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64 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
In Signal Detection Theory, a distractor that has a strength above criterion is called a:

A. Hit
B. False Alarm
C. Miss
D. Correct Rejection
B
In Signal Detection Theory, a distractor that has a strength below criterion is called a:

A. Correct Rejection
B. Miss
C. Hit
D. False Alarm
A
In Signal Detection Theory, a target that has a strength above criterion is called a:

A. Miss
B. False Alarm
C. Correct Rejection
D. Hit
D
In Signal Detection Theory, a target that has a strength below criterion is called a:

A. False Alarm
B. Correct Rejection
C. Miss
D. Hit
C
d' is a measure of:

A. the probability of saying yes to a new word
B. the probability of saying yes to an old word
C. discriminability
D. bias
C
The hit rate is:

A. the probability of saying yes to a new word
B. discriminability
C. the probability of saying yes to an old word
D. bias
C
C is a measure of:

A. the probability of saying yes to an old word
B. the probability of saying yes to a new word
C. discriminability
D. bias
D
The false alarm rate is:

A. bias
B. the probability of saying yes to an old word
C. discriminability
D. the probability of saying yes to a new word
D
In Signal Detection Theory, discriminability can be improved by (you may choose more than one response):

A. decreasing the standard deviation of the signal and noise distributions
B. lowering criterion
C. raising crierion
D. increasing the distance between the signal and noise distributions
E. increasing the standard deviations of the signal and noise distributions
A, D
In Signal Detection Theory, a more lenient bias can be captured by (you may choose more than one response):

A. raising crierion
B. lowering criterion
C. decreasing the standard deviation of the signal and noise distributions
D. increasing the standard deviations of the signal and noise distributions
E. increasing the distance between the signal and noise distributions
B
Familiarity is thought to be:

A. conscious, fast, continuous and strategic
B. conscious, slow, discrete and strategic
C. unconscious, slow, discrete and automatic
D. unconscious, fast, continuous and automatic
D
Recollection is thought to be:

A. unconscious, slow, discrete and automatic
B. conscious, fast, continuous and strategic
C. unconscious, fast, continuous and automatic
D. conscious, slow, discrete and strategic
D
Item noise models of recognition assume that interference comes primarily from:

A. Other items that appeared on the study list
B. Other items that appeared before, during and after the study list
C. Other items that appeared before the study list
D. Other items that appeared after the study list
A
Context noise models of recognition assume that interference comes primarily from:

A. Other contexts in which the item has been seen
B. A mismatch between the context at study and the context at test
C. Other contexts of significance to the participant
D. Other items that appeared before the study list
A
According to context noise theories of recognition, the word frequency effect occurs because:

A. The contexts in which low frequency words are seen are more discriminable
B. Low frequency words are seen in fewer contexts
C. Low frequency words have more discriminable features
D. High frequency words have more discriminable features
B
According to context noise theories of recognition, the null list strength effect occurs because:

A. Interference from other items is negligible
B. As items become more strongly associated to their contexts they are better remembered
C. As items become stronger they also become more discriminable
D. Interference from other contexts is negligible
A
According to context noise theories of recognition, the null list length effect occurs because:

A. Interference from other items is negligible
B. As items become stronger they also become more discriminable
C. As items become more strongly associated to their contexts they are better remembered
D. Interference from other contexts is negligible
A
How did Craik and Lockhart (1972) suggest that memory research be conducted (you may select more than one)?

A. wherein the experimenter dictates the mechanism of studying
B. wherein objective levels of processing are established from deep to shallow tasks
C. wherein the underlying theoretical structure guides the study
D. wherein the subject studies the material without the intent to learn
A, D
Arrange these tasks in order from shallow to deep levels of processing 1.) identify the part of speech of the word 2.) rate the frequency/commonality of the word 3.) report if the word contains a vowel 4.) rate each words' pleasantness

A. 1,3,4,2
B. 3,2,1,4
C. 3,1,4,2
D. 3,1,2,4
D
Craik and Watkins (1973) showed subjects lists of words (e.g. daughter oil rifle garden grain table football anchor giraffe) and told them that they would need to produce teh last word begining with a given letter (e.g. G), so they had best rehearse that item. They manipulated the amount of time people had to rehearse and in a surprise recall test found:

A. Rehearsal compromized performance
B. Rehearsal had no impact on performance
C. Rehearsal improved performance
B
The main problem(s) for the levels of processing approach were (you may select more than one):

A. Informal: There was no formal model that could predict the levels of recall one might expect for different tasks.
B. Omission: Only addressed processes during study, not at recall.
C. Precision: The notion of a task was poorly defined.
D. Circularity: Deeper processing led to better recall, but the only way to know processing was deeper was to observe recall.
B, D
What is the main difference between the Transfer Appropriate Processing (TAP) approach and the Encoding Specificity (ES) principle?

A. TAP focuses on the learning that occurs at study, while ES also incorporates learning that occurs preexperimentally.
B. TAP focuses on the relationship between study and test, while ES focuses on what happens at test.
C. TAP and ES are really synonymous - there is no major difference.
D. ES extends TAP beyond talking about the overlap of processes to talk about how the information combined with the item at test is reused at test.
D
Under which condition will performance be worst?:

A. when subjects were sober at the time of study and intoxicated during testing.
B. when subjects were sober for both study and test.
C. when subjects were intoxicated for both study and test.
D. when subjects are intoxicated at the time of study and sober during testing.
D
A concept is:

A. A mental representation of concrete objects like dogs, tables and trucks
B. A mental representation that has a truth value
C. The meaning of a word
D. A mental representation of something
D
In Collins & Quillian's (1969) hierarchical model of semantic memory, the notion of cogntiive economy means:

A. Cross connections are created if they make access more efficient
B. Properties are represented many times to make access as efficient as possible
C. That properties are represented at the highest logical level of the hierarchy, so that they are represented as few times as possible
D. Nodes with similar meanings are stored near each other to make access more efficient
C
In Collins & Quillian's (1969) sentence verification experiment, an example of a P1 sentence would be:

A. A canary can sing
B. A canary is a bird
C. A canary can fly
D. A canary has gills
C
In Collins & Quillian's (1969) sentence verification experiment, an example of a S2 sentence would be:

A. A canary is a bird
B. A canary has skin
C. A canary can fly
D. A canary is an animal
D
Conrad (1982) argued that the results from, Collins & Quillian's (1969) sentence verification experiment may have been a result of:

A. The frequency of the properties
B. The particular sentences that Collins and Quillian chose
C. The familiarity of the sentence verification task
D. Connections between concepts that did not fit in the hierarchical scheme
A
In Rips, Shoben and Smith's (1973) feature overlap model, the two kinds of features were:

A. common and discriminating
B. defining and characteristic
C. conceptual and propositional
D. frequent and infrequent
B
According to Rips, Shoben and Smith's (1973) feature overlap model, when comparing two nouns people start by:

A. comparing the number of common defining features to criteria
B. determining if the words match on all of the defining features
C. comparing the number of common defining and characteristic features to criteria
D. comparing the number of common characteristic features to criteria
C
According to Rips, Shoben and Smith's (1973) feature overlap model, people are able to make rapid dissimilar responses because:

A. they compare the common feature count to a low criterion and if it is lower they say no
B. they compare the common feature count to a high criterion and if it is higher they say yes
C. they first look at the defining features and if there are any mismatches they say no
D. they consider both defining and characteristic features
A
According to Rips, Shoben and Smith's (1973) feature overlap model, 'A robin is a bird' is verified faster than 'A robin is an animal' because:

A. robin has fewer mismatching defining features with bird than it does animal
B. robin has fewer mismatching features with bird than it does animal
C. robin has more defining features in common with bird than it does animal
D. robin has more features in common with bird than it does animal
D
According to Rips, Shoben and Smith's (1973) feature overlap model, 'A canary can sing' is verified faster than 'A canary can fly' because:

A. features are stored in order of most defining to least defining
B. features are stored in order of most frequent to least frequent
C. canary has fewer mismatching features with bird than it does animal
D. canary has more features in common with bird than it does animal
A
Which of the following are properties of the spreading activation theory of Collins & Loftus (1975). You may select more than one:

A. the strength of spread decreases with number of paths
B. not hierarchically organized
C. more related concepts have stronger connections
D. activation spreads out in parallel
E. each property is stored as few times as possible
F. defining features have large connection strengths
A, B, C, D
Meyer and Schvanevelt (1971) presented participants with two letter strings and asked them to indicate if they were both words. When they presented a word like NURSE, atop a word like DOCTOR, they found that subjects responded more quickly than if the second word was BUTTER. According to the spreading activation theory of Collins & Loftus (1975), this occurs because:

A. nurse and doctor are often seen together
B. nurse and doctor are related to each other
C. the activation of doctor increases when subjects read nurse
D. the total activation of all of the nodes in the network is larger when the words are connected
C
In statistical theories of semantics, like Latent Semantic Analysis, one starts by creating a raw matrix of counts. In this matrix,

A. the rows correspond to terms and the columns to factors
B. the rows correspond to terms and the columns to features
C. the rows and columns correspond to terms
D. the rows and columns correspond to documents
E. the rows correspond to terms and the columns to documents
E
When applying Latent Semantic Analysis, one starts by creating a raw matrix of counts and then factors this into three matricies. Only a relatively small number (e.g. 300) of the factors are retained. Why is this dimension reduction step used:

A. to make it easier to understand the factors
B. to making working with the resulting vectors more computationally tractable
C. to remove the influence of idiosyncratic word choices
D. so that the vectors can be projected onto the screen so they can be visualized
C
Identify the numbered parts on this diagram of a chemical synapse:

A. 1=Receptors, 2=Axon terminal, 3=Dendritic spine, 4=Vesicles
B. 1=Receptors, 2=Dendritic spine, 3=Axon terminal, 4=Vesicles
C. 1=Vesicles, 2=Dendritic spine, 3=Axon terminal, 4=Receptors
D. 1=Vesicles, 2=Axon terminal, 3=Dendritic spine, 4=Receptors
C
Match the following ion channel types with their definitions:

__ activated by depolarization
__ activated by coocurrence of neurotransmitter and depolarization
__ activated by neurotransmitter

1. Ligand gated
2. Voltage gated
3. Dual gated
2, 3, 1
Order the phases of an action potential:

__ repolarize
__ hyperpolarize
__ depolarize
2, 3, 1
The purpose of Na/K pumps in the neuronal membrane is to:

A. move Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell to establish a negative voltage across the membrane.
B. move K+ out of the cell and Na+ into the cell to eliminate the voltage across the membrane.
C. move Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell to eliminate the voltage across the membrane.
D. move K+ out of the cell and Na+ into the cell to establish a negative voltage across the membrane.
A
Where are the excitatory and inhibitory post synaptic potentials integrated?

A. axon
B. axon hillock
C. dendrite
D. soma
B
Order the following stages of the transmission across the synapse:

__ Synaptic vesicles migrate to membrane and release neurotansmitter
__ If threshold is reached an action potential is produced
__ Voltage gated calcium ion channels open
__ Sodium diffuses into the cell
__ Neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft and binds to ligand gated sodium ion channels causing them to open
2, 5, 1, 4, 3
Match the following terms to their synonyms:

__ tail
__ above
__ side
__ below
__ middle
__ front
1. anterior
2. poterior
3. medial
4. lateral
5. ventral
6. dorsal
Match the parts of the brain with their labels. (SEE IMAGE OF BRAIN):

__ D
__ A
__ F
__ B
__ E
__ C
1. Frontal lobe
2. Parietal lobe
3. Occipital lobe
4. Cerebellum
5. Brainstem
6. Temporal lobe
Which of the following statements best characterizes how we currently think about where memories are located in the brain?

A. Memories are distributed across thousands of synapses and many brain areas, but not uniformly through the brain.
B. Memories are isolated to specific brain circuits.
C. Memories are mediated by specific synapses.
D. Memories are distributed throughout the brain
A
Match the following kinds of memory to the brain areas thought to be primarily responsible for implementaing them:

__ declarative memory
__ nonassociative learning
__ priming
__ classical conditiong: emotional responses
__ skills and habits
__ classical conditioning: musculature
1. medial temporal lobe
2. striatum
3. neocortex
4. amygdala
5. cerebellum
6. reflex pathways
Anterograde amnesia refers to:

A. an inability to remember events prior to a trauma
B. an inability to remember events after a trauma
C. a breakdown in sensory memory
D. a breakdown in short term memory
B
Retroograde amnesia refers to:

A. a breakdown in sensory memory
B. an inability to remember events prior to a trauma
C. a breakdown in short term memory
D. an inability to remember events after a trauma
B
Which of the following tend to be preserved in amnesia (you may select more than one):

A. mirror drawing
B. free recall
C. priming
D. autobiographical memory
E. flashbulb memories
F. cued recall
A, C
The difference between Dementia and Alheimer's is:

A. Alzheimer's and Dementia are two different diseases driven by different disease processes
B. Alzheimer's is the name for a set of symptoms while Dementia is a specific disease that causes those symptoms
C. Dementia is the name for a set of symptoms while Alzheimer's is a specific disease that causes those symptoms
D. Alzheimer's and Dementia have related but somewhat different sets of symptoms
C
Alheimer's is caused by (you may choose more than one response):

A. amyloid plagues
B. a build up of fluid in the brain ventricles
C. neurofibrillary tangles
D. a decrease in the efficiency of neurotransmitter release across the synaptic cleft
A, C
The primary symptoms of Alheimer's are (you may choose more than one response):

A. tremors
B. memory loss
C. confusion
D. trouble breathing
B, C
When infants are shown a complex pattern like a checkerboard repeatedly they look at it less and less. This is called:

A. habituation
B. the conjugate reinforcement paradigm
C. the reminder effect
D. dishabituation
E. novelty preference
A
If after a period of repeated presentation of a complex pattern, a new pattern is shown infants will look at the new pattern. This is called:

A. the reminder effect
B. the conjugate reinforcement paradigm
C. habituation
D. dishabituation
E. novelty preference
D
If after a period of repeated presentation, infants are presented with the old pattern and a new pattern they will prefer to look at the new pattern. This is called:

A. habituation
B. novelty preference
C. the conjugate reinforcement paradigm
D. the reminder effect
E. dishabituation
B
An infants foot is tied to a mobile with a string, so that kicking makes the mobile move. Then the string is removed and memory is measured by the amount that infant kicks in comparison to baseline. This is called:

A. novelty preference
B. the reminder effect
C. the conjugate reinforcement paradigm
D. dishabituation
E. habituation
C
If a three month old learns to kick to make a mobile move in one context they will kick again a week later, but only in that same context (e.g. same crib liner). However, if an adult wiggles the mobile they often start to kick again. This is called:

A. novelty preference
B. the conjugate reinforcement paradigm
C. habituation
D. dishabituation
E. the reminder effect
E
One theory of infantile amnesia proposes that as language, consciousness and the sense of self become more developed the child starts processing information differently. Memories laided down earlier are no longer accessible to this new system. This is called:

A. telescoping
B. memory obsolescence
C. biological factors
B
One theory of infantile amnesia proposes that changes in brain structure lead to an inability to retrieve memories. This is called:

A. biological factors
B. memory obsolescence
C. telescoping
A
One theory of infantile amnesia proposes that because we tend to remember events from the past as having occurred more recently than they did, infant memories before the age of three might be remembered as having occurred at age four or five. This is called:

A. telescoping
B. memory obsolescence
C. biological factors
A
In older children (5-12 years of age) memory generally improves. This improvement has been attributed to (you may choose more than one response):

A. increases in immediate memory capacity
B. improvements in domain knowledge
C. increases in the speed of processing
D. increases in long term memory capacity
E. the development of inhibitory control
F. acquisition of memory strategies
A, B, C, F
Which of the following tasks show large age related decrements (you may choose more than one response):

A. cued recall
B. implicit memory tasks
C. simple span tasks
D. recognition
E. free recall
A, E
As we get older memory is generally impaired. This impairment has been attributed to (you may choose more than one response):

A. brain related deterioration of the semantic subsystem
B. fear induced by the understanding our performance on cognitive tasks is declining
C. disuse as people become generally less active
D. a lack of inhibitory control
E. decreases in the speed of processing
F. decreases in mental resources
G. brain related deterioration of the episodic subsystem
C, D, E, F, G