iii. PROM of tissue to prevent contractures iv. Administer antibiotic ointment(Neosporin) to hydrate skin and prevent infection	i. Start IV
	a. T/F When rehabilitating a patient with severe burns it is important to not stretch the burned tissue and to allow the tissue to rest in a shortened position in order to heal faster. i. True ii. False	ii. False
	a. What is the most reliable method of reducing and managing wound related pain? i. Opioids ii. Ice iii. TENS iv. Facilitate normal healing process and allow tissue to heal v. NSAIDS	iv. Facilitate normal healing process and allow tissue to heal
	a. What is the most essential step in treating Osteomyelitis? i. Bone Grafts ii. Medication iii. Amputation iv. Debridement	iv. Debridement
	a. Which type of Ultraviolet Radiation has the longest wavelength and is able to penetrate the deepest? i. UVA ii. UVB iii. UVC	i. UVA
	a. When should you not use compression therapy on a patient? i. Patient has severe edema ii. Patient has Venous insufficiency iii. Patient has Arterial insufficiency iv. Patient has Varicose veins	iii. Patient has Arterial insufficiency
	a. T/F It is proposed that negative wound therapy works by creating a negative pressure environment which will causes an increased blood flow to restore pressure.	T
	a. How does Oxygen Therapy help with wound healing? i. Increases O2 saturation in blood which helps during inflammatory phase which stimulates macrophages ii. Decreases O2 Saturation stimulating Maturation of collagen iii. Increases O2 delivery to wound which helps stimulate WBCs to kill bacteria iv. Oxygen naturally kills bacteria, increasing it will decrease infection rate	iii. Increases O2 delivery to wound which helps stimulate WBCs to kill bacteria
	a. Why is documenting correctly so important? i. Decreases chances of having a malpractice lawsuit ii. Improper documentation will result in normal payment for services iii. Improper documentation will result in loss of revenue if audited iv. Documenting Properly will increase the amount of reimbursement for each procedure	iii. Improper documentation will result in loss of revenue if audited
	a. Why is it important to standardize would program elements such as risk assessments, products, and treatments? i. It ensures a comprehensive approach that can be individualized for each patient ii. It allows quick and efficient treatment byt treating each wound identically iii. It is more efficient and costs less iv. It allows the team to be on the same page for each patient so that they can treat each stage 3 ulcer the same way	i. It ensures a comprehensive approach that can be individualized for each patient
	a. All of these are ways to help protect yourself from entering and losing a legal battle except? i. Documenting correctly ii. Staying within Scope of Practice iii. Communication iv. Not admitting guilt or fault for actions v. Treating Patient and Family with respect	iv. Not admitting guilt or fault for actions
	a. After checking pressures of all four limbs, what equation do you use to determine ABI? i. ABI = P Highest LEG/P Highest ARM ii. ABI = PARM/ PLEG iii. ABI = P Lowest LEG / P Lowest ARM iv. ABI = P Average LEG / P Average ARM	i. ABI = P Highest LEG/P Highest ARM
	Lymphedema is most commonly found: A: Upper extremities B: Lower extremities C: Trunk D: Head	B: Lower extremities
	Which of the following is an extrinsic factor regarding pressure ulcers A: Nutrition B: Tissue temperature C: Medical condition D: Friction	D: Friction
	Which type of burn do you have if you have burned down into the bone? A: First degree B: Second degree C: Third degree D: Fourth degree	D: Fourth degree
	Which layer of skin is only found on the palms and soles of feet? A: Stratum Corneum B: Stratum Basale C: Stratum Lucidum D: Stratum Granulosum	C: Stratum Lucidum
	Which type of pain is also known as pain at rest? A: Spontaneous pain B: Referred Pain C: Acute Pain D: Chronic pain	A: Spontaneous pain
	What Type of wound healing pattern is often called spontaneous healing? A: Primary intention B: Secondary intention C: Tertiary intention	B: Secondary intention
	Which type of Ultraviolet radiation kills bacteria? A: UVA B: UVD C: UVB D: UVC	D: UVC
	Which type of bandage is extendable with good elastic recoil? A: Long stretch B: Short Stretch C: multi component D: Medium stretch	A: Long stretch
	Air is made up mostly by what A: Oxygen B: Nitrogen C: Co2 D: Inert gases	B: Nitrogen
	What is the name of the billing codes used in PT A: ICD-7 B: ICD-9 C: ICD-8 D: ICD-6	B: ICD-9
	How long after an occurrence does the plaintiff have to file a law suit?? A: 1-12 month B: 1-2 Year C: 2-3 Years D 3-5 Years	C: 2-3 Years
	What is the most superficial layer of skin? A: Stratum Corneum B: Stratum Basale C: Stratum Spinosum D: Stratum Granulosum	A: Stratum Corneum
	Which stage of healing occurs 5-10 min following an injury? A: Inflammatory Phase B: Hemostasis C: Maturation Phase D: Proliferative phase	B: Hemostasis
	Which wound classification relates to pressure or trauma? A: Mechanical B: Thermal C: Chemical D: Vascular impairment	A: Mechanical
	Which of the following I NOT a type of wound closure? A: Primary Closure B: Secondary Closure C: Delayed secondary closure D: Delayed Primary closure	C: Delayed secondary closure
	When assessing a wound what type of tissue is Viable? A: Granulation B: Burnt C: Escar D: Slough	A: Granulation
	Which type of debridement uses maggots? A: Mechanical B: Chemical C: Biologic D: Autolytic	C: Biologic
	Which of the following is a Polymer with small open cells for holding fluids? A: Gauze B: Foams C: Gels D: Non wovens	B: Foams
	What of the following is NOT included in venous ulcer management: A. Elevation B. Ambulation C. Ice D. Compression	C. Ice
	What percentage of individuals with diabetes are type II A: 90% B: 95% C: 85% D: 70%	A: 90%
	With diabetic foot ulcers what is NOT an advantage of total contact casting? A: Reduces walking stress B: Reduces Edema C: Easily Removed D: Protection	C: Easily Removed
	What is Normal regarding the Ankle-Brachial Index A: 0.90 & Above B: 0.71-0.90 C: 0.41-0.70 D: 0.00-0.40	A: 0.90 & Above
	What does V.A.C. stand for? A: Venous arterial closure B: Vacuum assisted closure C: Vacuum arterial closure D: Vacuum aided closure	B: Vacuum assisted closure
	1. The outermost layer of the epidermis is which of the following? a. Stratum Basale b. Stratum Spinosum c. Stratum Lucidum d. Stratum Corneum	d. Stratum Corneum
	2. The Maturation phase of healing occurs during which time frame? a. Days 4-21 b. Day 18-1 year c. Days 1-4 d. None of the Above	b. Day 18-1 year
	3. When evaluating a pressure ulcer, which of the following descriptions falls under a grade of Stage 3? a. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough. b. Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon or muscle is not exposed. c. Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle. d. Full thickness tissue loss in which the base of the ulcer is covered by slough and/or eschar in the wound bed.	b. Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon or muscle is not exposed.
	4. With a partial thickness wound healing is by regeneration and ……..? a. Scar tissue is formed in order of epithelialization, proliferation, and migration. b. Scar tissue is formed in order of granulation, contraction, and epithelialization. c. No scar tissue is formed in order of epithelialization, proliferation, and migration. d. No scar tissue is formed in order of granulation, contraction, and epithelialization.	c. No scar tissue is formed in order of epithelialization, proliferation, and migration.
	1. When assessing wound edges which term does not fit? a. Serous b. Unattached c. Macerated d. Defined	a. Serous
	1. T or F? Whirlpool is one of the more beneficial modalities in prepping a wound for debridement and care.	F
	2. Which of the following should NOT be used as a filler? a. Impregnated gauze b. Foam c. Hydrogel d. Transparent film	d. Transparent film
	1. Chronic venous hypertension is responsible for what percentage of leg ulcer cases? a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80%	c. 70%
	2. T or F? One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to protect the body from disease via the lymphocytes.	T
	4. What percentage of the US population has been diagnosed with diabetes? a. 6.5% b. 8.3% c. 9.6% d. 11.6%	b. 8.3%
	5. In assessing Diabetic Foot Ulcerations the Wagner scale has how many grades? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7	c. 6
	6. Which of the following classifies as a second degree burn? a. Burn that appears white and pliable; black, charred, leathery; or bright red. Do not blanch with pressure. b. Possible blisters with erythematous or whitish base with a fibrinous exudate. c. Burn that is red and very sensitive to touch. Blanches to light pressure. d. None of the above	b. Possible blisters with erythematous or whitish base with a fibrinous exudate.
	7. During the acute phase of healing after a burn how often will the burn team make changes to IV fluids, ventilator, and check peripheral pulses? a. Every 30 minutes b. Every hour c. Every 2 hours d. None of the above	b. Every hour
	8. How many types of hyperalgesia are there? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4	b. 2
	9. What is the average removal time for sutures of uncomplicated wounds in the chest, abdomen, or extremities? a. 3-5 days b. 7-10 days c. 10-14 days d. 12-14 days	b. 7-10 days
	1. From visible light treatment, which of the following has the potential of being the strongest? a. Light emitting diode (LED) b. Laser c. Super luminescent Diode (SLB) d. They are all about the same	b. Laser
	2. A long stretch bandage will typically provide how much pressure to an extremity? a. 20-40 mm Hg b. 30-60 mm Hg c. 40-50 mm Hg d. 50-60 mm Hg	c. 40-50 mm Hg
	3. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to perform negative-pressure wound therapy? a. Malignancy in wound b. Open abdominal wound c. Wound with exposed blood vessels d. Necrotic tissue with eschar and/or hardened slough	b. Open abdominal wound
	4. Oxygen Therapy can do each of the following except? a. Reduce edema through vasoconstriction. b. Stimulate fibroblasts to make collagen. c. Intitiate angiogenesis (new blood vessels) d. None of the above, they all are effects of oxygen therapy.	d. None of the above, they all are effects of oxygen therapy.
	Active wound care billing codes include debridement, negative pressure therapy, and _______________? a. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy b. Electrostimulation c. Pneumatic compression d. Low-frequency Ultrasound	d. Low-frequency Ultrasound
	2. A _________ chart will provide a timeframe in setting up a wound care program. a. Snellen b. Gannt c. Bar d. SWOT	b. Gannt
	3. Statute of limitations is the amount of time in a given state, after an occurrence that a plaintiff has to file a lawsuit; usually ___ year(s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 2-3 d. 5	c. 2-3
	1. 3M’s Coban 2 Layer Compression Therapy System fits well under which category of compression? a. Short Stretch b. Long Stretch c. Multicomponent d. None of the above	c. Multicomponent
	 What is the outer most layer of the epidermis called? A. Stratum Basale B. Stratum Corneum C. Stratum Granulosum D. Stratum lucidum	B. Stratum Corneum
	 What is the very first phase of wound healing? A. Hemostasis B. Maturation C. Inflammatory D. Proliferative	A. Hemostasis
	 Which of the following are not a classification of wounds? A. Thermal B. Mechanical C. Chemical D. Cervical	D. Cervical
	 Which of the following is part of the process of secondary closure? A. Granulation B. Wound Contraction C. Epithelial Migration D. All of The Above	D. All of The Above
	 What is the most important thing to look for on a patient assessment of a wound A. Color B. Infection C. Wound edges D. Granulation tissue	B. Infection
	 What is the definition of Debridement? A. Is the removal tissue from a wound B. Is the addition of necrotic devitalized tissue from a wound C. Is the removal of necrotic devitalized tissue from a wound D. Is the removal of blood from a wound	C. Is the removal of necrotic devitalized tissue from a wound
	 Which of the following are not parts of hydrogels? A. Foams B. Amorphus C. Sheet D. Impregnated	A. Foams
	 How many people in the USA are estimated to have venous insufficiency ulcers? A. 600,000 – 900,000 B. 500,000 – 800,000 C. 400,000 – 700,000 D. 300,000 – 600,000	B. 500,000 – 800,000
	 What is the name of the test that we can do as physical therapist to check for lymphadema? A. Thomas Test B. Obers Test C. Anterior Drawer Test D. Stemmer sign	D. Stemmer sign
	 What is the standard seat height of a wheelchair? A. 19 ½ in B. 24 in C. 18 in D. 21 in	A. 19 ½ in
	 Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage in wound healing if you have diabetes? A. Infections B. Swelling/Edema C. Medications D. Foreign Matter	C. Medications
	 What is the name of the scale that is used in neuropathic foot ulcers A. Gregory B. Scott’s C. Wagner D. David’s	C. Wagner
	 How many burn injuries occur in the USA and Canada each year? A. 2.4 Million B. 6 Million C 1.55 Million D 1 Million	C 1.55 Million
	 Where are the keratinocytes made? A. Stratum Granulosum B. Stratum Basale C. Stratum Corneum D. Stratum Lucidum	A. Stratum Granulosum
	 Which one of these tools are not used in the measurement of pain A. Visual Analog scale B. McGill Pain Questionnaire C. Brief Pain Inventory D. Babinski’s Test	D. Babinski’s Test
	 Which one of these are used to diagnose Osteomyelitis? A. Radiographs B. CT’s C. MRI D. Surgical Bone Biopsy E. All of The Above	E. All of The Above
	 Which one of these are NOT a type of Electromagnetic Spectrum used in phototherapy? A. Infared Radiation B. Ultraviolet Radiation C. Microwave Light D. Visible Light	C. Microwave Light
	 Which of these are principles in selecting a good bandage? A. What are the elastic properties of the bandage and how is it constructed? B. What is the size and shape of the extremity? C. How skilled is the clinician, patient, or caregiver at bandage application? D. What will be the level of physical activity the patient will undertake? E. All the Above	E. All the Above
	Venous leg ulcers may develop as a result of? A. Any injury to the leg. B. Varicose veins. C. Blood clot in the leg. D. Multiple pregnancies. E. Overweight and standing for long periods of time F. All of the above.	F. All of the above.
	 Air is approximately A. 21% Oxygen, 79% Nitrogen, 1% Inert gas B. 28% Oxygen, 71% Nitrogen, 1% Inert gas C. 21% Oxygen, 77% Nitrogen, 3% Inert gas D. 20% Oxygen, 79% Nitrogen, 2% Inert gas	A. 21% Oxygen, 79% Nitrogen, 1% Inert gas
	 What is the name of the billing codes used in wound care? A. ICD-8 B. ICD-9 C. ICD-10 D. ICD-11	B. ICD-9
	 What is the most important aspect to wound care treatment? A. Debridement B. Documentation C. Pressure D. None of the above	B. Documentation
	 Who make up the wound care team? A. Physicians B. Nurses C. PT’s D. OT’s E. All the Above	E. All the Above
	 What does VAC stand for? A. Vacuum Assisted Closure B. Vacuum Assisted Care C. Vacuum and Contact D. Vacuum Adjacent Closure	A. Vacuum Assisted Closure
	1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epidermis? a. Prevents dehydration of other tissues b. Protects from organisms, toxins, mechanical injury, and light. c. Keeps the nutrients in the skin d. Is the thickest layer of skin	d. Is the thickest layer of skin
	2. Macrophages are the predominant cell in the latter part of the: 1. Hemostasis phase 2. Inflammatory phase 3. Proliferative phase 4. Maturation phase	2. Inflammatory phase
	3. Maggot Therapy is used for: a. Promotion of tissue inflammation b. Removal of necrotic tissue c. Anesthesia d. Providing moisture to the wound	b. Removal of necrotic tissue
	4. Which of the following applications are helpful for the prevention or improvement of hypertrophic Keloid scars? a. Hydrogels b. Silicone gel sheets c. Composites d. Transparents	b. Silicone gel sheets
	1. Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle describes which wound stage classification? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV	d. Stage IV
	1. During Autolytic debridement, only _______ tissue is liquefied. a. Proliferating b. Mature c. Necrotic d. Epithelial	c. Necrotic
	A dressing that combines distinct components into a single product is called a: a. Alginate b. Collagen c. Composite d. Absorptive	c. Composite
	Which of the following is NOT a sign of arterial disease? a. Warm skin temperature b. Absent pulses c. Pain with elevation d. Loss of hair on limbs	a. Warm skin temperature
	2. The cornerstone of lymphedema therapy a. Compression b. Elevation c. Exercise d. Medication	a. Compression
	3. Which of the following does NOT occur when a patient slides forward on a wheelchair? a. Forward head b. Kyphotic spine c. Anterior pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt	c. Anterior pelvic tilt
	Patients with Diabetes experience an ineffective matrix turnover rate during the Maturation phase of wound healing. The outcome of this is: a. Delayed inflammatory response b. Reduced ultimate strength of tissue c. Poor endogenous debridement d. Impaired granulation formation	b. Reduced ultimate strength of tissue
	5. The highest prevalence of Diabetic complications is seen in patients with a. Retinopathy b. Neuropathy c. Nephropathy d. Cardiovascular disease	a. Retinopathy
	6. Electrical current follows the path of least resistance in the ________ system a. Lymphatic b. Nervous c. Respiratory d. Circulatory	b. Nervous
	7. Which of the layers of skin is found only on palms and soles of feet? a. Stratum granulosum b. Stratum basale c. Stratum lucidum d. Stratum corneum	c. Stratum lucidum
	8. Which of the following is correct about sensitization? a. It causes an increase in both nociceptor activity CNS input b. It causes an increase in nociceptor activity and a decrease in CNS input c. It causes a decrease in both nociceptor activity and CNS input d. It causes a decrease in nociceptor activity and an increase in CNS input	a. It causes an increase in both nociceptor activity CNS input
	9. Which of the following is the gold standard for Diagnosis of Osteomyelitis? a. Radiographs b. CT’s c. MRI d. Surgical bone biopsy	d. Surgical bone biopsy
	1. Which of the following types of ultraviolet radiation is used for bactericidal effects? a. UVA b. UVB c. UVC d. UCD	c. UVC
	2. Which of the following is NOT true about the Unna boot? a. It is classified as a short stretch wrap b. Resting pressure is 30-60mm Hg c. It provides limited extensibility and elasticity d. It is extensible with good elastic recoil	d. It is extensible with good elastic recoil
	3. The VAC system a. Draws out fluid from the wound and increases blood flow to the area b. May be applied continuously or intermittently c. Can be used to treat Diabetic ulcers d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	4. Angiogenesis is a. The formation of new blood vessels b. The formation of new nerves c. The formation of new skin d. The breakdown of skin	a. The formation of new blood vessels
	1. What does the insurer NOT look for in terms of patient documentation? a. ICD-9 codes and CPT codes prior to granting authorization b. Written updates justifying continued treatment c. Documentation from medical record d. Patient satisfaction survey	d. Patient satisfaction survey
	2. Which term does the following definition describe: The actions of a corporation, store, government, individual, etc., in promoting goodwill between itself and the public, the community, employees, customers, etc. a. Marketing b. Word of mouth c. Advertising d. Public Relations	d. Public Relations
	3. The person or entity that has suffered damages as a result of another’s negligent act or failure to act is the a. Plaintiff b. Prosecutor c. Defendant d. Expert witness	a. Plaintiff
	1. VAC therapy is indicated for patients with which of the following wounds? a. Chronic b. Acute c. Subacute d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	When taking a patient history it is important to ask about: a. Venous insufficiency b. Obesity c. Heart problems d. All of the above.	d. All of the above.
	Lymphedema affects which sex more: a. Females b. Males c. Neither does it on bias males or females. d. Young children.	a. Females
	How much do pressures Ulcers cost a year? a. 55 billion b. 23 billion c. 22 billion d. 88 billion	a. 55 billion
	Which of the following are causes of a chronic wound: a. Edema b. Infection c. diabetes d. All of the above.	d. All of the above.
	Diabetic neuropathy causes loss of: a. Pain and sensation b. Peripheral nociceptors c. Protective healing function d. All of the above.	d. All of the above.
	Burn victims will require: a. Social support b. Special care c. emotional support d. all of the above	d. all of the above
	The largest organ of the body is the: a. Skin b. Heart c. Lungs d. bladder	a. Skin
	Sensory discriminative pain: a. Mediates the quality, intensity, duration, and location of the pain, b. Is concerned with the emotional aspects and the unpleasantness with pain. c. Modulates both previous dimensions and puts pain in the context of past experiences and current state of the individual. d. None of the above.	a. Mediates the quality, intensity, duration, and location of the pain
	All of the following are ways to diagnose osteomyelitis except. a. Radiographs b. CT’s c. MRI d. Tuning fork	d. Tuning fork
	Heliotherapy named after the city of the: a. Sun b. God c. Earth d. moon	a. Sun
	Short stretch bandaging: a. Limits extensibility and elasticity and rigidity. b. Extensible with good elastic recoil c. Potentially dangerous for patients with arterial occlusive disease. d. Significantly increases sub-bandage pressure.	a. Limits extensibility and elasticity and rigidity.
	Negative pressure therapy uses: a. Vacuum dressing b. Stiches c. shears d. hot iron	a. Vacuum dressing
	The multi-place chamber is: a. small and inexpensive. b. Large and expensive c. Large and inexpensive d. Small and expensive.	b. Large and expensive
	There is a _ stage management system to support third party reimbursement. a. 5 stage b. 4 stage c. 3 stage d. 2 stage	a. 5 stage
	When developing a program it should be based upon: a. Family needs b. Patient needs c. Physical therapist needs d. Surgeon’s needs.	b. Patient needs
	A Defendant is : a. The party in the lawsuit who allegedly caused the plaintiff harm, resulting in damages. b. The person or entity that has suffered damages as a result of another negligent act or failure to act. c. Preponderance of the evidence d. Beyond a reasonable doubt.	a. The party in the lawsuit who allegedly caused the plaintiff harm, resulting in damages.
	The following are types of EMR used in phototherapy except: a. Infrared radiation b. Visible light c. Ultraviolet radiation d. Sunlight	d. Sunlight
	Hairy skin is found everywhere except? a. armpit b .forehead c. bottom of the feet d.Top of hands	c. bottom of the feet
	Which layer of the skin is translucent line of cells seen in Galbrous skin. a. stratum lucidum b. stratum corneum c. stratum basale d. stratum spinosum	a. stratum lucidum
	All of the following is subcutaneous tissue except: a.adipose tissue b. connective tissue c. major blood vessels d. hair follicles	d. hair follicles
	The patients history should not include: a. demographics b. employment/occupation, c.Social, d.past medical history. e.wound examination.	e.wound examination.
	Cavilon, no sting barrier film (the" lollipop") is used to: a. protect damaged or intact skin b. wound debridement c. eschar removal d. a tool used for pulling the wound apart.	a. protect damaged or intact skin
	Appearance of ulcer begins: a. shallow b. deep c. not at all. d. at midlevel	a. shallow
	Signs of venous disease on surrounding skin are all of the following except: a. redness b. blue blotches c. itching d. dry	b. blue blotches
	Which of the Following is NOT a function of the Dermis? A. Regulates temperature B. Provides nourishment C. Provides support and cushion D. Provides strength and elasticity	C. Provides support and cushion
	In what stage are macrophages predominant? A. Hemostasis B. Beginning of Inflammatory C. End of Inflammatory D. Proliferative	C. End of Inflammatory
	What are the 2 key plasma proteins involved in forming fibrin? A. Fibrinogen and Platelets B. Thrombin and Fibrinogen C. Fibrinogen and Fibronectin D. Thrombospondin and Fibinectin	B. Thrombin and Fibrinogen
	If you had a patient with a wound that was partial-thickness and dry, what stage of wound would it be according to NPUAP A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4	B. Stage 2
	Which is not a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers A. Inactivity B. Hypotension C. No extremity hair D. Increased body temperature	C. No extremity hair
	Which dressing would you NOT want to use when dealing with a wound that has a high amount of exudate A. Hydrogels B. Foams C. Alginates D. Collagens	A. Hydrogels
	Which signs/symptoms are consistent with arterial insufficiency A. Moist skin, loss of hair on limb, usually on dorsum of foot, B. Red skin, pain with elevation, absent pulse C. dry skin, pain relieved with elevation, delayed capillary refill D. Dry skin, claudication, loss of hair on limb	D. Dry skin, claudication, loss of hair on limb
	What is the difference between edema and lymphadema A. High content of protein in lymphadema B. Low content of protein in lymphadema C. High content of fibrin in lympadema D. Low content of fibrin in lymphadema	A. High content of protein in lymphadema
	How long should you continue to check ulcer location after they have healed? A. 12 months B. 18 months C. 24 months D. 30 months	C. 24 months
	Which is NOT an impairment of wound healing with a diabetic? A. Delayed clot mechanism B. Impaired migration of phagocytes C. Diminished fibroblast contraction D. Decreased wound healing time	D. Decreased wound healing time
	What functions of the body does a neuropathy affect? A. Sensation B. Sensation and autonomic nervous system C. Sensation and motor D. Sensation, motor, and autonomic nervous system	D. Sensation, motor, and autonomic nervous system
	If you have red or white based blisters with fibrinous exudates and sensitive to touch, what type of burn do you have? A. 1st Degree B. 2nd Degree C. 3rd Degree D. 4th Degree	B. 2nd Degree
	At what stage in the healing process does burn wounds majorly different than other wounds? A. Inflammatory because you don’t need to stop bleeding in burn wounds B. Proliferative because you don’t need contraction and wound closure in burn wounds C. Maturation because scar tissue takes a lot longer to heal D. Maturation because collagen fibers are never aligned correctly	C. Maturation because scar tissue takes a lot longer to heal
	What happens because pain information is relayed to the somatosensory cortex A. Head is turned towards the location of pain B. Emotional aspect of pain is perceived C. Pain is perceived D. Autonomic responses to the pain	C. Pain is perceived
	What type of wound closure technique is a skin graft? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Partial Thickness	A. Primary
	Which conditions in light therapy will result in the deepest tissue absorption A. Shorter wavelength and more melanin pigmentation B. Shorter wavelength and less melanin pigmentation C. Longer wavelength and more melanin pigmentation D. Longer wavelength and less melanin pigmentation	D. Longer wavelength and less melanin pigmentation
	What pressure does a short stretch bandage provide? A. 50-60 mmhg at ankle and 25-28 mmhg below knee B. 40-50 mmhg at ankle and 20-23 mmhg below knee C. 30-40 mmhg at ankle and 17-20 mmhg below knee D. 20-30 mmhg at ankle and 12-15 mmhg below knee.	C. 30-40 mmhg at ankle and 17-20 mmhg below knee
	When treating pressure ulcers with negative pressure wound therapy, what stage does the wound need to be in? A. Stage 1 or 2 B. Stage 2 or 3 C. Stage 3 or 4 D. Stage 4 only	C. Stage 3 or 4
	Which diagnoses are not commonly treated with Oxygen Therapy A. Diabetic Foot ulcer B. Necrotizing soft tissue infections C. Chronic refractory osteomylitis D. Deep vein thrombosis	D. Deep vein thrombosis
	How many hours of rehab a day does a patient have to be able to complete to qualify for Medicare Prospective Payment System (IRF)? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4	C. 3
	What is the best marketing strategy for an outpatient wound care facility? A. Mailed Flyers B. Billboards C. TV commercials D. Word of mouth	D. Word of mouth
	How long after an occurrence can a plaintiff file a law suit? A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years	B. 2-3 years
	When a patient has a sacral wound and needs a wound vac, how should that be performed? A. Place the vac suction over the wound and have the patient always lie prone B. Place the vac suction over the wound and let the patient lie supine C. Place the vac suction on a granufoam bridge that goes from the wound to the stomach D. Nothing, you can’t place use a wound vac on a sacral wound.	C. Place the vac suction on a granufoam bridge that goes from the wound to the stomach
	• On the bottom of the foot and the palm of the hand, the stratum lucidum is between which two layers of skin? a. Basale and Spinosum b. Spinosum and Granulosum c. Granulosum and Corneum d. Corneum and Basale	• On the bottom of the foot and the palm of the hand, the stratum lucidum is between which two layers of skin? a. Basale and Spinosum b. Spinosum and Granulosum c. Granulosum and Corneum d. Corneum and Basale
	• Which is NOT a facet of the hemostasis phase of healing? a. Development of fibrin clot b. Coagulation of blood c. Release of growth factor d. Migration of macrophages	d. Migration of macrophages
	• A stage 1 pressure ulcer is categorized by: a. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness b. Partial thickness less of dermis c. Serum filled blister d. Slough or eschar in the wound bed	a. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness
	• Most patients with arterial disease will prefer to sleep: a. with their feet down b. on their side c. with a pillow between their legs d. however they want that night	a. with their feet down
	• Which color-cause is NOT properly matched? a. Red – granulation b. Yellow – slough c. Green – disease d. Black – exudates	c. Green – disease
	• Which type of debridement is NOT considered “Selective Debridement”? a. Autolytic b. Mechanical c. Enzymatic d. Solutions	d. Solutions
	• Alginates are made of: a. cotton b. seaweed c. linen d. silicone	b. seaweed
	• Which cause of venous insufficiency ulcers fits the description “lack of ambulation leading to high pressure in the LE”: a. Reduced interstitial fibrinolysis b. Trauma c. Leukocyte trapping theory d. Calf pump failure	d. Calf pump failure
	• What surgery often leads to secondary lymphedema? a. amputation b. mastectomy c. TKA d. open heart surgery	b. mastectomy
	• In which area of physical therapy will you deal with pressure ulcers? a. wound care b. geriatrics c. orthopedics d. every area of PT	d. every area of PT
	• Which is NOT a reason to regulate blood sugar as a diabetic patient? a. Augment normal immune defenses b. Improves wound healing outcomes c. Contributes to an overall sense of wellbeing d. All of the above	d. All of the above
	• What are the layers of the skin, in order from the deepest to most peripheral? a. Cornum, spinosus, grandulosum, basale. b. Basale, grandulosum, spinosus, cornum. c. Grandulosum, basale, cornum, spinosus. d. Spinosus, basale, grandulosum, cornum.	b. Basale, grandulosum, spinosus, cornum.
	• Which type of wound pain is often most traumatic for the patient? a. pain from ulcers b. diabetic neuropathy c. vascular related pain d. burn pain	d. burn pain
	• What percentage of the body should be burned to require treatment by a burn center? a. greater an 10% b. greater than 30% c. greater than 50% d. 95	a. greater an 10%
	• Phantom limb pain can be regulated by: a. morphine b. good pain management before amputation c. ignoring the pain d. exercising the non-amputated limb	b. good pain management before amputation
	• What factor does not influence wound healing? a. nutrition b. age c. hair color d. tissue oxygenation	c. hair color
	• UV light treatment is used to: a. get a tan in the hospital b. provide vitamin D to the body c. kill microbes d. prepare for surf season	c. kill microbes
	• What is a common problem with long-stretch bandanges? a. amount of compression given is hard to regulate b. bandages are too stretchy c. bandages do not return to their original shape after use d. it is harder to teach patients to self-wrap	a. amount of compression given is hard to regulate
	• V.A.C. stand for: a. vascular/arterial compression b. vaulted aqua ceilings c. vacuums adjusted compression d. vacuum assisted closure	d. vacuum assisted closure
	• What item is okay for patients to wear during treatment in a hyperbaric chamber: a. lipstick b. jewelry c. alcohol based perfume d. hairspray	b. jewelry
	• Which of the following is a DON’T in wound care documentation? a. Use of nonstandard abbreviations b. Date and time of all treatments c. Note patient noncompliance d. Note all family and patient education	a. Use of nonstandard abbreviations
	• Who would NOT be a part of the wound care team? a. Patient b. Physical Therapist c. Surgeon d. Chiropractor	d. Chiropractor
	• What is the most important facet of physical therapy in dealing with law suits? a. Witnesses b. Documentation c. Kindness to patients d. A good lawyer	b. Documentation
	• What goes in direct contact with the periwound skin? a. occlusive dressing b. granufoam c. Wound V.A.C. d. adhesive draping	d. adhesive draping
	What is NOT a function of the epidermis? A. Keeps the nutrients in the skin B. Assists in the movement of venous return C. Prevents dehydration of other tissues D. Protects from organisms, toxins, mechanical injury, and light	B. Assists in the movement of venous return
	What phase of wound healing involves clotting factors being released? A. Inflammatory Phase B. Maturation Phase C. Proliferative Phase D. Hemostasis	D. Hemostasis
	What characterizes a stage 2 pressure ulcer? A. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area, usually over a bony prominence C. Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, or muscle is not esposed D. Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle	A. Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough
	When not receiving enough Vitamin C in your diet, what is the deficiency deficit that will be present? A. Decreased epithelialization and collagen synthesis B. Decreased protein synthesis C. Decreased immunity and collagen synthesis D. Decreased tensile strength	D. Decreased tensile strength
	What is NOT an aspect of your test and measures for a patient with a wound? A. Posture B. Muscle ability C. Prosthetic Requirements D. Medications	D. Medications
	What technique of debridement is used when the intervention includes an enzymatic solution? A. Cross-Hatching B. Tangental cutting C. Cross Friction Sanding D. Water-Based Debridement	A. Cross-Hatching
	What is NOT a reason to dress a wound? A. To optimize the environment B. To provide compression to the area C. To minimize the infection risk D. To minimize further trauma	B. To provide compression to the area
	What is NOT a sign of a Venous Insufficiency Ulcer? A. Commonly shallow B. Irregularly shaped C. No pulses in the extremity D. None of the Above	C. No pulses in the extremity
	What is the goal when treating lymphedema? A. Cure the patient B. Prevent skin breakdown C. Prevent Infection D. Both B and C	D. Both B and C
	What is the recommended time that a patient should relieve the pressure in a wheelchair? A. Every 3-4 Hours B. Every 2-3 Hours C. Every 1-2 Hours D. Every 15-30 Minutes	D. Every 15-30 Minutes
	What percentage of the United States population has diabetes? A. 3.7% B. 5.2% C. 8.3% D. 15.1%	C. 8.3%
	What is the impairment for patients with diabetes in the Hemostasis stage of healing? A. Delayed Fibrin Plug, Decreased release of growth factors/cytokines B. Deficient Neutrophils, Impaired Migration and function of phagocytes and macrophages C. Poor Cellular response to GF and Chomokines, Impaired fibroblast contraction D. Ineffective matrix turnover	A. Delayed Fibrin Plug, Decreased release of growth factors/cytokines
	What is the instrument called that removes skin for grafts? A. Myotome B. Dermatome C. Scalpel D. Scissors	B. Dermatome
	When is the best time to treat a patient with a burn? A. In the morning B. After Lunch C. In the evening D. At dressing changes	D. At dressing changes
	What is NOT an effect of using electrical fields for wound healing? A. Increasing blood flow B. Encouraging granulation and fibroblast activity C. Decrease pain for the patient D. Antibacterial effect on wounds	C. Decrease pain for the patient
	What is a contraindication for using electrical stimulation for wound repair after surgery? A. Cardiac pacemaker B. Wound larger than 6 cm2 C. Wound larger than 10 cm2 D. None of the above	A. Cardiac pacemaker
	What is NOT a biological effect of using laser light in therapy? A. Increased cellular proliferation B. Increased cellular differentiation C. Increased mitochondrial ATP production D. Decreased Collagen Synthesis	D. Decreased Collagen Synthesis
	How many mm of pressure does the light Coban 2 Layer Compression Therapy put on the area to which it is applied at full stretch? A. 10-20 B. 20-30 C. 30-40 D. 40-50	B. 20-30
	What is an effect of Negative Pressure Wound Therapy? A. Reduces localized edema B. Increases localized blood flow C. Promotes epithelialization D. All of the Above	D. All of the Above
	What is NOT a contraindication for Oxygen Therapy? A. Patients with pneumothorax B. Patients with a diabetic foot ulcer C. Patients on chemotherapy for cance D. None of the above	B. Patients with a diabetic foot ulcer
	What is the most important step to receive reimbursement for your services? A. Appealing denied Claims B. Documentation C. Educating the patient about what will be covered by their health plan D. Reviewing for yourself what the patient’s health plan will cover	B. Documentation
	What is necessary to show in a wound care program? A. The benefit to the patient B. The appropriateness of the caregiver C. Cost effectiveness of the interventions D. All of the Above	D. All of the Above
	What is considered economic damage to an individual? A. Loss of enjoyment of life B. Pain and suffering C. Loss of a particular service D. Disfigurement	C. Loss of a particular service
	What are difficulties getting an ABI with swollen leg A. Possibility of getting a poor reading B. Pain with Compression with Arterial Disease C. Decreased pulse sound using a doplar D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	How many people are affected my lymphedema in the U.S.? A. 500,000 B. 1,000,000 C. 2,000,000 D. 3,000,000	C. 2,000,000
	Who is at risk for pressure ulcers? A. Patients with a neuropathy B. Patients that are immobile as a result or a neurological deficit, orthopedic involvement, or comatose C. Patients who are poorly nourished, atrophied, or incontinent D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	How many burn injuries occur in or around the home? A. 25% B. 40% C. 90% D. 75%	D. 75%
	What is a purpose of the dermis? A. Support microcirculation network of the body B. Protect C. Stop water from exiting/entering the body D. Produce skin color	A. Support microcirculation network of the body
	What is a dimension of pain? A. Sensory discriminative B. Motivational affective C. Cognitive evaluative D. All of the Above	D. All of the Above
	What is NOT a factor that impedes wound healing? A. Race B. Malnutrition C. Aging D. Osteomyelitis	A. Race
	What is a healing benefit to UVR therapy? A. Promotes accumulation of white blood celss B. Promotes epithelial hyperplasia C. Promotes angiogenesis D. All of the Above	D. All of the Above
	What percent of oxygen do patients inhale with hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A. 60% B. 80% C. 100% D. 120%	C. 100%
	What is NOT part of a trial procedure? A. Case Presentation B. Mediation C. Closing Statements D. Jury Deliberations	B. Mediation

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