Ppclues

Front 1

5 Heart Block

Back 1

(LSD Loves Company) Lyme Dz; Salmonella; Chagas; Legionella; Diphtheria

Front 2

Reiter's Syndrome

Back 2

Shigella, Yersinia, Crohn's, IBD, Chlamydia

Front 3

Low Complement Bugs

Back 3

(I AM HE) = Influenza, Adenovirus, Mycoplasma, Hep B & C, EBV

Front 4

Drugs Induced SLE

Back 4

HIPPPE) = Hydralazine, INH, Penicillamine, Procainamide, Phenytoin, Ethosuximide

Front 5

Drugs that blast the BM

Back 5

(ABC-V) = AZT, Benzene, Chloramphenecol, Vinblastin

Front 6

Comma Shaped Bugs

Back 6

Vibrio, Campylobacter, Listeria, H. pylori

Front 7

Chinese letters

Back 7

Corynbacter

Front 8

Crescent Shaped Protozoa

Back 8

Giardia lambdia

Front 9

TB Treatments

Back 9

(PRISE) = Pyrazinamide, Rifampin, INH, Streptomycin, Ethambutol

Front 10

6 low complement associated nephrotic syndromes

Back 10

serum sickness, SLE, SBE, PSGN, MPGN II, Cryoglobulinemia

Front 11

Induce P450

Back 11

(BAG for CPR QTS) Barbiturates, Alcohol, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Quinidine, Tetracyclines, Spironolactones

Front 12

Inhibit P450

Back 12

(I'D SMACK Quin) INH, Dapsone, Sulfa drugs, Macrolides, Amiodarone, Cimetadine, Ketoconazole, Quinolones

Front 13

P450 Dependent

Back 13

(WEPTeD) Warfarin, Estrogen, Phenytoin, Theophylline, Digoxin

Front 14

SE of Statins

Back 14

Myositis, Hepatitis, incr Liver enzymes

Front 15

Painful Genital lesions

Back 15

Herpes, Chancroid (H.ducreyi), Lymphogranuloma venerum, Lymphomuloma inguinale

Front 16

Disulfide Bonds

Back 16

(PIGI) = Prolactin, Inhibin, GH, Insulin

Front 17

Hookworms

Back 17

Necatar Americanis, Enterobius Vermicularis, Ankylostoma Duodenale, Trichuris Trichurium, Ascaris Lumbroicoides, Strongyloides

Front 18

X-linked Enzyme Deficiencies

Back 18

(Fabry & Lesh go Hunting for Candy, Pie and Gum) G6PD, CGD (NADPH), Fabry's, Hunter's, Lesh-Nyhan

Front 19

Screen Newborns

Back 19

(Please Check Before Going Home) PKU, Congenital Adrenal, Hyperplasia, Biotidinase, Galactosemia, Hypothyroidism

Front 20

Action of Steroids

Back 20

(KIIISS) = Kills T-cells and Eosinophils; Inhibit macrophage migration; Inhibit Phospholipase A; Inhibit mast cell degranulation; Stabilizes endothelium; Stimulates protein synthesis

Front 21

Causes of Severe Monocytosis

Back 21

(STELS) = Salmonella, TB, EBV, Listeria, Syphilis

Front 22

Macrolides

Back 22

(MACE) = macrolides; Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin

Front 23

1 dose Tx for Chlamydia

Back 23

Azithromycin

Front 24

"""Big Mama"" Anaerobes"

Back 24

Strep. Bovis; Bacteriodes fragilis, C. melango-septicus; C. difficile. ---R/O colon cancer if positive S. bovis or C. melango-septicus

Front 25

"Tx for ""Big Mama"" anaerobes"

Back 25

Methronidazole, Clindamycin, Cefoxitin

Front 26

Serum Values for Low Volume State

Back 26

Decrease -->K, Na, Cl, Increase --> pH, BP

Front 27

1 dose Tx for Gonorrhea

Back 27

Ceftrioxone, Cefixime, Cefoxitin; Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin, Gatifloxicin

Front 28

Psammoma bodies

Back 28

Papillary CA of Thyroid; Serous Cystadenoma of ovary; Meningioma; Mesothelioma

Front 29

Drugs that cause Cardiac fibrosis

Back 29

Adriamycin (Doxorubycin); Phen-Fen

Front 30

Indications for Peptic Ulcer Dz

Back 30

(IHOP) = Intractable Pain, Hemorrhage, Obstruction, Perforation

Front 31

Urease +ve Bacteria

Back 31

(PPUNCHeS) = Proteus, Pseudomonas, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Norcardia, Cryptococcus neoformans, H. pylori, S. saprofiticus

Front 32

Drugs that cause Pulmonary Fibrosis

Back 32

(BBAT) = Bleomycin, Busulfan, Amiodarone, Tocainide; methotrexate, cormustine

Front 33

Salmonella Typhi

Back 33

High fever, Rose spots, Intestinal fire, Monocytosis, Heart block

Front 34

Drugs that cause Myositis

Back 34

(RIPS) = Rifampin, INH, Prednisone (steroids), Statins

Front 35

Encapsulated Bacteria

Back 35

(Some Strange Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules); Strep. Pneumonia, Salmonella, Klebsiella, H. Flu B, Pseudomonas, Neisseria, Citrobacter

Front 36

Encapsulated Yeast

Back 36

Cryptococcus

Front 37

Jones Criteria

Back 37

(JONES) = Polyarthritis (Joints), Carditis, Nodules subcutaneous, Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea

Front 38

IgA Nephropathies

Back 38

Henoch-Schoenlein Purpura (HSP); Berger's; Alport's

Front 39

Massive Eosinophilia

Back 39

(NAACP) = Neoplasms, Allergies/ Asthma, Addison's, Collagen Vascular Dz, Parasites

Front 40

Risk Factors for Primary Liver Cancer?

Back 40

Hep B and C, Aflatoxin, Vinyl Chloride, Alcohol, Carbon Tetrachloride, Anyline dyes, Smoking, Hemochromatosis, Benzene, Schistosomiasis

Front 41

9 Live Vaccines

Back 41

Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Oral Polio, Rotavirus, Small Pox, BCG, Yellow Fever, Varicella

Front 42

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

Back 42

PTU, Cephalosporins, alpha-methyldopa, Sulfa drugs, Anti-malarials, Penicillin

Front 43

Autoimmune Thrombocytopenia

Back 43

Aspirin, Heparin, Quinidine

Front 44

Pansystolic Murmurs

Back 44

Mitral Regurg., Tricuspid Regurg., Ventrical Septal Defect

Front 45

Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitors

Back 45

Pyremethamine/Sulfadiazine; Triamethroprim/ Sulfamethoxazole; Methotrexate

Front 46

Sulfa Containing Drugs

Back 46

Sulfonamides, Sulfonylureas, Celecoxib (COX-2 inhibitor)

Front 47

Silver Staining Bugs

Back 47

Legionella, Pneumocystis, H. pylori, Bartonella henselae, Candida

Front 48

Blood Gas with RESTRICTIVE lung disease

Back 48

Tachypnea, decr CO2, decr O2, incr pH

Front 49

Blood Gas with OBSTRUCTIVE lung disease

Back 49

Incr or normal pO2, incr pCO2, decr pH

Front 50

MI- enzymes

Back 50

Troponin I = appears 2hrs; peaks 2 days, gone 7 days == CKMB = appears 6 hrs; peaks 12hrs, gone 2 days == LDH = appears 1 day; peaks 2 days, gone 3 days

Front 51

Macrophage deficiency

Back 51

Chediak Higashi; NADPH-Oxidase def. (CGD)

Front 52

1 dose tx for H. ducreyi

Back 52

Azithromycin - 1 gram; Ceftriaxone - 250 mg IM

Front 53

1 dose tx for Gardnerella

Back 53

Metronidazole

Front 54

SE of Thiazides and Loop diuretics

Back 54

Hyperglycemia; Hyperuricemia; Hypovolemia; Hypokalemia

Front 55

Macrophages in Brain?

Back 55

Microglia

Front 56

Macrophages in Lung?

Back 56

Type I Pneumocytes

Front 57

Macrophages in Liver?

Back 57

Kupffer cells

Front 58

Macrophages in Spleen?

Back 58

RES cells

Front 59

Macrophages in Kidney?

Back 59

Mesangial cells

Front 60

Macrophages in Lymph nodes?

Back 60

Dendritic cells

Front 61

Macrophages in Skin?

Back 61

Langerhans

Front 62

Macrophages in Bone?

Back 62

Osteoclasts

Front 63

Macrophages in Connective tissue?

Back 63

Histiocytes, Giant cells, Epitheloid

Front 64

Rashes of Palm and Soles

Back 64

(TRiCKSSSS) = TSS - toxic shock; Rocky Mt. Spotted Fever; Coxsackie A (Hand Foot & Mouth dz); Kawasaki; Scarlet Fever; Syphilis; Staph. Scalded Skin; Streptobacillus moniliformis

Front 65

4 sources of Renal Acid

Back 65

Plasma (RTA); Ammonia production in collecting ducts - 10% urea cycle; Glutaminase; Carbonic Anhydrase

Front 66

Hormones Produced by Small Cell CA of Lung

Back 66

ACTH (mc), ADH, PTH, TSH, ANP

Front 67

1 dose tx for Candidiasis

Back 67

Ketoconazole - 150mg

Front 68

1 dose tx for Vaginal Candidiasis

Back 68

Diflucan - 1 pill

Front 69

1 dose tx for Trichomonas

Back 69

Metronidazole

Front 70

Viruses Related to CA

Back 70

HPV = Cervical cancer; EBV = Lymphoma/ Nasopharyngeal carcinoma; HVB and HCV = Liver carcinoma; HIV = Kaposi

Front 71

NM disease concept

Back 71

Restrictive Blood Gas; decr pO2 and pCO2; incr pH, RR; Incr risk for seizures; Decr Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure

Front 72

PIE Syndrome (Pulmonary Infiltrates with Eosinophilia)

Back 72

(NASSA) = Necatar Americanus, Ascaris Lumbriocoides, Schistosomiasis, Strongyloides, Ankylostoma

Front 73

Enzymes used by B12

Back 73

Methyl Malonyl CoA mutase; Homocysteine methyl transferase

Front 74

Increased succeptibility to pseudomonas and S. aureus

Back 74

Burn patients; Cystic Fibrosis; Diabetes; Neutropenias

Front 75

Crohn's Disease

Back 75

(GIFTS) = Granuloma, Illeum, Fistula, Transmural, Skip lesions

Front 76

Causes of Widened S2

Back 76

incr pO2; incr volume Right ventricle; Blood transfusion; Supplemental O2; Right sided heart failure; Pregnancy; I.V. Fluids; ASD (fixed); Deep breathing

Front 77

Cavities of Blood loss

Back 77

Pericardium, Intracranial, Mediastinum, Pleural cavity, Thighs, Retroperitoneum, Abdominal, Pelvis

Front 78

Negative Stranded RNA

Back 78

1-3 week prodromal period before sxms; Must switch to positive stranded before it can replicate

Front 79

Positive Stranded RNA

Back 79

Sxms occur within 1 week or less; Don't have to switch before replicating; === Exceptions: Hanta, Ebola and Yellow Fever which are negative stranded

Front 80

Cyanotic Heart Diseases

Back 80

Transposition of great vessels; Tetralogy of Fallot; Truncus Arterious; Tricuspid Atresia; Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return; Hypoplastic Left Heart syndrome: Ebstein's Anomaly; Aortic Atresia; Pulmonic Atresia

Front 81

Less likely to depolarize

Back 81

Hypermagnesia; Hypercalcemia (except Atrium); Hypokalemia

Front 82

More likely to depolarize

Back 82

Hypomagnesia; Hypocalcemia (except atrium); Hyperkalemia; Hypernatremia; Hyponatremia (Ca++ effect)

Front 83

Hormones produced by the Placenta

Back 83

hCG; Inhibin: Human Placental Lactogen: Oxyctocin: Progesterone: Estrongen

Front 84

Uses of Pilocarpine

Back 84

Cystic fibrosis dx; Closed angle Glaucoma

Front 85

Causes of Dusguzia

Back 85

Metronidazole; Clarithromycin: Zinc deficiency

Front 86

Carcinoid Triad

Back 86

Flushing, Wheezing, Diarrhea --- Dx by measuring 5-HIAA in urine

Front 87

Where is carcinoid tumor’s primary location

Back 87

Appendix

Front 88

Most common metastatic location of carcinoid tumor?

Back 88

Pancreas and Ileum

Front 89

Give 4 examples of AVMs

Back 89

Heart = PDA; Elbow = dialysis fistula; Brain = Von Hippel Lindau; Lung = Osler Weber Rendu

Front 90

Hemophilus Influenza

Back 90

Gram negative rods; Pleomorphic “school of fish”; Type A = non encapsulated, non invasive, MCC of sinusitus, otitis, bronchitis; Type B = encapsulated, invasive, IgA protease, MCC of epiglotitis

Front 91

Rust Colored Sputum

Back 91

Strep. Pneumoniae (aka. pneumococcus)

Front 92

Staph. Epidermidis

Back 92

MC infection of shunts and central lines at the hospital

Front 93

How do you tell Catalase positive Staphylococi apart?

Back 93

Aureus = gold; Epidermidis = white; Saprophyticus = none

Front 94

Strep. pyogenes

Back 94

MCC of all throat infections, lymphangitis, impetigo, necrotizing facitis, erysipelas, Scarlet fever; 2nd MCC of all other skin infections

Front 95

Neutrophil Deficiencies

Back 95

Job-Buckley Syndrome; NADPH Oxidase deficiency; Neutropenia; Myeloperoxidase deficiency

Front 96

Compartment Syndrome

Back 96

Pain (always first); Pallor; Polkiothermia; Paresthesia; Pulseless (always last)

Front 97

Itchiest Rashes

Back 97

Scabies; Lichen planus; Urticaria; Dermatitis herpatiformis

Front 98

Oddities About Listeria

Back 98

Only gram positive with endotoxin; Crosses placenta; Lipid A is toxic part; Causes granulomas; Causes sepsis in neonates; Raw cabbage, spoilded milk

Front 99

Vitamin B1?

Back 99

Thiamine; Beriberi Wernickes Encephalopathy; Karsacoff

Front 100

Vitamin B2?

Back 100

Riboflavin; Angular chelosis/stomalitis

Front 101

Vitamin B3?

Back 101

Niacin; Pellegra; 4D’s

Front 102

Vitamin B4?

Back 102

Lipoic acid

Front 103

Vitamin B5?

Back 103

Pantothenic acid

Front 104

Vitamin B6?

Back 104

Pyridoxine; seizures

Front 105

Vitamin B9?

Back 105

Folate

Front 106

Vitamin B12?

Back 106

Cobalamine; perinicious anemia; neuropathy

Front 107

Periods of rapid growth

Back 107

Birth-2months; 4-7 years; Puberty

Front 108

Only Immune deficiency with low calcium?

Back 108

DiGeorge’s Syndrome

Front 109

Bugs with IgA Protease

Back 109

(Resistant to IgA) = S. Pneumonia; H. Influenza; Neisseria

Front 110

Secretions of Mast Cells

Back 110

Histamine; Slow Reacting Substance of Anaphylaxis; Eosinophil Chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis

Front 111

Secretions of Eosinophil

Back 111

Histamine; Arylsulfatase; Herparin

Front 112

Actions of E. coli

Back 112

Secrete Vitamin K, Biotin, Folate, panthothenic acid and absorption of B12

Front 113

Heart Block Clue

Back 113

Increased body temp with a normal heart rate; HR should increase by 10bpm for every 1 degree increase in temperature

Front 114

Macrophages

Back 114

Release MHC II

Front 115

TH1 Secrete

Back 115

IL-2, IF-gamma

Front 116

TH2 Secrte

Back 116

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10

Front 117

TH0 Secrte

Back 117

TH1 and TH2

Front 118

T-Cytotoxic Cells

Back 118

CD-8 positive; CD-4 negative; Recognize MHC 1; Have CD-2 and CD-3 markers

Front 119

T-Helper Cells

Back 119

CD-4 positive; CD- 8 negative; Recognize MHC II; Have CD-2 and CD-3 markers

Front 120

Elevated Cholesterol

Back 120

Xanthanthomas on extensor surfaces; incr risk for CAD

Front 121

4 Causes of Severe Pain

Back 121

Pancreatitis (EtOH); Kidney Stones (bloody urine); AAA (ripping, tearing pain radiating to back); Ischemic Bowel (blood diarrhea)

Front 122

5 Causes of SIADH

Back 122

Small Cell Carcinoma; incr intracranial pressure; A Pain; Drugs (eg. Carbamazepine); Hypoxia (Restrictive Lung Dz)

Front 123

Cell of Neural Crest Origin

Back 123

(POT CLAMPS) = Parafollicular cells; Ondontocytes; Tracheal cartilage; Chromaffin Cells; Laryngeal cartilage; All Ganglion cells/ Adrenal Gland; Melanocytes; Pseudounipolar cells/ Parafollicular cells; Spiral membrane

Front 124

Ions and the EKG

Back 124

P-wave = Ca++ ; QRS = Na+ ; ST interval = Ca++ ; T-wave = K+ and U-wave = Na+

Front 125

Maximum Sinus Rate

Back 125

220 - age in years

Front 126

Tri-Nucleotide Repeats

Back 126

Huntington’s; Fragile X; Myotonic dystrophy; Spinal/bulbar muscular atrophy; Prader Willi Syndrome; Frederick Ataxia

Front 127

Low volume states with acidosis (not alcolosis)

Back 127

Renal Tubular Acidosis; Diarrhea; Diabetes Ketoacidosis

Front 128

MCC Croup & Bronchiolitis

Back 128

Parainfluenza; RSV (ER this is #1); Adenovirus; Influenza

Front 129

4 D’s of Pellegra

Back 129

Dermatitis; Diarrhea; Dementia; Death

Front 130

Types of Kidney Stones

Back 130

Calcium oxalate (80%); Struvite (proteus); Uric Acid (radiolucent); Cysteine; Oxalate

Front 131

Pseudogout

Back 131

Ca++ pyrophosphate; positive birefringent crystals; Rhomboid crystals; MC older patients; equal in both genders; Tx = Colchicine

Front 132

MC Non-cyanotic Congenital Heart Dz

Back 132

VSD; ASD; PDA: Coarctationof aorta

Front 133

Enzymes NEVER in Glycolysis

Back 133

Pyruvate carboxylase; PEP carboxykinase; Fructose-1,6-phosphatase; Glucose-6-phosphatase

Front 134

Enzymes ONLY in Glycolysis

Back 134

Hexokinase/Glucokinase; Phosphofructokinase-1, Pyruvate kinase

Front 135

Acid Fast Organisms

Back 135

Mycoplasma; Norcardia (partially gram +ve); Cryptosporidium (partially, protozoa)

Front 136

Microsteatosis causes

Back 136

Acetaminophen; Reye Syndrome; Pregnancy)

Front 137

Macrosteatosis causes

Back 137

Alcohol

Front 138

Bacteria with Elastase

Back 138

Staph aureus and Pseudomonas

Front 139

Bacteria with toxins that inhibit EF-2

Back 139

Pseudomonas and Diphtheria

Front 140

Viruses Related to CA

Back 140

HPV = Cervical cancer; EBV = Lymphoma/ Nasopharyngeal carcinoma; HVB and HCV = Liver carcinoma; HIV = Kaposi

Front 141

NM disease concept

Back 141

Restrictive Blood Gas; decr pO2 and pCO2; incr pH, RR; Incr risk for seizures; Decr Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure

Front 142

PIE Syndrome (Pulmonary Infiltrates with Eosinophilia)

Back 142

(NASSA) = Necatar Americanus, Ascaris Lumbriocoides, Schistosomiasis, Strongyloides, Ankylostoma

Front 143

Enzymes used by B12

Back 143

Methyl Malonyl CoA mutase; Homocysteine methyl transferase

Front 144

Increased succeptibility to pseudomonas and S. aureus

Back 144

Burn patients; Cystic Fibrosis; Diabetes; Neutropenias

Front 145

Crohn's Disease

Back 145

(GIFTS) = Granuloma, Illeum, Fistula, Transmural, Skip lesions

Front 146

Causes of Widened S2

Back 146

incr pO2; incr volume Right ventricle; Blood transfusion; Supplemental O2; Right sided heart failure; Pregnancy; I.V. Fluids; ASD (fixed); Deep breathing

Front 147

Cavities of Blood loss

Back 147

Pericardium, Intracranial, Mediastinum, Pleural cavity, Thighs, Retroperitoneum, Abdominal, Pelvis

Front 148

Negative Stranded RNA

Back 148

1-3 week prodromal period before sxms; Must switch to positive stranded before it can replicate

Front 149

Positive Stranded RNA

Back 149

Sxms occur within 1 week or less; Don't have to switch before replicating; === Exceptions: Hanta, Ebola and Yellow Fever which are negative stranded

Front 150

Cyanotic Heart Diseases

Back 150

Transposition of great vessels; Tetralogy of Fallot; Truncus Arterious; Tricuspid Atresia; Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return; Hypoplastic Left Heart syndrome: Ebstein's Anomaly; Aortic Atresia; Pulmonic Atresia

Front 151

Less likely to depolarize

Back 151

Hypermagnesia; Hypercalcemia (except Atrium); Hypokalemia

Front 152

More likely to depolarize

Back 152

Hypomagnesia; Hypocalcemia (except atrium); Hyperkalemia; Hypernatremia; Hyponatremia (Ca++ effect)

Front 153

Hormones produced by the Placenta

Back 153

hCG; Inhibin: Human Placental Lactogen: Oxyctocin: Progesterone: Estrongen

Front 154

Uses of Pilocarpine

Back 154

Cystic fibrosis dx; Closed angle Glaucoma

Front 155

Causes of Dusguzia

Back 155

Metronidazole; Clarithromycin: Zinc deficiency

Front 156

Carcinoid Triad

Back 156

Flushing, Wheezing, Diarrhea --- Dx by measuring 5-HIAA in urine

Front 157

Where is carcinoid tumor’s primary location

Back 157

Appendix

Front 158

Most common metastatic location of carcinoid tumor?

Back 158

Pancreas and Ileum

Front 159

Give 4 examples of AVMs

Back 159

Heart = PDA; Elbow = dialysis fistula; Brain = Von Hippel Lindau; Lung = Osler Weber Rendu

Front 160

Hemophilus Influenza

Back 160

Gram negative rods; Pleomorphic “school of fish”; Type A = non encapsulated, non invasive, MCC of sinusitus, otitis, bronchitis; Type B = encapsulated, invasive, IgA protease, MCC of epiglotitis

Front 161

Rust Colored Sputum

Back 161

Strep. Pneumoniae (aka. pneumococcus)

Front 162

Staph. Epidermidis

Back 162

MC infection of shunts and central lines at the hospital

Front 163

How do you tell Catalase positive Staphylococi apart?

Back 163

Aureus = gold; Epidermidis = white; Saprophyticus = none

Front 164

Strep. pyogenes

Back 164

MCC of all throat infections, lymphangitis, impetigo, necrotizing facitis, erysipelas, Scarlet fever; 2nd MCC of all other skin infections

Front 165

Neutrophil Deficiencies

Back 165

Job-Buckley Syndrome; NADPH Oxidase deficiency; Neutropenia; Myeloperoxidase deficiency

Front 166

Compartment Syndrome

Back 166

Pain (always first); Pallor; Polkiothermia; Paresthesia; Pulseless (always last)

Front 167

Itchiest Rashes

Back 167

Scabies; Lichen planus; Urticaria; Dermatitis herpatiformis

Front 168

Oddities About Listeria

Back 168

Only gram positive with endotoxin; Crosses placenta; Lipid A is toxic part; Causes granulomas; Causes sepsis in neonates; Raw cabbage, spoilded milk

Front 169

Phage Mediated Toxins (Oh BED)

Back 169

O antigen of salmonella

Back 170

Botulinum

Back 171

Erythrogenic Toxin

Back 172

Diptheria

Front 174

Segmented viruses

Back 174

Orthoviridae

Back 175

Bunya

Back 176

Arena

Back 177

Reo

Front 179

Functions of adhesion molecules

Back 179

Lymphocyte homing

Back 180

Inflammation

Back 181

Cell-cell interaction

Front 183

Espphageal/Gastric cancer risk factors

Back 183

Smoking

Back 184

Alchohol

Back 185

Nitrates

Back 186

Japanese

Front 188

Bladder Cancer risk factors

Back 188

Smoking

Back 189

Aniline dyes

Back 190

Benzene

Back 191

Aflatoxin

Back 192

Cyclophosphamide

Back 193

Schistosomiasis

Back 194

VHL syndrome

Back 195

Tuberous Sclerosis

Front 197

Structures with no known function

Back 197

Appendix;
Epithalamus;
Palmaris longus;
Pancreatic Polypeptide

Back 198

Epithalamus

Back 199

Palmaris Longus

Back 200

Pancreatic Polypeptide

Front 202

Progression to RPGN

Back 202

Goodpatures (#1)

Back 203

Diabetes

Back 204

Hypertension

Back 205

Wegeners Granulomatosis

Front 207

Causes of Papillary Necrosis

Back 207

Vasculities

Back 208

AIDS

Front 210

Gram + spore formers

Back 210

Bacillus

Back 211

Clostridium perfringes

Back 212

Clostridium tetani

Front 214

Used for Cold Agglutinin testing

Back 214

Strep salivarius

Front 216

Drugs w/ disulfiram like reaction

Back 216

Chlorpropamide

Back 217

Lactams

Back 218

Antabuse

Back 219

Metronidazole

Front 221

3 toxins of bacillus

Back 221

Lethal factor

Back 222

Edema factor

Back 223

Protective factor

Front 225

Beta Blockers

Back 225

A-M : Cardioselective

Back 226

N-Z : non selctive

Back 227

C/L : agonist/antagonist

Front 229

Fanconi syndrome

Back 229

Defect in PCT

Back 230

Cant reabsorb

Back 231

Low energy state

Back 232

Can be caused by old tetracycline

Front 234

Glutaminase

Back 234

In collecting ducts

Back 235

Absorbs ammonia in liver

Back 236

cause of hepato-renal syndrome

Front 238

3 anatomin narrowings of ureter

Back 238

Hilum

Back 239

Pelvic Brim

Back 240

Entrance of Bladder

Front 242

Odd MCC of death

Back 242

SLE, endometrial and cervical cancer

Back 243

RENAL FAILURE

Front 245

Methotrexate uses

Back 245

Dx fragile X;
Tx Molar Pregnancy
Tx. Fast growing CA
Tx. Steroid resistant disease

Back 246

TX molar pregnancy

Back 247

TX fast growing cancer

Back 248

TX steriod resistant disease

Front 250

Group D strep

Back 250

Viridans (green pigment) causes SBE

Back 251

Mutans - cavities

Back 252

Sanguis

Back 253

Salivarius

Back 254

Bovis

Front 256

Nephritic Syndrome

Back 256

HTN

Back 257

Hematuria

Back 258

RBC casts

Front 260

Nephrotic Syndrome

Back 260

Edema

Back 261

Hyperlipidemia

Back 262

Hypercholesterolemia

Back 263

Hypercoagulable

Back 264

decrease serum Albumin

Back 265

increase urine Albumin

Front 267

MCC of airway infection(sinusitis, otitis, bronchitis, pneumo)

Back 267

1) strep pneumo

Back 268

2) H influenza

Back 269

3) N meningitidis

Front 271

Gastroenteritis within 8 hours of eating (pre formed toxins)

Back 271

Staph Aureus (potato salad)

Back 272

C perfringes ( holiday ham/turkey)

Back 273

B cereus ( reheated fried rice)

Front 275

Citrobacter

Back 275

Multiple cerebral abscess in newborns

Front 277

MCC of UTI

Back 277

1) Ecoli

Back 278

2)proteus

Back 279

3) Klebsiella

Front 281

MCC infection of females age 5-10 and 18-24

Back 281

S. saprophyticus (sticking things in themselves)

Front 283

S Aureus

Back 283

MCC osteomyelitis

Back 284

MCC infection in burn patients

Front 286

MCC newborn Meningitis

Back 286

Group B strep

Back 287

E Coli

Back 288

Listeria

Front 290

Bacteria associated with colon cancer

Back 290

C Melanogosepticus

Back 291

S bovis

Front 293

Strict anaerobis gram -

Back 293

H influenza

Back 294

Niesseria

Front 296

Pre renal failure

Back 296

serum BUN above 20

Back 297

serum Creatanine above 40

Back 298

fractional Na exc. Above 2%

Front 300

Renal Failure

Back 300

BUN 10-15

Back 301

Creatinine less than 20

Back 302

Fractional Na exc. Greater then 2%

Front 304

Extravasation

Back 304

Pavementing

Back 305

Margination

Back 306

Diapedesis

Back 307

Migration

Front 309

If cell mediated imm is defective - TX for

Back 309

Viral

Back 310

Fungal

Back 311

Mycobacterium

Back 312

Protozoa

Back 313

Parasite

Back 314

Neoplasm

Front 316

Herpes virus types

Back 316

I - oral

Back 317

II genital

Back 318

III varicella zoster

Back 319

IV EBV

Back 320

V CMV

Back 321

VI Roseola

Back 322

VII Pityriasis Rosea

Back 323

VIII Kaposi

Front 325

Dz piced up during delivery

Back 325

Group B Strep

Back 326

S Pneumo

Back 327

Herpes

Back 328

N gonorrhea

Back 329

Chlamydia

Front 330

Page 6

Back 330

PPclue Flash Cards

Front 331

T & B-cell Deficiencies

Back 331

WAS – Thrombocytopenia, IL-4, Eczema, ↓ IgM --|-- SCID – Adenosine deaminase deficiency, T> B, frameshift/nonsense mutation, ↑ bacterial & fungal infx. --|-- CVID – Tyrosine kinase deficiency, Late onset, frameshift/missense mutation --|-- HIV (HTLV-1) – Effects CD-4 rich tissues (brian, testicles, cervix, rectum, blood vessels), T>B --|-- Job-Buckley Syndrome – red headed female, Tyrosine kinase deficiency

Front 332

B-Cell Deficiencies

Back 332

Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia – Tryosine kinase deficiency --|-- Leukemias --|-- Lymphomas --|-- See above for those with T-cell overlap --|-- HIV (HTLV-1) – Effects CD-4 rich tissues (brian, testicles, cervix, rectum, blood vessels), T>B --|-- SCID – Adenosine deaminase deficiency, T> B, frameshift/nonsense mutation, ↑ bacterial & fungal infx.

Front 333

T-Cell Deficiencies

Back 333

DiGeorge’s – hypokalemia, problem with 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches, deletion of chromosome 22 --|-- HIV --|-- See above for those with B-cell overlap --|-- HIV (HTLV-1) – Effects CD-4 rich tissues (brian, testicles, cervix, rectum, blood vessels), T>B --|-- SCID – Adenosine deaminase deficiency, T> B, frameshift/nonsense mutation, ↑ bacterial & fungal infx.

Front 334

Electron Transport Chain Poisons, Chemical Uncouplers, Physical Uncouplers

Back 334

Electron Transport Chain --|-- Poisons --|-- Complex I…….Amytal, Rotenone --|-- Complex II……Malonate --|-- Complex III…..Antimycin --|-- Complex IV…..CN, CO, Chloramphenicol --|-- Complex V……Oligomycin --|-- --|-- Chemical Uncouplers --|-- DNP --|-- Free Fatty Acids --|-- --|-- Physical Uncouplers - Aspirin

Front 335

Electron Transport Chain Poisons

Back 335

Poisons --|-- Complex I…….Amytal, Rotenone --|-- Complex II……Malonate --|-- Complex III…..Antimycin --|-- Complex IV…..CN, CO, Chloramphenicol --|-- Complex V……Oligomycin --|--

Front 336

Electron Transport Chain Chemical Uncouplers

Back 336

Chemical Uncouplers --|-- DNP --|-- Free Fatty Acids --|--

Front 337

Electron Transport Chain Physical Uncouplers

Back 337

Physical Uncouplers - Aspirin

Front 338

Places where Amino Acids feed in/out of TCA Cycle

Back 338

Pyruvate…………..Gly, Ala, Ser --|-- Acetyl CoA……….Phe, Iso, Thr, Tyr, Lys, Leu --|-- α-ketogluterate……Glu, Gln --|-- Succinyl CoA…….Phe, Trp, Tyr --|-- Fumerate………….Pro --|-- Oxaloacetate………Asp, Asn

Front 339

Amino Acid Deficiencies

Back 339

PKU – Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency, needed to make tyrosine, leads to a lack of Dopamine, Epi and Norepi, melanin --|-- Maple Syrup Urine Disease – deficiency in branched amino acids (Leu, Lys, Val), defective transport in the kidneys --|-- Cystinuria – Cystathione synthase deficiency; cysteine, ornithine, lysine and Arginine end up in urine, stones --|-- --|-- --|-- --|-- --|--

Front 340

Thr – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 340

Threonine

Front 341

Cys – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 341

Cysteine

Front 342

Tyr – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 342

Tyrosine

Front 343

Asn – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 343

Asparagine

Front 344

Gln – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 344

Glutamine

Front 345

Asp – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 345

Aspartic Acid

Front 346

Glu – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 346

Glutamic Acid

Front 347

Lys – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 347

Lysine

Front 348

Arg – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 348

Arginine

Front 349

His – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 349

Histidine

Front 350

Gly – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 350

Glycine

Front 351

Ala – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 351

Alanine

Front 352

Val – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 352

Valine

Front 353

Leu – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 353

Leucine

Front 354

Iso – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 354

Isoleucine

Front 355

Met – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 355

Methionine

Front 356

Phe – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 356

Phenylalanine

Front 357

Trp – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 357

Tryptophan

Front 358

Pro – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 358

Proline

Front 359

Ser – (Amino Acid Abbreviation stands for : )

Back 359

Serine

Front 360

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Acidic:

Back 360

Asp Glu

Front 361

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Basic

Back 361

: Arg Lys

Front 362

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Sulfur Bonds:

Back 362

Cys Met

Front 363

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - O-Bonds:

Back 363

Ser Thr Trp

Front 364

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - N-Bonds

Back 364

: Asp Gln

Front 365

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Branched:

Back 365

Leu Iso Val

Front 366

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Bulky (Aromatic):

Back 366

Phe Thr Trp

Front 367

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Smallest

Back 367

: Gly

Front 368

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Responsible for Bends:

Back 368

Pro

Front 369

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Ketogenic

Back 369

: Lys Leu

Front 370

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Glucogenic & Ketogenic:

Back 370

Mr. PITT = Phe Iso Thr Trp

Front 371

Give the amino acid in this subgroup - Glucogenic His

Back 371

Arg Glu Asp Gln Asn Tyr Cys Pro Met Val Ala Gly

Front 372

Essential Amino Acids

Back 372

Essential Amino Acids --|-- (PVT TIM HALL) --|-- Phe Trp His --|-- Val Iso Arg --|-- Thr Met Leu --|-- Lys --|-- --|-- *****If there is a deficiency in Phe then Tyr becomes essential (like in PKU). If there is a deficiency in Met then Cys becomes essential***** --|--

Front 373

If there is a deficiency in Phe (Phenylalanine) what amino acid becomes essential?

Back 373

--|-- --|--

Front 374

If there is a deficiency in Met (Methionine) what amino acid becomes essential?

Back 374

If there is a deficiency in Met then Cys becomes essential --|-- *****If there is a deficiency in Phe then Tyr becomes essential (like in PKU). ***** --|-- Essential Amino Acids --|-- (PVT TIM HALL) --|-- Phe Trp His --|-- Val Iso Arg --|-- Thr Met Leu --|-- Lys --|--

Front 375

Give a list of the restriction enzymes (in the body)

Back 375

Restriction Enzymes --|-- (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --|-- Trypsin…………………………………………….Arg, Lys --|-- Chymotrypsin…………………………….…..Phe, Tyr, Trp --|-- Elastase…………………………………..……Gly, Ser, Ala --|-- Mercaptoethanol…………………………………...Met, Cys --|-- Aminopeptidase……………………………..amino terminal --|-- Carboxypeptidase………………….Left of carboxy terminal --|-- Cyanobromide......……………...……………………….Met

Front 376

What do the different restriction enzymes cut?

Back 376

Restriction Enzymes --|-- (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --|-- Trypsin…………………………………………….Arg, Lys --|-- Chymotrypsin…………………………….…..Phe, Tyr, Trp --|-- Elastase…………………………………..……Gly, Ser, Ala --|-- Mercaptoethanol…………………………………...Met, Cys --|-- Aminopeptidase……………………………..amino terminal --|-- Carboxypeptidase………………….Left of carboxy terminal --|-- Cyanobromide......……………...……………………….Met

Front 377

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Trypsin

Back 377

Arg, Lys

Front 378

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Chymotrypsin

Back 378

Phe, Tyr, Trp

Front 379

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Elastase

Back 379

Gly, Ser, Ala

Front 380

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Mercaptoethanol

Back 380

Met, Cys

Front 381

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Aminopeptidase

Back 381

amino terminal

Front 382

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Carboxypeptidase

Back 382

Left of carboxy terminal

Front 383

Restriction Enzymes – what/where does this cut? - (Cut to the right unless otherwise specified) --- Cyanobromide

Back 383

Met

Front 384

Pg7

Back 384

PPclues

Front 385

Name the major second messengers (7)

Back 385

2nd Messangers ; -cAMP……………Sympathetic, catabolic, CRH ; -cGMP………..…..Parasympathetic, anabolic ; -IP3/DAG……..…..Smooth muscle contraction by horm./NT ; -…………All hypothalamic hormones (except CRH) ; -Ca:Calmodulin…..Smooth muscle contraction by distention ; -Ca++…………….Gastrin ; -Tyrosine Kinase…Insulin and all growth factors ; -NO…………….…Nitrates, Viagra, ANP and LPS ; -

Front 386

What is the main sympathetic second messenger?

Back 386

cAMP……………Sympathetic, catabolic, CRH ; -

Front 387

What is the main Parasympathetic second messenger?

Back 387

cGMP………..…..Parasympathetic, anabolic ; -

Front 388

What is the main second messenger for .Smooth muscle contraction by hormone./NT?

Back 388

IP3/DAG……..…..Smooth muscle contraction by horm./NT ; -…………All hypothalamic hormones (except CRH) ; -

Front 389

What is the main second messenger for .Smooth muscle contraction by distension?

Back 389

Ca:Calmodulin…..Smooth muscle contraction by distention ; -

Front 390

What is the main hypothalamic hormone second messenger?

Back 390

IP3/DAG……..…..Smooth muscle contraction by horm./NT ; -…………All hypothalamic hormones (except CRH) ; -

Front 391

What is the main Gastrin second messenger?

Back 391

Ca++…………….Gastrin ; -

Front 392

What is the main Insulin and all growth factors second messenger?

Back 392

Tyrosine Kinase…Insulin and all growth factors ; -

Front 393

What is the main Nitrates, Viagra, ANP and LPS second messenger?

Back 393

NO…………….…Nitrates, Viagra, ANP and LPS ; -

Front 394

What is the exception to the rule for the main hypothalamic hormone second messenger?

Back 394

IP3/DAG……..…..Smooth muscle contraction by horm./NT ; -…………All hypothalamic hormones (except CRH) ; -

Front 395

SLE (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) ; -For this Disease )

Back 395

; - Smith ; - Double stranded DNA ; - Cardiolipin ; -

Front 396

Drug Induced SLE - (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) ; -For this Disease )

Back 396

; - Histone ; -

Front 397

Progressive Systemic Sclerosis (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) ; -For this Disease )

Back 397

; - Topoisomerase ; -

Front 398

Graves (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) ; -For this Disease )

Back 398

; - TSH Receptor ; -

Front 399

CREST (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) ; -For this Disease )

Back 399

; - Centromere ; -

Front 400

Goodpasture’s (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 400

; - Glomerular Basement Membrane ; - (aka. Type IV Collagen) ; -

Front 401

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 401

; - Mitochondria ; -

Front 402

Alopecia Areata (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 402

; - Hair follicle ; -

Front 403

Rheumatoid Arthritis (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 403

; - IgG ; -

Front 404

Multiple Sclerosis (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 404

; - Myelin Receptors ; -

Front 405

Celiac Sprue (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 405

; - Gliaden/gluten ; -

Front 406

Type I Diabetes (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 406

; - Islet cell receptor ; -

Front 407

Vitiligo (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 407

; - Melanocyte ; -

Front 408

Myathenia Gravis (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 408

; - Acetylcholine receptor ; -

Front 409

Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 409

; - Ribonuclear protein ; -

Front 410

Pernicious anemia (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 410

; - Parietal cell receptor ; - (aka. Intrinsic factor) ; -

Front 411

Pemphigus vulgaris (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 411

; - Epidermal anchoring protein receptor ; - (aka. Intercellular junctions of epidermal cells ; -

Front 412

Bullous pemphigoid (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 412

; - Epidermal basement membrane protein ; -

Front 413

Hashimoto’s (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 413

; - Thyroglobulin ; - Microsomal ; -

Front 414

Scleroderma (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 414

; - Smooth Muscle ; - SCL-70 ; -

Front 415

Sjogren’s (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 415

; - Rho ; - La ; - SSA ; - SSB ; -

Front 416

Wegener’s (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 416

; - Proteinase ; - C-ANCA ; -

Front 417

Polyarteritis Nodosa (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 417

; - P-ANCA ; -

Front 418

Idiopathic Thrombocytic Purpura (give the Autoimmune Antibodie(s) For this Disease )

Back 418

; - Platelet ; - (aka glycoprotein IIb/IIIa) ; -

Front 419

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? ; - Smith ; - Double stranded DNA ; - Cardiolipin ; -

Back 419

SLE

Front 420

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Histone ; -

Back 420

Drug Induced SLE

Front 421

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Topoisomerase ; -

Back 421

Progressive Systemic Sclerosis

Front 422

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  TSH Receptor ; -

Back 422

Graves

Front 423

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Centromere ; -

Back 423

CREST

Front 424

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Glomerular Basement Membrane ; - (aka. Type IV Collagen) ; -

Back 424

Goodpasture’s

Front 425

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Mitochondria ; -

Back 425

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

Front 426

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Hair follicle ; -

Back 426

Alopecia Areata

Front 427

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  IgG ; -

Back 427

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Front 428

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Myelin Receptors ; -

Back 428

Multiple Sclerosis

Front 429

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Gliaden/gluten ; -

Back 429

Celiac Sprue

Front 430

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Islet cell receptor ; -

Back 430

Type I Diabetes

Front 431

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Melanocyte ; -

Back 431

Vitiligo

Front 432

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Acetylcholine receptor ; -

Back 432

Myathenia Gravis

Front 433

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Ribonuclear protein ; -

Back 433

Mixed Connective Tissue Disease

Front 434

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Parietal cell receptor ; - (aka. Intrinsic factor) ; -

Back 434

Pernicious anemia

Front 435

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Epidermal anchoring protein receptor ; - (aka. Intercellular junctions of epidermal cells ; -

Back 435

Pemphigus vulgaris

Front 436

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Epidermal basement membrane protein (desmosome); -

Back 436

Bullous pemphigoid

Front 437

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Thyroglobulin ; - Microsomal ; -

Back 437

Hashimoto’s

Front 438

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Smooth Muscle ; - SCL-70 ; -

Back 438

Scleroderma

Front 439

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Rho ; - La ; - SSA ; - SSB ; -

Back 439

Sjogren’s

Front 440

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Proteinase ; - C-ANCA ; -

Back 440

Wegener’s

Front 441

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  P-ANCA ; -

Back 441

Polyarteritis Nodosa

Front 442

What autoimmune disease is most likely associated with these autoimmune antibodies? -  Platelet ; - (aka glycoprotein IIb/IIIa) ; -

Back 442

Idiopathic Thrombocytic Purpura

Front 443

What are the cofactors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH (dehydrogenase); -

Back 443

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 444

Give the vitamins associated with these cofactors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH -  TPP ; - Lipoic Acid ; - CoA ; - FAD; - NAD ; -

Back 444

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 445

TPP……Thiamin (B1) is in a group of cofactors for which three dehydrogenases? (name the three)

Back 445

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 446

Lipoic Acid………..B4 is in a group of cofactors for which three dehydrogenases? (name the three)

Back 446

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 447

CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) is in a group of cofactors for which three dehydrogenases? (name the three)

Back 447

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 448

FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; -is in a group of cofactors for which three dehydrogenases? (name the three)

Back 448

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 449

NAD……...Niacin (B3) is in a group of cofactors for which three dehydrogenases? (name the three)

Back 449

Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, α-ketogluterate DH & Branched Chain DH ; -(TLC For Nanna) ; - TPP……Thiamin (B1) ; - Lipoic Acid………..B4 ; - CoA……..Pantothentic Acid (B5) ; - FAD………….Riboflavin (B2) ; - NAD……...Niacin (B3) ; -[All of these vitamins help MAKE this associated compound (ie, niacin helps make NAD, or B2 helps make FAD2) or are transformed or included in the structure or is analogous to their associated compound-FA]; -

Front 450

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -

Back 450

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -- • Burton’s Agammaglobulinemia ; -- • CGD (NADPH Oxidase deficiency) ; -- • Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy ; -- • Color Blindness ; -- • Hemophilia ; -- • G6PD ; -- • Lesch-Nyhan ; -- • Pyruvate DH deficiency ; -- • Fabry’s ; -- • Hunter’s - X linked Dominant :; -• Huntington’s ; -- • Vitamin D resistant Rickets

Front 451

What is the mode of inheritance of: Burton’s Agammaglobulinemia

Back 451

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -

Front 452

What is the mode of inheritance of: CGD (NADPH Oxidase deficiency)

Back 452

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -

Front 453

What is the mode of inheritance of: Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

Back 453

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -

Front 454

What is the mode of inheritance of: Color Blindness

Back 454

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -

Front 455

What is the mode of inheritance of:  Hemophilia

Back 455

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -

Front 456

What is the mode of inheritance of: G6PD

Back 456

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance (10); -

Front 457

What is the mode of inheritance of: Lesch-Nyhan

Back 457

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance (10)

Front 458

What is the mode of inheritance of: Pyruvate DH deficiency

Back 458

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance (10)

Front 459

What is the mode of inheritance of: Fabry’s

Back 459

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance (10)

Front 460

What is the mode of inheritance of: Hunter’s

Back 460

Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance (10)

Front 461

Name two diseases that can show x linked dominant inheritance

Back 461

X linked Dominant :; -• Huntington’s ; - - • Vitamin D resistant Rickets; -Diseases with X-linked Recessive Inheritance ; -(10); -- • Burton’s Agammaglobulinemia ; -- • CGD (NADPH Oxidase deficiency) ; -- • Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy ; -- • Color Blindness ; -- • Hemophilia ; -- • G6PD ; -- • Lesch-Nyhan ; -- • Pyruvate DH deficiency ; -- • Fabry’s ; -- • Hunter’s -

Front 462

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: Renal Artery Stenosis

Back 462

Clot in front of renal artery

Front 463

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: Renal Failure

Back 463

Clot off entire renal artery

Front 464

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: GN

Back 464

Inflamed glomeruli

Front 465

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: Papillary Necrosis

Back 465

Clot in papilla

Front 466

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: Interstitial Nephritis

Back 466

Clot of medulla

Front 467

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: Focal Segmental GN

Back 467

Clot off pieces of nephron

Front 468

Nephrotic Patterns of Vasculitis - name the clue to look for in this pathology: Rapidly Progressive GN

Back 468

Clot off lots of nephrons

Front 469

MC Nephrotic Disease in Adults

Back 469

Membranous GN

Front 470

MC Renal Dis. in Blacks/Hispanics

Back 470

Focal Segmental GN

Front 471

MC Renal Disease in HIV/drug users

Back 471

Focal Segmental GN

Front 472

MC Renal Mass

Back 472

Cyst

Front 473

MC Malignant Renal tumor in adults

Back 473

adenocarcinoma

Front 474

MC Malignant Renal tumor in kids

Back 474

Wilm’s tumor

Front 475

MCC of Rapidly Progressive GN

Back 475

Goodpasture’s

Front 476

MC Nephrotic Disease in kids

Back 476

Minimal Change Disease

Front 477

What formations do you see in RPGN?

Back 477

crescent formations (rapidly progressive “crescentic” glomerulonephritis)

Front 478

What is a common etiology association with Minimal Change Disease

Back 478

2 weeks post URI

Front 479

A child 2 weeks post URI can have what kind of benign kidney syndrome?

Back 479

Minimal change disease

Front 480

Give the rescue drugs to use if needed after administering thrombolytic or anticoagulant therapy (their “antidotes”)

Back 480

Thrombolytics and Rescues ; - tPa………………………………..Amioncaproic acid ; - Streptokinase…………………….Aminocaproic acid ; - Warfarin………………………………..…Vitamin K ; - Heparin…………………………….Protamine Sulfate --- If active hemorrhage give Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) -

Front 481

What is the rescue/antidote for this thrombolytic/anticoagulant? tPa

Back 481

Amioncaproic acid

Front 482

What is the rescue/antidote for this thrombolytic/anticoagulant? Streptokinase

Back 482

Aminocaproic acid

Front 483

What is the rescue/antidote for this thrombolytic/anticoagulant? Warfarin

Back 483

Vitamin K

Front 484

What is the rescue/antidote for this thrombolytic/anticoagulant? Heparin

Back 484

Protamine Sulfate - If active hemorrhage give Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) ; -

Front 485

What is the rescue/antidote for this thrombolytic/anticoagulant? tPa

Back 485

Amioncaproic acid

Front 486

Amioncaproic acid is the rescue/antidote for what thrombolytic/anticoagulant drug therapy?

Back 486

 tPa

Front 487

Aminocaproic acid is the rescue/antidote for what thrombolytic/anticoagulant drug therapy?

Back 487

 Streptokinase

Front 488

Vitamin K is the rescue/antidote for what thrombolytic/anticoagulant drug therapy?

Back 488

 Warfarin

Front 489

Protamine Sulfate is the rescue/antidote for what thrombolytic/anticoagulant drug therapy?

Back 489

 Heparin - If active hemorrhage give Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) ; -

Front 490

Page 8

Back 490

Ppclues

Front 491

What are the Rashes Associated with Cancer?

Back 491

Urticaria (hives)………..any, but especially lymphoma ; - Paget’s Disease……………….....intraductal carcinoma ; - Seborrheic keratosis……colon cancer (HIV is sudden ↑) ; - Actinic keratosis……...squamous cell carcinoma of skin ; - Dermatomyositis (heliotropic, malar)...……colon cancer ; - Akanthosis nigricans....visceral CA & end organ damage ; - Erythema nodosum………granulomatous (nonbacterial) ; -

Front 492

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Urticaria (hives

Back 492

any, but especially lymphoma

Front 493

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Paget’s Disease

Back 493

intraductal carcinoma

Front 494

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Seborrheic keratosis

Back 494

colon cancer (HIV is sudden ↑)

Front 495

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Actinic keratosis

Back 495

squamous cell carcinoma of skin

Front 496

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Dermatomyositis (heliotropic, malar

Back 496

colon cancer

Front 497

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Akanthosis nigricans

Back 497

visceral CA & end organ damage

Front 498

This rash is associated with which cancer or other pathology? Erythema nodosum

Back 498

granulomatous (nonbacterial)

Front 499

What is the major factor in cancer grading?

Back 499

Cancer Grading – Severity of microscopic changes - (Cancer Staging – Degree of dissemination of tumor ); -

Front 500

What is the major factor in cancer staging? - ; -

Back 500

Cancer Staging – Degree of dissemination of tumor - (Cancer Grading – Severity of microscopic changes ) -

Front 501

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- l-myc

Back 501

Small cell carcinoma of the lung ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 502

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- c-myc

Back 502

Burkitt’s Lymphoma ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 503

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- n-myc

Back 503

Neuroblastoma ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 504

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- c-abl

Back 504

CML, ALL ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 505

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- c-myb

Back 505

Colon, AML ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 506

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- c-sis

Back 506

Osteosarcoma, glioma, fibroscarcoma ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 507

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- ret

Back 507

MEN II, MEN III ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 508

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- k-ras

Back 508

Lung, Colon ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 509

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- bcl-2

Back 509

Follicular lymphoma (can show up in Burkitts – pick follicular ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -first)

Front 510

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- Rb

Back 510

Retinoblastoma ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 511

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- CEA

Back 511

Colon, Pancreas ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 512

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- S-100

Back 512

Melanoma ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 513

Name which neoplasm is associated with this tumor marker/oncogene -- HER-II, Neu, Erb, ; -BRCA-I & II, p53, CSF-1

Back 513

Breast ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 514

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Small cell carcinoma of the lung

Back 514

l-myc ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 515

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Burkitt’s Lymphoma

Back 515

c-myc ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 516

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Neuroblastoma

Back 516

n-myc ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 517

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- CML, ALL

Back 517

c-abl ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 518

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Colon, AML

Back 518

c-myb ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 519

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Osteosarcoma, glioma, fibroscarcoma

Back 519

c-sis ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 520

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- MEN II, MEN III

Back 520

ret ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 521

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Lung, Colon

Back 521

k-ras ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 522

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Follicular lymphoma (can show up in Burkitts – pick follicular first)

Back 522

bcl-2 ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 523

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Retinoblastoma

Back 523

Rb ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease (loss of heterozigosity)

-Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 524

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Colon, Pancreas

Back 524

CEA ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 525

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Melanoma

Back 525

S-100 ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 526

Name which tumor marker/oncogene is associated with this neoplasm -- Breast

Back 526

HER-II, Neu, Erb, - BRCA-I & II, p53, CSF-1 ; -Tumor Suppressor Gene - Loss of function of tumor suppressor --> cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease.; -Oncogene - Gain of function of onco-gene (“cancer”-gene)--> cancer. Need damage to only I allele.; -Tumor marker - Theses have elevated presence in blood when certain cancers are present in the body Tumor markers should not be used as the primary tool for cancer diagnosis. They may be used to confirm diagnosis, to monitor for tumor recurrence, and to monitor response to therapy.; -

Front 527

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 9:22

Back 527

Philadelphia Chromosome (CML)

Front 528

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 8:14

Back 528

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

Front 529

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 14:18

Back 529

Follicular Lymphoma

Front 530

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 15:17

Back 530

Promyeloblastic leukemia (AML)

Front 531

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 11:14

Back 531

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

Front 532

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 11:22

Back 532

Ewing’s Sarcoma

Front 533

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 17:22

Back 533

Neurofibromatosis

Front 534

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 8:14

Back 534

Burkitt’s Lymphoma (follicular is 14:18)

Front 535

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 9:22

Back 535

Philadelphia Chromosome (CML)

Front 536

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- 14:18

Back 536

Follicular Lymphoma (Burkitt is 8:14)

Front 537

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- Philadelphia Chromosome (CML)

Back 537

9:22

Front 538

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- Burkitt’s Lymphoma

Back 538

8:14

Front 539

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- Follicular Lymphoma

Back 539

14:18

Front 540

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- Promyeloblastic leukemia (AML)

Back 540

15:17

Front 541

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- Mantle Cell Lymphoma

Back 541

11:14

Front 542

Give the associated disease/translocation: -- Ewing’s Sarcoma

Back 542

11:22

Front 543

What are the enzymes needed to make glycogen (4)

Back 543

Enzymes Needed to Make Glycogen ; - Glycogen synthase ; - Branching enzymes ; -o glycogen α-1,4 glycosyl transferase ; -o glycogen α-1,6 glycosyl transferase ; -Enzymes Needed to Break Down Glycogen ; - Phosphorylase ; - Debranching enzyme ; - Α-1,6-Glucosidase ; - Phosphatase ; -

Front 544

What are the enzymes needed to break down glycogen (4)

Back 544

Enzymes Needed to Make Glycogen ; - Glycogen synthase ; - Branching enzymes ; -o glycogen α-1,4 glycosyl transferase ; -o glycogen α-1,6 glycosyl transferase ; -Enzymes Needed to Break Down Glycogen ; - Phosphorylase ; - Debranching enzyme ; - Α-1,6-Glucosidase ; - Phosphatase ; -

Front 545

What are the different lipoproteins involved in fatty acid metabolism? (give 4-5, their functions and unique characteristics)

Back 545

Lipoprotein Transport
Chylomicrons: takes triglycerides from GI to liver & endothelium ;
VLDL: takes triglycerides from liver to adipose ; VLDL: only made in the liver
IDL: takes triglycerides from adipose to tissue ;
LDL: only one to carry cholesterol ;
IDL + LDL: break down products of VLDL;
HDL

Front 546

What is the function of this lipoprotein? Chylomicrons:

Back 546

takes triglycerides from GI to liver & endothelium

Front 547

What is the function of this lipoprotein? VLDL:

Back 547

takes triglycerides from liver to adipose

Front 548

What is the function of this lipoprotein? IDL:

Back 548

takes triglycerides from adipose to tissue

Front 549

Where is this lipoprotein only made? VLDL:

Back 549

only made in the liver

Front 550

These lipoproteins are breakdown products of? IDL + LDL:

Back 550

break down products of VLDL

Front 551

What are the most common causes of meningitis?

Back 551

Meningitis (MCC) ; -0 months - 2 months……Group B strep ; -……E. coli ; -……Listeria - 2 months - 10 years……S. pneumoniae ; -……Neisseria meningitides - 10 years – 21 years……Neisseria meningitides - Over 21 years…………S. pneumoniae ; -remember – neonate less than 1 month, Infant less than one year old

Front 552

What are the most common causes of meningitis in patients 0 months - 2 months?

Back 552

0 months - 2 months……Group B strep ; -……E. coli ; -……Listeria - remember – neonate less than 1 month, Infant less than one year old; -

Front 553

What are the most common causes of meningitis in patients 2 months - 10 years?

Back 553

; -2 months - 10 years……S. pneumoniae ; -……Neisseria meningitides ; -

Front 554

What are the most common causes of meningitis in patients 10 years – 21 years?

Back 554

10 years – 21 years……Neisseria meningitides ; -

Front 555

What are the most common causes of meningitis in patients Over 21 years?

Back 555

Over 21 years…………S. pneumoniae ; -

Front 556

What are the indications for Pneumovax? Name at least 3-4

Back 556

Indications for Pneumovax ; - Covers MC 23 strains ; - Given at 2, 4 & 6 months ; - Given to anyone over 65 years old ; - Anyone who is asplenic ; - Anyone with end organ damage (CF, RF, Nephrotic) ; -

Front 557

Explain important things to note of the CD4 count in an HIV+ patient at 500, 200, and 100 in terms of treatment. What is a normal CD4 count?

Back 557

Normal CD4 count: 800-1200 in adults (up to 1500 in kids) ; - <500: begin treating with 2 nucleotide inhibitors and 1 protease inhibitor (750 in kids) ; - <200: is AIDS, add treatment for PCP ; - <100: add treatment for MAC ; -

Front 558

What CD4 count is considered AIDS in an HIV+ patient?

Back 558

Normal CD4 count: 800-1200 in adults (up to 1500 in kids) ; - <500: begin treating with 2 nucleotide inhibitors and 1 protease inhibitor (750 in kids) ; - <200: is AIDS, add treatment for PCP ; - <100: add treatment for MAC

Front 559

What is a normal CD4 Count?

Back 559

Normal CD4 count: 800-1200 in adults (up to 1500 in kids) ; - <500: begin treating with 2 nucleotide inhibitors and 1 protease inhibitor (750 in kids) ; - <200: is AIDS, add treatment for PCP ; - <100: add treatment for MAC

Front 560

In an HIV+ patient , what is the Most Common Infection

Back 560

CMV

Front 561

In an HIV+ patient , what is the Most Common Cause of death

Back 561

PCP

Front 562

In an HIV+ patient , what is the purpose of p41

Back 562

just a surface marker

Front 563

In an HIV+ patient , what is the purpose of GP120

Back 563

attachment to CD4

Front 564

In an HIV+ patient , what is the purpose of Pol

Back 564

transcription

Front 565

In an HIV+ patient , what is the purpose of Reverse transcriptase

Back 565

integration

Front 566

In an HIV+ patient , what is the purpose of p17 and p24 antigens

Back 566

assembly

Front 567

What is the most common cause of infection in HIV+ Patient? The MCC of death ?

Back 567

Most Common Infection.…...…….……………….…..CMV ; -Most Common Cause of death...……………..…………PCP ; -Normal CD4 count: 800-1200 in adults (up to 1500 in kids) ; - <500: begin treating with 2 nucleotide inhibitors and 1 protease inhibitor (750 in kids) ; - <200: is AIDS, add treatment for PCP ; - <100: add treatment for MAC

Front 568

Explain the function of the Pol gene, GP120, and p17, p24 antigens in an HIV infection

Back 568

p41.……………………………………just a surface marker ; -GP120…..……………………………….attachment to CD4 ; -Pol….……………………….………………….transcription ; -Reverse transcriptase….………...……………….integration ; -p17 and p24 antigens….…………..……………….assembly ; -

Front 569

Name some characteristics of autosomal dominant inheritance (8)

Back 569

Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects ; -(if one parent is has one diseased allele{has the disease}– chances of child having it are 50%, if both parents have one, 75%) ; -

Front 570

Name some characteristics of autosomal recessive inheritance (6)

Back 570

Characteristics of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance ; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) -

Front 571

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?  Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; -

Back 571

Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects ; -(if one parent is has one diseased allele{has the disease}– chances of child having it are 50%, if both parents have one, 75%); -+---- ----+ ; -Characteristics of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance ; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Front 572

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance? Affects males and females equally ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Usually structural defects ; -

Back 572

Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects

Front 573

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance? -  Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; -

Back 573

Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects

Front 574

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; -

Back 574

Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects

Front 575

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?; - Affects males and females equally ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects ; -

Back 575

Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects

Front 576

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; -

Back 576

Characteristics of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance ; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -+---- ----+ - Characteristics of Autosomal Dominant Inheritance ; - Affects males and females equally ; - Manifests in heterozygous state ; - Can be transmitted by either parent ; - Often delayed onset (adult dx) ; - Vertical transmission ; - New mutations occur in germ cells of older fathers ; - Can exhibit reduced penetrance & variable expressivity ; - Usually structural defects ; -(if one parent is has one diseased allele{has the disease}– chances of child having it are 50%, if both parents have one, 75%); -

Front 577

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Back 577

Characteristics of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance ; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Front 578

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Back 578

Characteristics of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance ; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Front 579

The following are all characteristics of what mode of inheritance?; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Back 579

Characteristics of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance ; - Disease usually does not effect parents ; - Disease may be seen in siblings and uncles ; - Often early onset (early dx) ; - Disease only present when both alleles are mutant ; - Horizontal transmission ; - Usually enzyme defects (Inborn errors of metabolism) ; -

Front 580

Characteristics of mitochondrial inheritance:

Back 580

All females will pass on the disease

Back 581

no males will pass on the disease

Back 582

all offsprings of affected females will be affected

Back 583

often affects CNS, heart and skeletal muscle

Back 584

due to uneven cytokinesis during meiosis/oogenesis

Front 586

Immune system timeline:

Back 586

< 24 hrs -----> swelling

Back 587

at 24 hrs -----> neutrophils show up

Back 588

day 3 ----->neutrophils peak

Back 589

day 4 ----->T-cells and Macrophages show up

Back 590

Day 7 -----> Fibroblasts show up

Back 591

1 month -----> fibroblasts peak

Back 592

3-6 months -----> fibroblasts are gone

Front 594

Mitochondrial diseases:

Front 595

Leigh's Disease

Back 595

subacute necrotizing encephalopmyelopathy,

Back 596

progressive decrease in IQ

Back 597

seizures

Back 598

ataxia

Back 599

cytochrome oxidase deficiency

Front 600

Leber's Disease

Back 600

hereditary optic atrophy

Front 602

TX for hypercholesterolemia:

Front 603

Statins: PALS

Back 603

P-Provostatin (only one renally excreted)

Back 604

A-Atorvastatin (lover enzymes every 3 months)

Back 605

"L-Lovastatin ("" "")"

Back 606

"S-Simvastatin ("" "")"

Front 607

MoA:

Back 607

Inhibit HMG CoA reductase

Back 608

most active around 8pm

Back 609

must take at night for maz efficiency

Front 611

atrial action potential: Phases-

Back 611

Phase 0-depolarization

Back 612

phase 1- no name

Back 613

phase 2- plateau (A-V Node)

Back 614

phase 3- repolarization

Back 615

phase 4 automaticity (S-A Node)

Front 617

Pneumonia (MCC):

Front 618

6 weeks- 18 yrs:

Back 618

RSV (infants only)

Back 619

mycoplasma

Back 620

chlamydia pneumonia

Back 621

strep. Pneumonia

Front 622

18 yrs- 40 yrs:

Back 622

mycoplasma

Back 623

chlamydia pneumonia

Back 624

strep. Pneumonia

Front 625

40yrs- 65 yrs:

Back 625

strep. Pneumonia

Back 626

H. influenza

Back 627

anaerobes

Back 628

viruses

Back 629

mycoplasma

Front 630

elderly:

Back 630

strep. Pneumonia

Back 631

viruses

Back 632

anaerobes

Back 633

H. influenza

Back 634

Gram negative rods

Front 636

Oxalate stones:

Front 637

in 3 y.o white female-

Back 637

Cystic Fibrosis

Front 638

in 5 y.o black female-

Back 638

Celiac sprue

Front 639

in adult female-

Back 639

Whipple's Disease

Front 640

in Adult male or female-

Back 640

crohn's disease

Front 642

Pituitary Hormones:

Front 643

Anterior:

Back 643

GH- acidophilic

Back 644

Prolactine- acidophilic

Back 645

TSH- basophilic

Back 646

ACTH- basophilic

Back 647

LH- basophilic

Back 648

FSH- basophilic

Front 649

Posterior:

Back 649

ADH (supraoptic nucleus)

Back 650

Oxytocin (paraventricular nucleus)

Front 652

Sub-Acute Bacterial Endocarditis:

Back 652

MC bateria is strep veridans

Back 653

roth spots

Back 654

janeway lessions (toes)

Back 655

osler's nodes (fingers)

Back 656

splinter hemorrhages

Back 657

endocarditis

Back 658

mycotic aneurysm (septic emboli)

Front 660

Emphysema Types:

Front 661

Bullous

Back 661

Due to #1 = staph. Aureus

Back 662

due to #2= pseudomonas

Front 663

centroacinar

Back 663

due to smoking

Front 664

distalacinar

Back 664

due to normal aging

Front 665

panacinar

Back 665

due to alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

Front 667

Erythropoiesis:

Front 668

4 months gestation

Back 668

Yolk sac

Front 669

6 months gestation

Back 669

spleen, liver, flat bones

Front 670

8 months gestation

Back 670

long bones

Front 671

1 yr of age

Back 671

long bones

Back 672

* if long bones become damaged the spleen can take over,

Back 673

resulting in splenomegaly

Front 675

Diphtheria:

Back 675

its toxin ADP ribosylated EF 2

Back 676

stops cell synthesis

Back 677

gram positive

Back 678

acquired exotoxin from a virus via transduction

Back 679

causes heart block

Back 680

never scrap the membrane b/c it is highly vascular so

Back 681

it will bleed and it will also release toxin

Front 683

Cystic Fibrosis:

Front 684

sweat test

Back 684

>60 - definitive positive

Back 685

<20 - normal

Back 686

30-60 - heterozygous

Front 687

second messenger is

Back 687

IP3/ DAG

Front 688

gene is on Chromosome

Back 688

Chromosome 7

Front 689

treatment

Back 689

pilocarpine can be used to treat

Front 691

howell- jolly

Back 691

sickle cell

Front 692

heinz

Back 692

G6PD

Front 693

zebra

Back 693

niemann pick

Front 694

donovan

Back 694

leishmaniasis

Front 695

mallory

Back 695

alcoholism

Front 696

negri

Back 696

rabies

Front 697

councilman

Back 697

yellow fever

Front 698

call-exner

Back 698

ovarian tumors

Front 699

lewy

Back 699

parkinsons

Front 700

pick

Back 700

pick's disease

Front 701

barr bodies

Back 701

female

Front 702

aschoff

Back 702

rheumatic fever

Front 703

cowdry type A

Back 703

herpes

Front 704

Auer rods

Back 704

AML

Front 705

Globoid

Back 705

Krabbe's disease

Front 706

Russell

Back 706

multiple myeloma

Front 707

schiller-duvall

Back 707

yolk sac tumor

Front 708

basal bodies

Back 708

smooth muscle

Front 710

Allergic Response-Primary: CONTACT

Back 710

neutrophils work in the first 3 days

Back 711

then B-cells produce IgM:

Back 712

*shows up at 3 days

Back 713

*peaks at 14 days

Back 714

*gone in 2 months

Back 715

IgG:

Back 716

*show up at 2 weeks

Back 717

*peaks in 2 months

Back 718

*gone in 1 year

Front 719

Allergic response-secondary: MEMORY

Back 719

IgG shows up at day 3 with 5x the concentration

Back 720

*highest affinity for antigen

Back 721

*peaks in 5 years

Back 722

*stays for 10 years

Front 724

Amyloidosis-AL

Back 724

portion homologous with Ig light chain

Back 725

Primary amyloidosis, Multiple myeloma

Front 726

Amyloidosis-AA

Back 726

Unique N- terminal sequence

Back 727

Chronic active disease, Hodgkin's disease

Front 728

Amyloidosis-Pre-albumin/transthyretin

Back 728

single amino acid, substitution

Back 729

hereditary neuropathy, nephropathy, cardiopathy

Front 730

amyloidosis-AB

Back 730

b2 microglobin

Back 731

cerebral artery amyloid, alzheimers, downs

Front 732

amyloidosis-AE

Back 732

endocrine

Back 733

aging

Front 734

amyloidosis-AP

Back 734

universally associated with all amyloids

Front 736

methylene blue

Back 736

methemaglobinemia

Front 737

sodium thiosulfate

Back 737

cyanide

Front 738

CaEDTA

Back 738

lead (to test)

Front 739

penicillamine

Back 739

lead (in plasma)

Front 740

dimeraprol

Back 740

lead (in bone marrow)

Front 742

Tx for cyanide poisoning

Back 742

amyl nitrate

Back 743

sodium thiosulfate

Back 744

methylene blue

Back 745

transfusion

Front 747

Renal tubular Acidosis- type 1

Back 747

high urine pH

Back 748

acidosis

Back 749

freq UTI

Back 750

stones

Back 751

babies die <1 yr

Front 752

Renal tubular Acidosis- type 2

Back 752

low urine pH (2)

Back 753

hypokalemia

Back 754

no carbonic anhydrase

Front 755

renal tubular acidosis-type 3

Back 755

combo of type 1 and 2

Back 756

normal urine pH

Back 757

hypokalemia

Front 758

renal tubular acidosis-type 4

Back 758

diabetics

Back 759

hyperkalemia

Back 760

no aldosterone (infarcted JG apparatus)

Front 762

hemolytic properties of streptococcus

Back 762

alpha-partial hemolysis with green zone

Back 763

beta- complete hemolysis with clear zone

Back 764

Gamma- no hemolysis with red zone

Front 766

transduction

Back 766

bacteria becomes deadly when a virus injects its DNA

Front 768

transformation

Back 768

in a hospital or nursing home the bacteria has become deadly by this mechanism

Front 770

conjugation

Back 770

only occurs if bacteria has PILI

Front 772

Coumadin

Back 772

Extrinsic

Back 773

tissue

Back 774

PT

Back 775

Factors 2,7,9,10

Back 776

p.o

Back 777

8-10 hrs delay

Back 778

C/I in preg

Back 779

inhib vit k dependant factors

Front 781

heparin

Back 781

intrinsic

Back 782

blood

Back 783

PTT

Back 784

factor 3

Back 785

i.v

Back 786

immediate

Back 787

ok to preg.

Back 788

DOC for DVT

Front 790

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: DR-2

Back 790

Narcolepsy, Allergy, Goodpasture, MS --- Mnemonic - 2 Itchy Sheep (Mary and Sarah), Sleep in a Goodpasture

Front 791

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: DR-3

Back 791

Sjogren’s, SLE, Celiac Sprue, Chronic Active Hepatitis --- Mnemonic - 3 S’s and Chronic Active Hepatitis

Front 792

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: DR-3 & 4

Back 792

IDDM Type I - Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

Front 793

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: DR-4

Back 793

Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pemphigus vulgaris --- Mnemonic - RAP

Front 794

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: DR-5

Back 794

Juvenille Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pernicious Anemia --- Mnemonic - JRAP

Front 795

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: DR-7

Back 795

Steroid Induced Nephrotic Syndrome

Back 796

Celiac Disease

Front 797

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: A-3

Back 797

Hemochromotosis

Front 798

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: B-8

Back 798

Myathenia Gravis

Front 799

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: B-13

Back 799

Psoriasis w/o arthritis

Front 800

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: B-27

Back 800

Psoriasis w/ arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD, Reiter’s, Postgonococcal arthritis --- Mnemonic - 2PAIR

Front 801

What disease is this HLA Marker associated with: BW-47

Back 801

21-α-Hydroxylase deficiency (Vitamin D)

Front 802

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Narcolepsy, Allergy, Goodpasture, MS

Back 802

DR-2 --- Mnemonic - 2 Itchy Sheep (Mary and Sarah), Sleep in a Goodpasture

Front 803

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Sjogren’s, SLE, Celiac Sprue, Chronic Active Hepatitis -

Back 803

DR-3 -- Mnemonic - 3 S’s and Chronic Active Hepatitis

Front 804

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- IDDM Type I (Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus)

Back 804

DR-3 & 4

Front 805

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pemphigus vulgaris

Back 805

DR-4 --- Mnemonic - RAP

Front 806

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Juvenille Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pernicious Anemia -

Back 806

DR-5 -- Mnemonic - JRAP

Front 807

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Steroid Induced Nephrotic Syndrome

Back 807

DR-7

Front 808

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Celiac Disease

Back 808

DR-3 & B-8

Front 809

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Hemochromotosis

Back 809

A-3

Front 810

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Myasthenia Gravis

Back 810

B-8

Front 811

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Psoriasis w/o arthritis

Back 811

B-13

Front 812

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- Psoriasis w/ arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD, Reiter’s, Postgonococcal arthritis

Back 812

B-27 --- Mnemonic - 2PAIR

Front 813

What HLA marker are these diseases associated with ? -- 21-α-Hydroxylase deficiency (Vitamin D)

Back 813

BW-47

Front 814

; -Give some important characteristics about this immunoglobulin -- : IgA (3)

Back 814

; - Monomer in the blood ; - Dimer in secretions ; - Protects the mucoscal surfaces and body secretions ; -

Front 815

Give some important characteristics about this immunoglobulin -- : IgD

Back 815

; - Only known function is as a surface marker on mature B-cells ; -

Front 816

Give some important characteristics about this immunoglobulin -- : IgE (5)

Back 816

; - Mediator of Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylaxis) ; - Parasite defense ; - Responsible for allergies ; - Fc portion binds to mast cells and basophils ; - Does not fix complement ; -

Front 817

Give some important characteristics about this immunoglobulin -- : IgG (7)

Back 817

; - Second to be produced during the primary immune response ; - Only one to be produced during the secondary immune response ; - In memory (secondary) response ; -o Shows up a 3 days with 5x the concentration of primary response ; -o Peaks around 5 years ; -o Some remain in circulation for 10 years ; - Has 4 subclasses (antigenic differences in heavy chains and with disulfide bonds) ; -o IgG1 – crosses the placenta due to Fc portion ; -o IgG2 – most common deficiency, susceptible to encapsulated organisms ; -o IgG3 – Most memory antibodies ; -o IgG4 – Only one that does not fix complement ; -

Front 818

Give some important characteristics about this immunoglobulin -- : IgM (3)

Back 818

; - Present only in the primary immune response ; - Most effective in agglutination and complement fixation ; - Defense against bacteria and viruses ; -

Front 819

These Characteristics go with what immuno globulin?; - Monomer in the blood ; - Dimer in secretions ; - Protects the mucoscal surfaces and body secretions ; -

Back 819

; -IgA

Front 820

These Characteristics go with what immuno globulin? -  Only known function is as a surface marker on mature B-cells ; -

Back 820

IgD

Front 821

These Characteristics go with what immuno globulin? -  Mediator of Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylaxis) ; - Parasite defense ; - Responsible for allergies ; - Fc portion binds to mast cells and basophils ; - Does not fix complement ; -

Back 821

IgE

Front 822

These Characteristics go with what immuno globulin? -  Second to be produced during the primary immune response ; - Only one to be produced during the secondary immune response ; - In memory (secondary) response ; -o Shows up a 3 days with 5x the concentration of primary response ; -o Peaks around 5 years ; -o Some remain in circulation for 10 years ; - Has 4 subclasses (antigenic differences in heavy chains and with disulfide bonds) ; -

Back 822

IgG o - IgG1 – crosses the placenta due to Fc portion ; -o IgG2 – most common deficiency, susceptible to encapsulated organisms ; -o IgG3 – Most memory antibodies ; -o IgG4 – Only one that does not fix complement ; -

Front 823

These Characteristics go with what immuno globulin? -  Present only in the primary immune response ; - Most effective in agglutination and complement fixation ; - Defense against bacteria and viruses ; -

Back 823

IgM

Front 824

How many hyperlipidemias are there?

Back 824

5 different types ; -I - Lipoprotein Lipase – defect of the liver type only - Chylomicrons - ; -II - Receptor or receptor enzyme – IIa, IIb, or B100 - LDL - Most common in general population ; -III - APO E receptor - IDL - ; -IV - Lipoprotein Lipase – defect of the adipose type only - VLDL - ; -V - Enzyme and receptor defect – APO CII - Chylomicrons & VLDL - Associated with diabetes melitis; -

Front 825

What is the deficiency found in hyperlipidemia type I

Back 825

Lipoprotein Lipase – defect of the liver type only

Front 826

What is the deficiency found in hyperlipidemia type II

Back 826

Receptor or receptor enzyme – IIa, IIb, or B100

Front 827

What is the deficiency found in hyperlipidemia type III

Back 827

APO E receptor

Front 828

What is the deficiency found in hyperlipidemia type IV

Back 828

Lipoprotein Lipase – defect of the adipose type only

Front 829

What is the deficiency found in hyperlipidemia type V

Back 829

Enzyme and receptor defect – APO CII

Front 830

What is the lipid component involved in hyperlipidemia type I

Back 830

Chylomicrons Lipoprotein Lipase – defect of the liver type only

Front 831

What is the lipid component involved in hyperlipidemia type II

Back 831

LDL Receptor or receptor enzyme – IIa, IIb, or B100

Front 832

What is the lipid component involved in hyperlipidemia type III

Back 832

IDL APO E receptor

Front 833

What is the lipid component involved in hyperlipidemia type IV

Back 833

VLDL Lipoprotein Lipase – defect of the adipose type only

Front 834

What is the lipid component involved in hyperlipidemia type V

Back 834

Chylomicrons & VLDL Enzyme and receptor defect – APO CII

Front 835

Which hyperlipidemia is Most common in general population

Back 835

Type II - Receptor or receptor enzyme – IIa, IIb, or B100 - LDL - Most common in general population

Front 836

Which hyperlipidemia is Associated with diabetes melitis

Back 836

Type V - Enzyme and receptor defect – APO CII - Chylomicrons & VLDL - Associated with diabetes melitis

Front 837

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-1

Back 837

; - Secreted by macrophages ; - Causes fever and other non-specific symptoms of illness ; - Recruits Thelper cells ; -

Front 838

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-2 ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Back 838

; - Secreted by T cells ; - Most potent ; - Most powerful Chemotactic factor (recruits everyone) ; - Must be inactivated prior to transplantation ; -

Front 839

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-3

Back 839

; - Secreted by T cells ; - Causes B cell proliferation ; - Labeled by Thymidine ; -

Front 840

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-4

Back 840

; - Secreted by T cells ; - Causes B cell differentiation ; - Responsible for class switching to IgG and IgE ; -

Front 841

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-5 ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Back 841

; - Secreted by T cells ; - Responsible for class switching to IgA ; -

Front 842

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-8

Back 842

; - Neutrophil Chemotactic factor ; -

Front 843

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-10

Back 843

; - Suppresses cell mediated response ; - Tells macrophages and T-cells to stay away if there is a bacterial infection ; -

Front 844

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IL-12

Back 844

; - Promotes cell mediated response ; - If infection in non-bacterial it is released to recruit macrophages and T cells ; - Activates NK cells to secrete IF-γ ; - Inhibits IL-4 induced IgE secretions ; - Changes TH cells into TH1 cells ; -

Front 845

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IF-α

Back 845

; - Secreted by Leukocytes ; - Inhibits viral replication and tumor growth ; - Increases NK activity ; - Increases MHC (class I and II) expression ; - Interferes with protein synthesis ; -

Front 846

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IF-β ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Back 846

; - Secreted by fibroblast ; - Inhibits viral replication and tumor growth ; - Increases NK activity ; - Increases MHC (class I and II) expression ; - Interferes with protein synthesis ; -

Front 847

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) IF-γ

Back 847

; - Secreted by T-cells and NK cells ; - Increases NK activity ; - Increases MHC (class I and II) activity ; - Increases macrophage activity ; - Co-stimulates B-cell growth and differentiation ; - Decreases IgE secretion ; -

Front 848

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) TNF-α ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Back 848

; - aka Cachectin ; - Secreted by monocytes and macrophages ; - Induces IL-1 ; - Increases adhesion molecules and MHC class I on endothelial cells ; - Is a pyogen ; - Induces secretion IF-γ ; - Cytotoxic/Cytostatic ; -

Front 849

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) TNF-β

Back 849

; - aka Lymphotoxin ; - Secreted by T-cells ; - Cytotoxic ; -

Front 850

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) TGF-α

Back 850

; - Secreted by solid tumors (carcinoma<sarcoma) and monocytes ; - Induces angiogenesis, keratinocyte proliferation, bone resporption and tumor growth ; -

Front 851

Name important associations with this cytokine (role, cell that produces it etc... ) TGF-β ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Back 851

; - Secreted by platelets, placenta, kidney, bone, T-cells and B-cells ; - Induces fibroblast proliferation, collagen synthesis and fibronectin synthesis ; - Inhibits NK, Lymphokine Activated Killer Cells, Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes, T cell & B cell proliferation ; - Enhances wound healing and angiogenesis ; -

Front 852

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? ; - Secreted by macrophages ; - Causes fever and other non-specific symptoms of illness ; - Recruits Thelper cells ; -

Back 852

IL-1

Front 853

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by T cells ; - Most potent ; - Most powerful Chemotactic factor (recruits everyone) ; - Must be inactivated prior to transplantation ; -

Back 853

IL-2

Front 854

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by T cells ; - Causes B cell proliferation ; - Labeled by Thymidine ; -

Back 854

IL-3 ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Front 855

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by T cells ; - Causes B cell differentiation ; - Responsible for class switching to IgG and IgE ; -

Back 855

IL-4

Front 856

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by T cells ; - Responsible for class switching to IgA ; -

Back 856

IL-5

Front 857

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Neutrophil Chemotactic factor ; -

Back 857

IL-8

Front 858

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Suppresses cell mediated response ; - Tells macrophages and T-cells to stay away if there is a bacterial infection ; -

Back 858

IL-10 ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Front 859

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Promotes cell mediated response ; - If infection in non-bacterial it is released to recruit macrophages and T cells ; - Activates NK cells to secrete IF-γ ; - Inhibits IL-4 induced IgE secretions ; - Changes TH cells into TH1 cells ; -

Back 859

IL-12

Front 860

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by Leukocytes ; - Inhibits viral replication and tumor growth ; - Increases NK activity ; - Increases MHC (class I and II) expression ; - Interferes with protein synthesis ; -

Back 860

IF-α ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Front 861

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by fibroblast ; - Inhibits viral replication and tumor growth ; - Increases NK activity ; - Increases MHC (class I and II) expression ; - Interferes with protein synthesis ; -

Back 861

IF-β

Front 862

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by T-cells and NK cells ; - Increases NK activity ; - Increases MHC (class I and II) activity ; - Increases macrophage activity ; - Co-stimulates B-cell growth and differentiation ; - Decreases IgE secretion ; -

Back 862

IF-γ ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Front 863

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  aka Cachectin ; - Secreted by monocytes and macrophages ; - Induces IL-1 ; - Increases adhesion molecules and MHC class I on endothelial cells ; - Is a pyogen ; - Induces secretion IF-γ ; - Cytotoxic/Cytostatic ; -

Back 863

TNF-α

Front 864

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  aka Lymphotoxin ; - Secreted by T-cells ; - Cytotoxic ; -

Back 864

TNF-β ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor**

Front 865

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by solid tumors (carcinoma<sarcoma) and monocytes ; - Induces angiogenesis, keratinocyte proliferation, bone resporption and tumor growth ; -

Back 865

TGF-α

Front 866

What cytokine do these characteristics most likely match? -  Secreted by platelets, placenta, kidney, bone, T-cells and B-cells ; - Induces fibroblast proliferation, collagen synthesis and fibronectin synthesis ; - Inhibits NK, Lymphokine Activated Killer Cells, Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes, T cell & B cell proliferation ; - Enhances wound healing and angiogenesis ; -

Back 866

TGF-β ---- **IL = Interleukin** **IF = Interferon** **TNF = Tumor Necrosis Factor** **Transforming Growth Factor** ; -

Front 868

Give the different parts of the EKG and the corresponding portion of the heart and phase in the action potential

Back 868

P-wave - Atrium - 0 ; -P-R interval - AV node - 2 ; -Q-wave - Septum - 2 ; -R-upstroke - Anterior wall - 2 ; -S-downstroke - Posterior wall - 2 ; -S-T interval - Ventricle - 2 ; -T-wave - Ventricle - 3 ; -U-wave - Ventricle - 4

Front 869

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? P-wave

Back 869

Atrium 0

Front 870

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? P-R interval

Back 870

AV node 2

Front 871

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? Q-wave

Back 871

Septum 2

Front 872

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? R-upstroke

Back 872

Anterior wall 2

Front 873

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? S-downstroke

Back 873

Posterior wall 2

Front 874

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? S-T interval

Back 874

Ventricle 2

Front 875

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? T-wave

Back 875

Ventricle 3

Front 876

What portion of the heart does this part of the ECG /EKG represent? U-wave

Back 876

Ventricle 4

Front 877

What is the general function of this type of adhesion molecule -- IgCAM

Back 877

These are binding proteins - - ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3 - ; -• Homing of lymph nodes to site of inflammation ; -• Found on T-cells, endothelial cells, dendritic cells - ; -LFA-3 - ; -• Mediate T-cell interactions ; -• Found on lymphocytes, APC - ; -LFA-2 (CD2) - ; -• Found on T-cells, NK cells -

Front 878

What is the general function of this type of adhesion molecule -- Integrins

Back 878

These stop the leukocytes ... ; -VLA-1 (β1) - ; -• Migration thru extracellular matrix ; -• Widely distributed - ; -LFA-1 (β2) - ; -• Tight binding to endothelium ; -• Found on lymphocytes - ; -CR3 (β2) - ; -• Tight binding to epithelium ; -• Phagocytosis ; -• Mac-1 ; -• CD11/CD18 - ; -CR4 (β2) - ; -• Phagocytosis ; -• Opsonin receptor -

Front 879

What is the general function of this type of adhesion molecule -- Selectins

Back 879

BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) - E-selectins - ; -• Leukocyte migration and homing ; -• Found on activated endothelium - ; -L-selectins - ; -• Initial binding to endothelium ; -• Found on leukocytes - ; -P-selectins - ; -• Leukocyte migration to inflammatory sites ; -• Found on activated endothelium and platelets -

Front 880

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3 - ; -

Back 880

ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3 - ; -• Homing of lymph nodes to site of inflammation ; -• Found on T-cells, endothelial cells, dendritic cells - Major Group – IgCAM’s – Binding proteins [ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3, LFA-3, LFA-2 (CD2)]; -

Front 881

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3 - ; -

Back 881

Major Group – IgCAM’s – Binding proteins [ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3, LFA-3, LFA-2 (CD2)] - ; -ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3 - ; -• Homing of lymph nodes to site of inflammation ; -• Found on T-cells, endothelial cells, dendritic cells ; -

Front 882

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. LFA-3 - ; -

Back 882

Major Group – IgCAM’s – Binding proteins [ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3, LFA-3, LFA-2 (CD2)] - LFA-3 - ; -• Mediate T-cell interactions ; -• Found on lymphocytes, APC ; -

Front 883

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? LFA-3 - ; -

Back 883

LFA-3 - ; -• Mediate T-cell interactions ; -• Found on lymphocytes, APC - Major Group – IgCAM’s – Binding proteins [ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3, LFA-3, LFA-2 (CD2)] - ; -

Front 884

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. LFA-2 (CD2) -

Back 884

Major Group – IgCAM’s – Binding proteins ; -[ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3, LFA-3, LFA-2 (CD2)] - ; -LFA-2 (CD2) - ; -- • Found on T-cells, NK cells

Front 885

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? LFA-2 (CD2) -

Back 885

LFA-2 (CD2) - ; -• Found on T-cells, NK cells ; -Major Group – IgCAM’s – Binding proteins; -[ICAM-1, ICAL-2, ICAM-3, LFA-3, LFA-2 (CD2)]; -

Front 886

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. VLA-1 (β1) - ; -

Back 886

Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)] - VLA-1 (β1) - ; -• Migration thru extracellular matrix ; -• Widely distributed - ; -

Front 887

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? VLA-1 (β1) - ; -

Back 887

; -VLA-1 (β1) - ; -• Migration thru extracellular matrix ; -• Widely distributed - - Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)]

Front 888

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. LFA-1 (β2)

Back 888

Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)] - LFA-1 (β2) - ; -• Tight binding to endothelium ; -• Found on lymphocytes - ; -

Front 889

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? LFA-1 (β2)

Back 889

- LFA-1 (β2) - ; -• Tight binding to endothelium ; -• Found on lymphocytes - ; -Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)]

Front 890

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. CR3 (β2)

Back 890

Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)] - CR3 (β2) - ; -• Tight binding to epithelium ; -• Phagocytosis ; -• Mac-1 ; -• CD11/CD18 - ; -

Front 891

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? CR3 (β2)

Back 891

; -CR3 (β2) - ; -• Tight binding to epithelium ; -• Phagocytosis ; -• Mac-1 ; -• CD11/CD18 - - ; -Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)]

Front 892

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. CR4 (β2)

Back 892

Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)] - CR4 (β2) - ; -• Phagocytosis ; -• Opsonin receptor - -

Front 893

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? CR4 (β2)

Back 893

; -CR4 (β2) - ; -• Phagocytosis ; -• Opsonin receptor - - Major Group: Integrins – Role: Stop the leukocytes [Examples - VLA-1 (β1), LFA-1 (β2), CR3 (β2), CR4 (β2)]

Front 894

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. E-selectins

Back 894

Major Group : Selectins --- BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) --- [Examples, E-selectins, L-selectins, P-selectins] - E-selectins - ; -• Leukocyte migration and homing ; -• Found on activated endothelium - -

Front 895

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? E-selectins

Back 895

- E-selectins - ; -• Leukocyte migration and homing ; -• Found on activated endothelium - - ; -Major Group : Selectins --- BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) --- [Examples, E-selectins, L-selectins, P-selectins]; -

Front 896

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. L-selectins

Back 896

Major Group : Selectins --- BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) --- [Examples, E-selectins, L-selectins, P-selectins] - ; -L-selectins - ; -• Initial binding to endothelium ; -• Found on leukocytes - ; -

Front 897

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? L-selectins

Back 897

; -L-selectins - ; -• Initial binding to endothelium ; -• Found on leukocytes - - - Major Group : Selectins --- BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) --- [Examples, E-selectins, L-selectins, P-selectins]; -

Front 898

Describe theses adhesion molecules by giving the major group they belong to and the function of that group. P-selectins - ; -

Back 898

Major Group : Selectins --- BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) --- [Examples, E-selectins, L-selectins, P-selectins] - P-selectins - ; -• Leukocyte migration to inflammatory sites ; -• Found on activated endothelium and platelets - -

Front 899

Describe theses adhesion molecules, what do they specifically do, and/or where are they found, what is important to know about them? P-selectins - ; -

Back 899

- P-selectins - ; -• Leukocyte migration to inflammatory sites ; -• Found on activated endothelium and platelets - - ; -Major Group : Selectins --- BIND CARBOHYDRATES ; -MEDIATES “ROLLING” (slows leukocytes) --- [Examples, E-selectins, L-selectins, P-selectins]; -

Front 900

Describe the different hypersensitivities and the mnemonic for them.

Back 900

(ACID) ; -Type I - Anaphylaxis ; -• IgE binds to mast cells – degranulates mast cells ; -• IgA activates IP3 cascade – degrades mast cells - Type II - Cytotoxic (humoral) – Goodpasture, Autoimmune hemolytic anemia ; -Type III - Immune Complex mediated – Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE ; -Type IV - Delayed (cell mediated) – TB skin test, contact dermatitis, transplant rejection - A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 901

Describe type 1 Hypersensitivity (give the general name or term in the Mnemonic ACID, and describe the area of the immune system related, and any major diseases associated)

Back 901

Type I - Anaphylaxis ; -• IgE binds to mast cells – degranulates mast cells ; -• IgA activates IP3 cascade – degrades mast cells; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 902

Describe type 2 Hypersensitivity (give the general name or term in the Mnemonic ACID

Back 902

Type II - Cytotoxic (humoral) – Goodpasture, Autoimmune hemolytic anemia - A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 903

Describe type 3 Hypersensitivity (give the general name or term in the Mnemonic ACID

Back 903

Type III - Immune Complex mediated – Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 904

Describe type 4 Hypersensitivity (give the general name or term in the Mnemonic ACID

Back 904

type IV - Delayed (cell mediated) – TB skin test, contact dermatitis, transplant rejection ; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 905

Goodpasture, Autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated with what kind of hypersensitivity?

Back 905

Type II - Cytotoxic (humoral) – Goodpasture, Autoimmune hemolytic anemia - A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 906

Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE ; -are associated with what kind of hypersensitivity?

Back 906

Type III - Immune Complex mediated – Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 907

TB skin test, contact dermatitis, transplant rejection are associated with what kind of hypersensitivity?

Back 907

type IV - Delayed (cell mediated) – TB skin test, contact dermatitis, transplant rejection ; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 908

Anaphylaxis is associated with what kind of hypersensitivity?

Back 908

Type I - Anaphylaxis ; -• IgE binds to mast cells – degranulates mast cells ; -• IgA activates IP3 cascade – degrades mast cells; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 909

IgE and IgA are associated with what kind of hypersensitivity?

Back 909

Type I - Anaphylaxis ; -• IgE binds to mast cells – degranulates mast cells ; -• IgA activates IP3 cascade – degrades mast cells; -A- Anaphylaxis (type 1) --- C – Cytotoxic (type 2) --- I-Immune Complex (Type 3) ---- D-Delayed (cellmediated, type 4)

Front 911

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -5FU

Back 911

Inhibits thymidylate

Front 912

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Methotrexate

Back 912

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Front 913

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Hydroxyurea

Back 913

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

Front 914

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Vincristine/Vinblastin

Back 914

Inhibit microtubule formation

Front 915

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Paclitaxel

Back 915

Inhibits microtubules from migrating

Front 916

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Levamisole

Back 916

Stimulates Natural Killer (NK) cells

Front 917

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Steroids

Back 917

; -1. Kills T-cell and Eosinophils ; -2. Inhibits macrophage migration ; -3. Inhibits phospholipase A ; -4. Inhibits mast cell degranulation ; -5. Stabilizes endothelium ; -

Front 918

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Statins

Back 918

Inhibit HMG CoA reductase

Front 919

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Niacin

Back 919

Decreases VLDL production in the liver

Front 920

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Sulfonylureas

Back 920

1st generation - Block potassium channels in the islet cells increasing insulin release ;
2nd generation – Promote insulin release and inhibit gluconeogenesis in the liver

Front 921

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Miglitol/Ascarbose

Back 921

Inhibit glucose absorption from the GI

Front 922

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Metformin

Back 922

Stops gluconeogenesis in the liver

Front 923

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Troglitazone

Back 923

Increases the sensitivity of insulin receptors

Front 924

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Anti-psychotics

Back 924

Block dopamine receptors

Front 925

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Aspirin

Back 925

Irreversible inhibitor of cyclo-oxygenase

Front 926

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -K+ Sparing Diuretics

Back 926

Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist

Front 927

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Topical Anesthetics

Back 927

Block Na+ channels

Front 928

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Quinalones

Back 928

Block topoisomerase (supercoils)

Front 929

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Aminoglycosides

Back 929

Blocks Initiation Factor (IF) 2 on the 30S subunit

Front 930

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Tetracyclines

Back 930

Blocks tRNA binding on the 30S subunit

Front 931

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Rifampin

Back 931

Blocks beta subunit of RNA polymerase

Front 932

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Sulfa Drugs

Back 932

Blocks Para-Amino Benzoic Acid (PABA)

Front 933

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Cephalosporins

Back 933

Inhibit the cell wall

Front 934

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Penicillins

Back 934

Block transpeptidase

Front 935

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Chloramphenicol

Back 935

Blocks peptidyl transferase on the 50s subunit

Front 936

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Clindamycin/Lincomycin

Back 936

Blocks translocase on the 50s subunit

Front 937

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Macrolides

Back 937

Blocks translocase on the 50s subunit

Front 938

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Mitronidazole

Back 938

Increases production of free radicals

Front 939

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Vancomycin

Back 939

Blocks cell wall (phopholipid)

Front 940

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Benzodiazepine

Back 940

Increase the frequency of the GABA receptors via Cl- channels

Front 941

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Barbiturates

Back 941

Increase the duration of the GABA channels via Cl- channels

Front 942

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -TCAs

Back 942

Block reuptake of catacholamines, AV conduction and alpha receptors

Front 943

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -SSRIs

Back 943

Block reuptake of Serotonin

Front 944

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -MAOIs

Back 944

Inhibit MAO

Front 945

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Lithium

Back 945

MOA is unknown but is suspected to be related to it mimicking of Na+

Front 946

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Valproic Acid

Back 946

Blocks Na+ and sometimes Ca2+

Front 947

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Carbamizapine

Back 947

Blocks Na+ and Ca2+

Front 948

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Epinephrine

Back 948

Blocks Beta (2>1) receptors and then Alpha receptors

Front 949

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Antihistimines

Back 949

1st generation – blocks H1 and H2 receptors (H1>H2) ; -2nd generation – blocks H2 only

Front 950

Give the mechanism of this drug and/or drug class -- ; -Decongestants

Back 950

Alpha agonists ; -

Front 951

Give the name of an important drug that: Inhibits thymidylate

Back 951

5FU

Front 952

Give the name of an important drug that: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Back 952

Methotrexate

Front 953

Give the name of an important drug that: Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

Back 953

Hydroxyurea

Front 954

Give the name of an important drug that: Inhibit microtubule formation

Back 954

Vincristine/Vinblastin

Front 955

Give the name of an important drug that: Inhibits microtubules from migrating

Back 955

Paclitaxel

Front 956

Give the name of an important drug that: Stimulates Natural Killer (NK) cells

Back 956

Levamisole

Front 957

What class of drugs likes to KIIIS? ; -1. Kills T-cell and Eosinophils ; -2. Inhibits macrophage migration ; -3. Inhibits phospholipase A ; -4. Inhibits mast cell degranulation ; -5. Stabilizes endothelium ; -

Back 957

Steroids

Front 958

Name the class of drugs that: Inhibit HMG CoA reductase

Back 958

Statins

Front 959

Give the name of an important drug that: Decreases VLDL production in the liver

Back 959

Niacin

Front 960

What class of drugs would these descriptions belong to - 1st generation - Block potassium channels in the islet cells preventing insulin release ; -2nd generation – Promote insulin release and inhibit gluconeogenesis in the liver

Back 960

Sulfonylureas

Front 961

Give the name of an important drug that: Inhibit glucose absorption from the GI

Back 961

Miglitol/Ascarbose

Front 962

Give the name of an important drug that: Stops gluconeogenesis in the liver

Back 962

Metformin

Front 963

Give the name of an important drug that: Increases the sensitivity of insulin receptors

Back 963

Troglitazone

Front 964

What class of drugs: Block dopamine receptors

Back 964

Anti-psychotics

Front 965

Give the name of an important drug that: Irreversible inhibitor of cyclo-oxygenase

Back 965

Aspirin

Front 966

What class of drugs are: Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist

Back 966

K+ Sparing Diuretics

Front 967

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Block Na+ channels

Back 967

Topical Anesthetics

Front 968

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Block topoisomerase (supercoils)

Back 968

Quinalones

Front 969

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Blocks Initiation Factor (IF) 2 on the 30S subunit

Back 969

Aminoglycosides

Front 970

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Blocks tRNA binding on the 30S subunit

Back 970

Tetracyclines

Front 971

What drug Blocks beta subunit of RNA polymerase (DNA dependent) and is used in special treatment.?

Back 971

Rifampin

Front 972

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Blocks Para-Amino Benzoic Acid (PABA)

Back 972

Sulfa Drugs

Front 973

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Inhibit the cell wall

Back 973

Cephalosporins

Front 974

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Block transpeptidase

Back 974

Penicillins

Front 975

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Blocks peptidyl transferase on the 50s subunit

Back 975

Chloramphenicol

Front 976

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Blocks translocase on the 50s subunit

Back 976

Clindamycin/Lincomycin

Front 977

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Blocks translocase on the 50s subunit

Back 977

Macrolides

Front 978

Give a name of a drug that have this mechanism - Increases production of free radicals

Back 978

Mitronidazole

Front 979

Give a class of a drug that have this mechanism - Blocks cell wall (phopholipid)

Back 979

Vancomycin

Front 980

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Increase the frequency of the GABA receptors via Cl- channels

Back 980

Benzodiazepine

Front 981

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Increase the duration of the GABA channels via Cl- channels

Back 981

Barbiturates

Front 982

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Block reuptake of catacholamines, AV conduction and alpha receptors

Back 982

TCAs

Front 983

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Block reuptake of Serotonin

Back 983

SSRIs

Front 984

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism - Inhibit MAO

Back 984

MAOIs

Front 985

What is this drug: MOA is unknown but is suspected to be related to it mimicking of Na+ (hint, used in a mood disorder)

Back 985

Lithium

Front 986

Give an antiepileptic drug that is also used as a mood stabilizing drug and Blocks Na+ and sometimes Ca2+

Back 986

Valproic Acid

Front 987

What is the name of a drug used to treat severe stabbing shooting pain, and Blocks Na+ and Ca2+

Back 987

Carbamizapine

Front 988

Give the drug that Blocks Beta (2>1) receptors and then Alpha receptors

Back 988

Epinephrine

Front 989

Give a class of drugs that have this mechanism – - 1st generation – blocks H1 and H2 receptors (H1>H2) ; -2nd generation – blocks H2 only

Back 989

Antihistimines

Front 990

Alpha agonists are commonly used as what kind of drug

Back 990

Decongestants

Front 992

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: Gram+

Back 992

Tetracyclines ; -Cephalosporins ; -Penicillins; -Sulfa Drugs

Front 993

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: Gram+ & S.aureus -

Back 993

Quinolones ; -Macrolides ; -Chloramphenicol ; -Clindamycin ; -Vancomycin

Front 994

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: Simple Gram- only – (includes H.Flu (not B) and E. coli) ; -

Back 994

Tetracyclines ; -Cephalosporins ; -Macrolides ; -Sulfa Drugs ; -Chloramphenicol ; -Clindamycin

Front 995

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: All Gram- & pseudomonas -

Back 995

Quinolones ; -Aminoglysides

Front 996

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: Atypicals (Includes chylmydia, Mycoplasma, ureaplasma and legionella)

Back 996

Quinolones ; -Tetracyclines ; -Macrolides

Front 997

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: Anaerobes -

Back 997

Cephalosporins -- Simple only (no “Big Mama”); -Penicillins-- Simple only (no “Big Mama”) - Chloramphenicol ; -Clindamycin ; -Vancomycin ; -Metronidazole

Front 998

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: Richetisia -

Back 998

Tetracyclines

Front 999

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: pseudomembranous colitis, MRSA and enterococcis

Back 999

Vancomycin

Front 1000

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: protozoa

Back 1000

Metronidazole

Front 1001

Give some of the main classes of drugs used to treat infections caused by: TB (deals with RNA enzyme)

Back 1001

Rifampin

Front 1002

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Quinolones

Back 1002

Gram+ & S.aureus ; -All Gram- & pseudomonas ; -Atypicals (Includes chylmydia, Mycoplasma, ureaplasma and legionella)

Front 1003

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Aminoglysides

Back 1003

All Gram- & pseudomonas

Front 1004

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Tetracyclines

Back 1004

Gram+ ; -Simple Gram- only (H.Flu (not B) and E. coli)); -Atypicals1 ; -Richetisia

Front 1005

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Cephalosporins

Back 1005

Gram+ ; -Simple Gram- only (H.Flu (not B) and E. coli)); -Anaerobes - Simple only (no “Big Mama”)

Front 1006

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Penicillins

Back 1006

Gram+ ; -Anaerobes - Simple only (no “Big Mama”); -

Front 1007

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Macrolides

Back 1007

Gram+ & S.aureus ; -Simple Gram- only (H.Flu (not B) and E. coli)); -Atypicals (Includes chylmydia, Mycoplasma, ureaplasma and legionella)

Front 1008

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Sulfa Drugs

Back 1008

Gram+ ; -Simple Gram- only (H.Flu (not B) and E. coli)); -

Front 1009

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Chloramphenicol

Back 1009

Gram+ & S.aureus ; -Simple Gram- only (H.Flu (not B) and E. coli)); -Anaerobes Simple only (no “Big Mama”)

Front 1010

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Clindamycin

Back 1010

Gram+ & S.aureus ; -Simple Gram- only3 ; -Anaerobes Simple only (no “Big Mama”)

Front 1011

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Vancomycin

Back 1011

Gram+ & S.aureus ; -Anaerobes - Simple only (no “Big Mama”); -

Front 1012

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Metronidazole

Back 1012

Anaerobes

Front 1013

Name the microorganisms that this drug targets mostly: Rifampin

Back 1013

TB- tuberculosis