• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/430

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

430 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Overachievement in one area to offset real or perceived deficiencies in another area
Napoleon complex: diminutive man becoming emperor
Nurse with low self esteem works double shifts so her supervisor will like her.
Compensation
Expression of an emotional conflict through the development of a physical symptom, usually sensorimotor in nature.
Teenager forbidden to see X-rated movies is tempted to do so by friends and develops blindness, and the teenager is unconcerned about the loss of sight
Conversion
Failure to acknowledge an unbearable condition; failure to admit the reality of a situation of how one enables the problem to continue.
Diabetic person eating chocolate candy
Spending money freely when broke
Waiting 3 days to seek help for severe abdominal pain
Denial
Ventilation of intense feelings toward persons less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings.
Person who is mad at the boss yells at his/her spouse
Child who is harassed by a bully at school mistreats a younger sibling
Displacement
Dealing with emotional conflict by a temporary alteration in consciousness or identity
Amnesia that prevents recall of yesterday’s auto accident
Adult remembers nothing of childhood sexual abuse
Disossciation
Immobilization of a portion of the personality resulting from unsuccessful completion of tasks in a developmental stage
Never learning to delay gratification
Lack of a clear sense of identity as an adult
Fixation
: Modeling actions and opinions of influential others while searching for identity, or aspiring to reach a personal, social, or occupational goal
Nursing student becoming a CCU nurse because this is the specialty of an instructor she admires
Identification
Separation of the emotions of a painful event or situation from the facts involved; acknowledging the facts but not the emotions.
Person shows no emotions when discussing a serious car accident
Intellectualization
Unconscious blaming of unacceptable inclinations or thoughts on an external object
Man who has thought about same-gender sexual relationship, but never had one, beats a man who is gay
Person with many prejudices loudly identifies others as bigots
Projection
Excusing own behavior to avoid guilt, responsibility, conflict, anxiety, or loss of self respect
Student blames failure on teacher being mean
Man says he beats his wife because she does not listen to him
Rationalization
Acting the opposite of what one thinks or feels
Women who never wanted to have children becomes a super mom
Person who despises the boss tells everyone what a great boss she is
Reaction Formation
Moving back to a previous developmental stage to feel safe or have needs met
Five year old asks for a bottle when new baby brother is being fed
Man pouts like a 4 year old if he is not the center of girlfriend’s attention
Regression
Excluding emotionally painful or anxiety provoking thoughts and feelings from conscious awareness
Women has no memory of the mugging she suffered yesterday
Women has no memory before age 7 when she was removed from abusive parents
Repression
Overt or covert antagonism toward remembering or processing anxiety producing information
Nurse is too busy with tasks to spend time talking to a dying patient
Person attends court ordered tx for alcoholism but refuses to participate
Resistance
Substituting a socially acceptable activity for an impulse that is unacceptable
Person who has quit smoking sucks on hard candy when the urge to smoke arises
Person goes for a 15 minute walk when tempted to eat junk food.
Sublimation
Components of a therapeutic relationship
•Trust: Behaviors such as caring, interest, understanding, consistency, honesty, promise keeping, listening, congruence (words & actions match)
•Genuine interest: Self comfort, self awareness of strengths and limitations, clear focus
•Empathy: Putting oneself in client’s shoes, client and nurse giving “gift of self”, Different from sympathy (feelings of concern or compassion; focus shifting to nurse’s feelings)
•Acceptance: No judgments; set boundaries
•Positive regard: Unconditional nonjudgmental attitude
Uses aspects of personality, experience, values, feelings, intelligence, needs, coping skills, perceptions to establish relationships beneficial to clients (Developed by H. Peplau)
Therapeutic use of self
tool to learn about oneself
4 quadrants: open/public self, blind/unaware self, hidden/private self, unknown
•Goal: To move qualities from quadrants 2, 3, 4, into quadrant 1
Johari Window
Establishing a Therapeutic relationship: Peplau’s model of 3 phases, overlapping & interlocking of phases
•Orientation
•Working
•Termination
Meeting nurse, client
Establishment of roles
Discuss purpose and parameters of future meetings
Clarification of expectations
Identification of clients problems
Nurse/client contract/confidentiality, duty to warn/self disclosure
Orientation phase
Problem identification: issues or concerns identified by client; examination of clients feelings & responses
Exploitation: examination of feelings & responses; development of better coping skills, more positive self image, behavior change, independence
Possible transference/counter transference: the client treats the nurse like someone they know
Working Phase
Begins when clients problems are resolved
Ends when relationship is ended
Deals with feelings of anger or abandonment that may occur; client may feel termination as impending loss
Termination Phase
Behaviors diminishing therapeutic relationships
Inappropriate boundaries: relationship becomes social or intimate
Feelings of sympathy: encouraging client dependency
Nonacceptance: of client, avoidance
Teacher: coping, problem solving, medication regimin, community resources
Caregiver: therapeutic relationship, physical care
Advocate: ensuring privacy & dignity, informed consent, access to services, safety from abuse & exploitation
Parent surrogate
Therapeutic roles of a nurse in a relationship
Exchange of information
literal words spoken
Verbal communication
pocess all messages used to give meaning congruent or incongruent messages
Non verbal communication
Boundaries for therapeutic communication most comfortable distance is
when nurse and client are 3-6 feet apart
Therapeutic communication
Touch five types
Functional/professional
Social/polite
Friendship/warmth
Love/intimacy
Sexual/arousal
This focuses on the clients needs the goals are to est a therapeutic relationship, identify client concerns, assess client perceptions, facilitate client expression of emotions, teach client and family necessary self care skills
Therapeutic Communication
This concentrates exclusively on what the client says
Active listening
Watching nonverbal actions as the speaker communicates
Active observation
The nurse needs to use_________ not abstract messages
concrete
Which one of the following would be a nontherapeutic communication technique
reassuring
reflecting
focusing
exploring
Reassuring: is a non therapeutic technique because it attempts to dispel the clients feelings
_______, ________, and _________ have an effect on coping with ilness
Age, growth, and development
Clients of the Russian culture often welcome the use of medications for tx of mental illness
False: use home remedies first and are often reluctant to take medications
In culture aspect_______ is best source of info
Client
The nurse should have general cultural knowledge in________, _______ __________, and ________
preferences, health practices, and beliefs
Self awareness issues with culture
Be genuine and caring, ask how you can help with spiritual, religious or health practices, recognize own feelings or prejudices, remember the clients response to illness is complex and unique
A behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern (Clinically significant)
Mental Disorder
Difficult to define
No single universal definition
Many components influenced by factors
Dynamic, ever changing state
Mental Health
Influencing factors for mental health (3)
Individual (personal)
Interpersonal (relationship)
Social/cultural (environemental)
Taxonomy of American Psychiatric Association
DSM-IV-R
DSM-IV-R Classification
Major psychiatric disorders except mental retardation, personality disorders
AXIS I
DSM-IV-R Classification
Mental retardation and personality disorders
AXIS II
DSM-IV-R Classification
Current medical conditions potentially relevant
AXIS III
DSM-IV-R Classification
Psychosocial and environmental problems
AXIS IV
Dont dx before dealing with a medical/physical problem because?
The mental dx will never go away
Aristotle and imbalances of the four humors
Blood, water, yellow & black bile
Creation of asylums
Period of enlightenment (1790's)
The definition of mental health is standardized and universally accepted T/F?
False: There is no single definition of mental health, which has many components and is influenced by a myriad of factors
Development of psychotropic drugs
1950's
Deinstitutionalization
Legislation for disability income (SSI)
Changes in commitment laws
Community mental health movement
More than ____% of americans 18 and older have diagnosable mental disorder
26%
Mental health is an economic burden that exceeds all types of _______?
Cancer
There is a revolving door effect due to ________?
deinstitutionalization
cachinnate
to laugh loudly
What does the image depict; define it
Quadrant 1: Open/public self—qualities one knows about oneself and others also know
Quadrant 2: Blind/unaware self—qualities known only to others
Quadrant 3: Hidden/private self—qualities known only to oneself
Quadrant 4: Unknown—an empty quadrant to symbolize qualities as yet undiscovered by oneself or others
Purposes of this are:
Standardize nomenclature, language
Identify defining characteristics or symptoms
Assist in identifying underlying causes
DSM-IV-R
This seeks innate desires
Is pleasure seeking
Agressive
Sexual impulses
ID
This has morals
Is ethical
Likes values and is parental
Superego
This is mature, and has adaptive behavior
Ego
Major site of tension and gratification is the mouth, lips, and tongue; includes biting and sucking activities.
Id present at birth
Ego develops gradually from rudimentary structure present at birth.
ORAL
Birth to 18 months
Anus and surrounding area are major source of interest.
Acquisition of voluntary sphincter control (toilet training)
ANAL
18-36 months
Genital focus of interest, stimulation, and excitement
Penis is organ of interest for both sexes.
Masturbation is common.
Penis envy (wish to possess penis) seen in girls; oedipal complex (wish to marry opposite-sex parent and be rid of same-sex parent) seen in boys and girls.
PHALLIC/oedipal
3-5 years
Resolution of oedipal complex
Sexual drive channeled into socially appropriate activities such as school work and sports
Formation of the superego
Final stage of psychosexual development
LATENCY
5-11 or 13 years
Begins with puberty and the biologic capacity for orgasm; involves the capacity for true intimacy
GENITAL
11-13 years
Viewing the world as safe and reliable; relationships as nurturing, stable, and dependable (Erikson)
Trust vs. mistrust
Infant
Achieving a sense of control and free will (Erikson)
Autonomy vs. shame
Toddler
Beginning development of a conscience; learning to manage conflict and anxiety (Erikson)
Initiative vs. guilt
Pre-school
Emerging confidence in own abilities; taking pleasure in accomplishments (Erikson)
Industry vs. inferiority
School age
Formulating a sense of self and belonging (Erikson)
Identity vs. role confusion
Adolescence
Forming adult, loving relationships and meaningful attachments to others (Erikson)
Intimacy vs. isolation
Young adult
Being creative and productive; establishing the next generation (Erikson)
Generativity vs. stagnation
Middle adult
Accepting responsibility for one's self and life (Erikson)
Ego integrity vs. despair
Maturity
involves clients' interactions with one another, including practicing interpersonal relationship skills, giving one another feedback about behavior, and working cooperatively as a group to solve day-to-day problems.
Milieu Therapy
First American psychiatric nurse
Linda Richards
First training site for nurses to work with the mentally ill
McLean Hospital
First psychiatric nursing textbook
Nursing Mental Diseases
Publishes in 1920
First school of nursing to include a psyschiatric nursing course
Johns Hopkins (1913)
Required schools to include psychiatric nursing experience
National League for Nursing (NLN)
Developed the Therapeutic nurse-client relationship, interpersonal dimension (foundation for current practice)
H. Peplau
Basic level functions for an RN
Counseling
Milieu therapy
Self care activities
Psychobiologic interventions
Health teaching
Case management
Health promotion, maintenance
Advanced degree nurse functions
Psychotherapy
Prescriptive authority for drugs
Consultation, liaison
Evaluation
Student concerns and psychiatric mental health
Saying the wrong thing
Knowing what to do
Being rejected or not talking to the student
Asking personal questions
Hanling bizarre, inappropriate, or sexually aggressive behavior
Handling feeling unsafe
Seeing someone they know on unit
Dealing with similar problems or backgrounds
is the process by which the nurse gains recognition of his or her own feelings, beliefs,
and attitudes.
Self Awareness
This takes a long time and is lengthy, expensive and practiced on a limited basis today
Psychoanalysis
Developed 8 stages of psychosocial development
Erik Erikson
This is very important in looking at interpersonal relationships
Therapeutic milieu or community
Developed hierarchy of needs
Abraham Maslow
Basic physiologic
Safety and security
Love and belonging
Self esteem
Self actualization
Hierarchy of Needs
Client centered therapy (focus on clients role)
Unconditional positive regard, genuineness, empathetic understanding was developed by whom?
Carl Rogers
This focuses on behaviors and behavior changes not how the mind works
Behaviorism
Classical condiditong developed by
Ivan Pavlov
Operant conditioning
All behavior is learned
Behavior with consequences (reward or punishment)
Recurrance of rewarded behavior
Developed by whom?
B.F. Skinner
Behavior modification
Token economy (used alot on adolescent unit)
Systemic desensitization
Are all types of?
Treatment modalities
True or False
Abraham Maslow was the 1st theorist to focus on clients role?
False
Carl Rogers
Overall belief of this theory is deviations occur when the person is out of touch with self or environment
Existential Theories
Consists of 11 irrational beliefs leading to unhappiness
Rational emotive therapy
Albert Ellis
Consists of life with meaning; therapy as search for that meaning. Takes a long time
Logo therapy
Viktor Frankl
Emphasis on self awareness
Identification of thoughts, feelings in the here and now
Gestalt Therapy
Frederick "Fritz" Perls
Focus on person's behavior and how that behavior keeps person from achieving life goals
Reality Therapy
William Glasser
Name the 4 stages of Crisis Intervention
Exposure to stressor
Increased anxiety when usual coping ineffective
Increased efforts to cope
Disequilibrium, significant distress
Categories of crisis are (3)
Maturational
Situational
Adventitious
Duration for crisis is usually
4 to 6 weeks
Outcome for crisis
Resolution to functioning at pre crisis level, higher level or lower level
Name the 2 crisis intervention techniques
Directive interventions: Assess health status, promote problem solving
Supportive Interventions: Deal with person's needs for empathetic understanding
Which of the following includes the concept of automatic thoughts?

A. Cognitive therapy
B. Rational therapy
C. Logotherapy
D. Gestalt therapy
B. Rational emotive therapy, focuses on 11 irrational beliefs and automatic thoughts
One of the most important skills a nurse can develop
Crucial to the success of interventions with clients requiring psychiatric care
Therapeutic Relationship
Components of therapeutic relationship are (5)
Trust
Genuine Interest
Empathy
Acceptance
Positive Regard
Behaviors such as
Caring
Understanding
Consistency
Honesty
Promise keeping
Iistening
all facilitate this component of the therapeutic relationship
Trust
Self comfort
Self awareness of strengths and limitations
Clear focus
all facilitate this component of the therapeutic relationship
Genuine interest
Putting oneself in clients shoes
Different from sympathy
all facilitate this component of the therapeutic relationship
Empathy
No judgements; set boundaries
all facilitate this component of the therapeutic relationship
Acceptance
Unconditional nonjudgemental attitude
all facilitate this component of the therapeutic relationship
Positive Regard
Values (sense of right and wrong, code of conduct for living)
Values clairification: choosing, prioritizing, acting
Beliefs
Attitudes
are all part of
Self awareness
True or False
A nurse displays empathy by showing feelings of concern or compassion?
False
Empathy is putting oneself into the clients shoes
Sympathy is showing feelings of compassion or concern
Name the patterns of knowing (4)
Empirical (learned from nursing science)
Personal (life experiences)
Ethical (moral nursing knowledge of right and wrong)
Aesthetic (nursing 6th sense)
Fifth pattern of knowing
Unknowing: the nurse admits lack of knowledge or understanding of clients world
Name the 3 types of relationships
Social
Intimate
Therapeutic
True or False
A social relationship involves superficial communication for the purposes of friendship to task accomplishment
True
A social relationship occurs for friendship, socialization, companionship or task achievement. It involves superficial communication with shifting roles
Establishing a therapeutic relationship is met in 3 phases what are they and who developed them?
Orientation
Working
Termination
H. Peplau
This part of the therapeutic relationship begins when the nurse and client meet and ends when the client begins to identify problems to examine. During this phase, the nurse establishes roles, the purpose of meeting, and the parameters of subsequent meetings; identifies the client's problems; and clarifies expectations.
Orientation Phase
This part of the therapeutic relationship is usually divided into two subphases: During problem identification, the client identifies the issues or concerns causing problems. During exploitation, the nurse guides the client to examine feelings and responses and to develop better coping skills and a more positive self-image; this encourages behavior change and develops independence. (Note that Peplau's use of the word exploitation had a very different meaning than current usage, which involves unfairly
using or taking advantage of a person or situation. For that reason, this phase is better conceptualized as intense exploration and elaboration on earlier themes that the client discussed.)
Working Phase
is the final stage in the nurse–client relationship. It begins when the problems are resolved, and it ends when the relationship is ended. Both nurse and client usually have feelings about ending the relationship; the client especially may feel the termination as an impending loss. Often clients try to avoid termination by acting angry or as if the problem has not been resolved.
Termination Phase
if the client has had negative experiences with authority figures, such as a parent or teachers or principals, he or she may display similar reactions of negativity and resistance to the nurse, who also is viewed as an authority.
Transference
when the nurse responds to the client based on personal unconscious needs and conflicts; this is called
Countertransference
Name the 3 behaviors that diminish therapeutic relationships.
Inappropriate boundaries(relationship becomes social or intimate)
Feelings of sympathy (encouraging client dependency)
Nonacceptance of client, avoidance
During the working phase of the nurse-client relationship, which one of the following would occur?
A. Expectations are clairified
B. Nurse-client contract is est
C. Feeling of loss are addressed
D. Client feelings are examied
D. Clients feelings are examined.
During the working phase the client identifies issues or concerns and his/her feelings and responses are examined.
1. Building trust is important in
A. The orientation phase of the relationship
B. The problem identification subphase of the relationship
C. All phases of the relationship
D. The exploitation subphase of the relationship
A. Orientation phase
Abstract standards that provide a person with his or her code of conduct are
A. Values
B. Attitudes
C. Beliefs
D. Personal philosophy
A. Values
Ideas that one holds as true are
A. Values
B. Attitudes
C. Beliefs
D. Personal philosophy
C. Beliefs
The emotional frame of reference by which one sees the world is created by
A. Values
B. Attitudes
C. Beliefs
D. Personal philosophy
B. Attitudes
_________________ The nurse reviews the client's medication regimen.
(Patterns of knowing)
Empirical
_________________ The nurse notices that the client is in a dark cluttered room. Knowing the importance of environment, the nurse begins to open the drapes.
(Patterns of knowing)
Aesthetic
_________________ The nurse's grandmother also suffered from dementia, so the client's behavior does not surprise her.
(Patterns of knowing)
Personal
_________________ As report is given, the nurse realizes client confidentiality has been breached.
(Patterns of knowing)
Ethical
The Department of Health and Human Services estimates that of the 200,000 chronically homeless persons in the United States, the prevalence of mental illness and substance abuse is
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 70%
D. 85%
B. 40%
Hospitals established by Dorothea Dix were designed to provide which of the following?
A. Asylum
B. Confinement
C. Therapeutic milieu
D. Public safety
A. Asylum
Hildegard Peplau is best known for her writing about which of the following?
A. Community-based care
B. Humane treatment
C. Psychopharmacology
D. Therapeutic nurse–client relationship
D. Therapeutic nurse-client relationship
How many adults in the United States who need mental health services actually receive care?
A. 1 in 2
B. 1 in 3
C. 1 in 4
D. 1 in 5
C. 1 in 4
Name the five types of touch
Functional/professional
Social/Polite
Friendship/warmth
Love/Intimacy
Sexual/lovers
Name the 4 therapeutic roles of the nurse in the therapeutic relationship
Teacher
Caregiver
Advocate
Parent surrogate
When words and actions match this is defined as
congruence
When words and actions do not match this is defined as
incongruent
True or False
Assertive communication focuses on identifying negative feelings?
False
Assertive communication focuses on the expression of positive or negative feelings or ideas in an open, honest, direct manner
0-18 inches
Intimate zone
This amount of space is comfortable for parents with young children, people who mutually desire personal contact, or people whispering. Invasion of this intimate zone by anyone else is threatening and produces anxiety.
18-36 inches
Personal zone
This distance is comfortable between family and friends who are talking.
4-12 feet
Social zone
This distance is acceptable for communication in social, work, and business settings.
12-25 feet
Public zone
This is an acceptable distance between a speaker and an audience, small groups, and other informal functions
The study of distance zones between people during communication is called
Proxemics
clear statements of intent, such as “I want to die.” The message is clear that the client is thinking of suicide or self-harm.
Overt cue
are vague or hidden messages that need interpretation and exploration—for example, if a client says, “Nothing can help me.” The nurse is unsure, but it sounds as if the client might be saying he feels so hopeless and helpless that he plans to commit suicide.
Covert
Client: “I had an accident.”
Nurse: “Tell me about your accident.”
This is an example of which therapeutic communication technique?
A. Making observations
B. Offering self
C. General lead
D. Reflection
C. General lead
“Earlier today you said you were concerned that your son was still upset with you. When I stopped by your room about an hour ago, you and your son seemed relaxed and smiling as you spoke to each other. How did things go between the two of you?”
This is an example of which therapeutic communication technique?
A. Consensual validation
B. Encouraging comparison
C. Accepting
D. General lead
A. Consensual validation
“Why do you always complain about the night nurse? She is a nice woman and a fine nurse and has five kids to support. You're wrong when you say she is noisy and uncaring.”
This example reflects which nontherapeutic technique?
A. Requesting an explanation
B. Defending
C. Disagreeing
D. Advising
B. Defending
“How does Jerry make you upset?” is a nontherapeutic communication technique because it
A. Gives a literal response
B. Indicates an external source of the emotion
C. Interprets what the client is saying
D. Is just another stereotyped comment
B. Indicates external source of emotion
Client: “I was so upset about my sister ignoring my pain when I broke my leg.”
Nurse: “When are you going to your next diabetes education program?”
This is a nontherapeutic response because the nurse has
A. Used testing to evaluate the client's insight
B. Changed the topic
C. Exhibited an egocentric focus
D. Advised the client what to do
B. Changed the topic
When the client says, “I met Joe at the dance last week,” what is the best way for the nurse to ask the client to describe her relationship with Joe?
A. “Joe who?”
B. “Tell me about Joe.”
C. “Tell me about you and Joe.”
D. “Joe, you mean that blond guy with the dark blue eyes?”
C. Tell me about you and Joe
Which of the following is a concrete message?
A. “Help me put this pile of books on Marsha's desk.”
B. “Get this out of here.”
C. “When is she coming home?”
D. “They said it is too early to get in.”
A. “Help me put this pile of books on Marsha's desk.”
Indicating reception
Accepting
Allowing the client to take the initiative in introducing the topic
Broad opening
Searching for mutual understanding, for accord in the meaning of the words
Consensual validation
Asking that similarities and differences be noted
Encouraging compairison
Asking the client to verbalize what he/she perceives
Encouraging description of perceptions
Asking the client to appraise the quality of his/her experiences
Encouraging expression
Delving further into a subject or idea
Exploring
Concentrating on a single point
Focusing
Asking the client to consider kinds of behavior likely to be appropriate in future situations
Formulating a plan of action
Giving encouragement to continue
General lead
Making available the facts that the client needs
Giving information
Telling the client what to do
Advising
Indicating accord with the client
Agreeing
Misjudging the degree of the clients discomfort
Belittling feelings expressed
Demanding proof from the client
Challenging
Attempting to protect someone/something from verbal attack
Defending
Opposing the clients ideas
Disagreeing
Denouncing the clients behavior or ideas
Disapproving
Sanctioning the clients behavior or ideas
Giving approval
Responding to a figurative comment as though it were a statement of fact
Giving literal responses
Attributing the source of thoughts, feelings, and behavoir to others or to outside influences
Indicating the existence of an external source
Asking to make conscious that which is unconscious; telling the client the meaning of his/her experience
Interpreting
Changing the subject
Introducing an unrelated topic
Offering meaningless cliches or trite comments
Making stereotyped comments
Persistent questioning of the client
Probing
Indicating there is no reason for anxiety or other feeling of discomfort
Reassuring
Refusing to consider showing contempt for the clients ideas or behaviors
Rejecting
Asking the client to provide reasons for thoughts, feelings, behaviors or events
Requesting an explanation
Appraising the clients degree of insight
Testing
Refusing to admit that a problem exists
Using denial
Rapid assessment
Stabilize symptoms
D/C planning
Short stays
Inpatient hospital treatment
Inpatient hospital treatment also has longer stays for?
Severe, persistent mental illness requiring acute care services
Day tx programs
Eight broad categories of roles
Has to be D/C from hospital a doctor orders this
Partial hospitilization program
Vary in structure,level of supervision, services provided
Homes, apts, adult foster care, respite, crisis housing
Residental settings
Evolves around consumer household, group living situation, may transition
Residental setting
Peer support
Bridging staff
Transitional care
Board and care homes are an example of a partial hospitalization program T/F?
False; a board care home is an example of a residential tx setting
Emphasis is on recovery, growth, independence, control symptoms
Psychiatric rehab programs
Four guaranteed rights of members
Physician client relationship is the key
Focus on health not illness
Clubhouse model
Problem solving orientation
Direct provision of service
Services intense no time constraints
Assertive community Treatment (ACT)
In the clubhouse model the relationship between clients is most important T/F?
False; the physician client relationship is the most important
Spend more time in jail and shelters
Have less family contact
Face greater barriers to employment
PATH program
ACCESS demonstration project
Homeless Mentally Ill
13% have mental illness
Lack of adequate community support
Barriers to succesful community integration
Prisoners
A doctor who specalizes in mental illness is a
Psychiatrist
Interpersonal skills
Humanity
Knowledge base
Communication skills
Team work skills
Risk assessment and mgmt
These are all characteristics of a?
Interdisciplinary Team
Which of the following disciplines would most likely would be included as part of the interdisciplinary team?
A PA
B Physical therapist
C Pharmacist
D Dietician
C Pharmacist: would be a part of the team when med mgmt is complex
Stresses education
Primary prevention
Early identification of mental health problems
Secondary prevention
Monitoring, coordinating psychiatric rehab services
Clinical practice issues such as substance abuse, domestic violence, child abuse, greif, depression and many others
Terriary prevention
Frustration of working w pts having persistent and severe mental illness
Empowering pts to make their own decisions
Self awareness issues
Have an effect on coping w illness
Expression of illness
Erikson's stages
Adult developmental tasks
Age, growth and development
Need for lower doses
Slower metabolism
is a person's ability to respond in a healthy manner to stressful circumstances or risky situations
Resillience
is demonstrated in one's ability to manage daily activities and is a personal characteristic acquired through interactions with others.
Resourcefulnes
involves the inner core of a person's being and his or her beliefs about the meaning of life and the purpose for living. It may include belief in God or a higher power, the practice of religion, cultural beliefs and practices, and a relationship with the environment.
Spirituality
has the most influence on a person's health beliefs and behaviors.
Culture
has a strong influence on a person's health. It may determine whether or not the person has
P.140
insurance, adequate access to health care, or the ability to afford prescribed treatment.
Socioeconomic status
is a belief that a person's abilities and efforts can influence the events in her or his life. A person's sense of self-efficacy is an important factor in coping with stress and illness
Self-efficacy
is a person's ability to resist illness when under stress
Hardiness
The _________a person is, the better he or she can cope with stress or illness.
healthier
Communication
Physical distance or space
Social organization
Time orientation
Environmental control
Biologic variations
Are all factors in a ________ assessment
Cultural
Cultural factors include hardiness and resilience T/F?
False; cultural factors include clients belifs about health and illness
the client is the best source for this information
culture
The nurse must seek information about the pts
culture
Genreal knowledge about culture and ask pt questions about_______,_______ and ________
Preferences, health, and beliefs
The nurse must always maintain a _____ and ______ attitude
genuine and caring
The nurse should ask the pt of a different culture what
How may I help you
The nurse must recognize what about herself when dealing with different cultures
prejudices
Each pts response to illness is
unique and complex
________ assessment requires active pt participation
psychosocial
5 factors that can influence assessment:
Participation/feedback
Health status
Experiences/misconceptions
Ability to understand
Nurse's attitude/approach
During the assessment the______ needs to be comfortable, quiet, private, safe, few distrations,
environment
During interview the pts permission is necessary for_______ input
Family/friends
What type of questions are you asking in the interview?
Open ended
When interviewing a pt the nurse should select an area that is quiet and isolated from others T/F?
False; the nurse should interview the pt in an environment that is comfortable, private and safe for both the client and the nurse. The nurse should not choose an isolated location
This term is used for how the pt feels
Mood
THis is the term for the pts expression
Affect
These two things should match
Mood and affect
repeated purposeless behaviors often indicative of anxiety, such as drumming fingers, twisting locks of hair, or tapping the foot
Automatisms
overall slowed movements is called
psychomotor retardation
maintenance of posture or position over time even when it is awkward or uncomfortable is called
waxy flexibility
Invented words that have meaning only to the pt
neoglisms
This affect shows little or a slow-to-respond facial expression
Blunted
This affect displays a full range of emotional expressions
Broad
This affect shows no facial expression
Flat
This affect displays a facial expression that is incongruent with mood or situation; often silly or giddy regardless of circumstances
Inappropriate
This affect displays one type of expression, usually serious or somber
Restricted
_______ can be described as happy, sad, depressed, euphoric, anxious, or angry.
mood
When the client exhibits unpredictable and rapid mood swings from depressed and crying to euphoria with no apparent stimuli, the mood is called ________
labile
Refers to how the client thinks
thought process
This is what the client actually says
thought content
content is ______ and process is ________
what and how
a client eventually answers a question but only after giving excessive unnecessary detail
Circumstantial thinkingq
A fixed false belief not based in reality
Delusion
excessive amount and reate of speech composed of fragmented or unrelated ideas
Flight of ideas
client's inaccurate interpretation that general events are personally directed to him or her, such as hearing a speech on the news and believing the message had personal meaning
Ideas of reference
disorganized thinking that jumps from one idea to another with little or no evident relation between the thoughts
loose associations
wandering off the topic and never providing the info requested
Tangenital thinking
stopping abruptly in the middle of a sentence or train of thought; sometimes unable to continue the idea
thought blocking
a delusional belief that others can hear or know what the client is thinking
thought broadcasting
a delusional belief that others are putting ideas or thoughts into the client's head—that is, the ideas are not those of the client
thought insertion
a delusional belief that others are taking the client's thoughts away and the client is powerless to stop it
thought withdrawal
flow of unconnected words that convey no meaning to the listener
word salad
When a client makes specific threats or has a plan to harm another person, health care providers are legally obligated to warn the person who is the target of the threats or plan. The legal term for this is
duty to warn
recognition of person, place and time
orientation
is not synonymous with confusion
disorientation
which is to make associations or interpretations about a situation or comment.
abstract thinking
children and schizophrenics dont have the ability to
think abstractly
When the client continually gives literal translations, this is evidence of
concrete thinking
false sensory perceptions or perceptual experiences that do not really exist. __________ can involve the five senses and bodily sensations.
hallucinations
refers to the ability to interpret one's environment and situation correctly and to adapt one's behavior and decisions accordingly
judgement
is the ability to understand the true nature of one's situation and accept some personal responsibility for that situation
insight
is the way one views oneself in terms of personal worth and dignity.
self concept
which one of the following would the nurse include when assessing a pts self concept
A Roles
B Support systems
C Personal qualities
D Abstract thinking
C Personal qualities; assessment of self concept includes info about the pts personal view of self, description of self, his/her personal qualities
Axis V (5) is the
GAF
Personality tests measure a pts cognitive abilities T/F?
False; they reflect the pts personality in areas such as self concept, impulse control, reality testing, and major defenses
history, general appearance and motor behavior, mood and affect, thought process and content, sensorium and intellectual process, judgment and insight, self-concept, roles and relationships, and physiologic and self-care considerations are all part of .
a thorough psychosocial assessment
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
A. Who is the current president of the United States?
B. What concerns you most about your health?
C. What is your address?
D. Have you lost any weight recently?
B what concerns you most about your health
2. Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question?
A. How have you been feeling lately?
B. How is your relationship with your wife?
C. Have you had any health problems recently?
D. Where are you employed?
D where are you employed
Which of the following is not included in the assessment of sensorium and intellectual processes?
A. Concentration
B. Memory
C. Judgment
D. Orientation
C Judgement
Assessment data about the client's speech patterns are categorized in which of the following areas?
A. History
B. General appearance and motor behavior
C. Sensorium and intellectual processes
D. Self-concept
B general appearance and motor behavior
When the nurse is assessing whether or not the client's ideas are logical and make sense, the nurse is examining which of the following?
A. Thought content
B. Thought process
C. Memory
D. Sensorium
B thought process
The client's belief that a news broadcast has special meaning for him or her is an example of
A. Abstract thinking
B. Flight of ideas
C. Ideas of reference
D. Thought broadcasting
C Ideas of reference
The client who believes everyone is out to get him or her is experiencing a(n)
A. Delusion
B. Hallucination
C. Idea of reference
D. Loose association
A Delusion
To assess the client's ability to concentrate, the nurse would instruct the client to do which of the following?
A. Explain what “a rolling stone gathers no moss” means.
B. Name the last three presidents.
C. Repeat the days of the week backward.
D. Tell what a typical day is like.
C repeat the days of the week backward
Repeated purposeless behaviors often indicating anxiety
automatisms
the belief that others can read one's thoughts
thought broadcasting
generally slowed body movements
psychomotor retardation
flow of unconnected words that have no meaning
word salad
Clients receiving mental health care retain all civil rights afforded to all people except the right to
leave the hospital in the case of involuntary commitment
developed Principles for the Provision of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Treatment Services.
American psychiatric association (APA)
Civil
Laws are determined by each state
Pts held without consent
Held for 48-72 hours
Involuntary hospitalization
Clients receiving mental health care retain all civil rights afforded to all people except the right to
leave the hospital in the case of involuntary commitment
Clients receiving mental health care retain all civil rights afforded to all people except the right to
leave the hospital in the case of involuntary commitment
Right to request D/C at any time. Released unless a danger to self or others
Voluntary hospitalization
developed Principles for the Provision of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Treatment Services.
American psychiatric association (APA)
Conditional release or outpatient commitment. Continued participation in tx on INVOLUNTARY basis after release from hospital
Mandatory outpatient treatment
developed Principles for the Provision of Mental Health and Substance Abuse Treatment Services.
American psychiatric association (APA)
Civil
Laws are determined by each state
Pts held without consent
Held for 48-72 hours
Involuntary hospitalization
Examples include taking prescriped meds, keeping appts, follow-up, attending specific tx programs
mandatory outpatient treatment
Civil
Laws are determined by each state
Pts held without consent
Held for 48-72 hours
Involuntary hospitalization
Right to request D/C at any time. Released unless a danger to self or others
Voluntary hospitalization
Legal guardianship; seperate from civil commitment for hospitalization.
People who are gravely disabled; are found to be incompetent; cannot provide food, clothing, and shelter for themselves even when resources exist; and cannot act in their own best interests may require appointment of a____________
Conservator
Right to request D/C at any time. Released unless a danger to self or others
Voluntary hospitalization
Conditional release or outpatient commitment. Continued participation in tx on INVOLUNTARY basis after release from hospital
Mandatory outpatient treatment
Conditional release or outpatient commitment. Continued participation in tx on INVOLUNTARY basis after release from hospital
Mandatory outpatient treatment
Examples include taking prescriped meds, keeping appts, follow-up, attending specific tx programs
mandatory outpatient treatment
Mental health pts who are hospitalized voluntarily give up their right to leave the hospital T/F?
False; they retain all the civil rights afforded to any person including the right to leave the hospital
Free of restraint/seclusion
Least restrictive environment
Legal guardianship; seperate from civil commitment for hospitalization.
People who are gravely disabled; are found to be incompetent; cannot provide food, clothing, and shelter for themselves even when resources exist; and cannot act in their own best interests may require appointment of a____________
Conservator
Examples include taking prescriped meds, keeping appts, follow-up, attending specific tx programs
mandatory outpatient treatment
is the direct application of physical force to a person, without his or her permission, to restrict his or her freedom of movement.
Restraint
Mental health pts who are hospitalized voluntarily give up their right to leave the hospital T/F?
False; they retain all the civil rights afforded to any person including the right to leave the hospital
Legal guardianship; seperate from civil commitment for hospitalization.
People who are gravely disabled; are found to be incompetent; cannot provide food, clothing, and shelter for themselves even when resources exist; and cannot act in their own best interests may require appointment of a____________
Conservator
Free of restraint/seclusion
Least restrictive environment
Mental health pts who are hospitalized voluntarily give up their right to leave the hospital T/F?
False; they retain all the civil rights afforded to any person including the right to leave the hospital
is the direct application of physical force to a person, without his or her permission, to restrict his or her freedom of movement.
Restraint
Free of restraint/seclusion
Least restrictive environment
is the direct application of physical force to a person, without his or her permission, to restrict his or her freedom of movement.
Restraint
is the involuntary confinement of a person in a specially constructed, locked room equipped with a security window or camera for direct visual monitoring.
Seclusion
face to face eval in 1 hr;
every eight hrs.( every 4 for children)
Dr order every 4 hrs, every 2 for children
Document assessment every 1-2 hrs
close supervision
Debriefing session within 24 hrs after release from seclusion or restraint
Short term use of restraints and seclusion
The protection and privacy of personal health information is regulated by the federal government through the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996
Confidentiality
this term has a legal meaning but no medical definition.
Insanity
The argument that a person accused of a crime is not guilty because that person cannot control his or her actions or cannot understand the wrongfulness of the act is known as the
M'Naghten rule
__________states have abolished the insanity defense
four
A nurse is req to maintain pt confidentality unless the pt threatens a specific individual or group T/F?
True; In cases where a pt threatens a third party the nurse has a duty to warn that third party
meaning the care they provide to clients meets set expectations and is what any nurse in a similar situation would do.
Standards of care
is a wrongful act that results in injury, loss, or damage; may be either unintentional or intentional.
Tort
is an unintentional tort that involves causing harm by failing to do what a reasonable and prudent person would do in similar circumstances.
Negligence
is a type of negligence that refers specifically to professionals such as nurses and physicians
Malpractice
A legally recognized relationship (i.e., physician to client, nurse to client) existed. The nurse had a duty to the client, meaning that the nurse was acting in the capacity of a nurse.
Duty
The nurse (or physician) failed to conform to standards of care, thereby breaching or failing the existing duty. The nurse did not act as a reasonable, prudent nurse would have acted in similar circumstances.
Breech of duty
The client suffered some type of loss, damage, or injury.
Injury or damage
The breach of duty was the direct cause of the loss, damage, or injury. In other words, the loss, damage, or injury would not have occurred if the nurse had acted in a reasonable, prudent manner
Causation
involves any action that causes a person to fear being touched in a way that is offensive, insulting, or physically injurious without consent or authority.
Assault
involves harmful or unwarranted contact with a client; actual harm or injury may or may not have occurred.
Battery
is defined as the unjustifiable detention of a client such as the inappropriate use of restraint or seclusion.
False imprisonment
A nurse is required to maintain client confidentiality unless the pt threatens a specifically identified individual or group T/F?
True; In cases where a pt threatens an identifiable 3rd party, the nurse has a duty to warn that 3rd party
This is the responsibility for providing safe, competent, legal, ethical care
Nursing liability
Meeting standards of care developed from code of ethics, scope and standards of practice, state nurse practice acts, agency policies and procedures, civil and criminal laws
Nursing liability
Unintentional torts are
Negligence
Malpractice
Elements to prove malpractice
Duty
breech of duty
injury or damage
Causation
Assualt
Battery
False imprrisonment
Intentional torts
3 elements to prove liability
Willful voluntary act
Intention to bring about consequences or injury
Act as a substantial factor in injury or consequences
which of the following would be considered an unintentional tort?

A.Malpractice
B.Assualt
C. Battery
D.False imprisonment
A. Malpractice; is an unintentional tort
This is a branch of philosphy dealing with values of human conduct (rightness and wrongness of actions) and goodness or badness of motives and ends in such actions
Ethics
Components of ethical decision making are these 6 things
Gather info
Clairfy values
Identify options
Identify legal considerations, practical restraints
Building consensus for decision reached
Renewing analyzing decision
Pervasive alterations in emotions manifested by depression, mania or both
Mood disorders
Interference with life; long term sadness, agitation, or elation
Mood disorders
These are the most psychiatric dx associated with suicide. (depression is one of the most important risk factors for it)
Mood disorders
Categories of mood disorders
Major depressive disorder
Bipolar disorder
Related disorders
Related disorders include
Dysthymic disorder
Cyclothymic disorder
Substance induced mood disorder; mood disorder due to general medical condition
Seasonal affective disorder
Postpartum blues, depression, psychosis
Genetic
Neurochemical
Neuroendocrine
are all what kind of theories?
Biologic
Freud
Bibring
Jacobson
Mania
are all what kind of theories?
Psychodynamic
Masking of depression by other behaviors considered age appropriate include
School phobia
Hyperactivity
Learning disorders
Failing grades
Antisocial behaviors
Substance abuse
gangs
risk behaviors
eating disorders
compulsive behaviors
Major manifestation among cultures that avoid verbalizing feelings
Somatic complaints
Depression is most commonly associated with suicide T/F?
True; depression is considered the most common dx that results in suicide
Incidence women to men is 2:1
Decreases with age in women; increases with age in men; highest in single, divorced people
Major depressive disorder
For a pt to be dx with a major depressive disorder they must have been having symptoms for at least?
2 weeks or longer
Sad mood, lack of interest in life and at least four other symptoms to meet criteria for this type of dx
Major depressive disorder
A pt with major depressive disorder may experience some or all of the following:
Changes in appetite, weight, sleep or psychomotor activity
Decreased energy; feels worthless or guilty
Difficulty thinking, concentrating or making decisions, recurrent thoughts of death or suicide, plans or attempts
Major depressive disorder can range from?
Mild to severe
Psychopharmacology classes of drugs for major depressive disorder
SSRI's
Cyclic antidepressants
Atypical antidepressants
MAOI's
Another tx for major depressive disorder
ECT
Interpersonal therapy
Behavior therapy
Cognitive therapy
are all types of _________ therapy
psycho
Assessment for major depressive disorder includes?
Hx
appearance
Mood
Thought processes, content
Sensorium
Judgement
Self concept
Roles, relationships
Physiologic, self care considerations
Depression
Clients with depression often exhibit anhedonia T/F?
True; anhedonia refers to the loss of any sense of pleasure from activities that a person formerly enjoyed. This is a manifestation of depression
Interventions for major depressive disorder
Provide safety
Promote therapeutic relationship
Promote ADL's
Using therapeutic communication
Managing meds
Client, family teaching
THis disorder has extreme mood swings from mania to depression
Bipolar Disorder
This disorder is second only to major depression as cause of worldwide disability
Bipolar Disorder
Onset of this disorder usually occurs in the early 20's
Bipolar Disorder
Manic episodes begin suddenly, last from a few weeks to several months
Bipolar Disorder
Psychopharmacology for bipolar disorder
Antimanic: Lithium
Anticonvulsants: mood stabilizers
Agents helpful inreducing manic behavior and protecting against depressive cycles
This is useful in midly depressive or normal portion bipolar cycle. Not useful during manic stage
Psychotherapy
Which of the following would be most appropriate for the tx of mania associated with bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Fluoxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Venalfaxine
A. Lithium; is an antimanic agent which would be most appropriate for tx a manic client with bipolar disorder
Interventions for bipolar disorder
Provide for safety
Meet psysiologic needs
provide therapeutic communication
Promote appropriate behaviors
Manage meds
Provide client family teaching
Intentional act of killing oneself
Suicide
Thinking about killing oneself
Suicidal ideation
The first____years after an attempt represent the highest risk period, especially the first ___ months.
2 years
3 months
Those with a ________ who committed suicide are at increased risk for suicide: the closer the relationship, the greater the risk.
relative
Examples of outcomes for a suicidal person include the following:
The client will be safe from harming self or others.
The client will engage in a therapeutic relationship.
The client will establish a no-suicide contract.
The client will create a list of positive attributes.
The client will generate, test, and evaluate realistic plans to address underlying issues.
Suicide is the ultimate rejection of
family and friends
Family members of the person who comitted suicide may feel?
Guilt
Shame
Anger
The nurses response to the pt talking about suicide
Need for positive unconditional regard
Avoidance of pt blame
Nonjudgemental approach/tone
Belief that one person can make a difference in anothe's life
Possible devistation of staff if pt commits suicide
When dealing with a pt who is suicidal the nurse needs to assume a dependent role
False; when dealing with a pt who is suicidal the nurse must take an authoritative role
Depression among the elderly is increased when?
elders are medically ill
Elder considerations for suicide
Psychotic features common
Increased intolerance to meds
ECT more commonly used
Suicide is increased among the?
Elderly
Nurses as first HCP to recognize behaviors consistent with?
mood disorders
This disorder requires a referral to psychiatrist or psychiatric advanced practice nurse for tx
Bipolar disorder
Screening for early detection of risk factors
Family strife
Parental alcoholism or mental illness
Hx of fighting
Access to weapons in the home
refers to the subjective emotions and affect that are a normal response to the experience of loss
Greif
refers to the process by which a person experiences the grief. It involves not only the content (what a person thinks, says, and feels) but also the process (how a person thinks, says, and feels).
Grieving/bereavement
is when people facing an imminent loss begin to grapple with the very real possibility of the loss or death in the near future
Anticipatory grieving
is the outward expression of grief. Rituals of mourning include having a wake, sitting Shiva, holding religious ceremonies, and arranging funerals.
Mourning
Types of losses (5)
Psyiologic
Safety
Loss of security,belonging
Loss of self-esteem
Loss R/T self actualization
Kubler-Ross's five stages of grieving
Denial
Anger
Barganing
Depression
Acceptance
Bowlby's 4 phases of grieving
Experiencing numbness and denying the loss
Emotionally yearning for the lost loved one and protesting the permanence of the loss
Experiencing cognitive disorganization and emotional despair with difficulty functioning in the everyday world
Reorganizing and reintegrating the sense of self to pull life back together
The 1st stage of grieving according to kubler ross is anger T/F?
False; according to kubler ross the 1st stage of grieving is denial followed by anger
Rando's 6 "R's"
Recognize
React
Recollect and re-experience
Relinquish
Readjust
Reinvest
Worden's tasks
Accept reality of loss
Work thru pain of grief
Adjust to changed environment due to loss
Emotionally relocate loss and move on
Dimensions of grieving
Cognitive responses
Emotional responses
Spiritual responses
Behavioral responses
Physiologic responses
is grief over a loss that is not or cannot be acknowledged openly, mourned publicly, or supported socially.
Disenfranchised grief
Three categories of circumstances can result in disenfranchised grief:
A relationship has no legitimacy.
The loss itself is not recognized.
The griever is not recognized
Grief process more complex due to absence of usual support for grieving, healing
Experienced by nurses when need to grieve not recognized
Disenfranchised grief
Person devoid of emotion; grieving for prolonged periods; expressions of grief seems disproportinate to event
Complicated grieving
Low self-esteem
Low trust in others
A previous psychiatric disorder
Previous suicide threats or attempts
Absent or unhelpful family members
An ambivalent, dependent, or insecure attachment to the deceased person
Complicated grieving
Risk factors leading to vunerability
Death of a spouse or child
Death of a parent (early childhood or adolescence
Sudden, unexpected, untimely death
Multiple deaths
Death by suicide or murder
While observing for client responses in the dimensions of grieving, the nurse explores three critical components in assessment:
Adequate perception regarding the loss
Adequate support while grieving for the loss
Adequate coping behaviors during the process
Nurses often experience complicated greif
False; although it is possible for anyone to experience complicated greif, a nurse would be more likely to experience disenfranchised grief when his/her need to grieve is not recognized
1. Which of the following accurately lists Bowlby's phases of the grieving process?
A. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
B. Shock, outcry, and denial; intrusion of thought, distractions, and obsessive reviewing of the loss; confiding in others to emote and cognitively restructure an account of the loss
C. Numbness and denial of the loss, emotional yearning for the loved one and protesting permanence of the loss, cognitive disorganization and emotional despair, reorganizing and reintegrating a sense of self
D. Reeling, feeling, dealing, healing
C. Numbness and denial of the loss, emotional yearning for the loved one and protesting permanence of the loss, cognitive disorganization and emotional despair, reorganizing and reintegrating a sense of self
2. Which of the following give cues to the nurse that a client may be grieving for a loss?
A. Sad affect, anger, anxiety, and sudden changes in mood
B. Thoughts, feelings, behavior, and physiologic complaints
C. Hallucinations, panic level of anxiety, and sense of impending doom
D. Complaints of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and loss of appetite
B. Thoughts, feelings, behavior, and physiologic complaints
3. Situations that are considered risk factors for complicated grief are
A. Inadequate support and old age
B. Childbirth, marriage, and divorce
C. Death of a spouse or child, death by suicide, and sudden and unexpected death
D. Inadequate perception of the grieving crisis
C. Death of a spouse or child, death by suicide, and sudden and unexpected death
Physiologic responses of complicated grieving include
A. Tearfulness when recalling significant memories of the lost one
B. Impaired appetite, weight loss, lack of energy, palpitations
C. Depression, panic disorders, chronic grief
D. Impaired immune system, increased serum prolactin level, increased mortality rate from heart disease
D. Impaired immune system, increased serum prolactin level, increased mortality rate from heart disease
Critical factors for successful integration of loss during the grieving process are
A. The client's adequate perception, adequate support, and adequate coping
B. The nurse's trustworthiness and healthy attitudes about grief
C. Accurate assessment and intervention by the nurse or helping person
D. The client's predictable and steady movement from one stage of the process to the next
A. The client's adequate perception, adequate support, and adequate coping
__________________ “I have this insatiable yearning to be with him.”
Dimensions of grieving
Emotional dimension
__________________ Irritability and hostility toward others
Dimensions of grieving
Behavioral dimension
__________________ “I thought a priest would certainly understand my need for support at this time. Why didn't he ask how I was feeling when I told him my husband was having surgery?”
Dimensions of grieving
Cognitive dimension
__________________ “Why has God done this to me?”
Dimensions of grieving
Spiritual dimension
__________________ “I've lost my appetite, and I just can't seem to get to sleep at night when I go to bed.”
Dimensions of grieving
Physiologic dimension
The nurse observes that a client with bipolar disorder is pacing in the hall, talking loudly and rapidly, and using elaborate hand gestures. The nurse concludes that the client is demonstrating which of the following?
A. Aggression
B. Anger
C. Anxiety
D. Psychomotor agitation
D. Psychomotor agitation
A client with bipolar disorder begins taking lithium carbonate (lithium), 300 mg four times a day. After 3 days of therapy, the client says, “My hands are shaking.” The best response by the nurse is
A. “Fine motor tremors are an early effect of lithium therapy that usually subsides in a few weeks.”
B. “It is nothing to worry about unless it continues for the next month.”
C. “Tremors can be an early sign of toxicity, but we'll keep monitoring your lithium level to make sure you're okay.”
D. “You can expect tremors with lithium. You seem very concerned about such a small tremor.”
A. “Fine motor tremors are an early effect of lithium therapy that usually subsides in a few weeks.”
What are the most common types of side effects from SSRIs?
A. Dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth
B. Convulsions, respiratory difficulties
C. Diarrhea, weight gain
D. Jaundice, agranulocytosis
A. Dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth
The nurse observes that a client with depression sat at a table with two other clients during lunch. The best feedback the nurse could give the client is
A. “Do you feel better after talking with others during lunch?”
B. “I'm so happy to see you interacting with other clients.”
C. “I see you were sitting with others at lunch today.”
D. “You must feel much better than you were a few days ago.”
C. “I see you were sitting with others at lunch today.”
Which of the following typifies the speech of a person in the acute phase of mania?
A. Flight of ideas
B. Psychomotor retardation
C. Hesitant
D. Mutism
A. Flight of ideas
What is the rationale for a person taking lithium to have enough water and salt in his or her diet?
A. Salt and water are necessary to dilute lithium to avoid toxicity.
B. Water and salt convert lithium into a usable solute.
C. Lithium is metabolized in the liver, necessitating increased water and salt.
D. Lithium is a salt that has greater affinity for receptor sites than sodium chloride.
D. Lithium is a salt that has greater affinity for receptor sites than sodium chloride
Identify the serum lithium level for maintenance and safety.
A. 0.1 to 1.0 mEq/L
B. 0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L
C. 10 to 50 mEq/L
D. 50 to 100 mEq/L
B. 0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L
A client says to the nurse, “You are the best nurse I've ever met. I want you to remember me.” What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A. “Thank you. I think you are special too.”
B. “I suspect you want something from me. What is it?”
C. “You probably say that to all your nurses.”
D. “Are you thinking of suicide?”
D. “Are you thinking of suicide?”
A client with mania begins dancing around the day room. When she twirled her skirt in front of the male clients, it was obvious she had no underpants on. The nurse distracts her and takes her to her room to put on underpants. The nurse acted as she did to
A. Minimize the client's embarrassment about her present behavior.
B. Keep her from dancing with other clients.
C. Avoid embarrassing the male clients who are watching.
A. Minimize the client's embarrassment about her present behavior
Identify four areas that must be included in a patient teaching plan for a client starting lithium treatment.
Proper medication administration, salt and water needs, symptoms of lithium toxicity, need for periodic serum lithium monitoring
Identify four client statements that might indicate a subtle message about suicidal ideation.
“You've been a good friend;” “I can't do this anymore;” “This is where I keep my important papers;” and “I'd like you to have my chess set, the one you always admired.”