• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/191

Click to flip

191 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which authority defines "Leave" as the authorized absence of a member from a place or duty?

a. Navy Regulations
b. MILPERSMAN 1050-010
c. Chief of Naval Personnel
d. Secretary of Defense
A. Navy Regulations
What is the primary basis for the organization of units?

a. To organize proper relationships between functions, personnel and material assets.
b. The human element is the primary factor.
c. To accomplish the mission of the unit.
d. The requirements for battle.
D. The requirements for battle
T/F: It can at times be difficult to determine whether or not a behavior constitutes as sexual harassment.
True!

DON Policy on Sexual Harassment: Instruction Basic; Enclosure 2, para 2
The Navy Sponsor Program is tailored to serve which command personnel?

a. Incoming Personnel
b. Departing Personnel
c. Both A and B above
d. All Hands
C. Incoming Personnel & Departing Personnel.
What is the governing directive for entitlement to leave?

a. MILPERSMAN 1050-010
b. DOD Directive 1327.05 of 24Sep85
c. DOD Directive 1327.10 of 24Sep85
d. Navy Regulations
B. DOD Directive 1327.05 of 24Sep85
Which of the following periods would qualify a member to accrue?

a. Active duty less than 30 consecutive days.
b. 30 consecutive days of active duty for training with pay.
c. Lost time.
d. None of the above.
B. 30 Consecutive days of active duty for training with pay.
Providing administrative support to assist members in making contact with their new command such as access to a DSN telephone line is the responsibility of which command/individual?

a. The transferring activity.
b. The receiving activity.
c. The command ombudsman
d. PSD of the Host activity
A. The Transferring activity.
When a member is under PCS orders, wht activity is responsible for providing the member with command's schedule when available and unclassified?

a. The receiving activity.
b. The transferring activity.
c. A and B
d. All Hands
A. The Receiving activity.
With the exception of "Reenlistment Leave," when service requirements permit, commanding officers are encouraged to grant what maximum number of days leave at one time?

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. All leave earned on the books.
B. 60 Days.

Requirements permit, to the extent of earned leave plus 30 days advance leave, total not to exceed 60 days at one time, except as regard to reenlistment leave.
When personnel are hospitalized or placed on SIQ status by a civilian physician while on leave, which of the following applies?

a. These personnel shall not be charged leave for the period of hospitalization.
b. Chargeable leave will terminate the day preceding and re-commence the following day.
c. These personnel shall be charged leave for the period of hospitalization or SIQ status insofar as leave accounting is concerned.
d. Members account will not be charged for leave on the day death occurs.
A. These personnel shall not be charged leave for the period of Hospitalization.
Appropriate safeguards may be established to ensure against abuse of hospitalization/SIQ while on leave status, provided they are consistent with acceptance of a certification from civilian authorities in which instance?

a. Emergency leave validation.
b. Compassionate assignments.
c. Hardship discharge procedures.
d. All of the Above.
D. All of the Above
Leave accumulated in excess of 60 days, as defined in MILPERSMAN 1050-070, shall be lost unless used before what period of time?

a. End of FIRST fiscal year after the fiscal year in which the service at that command is terminated.
b. End of SECOND fiscal year after the fiscal year in which the service at that command is terminated.
c. End of THIRD fiscal year after the fiscal year in which the service at that command is terminated.
d. End of FOURTH fiscal year after the fiscal year in which the service at that command is terminated.
C. End of THIRD fiscal year.
Special leave accural shall not be used to authorized accumulation of leave in excess of how many days for personnel who do not manage their leave properly?

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. Not Eligible.
B. 60 Days.
What is the purpose of "MILPERSMAN Article 1050-080 - Computation - Overview"?

a. To summarize all articles on computation leave.
b. Contains listing of types of leave.
c. Contains general instructions and examples.
d. All of the Above.
C. Contains general instructions and examples.
T/F: Commanding Officers are authorized to permit members departing on and returning from leave to complete the check-out and check-in procedures by telephone?

a. True
b. False
A. True
Upon commencement and termination of leave by telephone, all members shall be cautioned to which of the following provisions?

a. Must report with CDO and Personnel office.
b. Must be in the immediate geographic area.
c. Must be able to be in the immediate geographic area by expiration of leave.
d. None, telephone check-in, check-out not authorized.
B. Must be in the immediate geographical area.
Which of the following is NOT a valid procedure when checking-in/out on leave by telephone?

a. Pick up Part 1 of the leave authorization prior to commencement of leave
b. Enter the time and date of commencement and termination of leave in the appropriate space and sign the entry immediately after placing such telephone call.
c. Deliver part 1 to the personnel office, or other designated officer, within 5 working days subsequent to termination of leave.
d. All of the Above.
C. Deliver part 1 to the personnel office, or other designated officer, within 5 working days subsequent to termination of leave.
Which of the following is NOT a valid procedure when processing leave authorization part 2 after a member has commenced leave by telephone?

a. Record the hour and date of departure.
b. Record the hour and date of arrival.
c. Member designated, should sign part 2.
d. Distribute the remaining copies as directed in DFAS-PTG.
B. Record the hour and date of Arrival.
Where would you find rules for determining whether absence is unavoidable?

a. Manual for Court Martials (MCM).
b. DOD 7000.14 R, Department of Defense Financial Managment Regulation, Volume 7A (DODFMR).
c. JAGINST 5800.7C; Jag Manual Investigation.
d. All of the Above.
B. DOD 7000.14 R, Department of Defense Financial Managment Regulation, Volume 7A (DODFMR).
Absences over leave or liberty caused by detention by civilian authorities whether determined to be avoidable or excused as unavoidable shall be charged as leave.

a. True
b. False
B. False
What type of leave may be granted to a member which expires on the day of separation without the necessity of returning to the separation site?

a. Separation Leave
b. Terminal Leave.
c. Both A and B.
d. Release from Active Duty Leave.
A. Separation Leave
Which of the following is true concerning travel expenses to the member's command or the separation activity?

a. Travel expenses at government expense is authorized.
b. Expenses at the member's own expense.
c. Travel expenses to the separation activity is at government expense, however, travel to home is at own expense.
d. None of the Above.
B. Travel expenses at the members own expense.

Travel to the member's command or the separation activity will be at the member's own expense.
Which of the following is a prohibited action related to separation leave?

a. Granting separation leave to a member being administratively separated.
b. Re-enlisting while on separation leave.
c. Taking more than 30 days separation leave.
d. All of the Above.
A. Granting separation leave to a member who is being administratively separated.
Prior to granting extended emergency leave involving excess leave, what other considerations, if any, shall be given the possibility?

a. A humanitarian duty assignment.
b. A hardship discharge.
c. Both A and B.
d. Excess leave is not authorized.
C. Both A and B.
Emergency leave should be granted under which of the following conditions?

a. When the circumstances warrant.
b. Based on the judgment of the commanding officer.
c. Is the desire of the member.
d. All of the Above.
D. All of the Above.
Who determines which eligible dependent, if any, will travel on funded emergency leave?

a. The CO
b. The member.
c. Both A and B.
d. None of the Above.
B. The member.
Verification from which of the following officials is required in order to grant Emergency Leave?

a. American Red Cross.
b. A Medical Officers Statement.
c. Hometown Assistance Recruiting Program Coordinator.
d. None of the Above.
D. None of the Above.


Navy policy does not require the use of the American Red Cross to verify all emergency leave situations; however, when the leave granting authority is uncertain of the validity of an emergency situation verification assistance should be requested.
A member entitled to Hostile Fire or Imminent Danger pay must be on an active duty assignment for what minimum time period in order to accrue up to 90 days earned leave?

a. 60 days.
b. 90 days.
c. 120 days.
d. Not eligible.
C. 120 Days.
Qualified personnel are assigned to stations by which of the following persons?

a. Division officer and division chief
b. Leading Petty officer
c. Leading chief etty officer
d. XO
A. Division officer and division Chief.
Which of the following sources that set forth the basic disiplinary laws of the U.S. Navy?

a. U.S. Navy Regulations
b. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
c. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
d. All of the Above.
D. All of the Above.
In what year was the Code of Conduct first prescribed?

a. 1965
b. 1955
c. 1945
d. 1935
B. 1955

Because of the code of conduct of a few Americans during the Korean conflict, President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribed the first Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces in 1955.
In what year was Executive Order 12633 issued ammending the Code of Conduct to use neutral-gender language?

a. 1987
b. 1988
c. 1989
d. 1990
B. 1988
A ship's plan for action is contained in what type of bill?

a. Battle Bill
b. Administration Bill
c. Organization Bill
d. Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill
A. Battle Bill
The Second Continental Congress approved the purchase of how many vessels?

a. Eight
b. Six
c. Four
d. Two
D. Two
What category of ship carred the largest number of guns?

a. Ships of the Line
b. Sloops of War
c. Schooners
d. Frigates
A. Ships of the Line
Which of the following ships has the distinction of being the U.S. Navy's first flagship?

a. Providence
b. Hornet
c. Wasp
d. Alfred
D. Alfred

The USS Alfred had the distinction of being the U.S. Navy's first flagship and is said to be the first U.S. Naval vessel on which the "Flag of Freedom" was hoisted by John Paul Jones.
Which of the following characteristics define a custom?

a. An act that is continued consistently over a long period of time.
b. A well-defined and uniformly followed act.
c. A generally accepted act not opposed to a statute, lawful regulation or order.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the Above
As a Sailor, what action must you take in order to get paid?

a. Open a savings account only.
b. Open a checking account only.
c. Open a savings or a checking account.
C. Open a Savings account or a Checking account.
Under which, if any, of the following circumstances should you touch an open wound with your finger?

a. To replace bulging abdominal organs
b. To remove a protruding foreign object
c. Only when absolutely necessary to stop severe bleeding.
d. None of the Above.
C. Only when absolutely necessary to stop severe bleeding.
Pay you get for certain types of duty that are usually considered hazardous.

a. Basic Pay
b. Incentive Pay
c. Special Pay
B. Incentive Pay.
You are entitled to a an annual clothing allowance after you have been on active duty for what length of time?

a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. 9 months
B. 6 Months.

Following an initial 6-month active-duty period, you are entitled to receive an annual clothing maintenance allowance.
You are getting a selective reenlistment bonus. What type of pay are you receiving?

a. Incentive Pay
b. Basic Pay
c. Special Pay
C. Special Pay
Except for the post-tour Navy Fleet/Force/Command Master Chief bad, what maximum number of identification badges may be worn at one time?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A. 1
If you qualify for more than one badge, wear the badge representing your present assignment, otherwise, wear the badge you prefer.

a. True
b. False
A. True.
Which of the following is NOT an authorized identification badge?

a. MAA/ Law Enforcement
b. Career Counselor
c. Merchant Marine Service Emblem
d. Office of the Secretary of the Navy
D. Office of the Secretary of the Navy
What is the correct manner for attaching identification badges to the uniform?

a. Attach directly to the uniform.
b. Hang them on a key chain.
c. Use a backing material.
d. All of the Above.
A. Attach them directly to the Uniform.
Which of the following is a required qualification for a Command Fitness Leader (CFL)?

a. E-5 or above
b. Overall PRT score
c. CPR Qualified
d. No more than 20 percent bodyfat for males or 32 percent for females.
C. CPR Qualified
Title 10 of the U.S. Code states that which of the following actions is/are part of the Navy's mission?

a. Oversee constructions, outfitting, and repair of naval ships, equipment, and facilities.
b. Station troops in forward positions.
c. Command U.S. forces in CONUS
d. Command and chief of all sea commands.
A. Oversee constructions, outfitting, and repair of naval ships, equipment, and facilities.
Aboard ship, what publication contains information about the ships organization?

a. Standards Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy only.
b. Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual Only.
c. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy and Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual.
d. UCMJ
B. Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual only.
Who heads the battle organization?

a. CO
b. XO
c. WEPS
d. OPPS
A. CO
What are the two aspects of the process of organization?

a. Planning and implementation.
b. Administration and Organization
c. Process and Basis.
d. Mechanical and Dynamic.
D. Mechanical and Dynamic

The Mechanical, which deals with the organization structure, and the Dynamic, which deals with the integration of the human factors into the organization structure.
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining a Personnel Security Program (PSP)?

a. CO
b. Security Manager
c. Naval Security Advisor (NSA)
d. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
D. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
What is the primary factor in the dynamic aspect of organization?

a. The proper planning and organization.
b. The Human element.
c. The mission of the unit.
d. The requirements for battle.
B. The Human Element
Being Primarily static, mechanics are basically concerned with which of the following?

a. Preventive Maintenance.
b. Charts or Job descriptions.
c. Efficiency.
d. Structure.
D. Structure.
Commanding Officers establish procedures to ensure which of the following persons are granted access to classified information?

a. Personnel O-3 and above.
b. Visitors with appropriate level of security clearance.
c. Personnel with a need to know.
d. Both B and C
D. Both B and C
How often should you check your credit report to protect yourself from identity theft?

a. Once a Year
b. Twice a Year
c. Three Times a Year
d. Quarterly
B. Twice a Year
Which website can help you find cheaper gas prices through a network of gas price information web sites?

a. GasMeUp.com
b. LowGasPrices.com
c. CheapGasPrices.com
d. GasBuddy.com
D. GasBuddy.com
DON personnel called upon to conduct or review investigations into incidents of sexual harassment should receive training in which of the following?

a. Provisions of SECNAVINST 5300.26D
b. GMT and NMT of enlisted personnel on sexual harassment.
c. DON policy on 5 Vector Model
d. DON policy on equal opportunity.
D. DON policy on equal opportunity.
Members serving in a deployable ship, mobile unit, or similar duty, which, because of operational mission requirements, deploys or operates away from its designated home port or home base, must serve what minimum continuous period in order to accrue special leave?

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. None of the above, Not Eligible.
B. 60 Days.
Which of the following is true concerning any delay authorized in PCS orders in excess of allowed proceed time or travel time?

a. Requirements commanding officer approval.
b. Charged as leave.
c. Charged as TEMADD
d. Is Called Authorized Delay
B. Charged as Leave
What is the maximum period an individual may be placed in Sick in Quarters (SIQ) Status?

a. 48 hours.
b. 72 hours.
c. 10 days.
d. 14 days.
D. 14 days
Travel by privately owned conveyance (POC) should be authorized in which of the following circumstances?

a. For Convenience of the Government.
b. For Convenience of the Member.
c. When leave is authorized en route to TAD station.
d. All of the Above.
B. For Convenience of the Member.
Unless otherwise indicated, convalescent leave shall be granted only when?

a. Recommended by the CO
b. Recommended by the Medical Officer.
c. Recommended by the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB).
d. All of the above.
C. When recommended by Physical Evaluation Board (PEB).
To provide an appropriate recovery period for service members who give birth, convalescent leave will normally be granted for how many days following any uncomplicated delivery?

a. 32 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. 45 days
C. 42 days
What official may grant convalescent leave to repatriated prisoners of war upon their transfer or detachment to the U.S.?

a. CO
b. Commander, Naval Forces, Atlantic/Pacific Fleet
c. Chief of Naval Personnel
d. Chief of Naval Operations
D. Chief of Naval Operations
Rest and Recuperation (R&R) leave program must be approved by what authority?

a. CO
b. Type Commander
c. Office of the Secretary of the Navy
d. Office of the Secretary of Defense
D. Office of the Secretary of Defense.
Which of the following criteria and restraints must be included when establishing a R&R Program?

a. The area must be assigned for imminent danger or hostile fire pay.
b. Tours of duty in the area must be accompanied tours.
c. R&R periods must not exceed two per 12 month period.
d. Flat-Rate perdiem is authorized for travel.
A. The area must be assigned for imminent danger or hostile fire pay.
Which of the following programs is established at overseas installation, where adverse environmental conditions require specific arrangements for leave in more desirable places t periodic intervals?

a. R&R
b. Convalescent Leave
c. EML
d. All of the above.
C. EML
Accrued leave shall be expended prior to midshipmen candidate in a LWOP status.

a. True
b. False
A. True
When a member returns from leave, granted at a TAD station, and the member's pay record is not in the custody of the TAD station, then?

a. the TAD will process the original Leave/Authorization form and record leave taken.
b. the Member must present the original Leave/Authorization form to the Parent Command to record leave taken.
c. Leave taken is endorsed on members TAD orders for the Parent Command to record leave taken upon return from TAD.
d. the Original Leave Request/Authorization form will be forwarded to the PDS upon the member's return from leave for recording the leave taken.
D. The original Leave Request/Authorization form will be forwarded to PSD upon the member's return from leave for recording the leave taken.
The Recruiting Assistance Leave Program provides up to how many days of non-chargeable leave?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 14
d. None of the above.
A. 5
What authority of the United States Naval Academy may grant leave to midshipmen?

a. CO
b. Superintendent
c. Instructor in Charge (IIC)
d. Immediate Superior In Command (ISIC)
B. Superintendent
Midshipmen earn leave at which monthly rate?

a. 1.5 days
b. 2 days
c. 2.5 days
d. None of the above
D. None of the above.

Leave as may be granted will be granted as a privilege and midshipmen will not be considered to "earn" leave as an accessory to their duty.
Navy personnel may visit any place outside the United States without obtaining permission from Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM) except those countries and places specified in?

a. BUPERSINST 5370
b. SECNAVINST 5370
c. BUPERSINST 1050.11
d. SECNAVINST 1050.11
C. BUPERSINST 1050.11
What is the form number for a Armed Forces Liberty Pass?

a. DD 345
b. DD 365
c. DD 1050
d. DD 1052
A. DD 345
The US currently has a Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) with the Republic of the Philippines?

a. True
b. False
B. False
A period of authorized absence not chargeable as leave, to attend or participate in activities of a semi-official nature, to benefit the Department of Defense (DOD) is called?

a. Authorized Absence
b. Non-Chargeable Leave
c. Official Leave
d. Administrative Absence
D. Administrative Absence
What type of liberty lasts from the end of the normal working hours on one day to the beginning of Normal working hours the next workday?

a. Regular Liberty
b. Daily Liberty
c. Special Liberty
d. Liberty
A. Regular Liberty
Special liberty will normally not exceed how many days?

a. 2. days
b. 3 days
c. 4 days
d. 5 days
B. 3 days
Which of the following would disqualify a member from requesting Appellate Leave?

a. received an unsuspected punitive discharge.
b. Sentence has not yet been approved
c. All confinement has been completed.
d. None of the above.
D. None of the above.
If convicted of a qualifying military offense (QMO) which of the following is a requires step to follow if a member's appellate leave request has been approved?

a. Ensure DNA sample is collected.
b. Submit offender profile card to the FBI
c. Conduct a Special Background Investigation (SBI)
d. All of the above
A. Ensure DNA sample is collected.
If the CA approves the punitive discharge/dismissal and the member is not on request appellate leave then which of the following applies?

a. Defense MILPAY Office (DMO) activities submit E701 FID to report forfeiture, reduction, confinement, etc.
b. DMO activities submit SH03 FID to transfer member to NAMALA UIC 47353.
c. The CA may place the member on mandatory appellate leave.
d. All of the above.
C. The CA may place the member on mandatory appellate leave.
Which of the following is NOT addressed as a point of contact in the Appellate Leave Statement of understanding?

a. Administrative Matters
b. Pay Matters
c. Court Matters
d. Legal Matters
D. Legal Matters
Which of the following is not listed in the Appellate Leave Statement of Understanding requiring the members initials of acknowledgment?

a. I understand that my dependents and I are not eligible for medical treatment through the Uniformed Service Medical Treatment Facilities
b. I understand that I am not eligible to utilize Air Mobility Command for space available travel, or travel to a foreign country outside the United States and its territories
c. I understand that if the convening authority approved an unsuspended punitive discharge/dismissal, I may be place on mandatory appellate leave at the discretion of the convening authority
d. I understand that while on appellate leave I am still on active duty and subject to orders of competent naval authority.
A. I understand that my dependents and I are not eligible for medical treatment through the Uniformed Service Medical Treatment Facilities.
Which of the following is not contained in the letter format for change of status to mandatory appellate leave?

a. You have been reduced to paygrade E-1
b. You remain subject to orders of competent naval authority until discharge.
c. You are to report ot the NAMALA nearest your appellate leave address for administrative separation processing.
d. Your status has changed from request appellate leave to mandatory appellate leave.
C. You are to report to the NAMALA nearest your appellate leave address for administrative separation processing.
How many types of administrative leave requests are there?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
C. Three
Which of the following is NOT a type of administrative leave?

a. Leave.
b. Leave without pay and allowances.
c. Leave including leave without pay and allowances.
d. None of the above.
D. None of the above.

ALL are valid types of administration leave.
Accrued leave, creditable at the time of retirement, is compensable in a lump-sum payment not to exceed how many days of basic pay?

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. None of the above
B. 60 days
What type of leave, if any, provides Lump-sum Payments to include basic pay, basic allowance for quarters, and basic allowance for subsistence?

a. Retirement Leave
b. Saved Leave
c. Regular Leave
d. Basket Leave
B. Saved Leave
Which public holiday is observed on the second Monday in October?

a. Columbus Day
b. Veterans Day
c. Presidents Day
d. Memorial Day
A. Columbus Day

Its a good idea to know on what days all these holidays fall on their perspective months.
Which of the following factors require consideration prior to approving mandatory appellate leave?

a. The member's service record
b. The offenses of which convicted and sentence adjudged.
c. The CO's recommendation, if applicable.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the Above.
Which of the following is NOT a required checklist step when a member's appellate leave request is approved?

a. Arrange for separation physical (including HIV test) to be completed after appellate leave.
b. Offer member inpatient treatment prior to separation if diagnosed as drug and/or alcohol dependent.
c. Counsel member on right to petition the Naval Clemency and Parole Board (NCPB).
d. None of the above.
A. Arrange for separation physical (including HIV test) to be completed after appellate leave.
Which is NOT a valid procedure during appellate review when/if the punitive discharge is affirmed?

a. Executive punitive discharge per supplemental court martial order
b. Forward service record to Naval reserve Personnel Center, New Orleans LA.
c. Forward health/dental records to Department of Veteran's Affairs (DVA)
d. Coordinate with NAMALA for return of records to the gaining command or the appropriate transient personnel unit, which supports the authority that ordered the rehearing.
D. Coordinate with NAMALA for return of records to the gaining command or the appropriate transient personnel unit, which supports the authority that ordered the rehearing.
A service member who receives COT leave travel may be entitled to Overseas Tour Extension Incentive Program for the same overseas tour under which of the following circumstances?

a. Member agrees to extend onboard 12 months.
b. Member is serving an accompanied tour.
c. Provided no incentives have been received before completing the COT leave travel.
d. None of the above.
D. None of the above

A service member who received COT leave travel shall NOT receive any incentive under Overseas Tour Extension Incentive Program for the same overseas tour.
Request for COT leave travle to any place farther distant than to HOR should be forwarded to what official?

a. PASS Liaison Representative (PLR)
b. CO
c. Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)
d. Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
D. Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
Which of the following is NOT a valid action step for recalling an enlisted member from appellate leave for rehearing, re sentencing, or restoration to full duty status?

a. Schedule the member to attend command indoc training.
b. I pay and allowances are not affected, make an appropriate NAVPERS 1070/613, administrative entry.
c. Use Transient Tracking in NSIPS to change ACC from 393 to 390
d. Diary Message Reporting System (DMRS) activities use NAVPERS 1070/607, Court Memorandum if reduction in rate affect members pay.
A. Schedule the member to attend command indoc.
Which of the following is a valid procedural step for recalling an officer from appellate leave for rehearing, re-sentencing, or restoration to full duty status?

a. Contact Naval Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM) for recall orders.
b. Upon arrival of officer, submit Activity Gain (NSIPS activity).
c. Ensure officer is placed in appropriate ACC.
d. All of the above
D. All of the above
If the findings and sentence are set aside and a rehearing authorized, then which of the following applies?

a. coordinate with NAMALA for return of records to gaining command.
b. Recall member for full duty or process for admin separation.
c. Recall member for full duty and reenlist with Bureau of Naval Personnel (BUPERS) approval.
d. JAG will notify the proper authority to determine whether or not a rehearing will be conducted, or whether the charges will be dismissed.
D. Jag will notify the proper authority to determine whether or not a rehearing will be conducted, or whether the charges will be dismissed.
A member who has been sentenced by court-martial to receive an unsuspended punitive discharge may be placed on which type of leave?

a. Separation Leave
b. Convalescent Leave
c. Administrative Leave
d. Appellate Leave
D. Appellate Leave
Which type of leave requires approval of the officer exercising general court-martial (GCM) over the member?

a. Member requested appellate leave
b. Member requested separation leave
c. Mandatory separation leave.
d. All of the above.
A. Member requested Appellate leave.
Members desiring retirement leave must submit a notification to what authority to coincide with the request for retirement?

a. CO
b. Chief of Naval Personnel (CHINAVPERS)
c. Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM)
d. President of the United States
C. Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM)
If the CA approved the punitive discharge/dismissal and the member is on request appellate leave then which of the following situations apply?

a. File a copy of the court-martial promulgating order and the CA's action in the field service record
b. Send letter to member for change of status to mandatory appellate leave
c. Update NSIPS Transient Tracking on member as applicable.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the above

*CA = Convening Authority
Commanding officers may grant liberty for any period of how many days?

a. 2 days
b. 3 days
c. 4 days
d. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following does not qualify for Administrative Absence?

a. Attendance at meetings sponsored by non-federal societies and organization directly related to member and Navy.
b. Attendance at meetings related to DOD credit union programs
c. Participation in and support of competitive amateur sports events.
d. Attendance as a defendant at criminal proceedings involving public interest.
D. Attendance as a defendant at criminal proceedings involving public interest.
The Armed Forces Liberty Pass comes in the following colors except?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Brown
D. Brown
Members requesting leave in Republic of the Philippines are required to...?

a. Submit proof of philippine citizenship
b. Submit proof of possession return air transportation.
c. Submit a request to the state department.
d. Submit a country clearance request.
D. Submit a country clearance request.
Foreign leave travel may be authorized when a member is executing which of the following orders?

a. Permanent Change of Station (PCS)
b. Temporary Additional Duty (TAD)
c. Regular Leave
d. All of the above.
D. All of the above
What official is authorized to place midshipmen candidates in a Leave without Pay (LWOP) status, who have graduated from NAPS.

a. Superintendent, USNA
b. CO, Naval Academy Preparatory School.
c. CO, Naval Academy Prerequisite School.
d. Superintendent, NAPS
B. CO, Naval Academy Preparatory School
What does the abbreviation LWOP stand for?

a. Leave without Papers
b. Leave without Pay
c. Leave without Permission
d. Local Immigrant without Papers
B. Leave without Pay
Which of the following constitutes authority for personnel officers and personnel support activity detachments to credit members with non-chargeable leave under the Recruiting Assistance Leave Program?

a. BUPERs authorization message
b. Commanding Officers Approval
c. Special Request Chit
d. Endorsement from the Navy Recruiting District.
D. Endorsement from the Recruiting District.
Leave may be granted with temporary additional duty (TAD) whenever requested, however, shall not exceed how long?

a. 15 days
b. 30 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days
B. 30 days
When authorizing leave in conjunction with TAD is a NAVCOMPT 3065, Leave Request/Authorization, with Leave Control Number (LCN) required.

a. True
b. False
A. True
EML programs involve space-available travel privileges.

a. True
b. False
A. True
Normally, the length of time an individual may be placed in SIQ status should be no greater than what period of time?

a. 24 hours
b. 44 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 14 days
C. 72 hours
A member when excused from duty for "medical directed" self-treatment in home or barracks is considered to be in what status?

a. Non-duty status
b. Rest and Recuperation status
c. Sick in Quarters
d. Convalescent Status
C. Sick in Quarters status
The total number of days delay authorized in orders may be exceeded provided neither the detaching month nor the "Report-no-later-than" date is affected.

a. True
b. False
A. True
Personnel, who believe they are eligible for special leave accrual, should declare their eligibility to what official?

a. Chief of Naval Personnel
b. Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS)
c. Type Commander
d. Commanding Officer/Officer in Charge
D. Commanding Officer/Officer in Charge
To obtain additional information desired concerning the urgency or necessity of the member's presence, the commanding officer or the member concerned should request the assistance of which of the following member(s)?

a. The home port contact officer.
b. The nearest military installation.
c. The American Red Cross.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the Above
When an unavoidable absence is over regular liberty in excess of 24 hours and the hour of return is after 0900, when is leave charged?

a. Starting the day regular liberty status expired through the day of return.
b. Starting the day regular liberty status expired through the day prior to the day of return
c. One day of lost time is charged.
d. None of the above.
A. Starting the day regular liberty status expired through the day of return.
What is the MILPERSMAN article number for Computation of Leave - General Instructions?

a. 1050-080
b. 1050-081
c. 1050-082
d. 1050-083
B. 1050-081
What is the MILPERSMAN article number for Examples of Charging Leave, During PCS with TDY en route?

a. 1050-081
b. 1050-082
c. 1050-083
d. 1050-084
C. 1050-083
What authority has primary responsibility for leave accounting?

a. Local Pay and Personnel Office
b. The CO
c. DFAS Cleveland Center
d. All of the above.
C. DFAS Cleveland Center
Leave is not creditable for any period when a member is in which of the following statuses?

a. A lost time
b. Excess Leave
c. Other non-pay status
d. All of the above.
D. All of the above
A member detaches PCS from Washington DC on 1 December then reports 21 December in San Francisco. What is the Total elapsed time?

a. 19 days
b. 20 days
c. 21 days
d. Depends
B. 20 days
What happens to leave accumulated in excess of 60 days if not used?

a. May be compensated for in monetary funds to personnel account.
b. Is irrevocably lost.
c. may be used for separation leave.
d. commanding officers discretion.
B. Is irrevocably lost.
When shall leave exceeding 60 days be reduced to 60 days?

a. First day of the new calender year.
b. First day of the new Fiscal year.
c. Last day of the old Fiscal year.
d. Never, leave is not to exceed 60 days.
B. First day of the new Fiscal year.
When PCS orders are involved to a new duty station, how many days leave are authorized?

a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. Commanding officers discretion
B. 30 days
Which of the following is NOT considered chargeable leave?

a. Annual leave
b. Basket leave
c. Emergency leave
d. Advance leave
B. Basket leave
Officers in command shall encourage and assist all members to use, on the average, how many days of leave each year?

a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days
D. 30 days
Which of the following is a consequence of a member whom refuses to take leave?

a. Loss of earned leave at a later date.
b. Assigned extra duties.
c. Subject to disciplinary action.
d. Can elect to sell back leave.
A. loss of earned leave at a later date
A receiving command will ensure the incoming member receives sponsor notification and specific area information within how many number of days prior to detaching from their previous command?

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
A. 30 days
Sexual harassment is behavior that is unwelcome, sexual in nature, and....?

a. Connected in some way with the persons work environment.
b. Offensive to a third party bystander.
c. Distasteful or crude in nature.
d. Is directed toward a female officer or enlisted person.
A. Connected in some way with a persons work environment.
What is the best way to deter identity theft?

a. Dont bring your work laptop home.
b. Avoid using credit cards at shops you don't trust.
c. Never use your credit card or debit card in a shop or store that uses carbon paper processing documents.
d. Make it hard for thieves to gain access to your personal information.
D. Make it hard for thieves to gain acces to your personal information.
What is the purpose of DON policy on sexual harassment?

a. To provide policy for.
b. To provide policy for establishing acceptable behavior concerning sexual harassment.
c. To provide a range of behavior which constitute sexual harassment.
d. To prove policy on the identification, prevention, and elimination of sexual harassment.
D. To prove policy on the identification, prevention, and elimination of sexual harassment.
What enclosure of SECNAVINST 5300.26; Depart of the Navy Policy on Sexual Harassment defines sexual harassment?

a. Enclosure 1
b. Enclosure 2
c. Enclosure 3
d. Enclosure 4
A. Enclosure 1
Which of the following establish a standard for determining employer liability for sexual harassment under Title VII of the Civil Right's Act?

a. SECNAVINST 5300.26
b. DOD Directive 1350.2 of 18Aug95
c. Employer Liability Act of 1975
d. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
D. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
Off-duty or non-duty behavior that affect the mnilitary workplace may also be considered to be sexual harassment.

a. True
b. False
A. True
What establishes organization objectives and the overall policies that guide the organization in the attainment of these objectives?

a. Planning
b. Administration
c. Vision
d. Commanding Officer Policy
B. Administration
Who is the Senior security official of the DON as designated by SECNAV?

a. CO
b. Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS)
c. Naval Security Advisor (NSA)
d. None of the above.
B. Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS)
Who bears executive responsibility for the security of the Nation which inclueds the authority to classify information?

a. National Security Advisory (NSA)
b. XO
c. The President
d. None of the above.
C. The President.
Who provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security matters?

a. The National Security council (NSC)
b. National Security Agency (NSA)
c. Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
d. The Security Policy Board
A. The National Security Council (NSC)
For security purposes which fo the following defines the term "visitor"?

a. A person not authorized to access classified material.
b. A person not assigned to the commands Type commander.
c. A person on restriction.
d. A person not a member of the ship's company.
D. A person not a member of the ships company.
Which process or organization deals with integration of human factors into the organization structure?

a. Mechanical.
b. Dynamic.
c. Personnel.
d. Counseling.
B. Dynamic
The objective of the Personnel Security Program (PSP) is to authorize initial and continued access to classified information to persons of which of the following characteristics?

a. Loyalty.
b. Reliability.
c. Trustworthiness.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
To be a good leader you must know how to follow orders.

a. True
b. False
A. True.
What are the three principal components of the DON?

a. The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment.
b. The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment
c. The Navy Department excluding the executive offices, the operating forces excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment
d. The Navy Department excluding the executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the fleet commands
A. The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment
What is the purpose of the Shore Establishment?

a. A last line of defense.
b. To provide suppport to the operations forces.
c. To provide a supply line.
d. To support the front line.
B. To provide support to the operating forces.
Where is the Command Fitness leader (CFL) training courses conducted?

a. FTC Mayport.
b. Naval Station Norfolk VA
c. Navy E-learning.
d. All of the above.
C. Navy E-Learning.
Which of the following is NOT a DOD military department?

a. Army.
b. Coast Guard.
c. Navy.
d. Air Force.
B. Coast Guard.
By law, what person heads the Department of the Navy (DON)?

a. Secretary of Defense.
b. Joint Chiefs of Staff.
c. Secretary of the Navy.
C. Secretary of the Navy.
The operating forces are under the command of the...?

a. Secretary of Defense.
b. Secretary of the Navy.
c. Chief of Naval Operations.
d. Chief of Naval Personnel.
C. Chief of Naval Operations.
What is an allowance?

a. Money used to reimburse you for expenses necessary for you to do you job.
b. Money used to pay you for expenses unnecessary for you to do your job.
c. Money paid for services rendered.
d. Money paid for longevity.
A. Money used to reimburse you for expenses necessary for you to do your job.
Which of the following terms is interchangeable with fundamentals of leadership?

a. Total quality leadership.
b. Motivational theory.
c. Basic principles of leadership.
d. Principles of supervision.
C. Basic principles of leadership.
The long-term goal of the Personal Excellence Partnership Program includes an effort to promote?

a. Navy Values.
b. Self-worth.
c. Responsible citizenship.
d. Both B and C above.
D. Both C and B.
FSC's are on all bases with which of the following minimum number of active-duty personnel?

a. 100
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1500
A. 100
The publications that govern the rules and regulations of a petty officer's actions are?

a. U.S. Navy Regulations and Manual for Court-Martial only.
b. U.S. Navy Regulations and Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy only.
c. U.S. Navy Regulations, Manual for Court-Martial, and Standard Organization and Regulations of the US> Navy.
d. Military Requirements for the Petty Officer Third Class.
C. U.S. Navy Regulations, Manual for Court-Martial and Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy.
An effective leader should recognize that people as individuals have different values and beliefs.

a. True
b. False
A. True
Which of the following traits is/are common to all successful leaders?

a. Initiative.
b. Dedication.
c. Accountability.
d. All of the Above.
D. All of the above.
The purpose of quality of life programs is to promote effective use of human resources.

a. True
b. False
A. True
The Personal Excellence Program focuses externally on our nations schools through what grade?

a. 12th
b. 8th
c. 6th
d. 4th
A. 12th
FSC's offer programs for married sailors ONLY.

a. True
b. False
B. False
The pay you get that's based on your paygrade and length of service.

a. Basic Pay
b. Incentive Pay
c. Special Pay
A. Basic Pay
A person who has stopped breathing is considered dead.

a. True
b. False
B. False
What is the purpose of artificial ventiliation?

a. To restore the function of the heart.
b. To provide a method of air exchange.
c. To clear an upper air passage obstruction.
d. To clear a lower air passage obstruction.
B. To provide a method of air exchange.
When using the mouth-to-mouth technique for administering artificial ventilation, how often should you force air into the victim's lungs?

a. Only every 3 seconds
b. Only every 4 seconds.
c. Only every 5 seconds.
d. Only every 6 seconds.
C. Only every 5 seconds.
The mouth-to-nose technique for administering artificial ventilation is effective on which of the following victims?

a. The victim who is breathing very slowly.
b. The victim who is very young.
c. The victim who has extensive facial injuries.
d. Both B and C.
D. Both B and C.
How many types of pay may you receive?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
C. Three
Of the following salutes, which one is the most common?

a. Gun
b. Hand
c. Rifle
d. Ruffles and flourishes
B. Hand.
When in Uniform, Navy personnel are required to salute when which of the following situations occurs?

a. Meeting Officers.
b. Hearing the National Anthem.
c. Approaching the National Ensign.
d. Each of the above.
D. Each of the above.
In a normal situation, how many paces from the person being saluted should the hand salute be rendered?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
C. Six
You may salute with your left hand when which of the following situations occurs?

a. When in civilian dress.
b. When in uniform but uncovered.
c. When in complete uniform and your right hand is injured.
d. Each of the above.
C. When in complete uniform and your right hand is injured.
Salutes are rendered to all officres of the U.S. and foreign armed services. Officers belonging to which of the following organizations are also entitled to salutes?

a. Local Police Departments.
b. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.
c. Public Health Service
d. Both B and C.
D. Both B and C.4
When going aboard ship that's flying the national ensign, you must stop on the upper platform on the accommodation ladder or the shipboard end of the brow and take which of the following actions first?

a. Face the national ensign and salute.
b. Face the brow of the ship and salute.
c. Face the officer of the deck and salute.
d. Face the petty officer of the watch and salute.
A. Face the national ensign and salute.
If you are in uniform and covered, how do you render honors when the national anthem is played indoors but the flag is not displayed?

a. Face the music and uncover.
b. Stand at attention while facing the music.
c. Hand salute at attention while facing the music.
d. Face the music and hold your hat next to your left shoulder.
C. Hand salute at attention while facing the music.
When the naitonal anthem is being played, Sailors in a boat must adhere to which of the following rules?

a. All persons remain seated or standing and salute.
b. Only the coxswain salutes.
c. All others remain seated but uncovered.
d. All persons standing salute.
B. Only the coxswain salutes.
Upon entering an area where Christian divine services are being held, you, as messenger of the watch, should take which of the following actions?

a. Uncover only.
b. Remove your duty belt only.
c. Request permission from the chaplain to enter.
A. Uncover only.
What march does the Navy band play to honor the President of the United States?

a. Hail, Columbia!
b. Admiral's March.
c. Hail to the Chief.
d. Stars and Stripes Forever.
C. Hail to the Chief.
An enlisted person and two officers are about to board a boat. Which of the following procedures should the enlisted person follow in entering the boat?

a. Board first and sit aft.
b. Make way for the officers to board, then board and sit in the stern of the boat.
c. Make way for the officers to board, then board and sit in the bow of the boa.
d. Board first and sit forward, leaving room aft for the officers.
D. Board first and sit forward leaving room aft for the officers.
The neckerchief is made from which of the following materials?

a. Black Silk
b. Black acetate.
c. Both A and B only.
d. Black Cotton.
C. Both A and B.
What kind of knot is used to tie a neckerchief?

a. Granny knot.
b. Square knot.
c. Sheep shank knot.
d. Bowline.
B. Square knot.
First aid has which of the following objectives?

a. To save lives.
b. To limit infection.
c. To prevent further injury.
d. Each of the above.
D. Each of the above.
In administering first aid, you are responsible for performing which of the following tasks?

a. Stop bleeding.
b. Maintain breathing.
c. Prevent or treat for shock.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
What type of ships did privateers typically sail?

a. Ships of the line.
b. Sloops of War.
c. Schooners.
d. Frigates.
C. Schooners.
Which of the following were naval vessels in the early 19th century?

a. Frigates.
b. Sloops of War.
c. Ships of the Line.
d. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
What ship was the first warfare submarine?

a. Turtle.
b. Hornet.
c. Alfred.
d. Wasp.
A. Turtle
General quarters - all battle stations are manned.

a. Condition I
b. Condition II
c. Condition III
A. Condition I
Normal wartime cruising watch - 4 hours on, 8 hours off...?

a. Condition I
b. Condition II
c. Condition III
C. Condition III
If you are scheduled to stand the second dog watch, you should report at which of the following times?

a. 1745
b. 1750
c. 1755
d. 1800
A. 1745
If you are told to report to your duty station at 0745 (24-hour clock), you sould arrive at what time?

a. 6:45 am.
b. 7:45 am.
c. 6:45 pm.
d. 7:45 pm.
B. 7:45am
What date commemorates the birthday of the United States Navy?

a. 5 Sep 1774
b. 13 Oct 1775
c. 4 Jul 1776
d. 14 eb 1778
B. 13 Oct 1775
How many articles make up the Code of Conduct?

a. Two.
b. Four.
c. Six.
d. Eight.
C. Six