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300 Cards in this Set

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What are the 5 bacteria that cause Heart Block
1. Lyme Disease
2. Salmonella Typhi (typhoid)
3. Chagas Disease (Whipples)
4. Legionella
5. Diptheria
What bacteria cause Reiter's Syndrome
1. Shigella
2. IBD (Chrohns)
3. Chlamydia
4. Yersinia Enterolitica
What are the low complement bugs causing Cryoglobuniemia
I AM HE
1. Influenza
2. Adenovirus
3. Mycoplasma
4. Hepatitis C
5. EBV
What are the drugs that induce SLE
HIPPE
1. Hydralazine
2. INH
3. Phenytoin
4. Procainamide
5. Penicillamine
6. Ethosuximide
What are the drugs that blast the Bone Marrow
1. AZT
2. Benzene
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Vinblastine
Wha are the comma shaped bugs
1. Camphylobacter
2. H. Pylori
3. Listeria
4. Vibrio
What is the cresent shaped protozoa
1. Giardia Lamblia
What bacteria looks like chinese letters?
1. Corynebacter
What are the TB drugs
RESPI
1. Rifampin
2. Ethambutanol
3. Streptomycin
4. Pyrazinamide
5. INH
What are the 6 low complement associated with Nephotric Syndrome
1. Serum Sickness
2. SLE
3. SBE
4. Cryoglobinemia
5. PSGN
6. MPGN II
What drugs induce p450
BAG 4 CpR QTS
1. Barbituates
2. Alcohol
3. Griseofulvin
4. Carbamazapine
5. Rifampin
6. Quinidine
7. Tetracycline
8. Sulfa drugs
What drugs inhibit P450
I'D SMACK Quin
1. INH
2. Dapsone
3. Spirolactones
4. Macrolides
5. Amiodarone
6. Cimetidine
7. Ketoconazole
8. Quinilones
What drugs are P450 Dependent
WEPTeD
1. Warfarin
2. Estrogen
3. Phenytoin
4.Theophylline
5. Digoxin
What disease is a Neutrophil Deficiency
1. CGD (Chronic Granulomatous Disease) NADPH-OH deficiency
What is another name for CGD
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Nadph Oxidase deficiency
What are the side effects of Statins
1. Myositis
2. Hepatitis
3. Increased Liver Enzymes
What are the painful genital lesions
1. Chanchroid (H. Ducreyii)
2. Herpes
3. Lymphogranuloma Inguinale
4. Lymphogranuloma Venerum
What are the 4 hormones with disulfide bonds
PIGI
1. Prolactin
2. Inhibin
3. GH
4. Insulin
Name the Hookworms
hooks AS NEAT
1. Ascaris
2. Strongyloides
3. Necatur Americanis
4. Enterobius Vermicularis
5. Anklylostoma Duodenale
6. Trichuris Trichurium
What are the X-linked Enzyme Deficiencies
1. G6PD
2. CGD (NADPH-OH)
3. Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
4. Fabry's
5. Hunter's
6. Lesh-Nyhan
What are the Screens for Newborns
Please Check Before Going Home
1. PKU
2. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
3. Biotidinase
4. Galactosemia
5. Hypothyroidism
What are the actions of Steroids
KIIISS
1. Kills T-cells and Eosinophils
2. Inhibit Macrophage migration
3. Inhibit Phosholipase A
4. Inhibit mast cell degranulation
5. Stabilize endothelium
6. Stimulates protein synthesis
What are the causes of Severe Monocytosis
STELS
1. Salmonella
2. TB
3. EBV
4. Listeria
5. Syphillis
Name the Macrolides
ACE
1. Azithromycin
2. Clrithromycin
3. Erythromycin
What is the 1-dose treatment for Chlamydia
Azithromycin
What are the "Big Mama" Anaerobes
1. Strep Bovis
2. Bacteroides Fragilis
3. C. Melanogo-speticus
4. C. Difficile
* If blood culture show S. bovis or C. melango-septicus we MUST rule out colon cancer
E-Coli is the most common cause of what?
1. UTI
2. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
3. Abdominal abcess
4. Cholecystitis
5. Ascending Cholangitis
6. Appendicitis
What is the TX for the "Big Mama" anaerobes
1. Metronidazole
2. Clindamycin
3. Cefoxitin
What is the 1-dose TX for Gonorrhea
Come On, lets Go Tri to Fix a Fox
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Ofloxacin
3. Gatifloxicin
4. Ceftriaxone
5. Cefixime
6. Cefoxitin
What disease have Psammoma bodies
1. Papillary CA of the Thyroid
2. Serous Cystadenoma of ovary
3. Meningioma
4. Mesothelioma
Drugs that cause Cardiac Fibrosis
1. Adriamycin
2. Phen-fen
What are 4 indications for surgery
IHOP
1. Intractable Pain
2. Hemorrhage
3. Obstruction
4. Perforation
What are the Urease + bacteria
P PUNCHES B
1. Proteus
2. Pseudomonas
3. Ureaplasma Urealyticum
4. Nocardia
5.Cryptococcus Neoformans
6. H. Pylori
7. S. Saprofiticus
8. Brucellosis
Name the HLA-DR- Antigens and their associated diseases
1. HLA-DR2: Narcolepsy, Allergy, Goodpasture's, MS
2. HLA-DR3: DM, Chronic Active Hepatitis, Sjogren's, SLE, Celiac Spru
3. HLA-DR3 & 4: IDDM (type I)
4. HLA-DR4: Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pemphigus Vulgaris
5. HLA-DR5: JRA, Pernicious Anemia
6. HLA-DR7: Nephrotic Syndrome (steroid induced)
7. HLA-DR3 & B8: Celiac Disease
Name the HLA-A and HLA-B antigens and their associated diseases
1. HLA-A3: Hemochromotosis (chromosome 6, point mutation-cystein>tyrosine)
2. HLA-B8: Myesthenia Gravis
3. HLA-B13: Psoriasis
4. HLA-B27: Psoriasis (only w/arthritis), Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD, Reiter's, Postgonococcal Arthritis
5. HLA-BW47: 21-alpha Hydroxylase deficiency (Vit. D)
What do you see in the serum in a low volume state
1. K - decreased
2. Na - decreased
3. Cl - decreased
4. pH - increased
5. BP - increased
What type of stones are formed from proteus
Struvite Stones
What type of motility do Proteus have
Swarming
What drug is used to tx cardiac fibrosis
Dozaroxsin
What drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis
BBAT
1. Bleomycin
2. Busulfan
3. Amioderone
4. Tocainide
5. Methotrexate & Cormustine
What is the MCC of any ...penia
#1 Virus
#2 Drugs
What are the signs and symptoms of Salmonella Typhi
1. High fever
2. Rose spots
3. Intestinal fire
4. Monocytosis
5. Heart block
What drugs cause Myositis
RIPS
1. Rifampin
2. INH
3. Prednisone
4. Statins
What are the 6 Gram (-) & 1 gram (+) encapsulated bacteria
Some Strange Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules
1. Strep. Pneumonia (gram +)
2. Salmonella
3. Klebsiella
4. H. Influenza B
5. Pseudomonas
6. Neisseria
7. Citrobacter
Name the encapsulate yeast
Cryptococcus
What is the Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Fever
1. Polyarthritis (joints)
2. Carditis
3. Subcutaneous Nodules
4. Erythema Marginatum
5. Syndenham Chorea
What are the causes of Eosinophilia
NAACP
1. Neoplasms
2. Allergies/Asthma
3. Addison's Ds
4. Collagen Vascular Ds
5. Parasites
Name the IgA Nephropathies
1. Henoch-Schoenlein Purpura (HSP)
2. Berger's
3. Alports
What are the risk factors for Primary liver cancer
1. Hep B & C
2. Aflatoxin
3. Vinyl Chloride
4. Alcohol
5. Carbon Tetrachloride
6.Anyline Dyes
7.Smoking
8. Hemochromatosis
9. Benzene
10. Schistosomiasis
Name the 9 Live Vaccines
1. Measles
2. Mumps
3. Rubella
4. Oral Polio
5. Rotavirus
6. Small Pox
7. BCG (TB)
8. Yellow Fever
9. Varicella
What are the killed vaccines
1. Salk (polio)
2. Influenza
3. Rubella
4. Hepatitis A
What are the drugs that cause Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
1. PCN
2. alpha-Methyldopa
3. Cephalosporins
4. Sulfa drugs
5. PTU
6. Anti-Malarials
7. Dapsone
What drugs cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia
1. Aspirin
2. Heparin
3. Quinidine
What are the Sulfa containing drugs
1. Sulfonamides
2. Sulfonylurea
3. Celebrex
What are the Pansystolic Murmurs
1. Mitral Regurg (increased on expiration)
2. Tricuspid Regurg (inc on inspiration
3. Ventrical Septal Defect (inc of expiration)
What are the Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitors
1. Pyremethamine/Sulfadiazine
2. Trimethroprim-Sulfam Ethoxazole
3. Methotrexate
What are the Silver Staining bugs
Bart Can Help Paint the Legion silver
1. Bartonella Henselae
2. Candida
3. H. pylori
4. Pneumocystis
5. Legionella
What are the blood gases with Restrictive Lung Disease
1. Tachypnea
2. pCO2 - decreased
3. pO2 - decreased
4. pH - increased
What are the blood gases with Obstructive Lung Disease
1. pO2 - increased or NL
2. pCO2 - increased
3. pH - decreased
What are the enzymes that show after an MI
1. Troponin I
2. CKMB
3. LDH
What is the first MI enzyme to appear
Troponin I
*appears - 2 hrs
*peaks - 2 days
* gone - 7 days
What is the 2nd MI enzyme to appear
CK-MB
*appears - 6 hrs
*peaks - 12 hrs
*gone - 24 hrs
What is the 3rd MI enzyme to appear
LDH
*appears - 1 day
*peaks - 2 days
*gone - 3 days
What is another name for Celebrex
Celecoxib
What type of inhibitor is Celebrex
COX 2 specific
What are the Macrophage deficiency diseases
1. Chediak-Higasi
2. NADPH -oxidase deficiency
What is the 1-dose TX for H. ducreyi
1. Azithromycin - 1 gram
2. Ceftriaxone - 250 mg IM
What is the 1-dose TX for Gardnerella
Metronidazole
What are the Side Effects of Thiazides and Loop diuretics
1. Hyperglycemia
2. Hyperuricemia
3. Hypovolemia
4. Hypokalemia
What are the side effects of Loop diuretics
OH DANG
1. Ototoxicity
2. Hypokalemia
3. Dehydration
4. Allergy
5. Nephritis (interstitial)
6. Gout
Name the Macrophages in various Tissue
1. Brain - Microglia
2. Lung - Type 1 Pneumo
3. Liver- Kupffer
4. Spleen - RES cells
5. Kidney - Mesangial
6. Lymph Nodes - Dendritic
7. Skin - Langerhans
8. Bone - Osteoclasts
9. Connective Tissue - Histiocytes, Giant cells, Epithelioid
What 8 disease cause rashes on the Palms & Soles
TRiCKSSSS
1. TSS (Toxic Shock Syndrome)
2. Rocky Mt. Spotted Fever
3. Coxsackie A (hand, foot & mouth ds)
4. Kawasaki
5. Scarlet Fever
6. Syphilis
7. Staph Scalded Skin Syndrom
8. Streptobacillus Moniliformis
What are the 4 sources of Renal Acid
1. Plasma (RTA)
2. Ammonia production in the collection duct - 10% of Urea Cycle
3. Glutaminase
4. Carbonic Anhydrase
What hormones are produced by Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
1. ACTH (MC)
2. ADH
3. PTH
4. TSH
5. ANP
What is the 1 dose TX for Candidiasis
Ketoconazole - 150mg
What is the 1 doxe TX for Vaginal Candidiasis
Diflucan - 1 pill
What is the 1 dose TX for Trichomonas
Metronidazole
What are the viruses related to Cancer
1. HPV - Cervical Cancer
2. EBV - Lymphoma
3. HVB - Liver Carcinoma
4. HVC - Liver Carcinoma
6. - Kaposi
What is the Neuro-Musc disease concept
1. Restrictive Blood GAs
2. dec pO2, dec pCO2, inc. pH
3. inc RR
4. inc Risk for Seizures
Name the periods of rapid growth
1. Birth - 2 months
2. 4 -7years
3. Puberty
What is the ONLY immune deficiency with Low Calcium
DiGeorge's Syndrome
Name the Bugs with IgA Protease (it makes them resistant to Iga)
1. S. Pneumonia
2. H. Influenza
3. Neisseria
What do Mast Cells Secrete
1. Histamine
2. Slow Reacting Substance of Anaphylaxis (SRS-A)
3. Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor of Anaphalaxis (ECF-A)
What are the Secretions of Eosinophils and what is their purpose
To keep mast cells under control
1. Histaminase
2. Arysulfatase
3. Heparin
What are the actions of E.Coli
1. Secrete Vitamin K
2. Secrete Biotin
3. Secrete Folate
4. Secrete Pantothenic Acid
5. Aids in absorption of B12
What are the Heart Block Clues
1. Increased obdy temperature with a normal heart rate
2. HR should increase by 10bpm for every 1 degree increase in temperature
What do Macrophages release
MHC II
What do Th1 Secrete
1. IL-2
2. IF-y
What do Th2 Secrete
1. IL-4
2. IL-5
3. IL-6
4. IL-10
What do ThO Secrete
1. Th1
2. Th2
What are the markers and action of T-Cytotoxic Cells
1. CD-8 +
2. CD-4 -
3. Recognize MHC 1
4. markers CD-2 & CD-3
What are the markers and action of T-Helper cells
1. CD-4 +
2. Recognizes MHC 1
3. markers CD-2 & CD-3
What does Elevated Cholesterol cause
1. Xanthanthomas on extensor surfaces
2. increased risk for CAD
What do Elevated Triglycerides cause
1. Xanthelasmas on eyelids and face
2. increased risk of Pancreatitis
What are the 4 causes of Severe Abd Pain
1. Pancreatitis (EtOH)
2. Kidney Stones (bloody urine)
3. Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
4. Ischemis Bowel (bloody diarrhea)
What are the 5 causes of SIADH
SIADH
1. Small Cell Carcinoma
2. Increased intracranial pressure
3. A Pain
4. Drugs
5. Hypoxia
Cells of Neural Crest origin
POT CLAMPS
1. Parafollicular cells
2. Odontoblast
3. Tracheal cartilage
4. Chromaffin Cells
5. Laryngeal cartilgae
6. All ganglion cells
7. Melanocytes
8. Pseudounipolar cells
9. Spiral Membrane (heart)
Ions and the EKG
P-Waves = Ca++
QRS complex = Na+
S-T Interval = Ca++
T-waves = K+
U-wave = Na+
Maximum Sinus Rate
220 - age in years
What diseases have Tri-Nucleotide repeats
1. Huntington's
2. Myotonic Dystrophy
3. Fragile X
4. Spinal/Bulbar muscular atrophy (rare)
Low volume states with acidosis (not alkalosis)
1. RTA
2. Diarrhea
MCC of Croup & Bronchiolitis
1. Parainfluenza
2. RSV (ER this is #1)
3. Adenovirus
4. Influenza
What are the 4 D's of Pellagra
1. Dermatitis
2. Diarrhea
3. Dementia
4. Death
Name the 5 types of Kidney Stones
1. Calcium Oxalate (80)
2. Struvite
3. Uric Acid
4. Cysteine
5. Oxalate
What are the findings and TX for Pseudogout
1. Ca++ Pyrophosphate
2. + birefringent crystals
3. Rhomboid Crystals
4. MC in older patients
5. Seen equally in genders
6. TX = Colchicine
What is the MC Non-cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease
1. VSD
2. ASD
3. PDA
4. Coarctation of aorta
What enzymes are NEVER seen in Glycolysis
1. Pyruvate Carboxylase
2. PEP Carboxykinase
3. Fructose - 1,6-phosphatase
4. Glucose -6- phosphatase
What enzymes are ONLY seen in Glycolysis
1. Hexokinase
2. Phosphofructokinase-1
3. Pyruvate Kinase
What are the Acis Fast Organisms
1. Mycoplasma
2. Nocarda (partially, gram +)
3. Cryptosporidium (partially, protozoa)
What causes Microsteatosis
1. Acetaminophen
2. Reye Syndrome
3. Pregnancy
What causes Macrosteatosis
1. Alcohol
What bacteria have Elastase
1. Staph. Aureus
2. Pseudomonas
Bacteria w/toxins that inhibit EF-2
1. Pseudomonas
2. Dipheria
Which organisms have Phage Mediated Toxins
Oh BED
1. "O" antigen (Salmonella)
2. Botulinum
3. Erythrogenic Toxin
4. Diptheria
Name the Segmented Viruses
1. Arenavirdiae
2. Bunyavirdiae
3. Orthovirdiae
4. Reovirdiae
What are the functionso of Adhesion Molecules
1. Lymphocytes Homing
2. Inflammation
3. Cell-cell interaction
What are the Esophageal/Gastric Cancer ristk factors
1. Smoking
2. decreased Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure
Name the bugs that cause Pulmonary Infiltrate w/Eosinophilia
NASSA
1. Necator Americanus
2. Ascaris Lumbricoides
3. Schistosomiasis
4. Strongyloides
5. Ankylostoma
What are the enzymes used by B12
1. Methyl Malonyl CoA Mutase
2. Homocystine Methyl Transferase
Who has susceptibility to pseudomonas and S. Aureus
1. Burn Patients
2. Cystic Fibrosis
3. Diabetes
4. Neutropenics
What 5 things will you see in Crohn's Disease
GIFTS
1. Granuloma
2. Ileum
3. Fistula
4. Transmural
5. Skip Lesions
What are the causes of widened S2
1. inc pO2
2. inc volume in Right Ventricle
3. Blood Transfusion
4. Supplemental O2
5. Rt. sided heart failure
6. Pregnancy
7. I.V. Fluids
8. ASD (fixed)
9. Deep breathing
Name the cavities of blood loss
1. Pericardium
2. Intracranial
3. Mediastinum
4. Pleural cavity
5. Thighs
6. Retroperitoneum
7. Abdominal
8. Pelvis
What is unique about a Negative Stranded RNA
1. There is a 1-3 week prodromal period before onset of SXS
2. Must switch to positive stranded RNA before it can replicate
What is unique about Positive Stranded RNA
1. Symptoms occur within 1 week or less
2. Don't have to swith before replicating
What are the Negative Stranded RNA that don't have to 'switch' to positive strand before replicating?
1. Hanta
2. Ebola
3. Yellow Fever
What are the Cyanotic Heart Diseases
1. Transposition of Great Vessels
2. Tetralogy of Fallot
3. Truncus Arteriosus
4. Tricuspid Atresia
5. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
6. Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
7. Ebstein's Anomaly (mom's lithium)
8. Aortic Atresia
9. Pulmonic Atresia
What conditions are Least Likely to Depolarize
1. Hypermagnesemia
2. Hypercalcemia (except Atrium)
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hypernatremia
What conditions are Most Likely to Depolarize
1. Hypomagnesemia
2. Hypocalcemia (except Atrium)
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Hyponatremia
What hormones are produced by the Placenta
1. hCG
2. Inhibin
3. Human Placental Lactogen
4. Oxytocin
5. Progesterone
6. Estrogen
What are the uses for Pilocarpine
1. Cyctic Fibrosis
2. Closed Angle Glaucoma
What causes Dysguzia (dec taste)
1. Metronidazole
2. Clarithromycin
3. Zinc Deficiency
What is the Carcinoid Triad
1. Flushing
2. Wheezing
3. Diarrhea
How is Carcinoid Syndrome DX
By measuring 5-HIAA in the urine
What is the MC location of a Carcinoid tumor
1. Primary = Appendix
2. Metastatic = pancreas & Ilium
What causes AVM (machinery murmur)
1. Heart: PDA
2. Elbow: dialysis fistula
3. Brain: Von Hippel-Lindau
4. Lungs: Osler-Weber-Rendu
What is the MCC of sinusitis, otitis, bronchitis
H. Influenza - A
(non-encapsulated, non-invasive)
What is the MCC of epiglottitis
H. Influenza - B
(encapsulated, invasive, IgA progease)
What traits does H. Influenza have
1. Gram (-)
2. Pleomorphic
3. School of Fish
What bug causes Rust Colored Sputum
Strep. Pneumonia
(aka pneumococcus)
What is the MCC of infections in shunts and central lines
S. Epidermiditis
How do you tell Catalase + Staphylococci apart
1. Aureas = Gold
2. Epidermidis = White
3. Saprophyticus = none
Strep. Pyogenes if the MCC of what infections
1. all throat infections
2. lymphangitis
3. Impedigo
4. Necrotizing Faceitis
5. Erysipelas
6. Scarlet Fever
What is the 2nd MCC of all other skin infections
Strep. Pyogenes
What are the diseases associated with Neutrophil Deficiencies
1. Job-Buckley Syndrome
2. Myeloperoxidase deficiency
3. NADPH-Oxidase deficiency
4. Neutropenia
What are the symptoms of Compartment Syndrome
1. Pain (always 1st)
2. Pallor
3. Polkiothermia
4. Parathesia
5. Pulselessness (always last)
What are the itchiest rashes
1. Scabies
2. Lichen Planus
3. Urticaria
4. Dermatitis Herpetiformia
What are the oddities about Listeria
1. Only gram + with endotoxin
2. Crosses the Placenta
3. Lipid A is the toxic part
4. Causes Granulomas
5. Causes sepsis in neonates
6. comes from raw cabbage and spoiled milk
What is the name and diseases of vitamin B1
Thiamin
1. Beriberi
2. Wernickes
3. Korsacoff
What is the name and ds of vitamin B2
Riboflavin
1. Angular Stomatitis
What is the name and ds of vitamin B3
Niacin
1. Pellegra
2. 4 D's
What is the name for B4
Lipoic Acid
What is the name for B5
Pantothenic Acid
What is the name and ds for B6
Pyridoxine
1. Sezures
What is the name for B9
Folate
What is the name and ds for B12
Cobalamine
1. Pernicious Anemia
2. Neuropathy
What are the different 2nd messanger systems
1. cAMP
2. cGMP
3. IP3/DAG
4. Ca:Calmodulin
5. Ca+
6. Tyrosine Kinase
7. NO
What is the clue for cAMP
1. it is the 90%
2. Sympathetic
3. CRH (cortisol)
4. Catabolic
What is the clue for cGMP
1. Parasympathetic
2. Anabolic
What are the clues for IP3/DAG
1. Neurotransmitter
2. NHRH
3. All hypothalamic hormones except cortisol
4. used by Smooth Muscle for Contraction
What is the clue for Ca:Calmodulin
1. Used by smooth muscle for contraction by distension
What is the clue for Ca+
1. Used by Gastrin only
What is the clue for Tyrosine Kinase?
1. Used by Insulins
2. Used by ALL Growth Factors
What is the clue for NO
1. Nitrates
2. Viagra
3. ANP
4. LPS
What are the T & B cell deficiencies
1. WAS (W -Aldridge Syndrome)
2. SCID
3. CVID
4. HIV
5. HTLV1
What are the clues for WAS
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. IL-4 (it's a class switching problem)
3. Infection
4. Eczema
5. Decreased IgM
What are the clues for CVID
1. Late Onset Bruton's (>1 yo)
2. Frameshift/Missense mutation
3. Tyrosine Kinase deficiency
What are the clues for HIV & HTLV-1
1. T-cell>B-cell
2. CD4 rich
3. Brain
4. Testicles
5. Cervix
6. Blood Vessels
What are the inhibitors of Complex 1 of the ETC
1. Amytal
2. Rotenone
What are the inhibitors of Complex 2 of the ETC
1. Malonate
What are the inhibitors of Complex 3 of the ETC
1. Antimycin D
What are the inhibitors of Complex 4 of the ETC
1. Cyanide
2. Carbonmonoxide
3. Chloramphenicol
What are the inhibiors of Complex 5 of the ETC
1. Oligomycin
What are the ETC chemical uncouplers
1. Aspirin
2. Dinitro-Prusside
3. Free Fatty Acids
What type of uncoupler is aspirin
1. Physical uncoupler
What are the 4 sources of Renal Acid
1. Plasma
2. Urea Cycle
3. Collecting Ducts
4. Glutaminase
Job-Buckley Syndrome is what type of deficiency
1. T & B-cell deficiency (d/t Tyrosine Kinase deficiency)
Presents as red headed female
What are the B-cell deficiencies
1. Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia (Tyrosine Kinase deficiency)
2. Leukemias
3. Lymphomas
some T&B-cell overlap ds
What are the T-cell Deficiencies
1. DiGeorge's
2. HIV
How does DiGeorge's present
1. Hypokalemia,
2. Hypocalcemia
3.problem w/3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
4. deletion of chr 22
What are the 3 Quinolones and the one dose TX used to tx Gonorrhea
1. Ciprofloxacin (500mg po)
2. Ofloxacin (400mg po)
3. Gatifloxacin (400mg IM)
What are the 4 enzymes needed to break down glycogen
1. Phosphorylase
2. Debranching enzyme
3. Alpha - 1,6 - Glucosidase
4. Phosphatase
What are the 2 enzymes needed to make glycogen
1. Glycogen Synthase
2. Branching Enzyme
What are the branching enzymes
1. Glycogen alpha -1,4 - glycosyl transferase
2. Glycogen alpha - 1,6 - glycosyl transferase
What is the rate limiting enzyme in the break down of glycogen
Phosphorylase
What type of acidosis do you see with obstructive pulmonary ds
Respiratory acidosis
What are the Lysosomal Storage Diseases
1. Fabry's
2. Krabbe's
3. Gaucher's
4. Niemann-Pick
5. Tay-Sachs
6. Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
7. Hurler's
8. Hunter's
What is the deficiency for Fabry's
alpha-galactosidase
What is the deficiency in Krabbe's
Galactosylceramide
What is the deficiency in Gaucher's
Beta - glucocerebrosidase
What is the deficiency in Nicmann - Pick
Springomyelinase
What is the deficiency in Tay-Sachs
Hexosaminidase
What is the deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
Arylsulfatase
What are the Lysosomal Storage Diseases
1. Fabry's
2. Krabbe's
3. Gaucher's
4. Niemann-Pick
5. Tay-Sachs
6. Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
7. Hurler's
8. Hunter's
What is the deficiency in Hurler's
Iduronidase Sulfatase
What is the deficiency for Fabry's
alpha-galactosidase
What are the diseases associated with HLA - B27
1. Psoriasis
2. Ankylosing Spondylitis
3. IBD (Ulcerative Colitis)
4. Reiter's Syndrome
What is the deficiency in Krabbe's
Galactosylceramide
What HLA is Psoriasis with RA associated with
HLA-13
What is the deficiency in Gaucher's
Beta - glucocerebrosidase
What is the deficiency in Nicmann - Pick
Springomyelinase
What is the deficiency in Tay-Sachs
Hexosaminidase
What is the deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
Arylsulfatase
What is the deficiency in Hurler's
Iduronidase Sulfatase
What are the diseases associated with HLA - B27
1. Psoriasis
2. Ankylosing Spondylitis
3. IBD (Ulcerative Colitis)
4. Reiter's Syndrome
What HLA is Psoriasis with RA associated with
HLA-13
What are the Lysosomal Storage Diseases
1. Fabry's
2. Krabbe's
3. Gaucher's
4. Niemann-Pick
5. Tay-Sachs
6. Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
7. Hurler's
8. Hunter's
What is the deficiency for Fabry's
alpha-galactosidase
What is the deficiency in Krabbe's
Galactosylceramide
What is the deficiency in Gaucher's
Beta - glucocerebrosidase
What is the deficiency in Nicmann - Pick
Springomyelinase
What is the deficiency in Tay-Sachs
Hexosaminidase
What is the deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
Arylsulfatase
What is the deficiency in Hurler's
Iduronidase Sulfatase
What are the diseases associated with HLA - B27
1. Psoriasis
2. Ankylosing Spondylitis
3. IBD (Ulcerative Colitis)
4. Reiter's Syndrome
What HLA is Psoriasis with RA associated with
HLA-13
What are the Glycogen Storage diseases and the deficiency
1. Von Gierke's .....Glucose-6-Phosphate
2. Pompe's.......alpha-1,4- glucosidase
3. Cori's...... Debranching Enzyme
4. McArdles's......Glycogen Phosphorylase
What feeds into the TCA cycle at Pyruvate
GAS
1. Glycine
2. Alanine
3. Serine
What feeds into the TCA cycle at Acetyl-CoA
PITTLLe
1. Phenylanine
2. Isoleucine
3. Threonine
4. Tryptophan
5. Lysine
6. Leucine
What feeds into the TCA at alpha-Ketoglutarate
1. Glutamate
2. Glutamine
What feeds into the TCA at Succinyl CoA
PTT
1. Phenylalanine
2. Tryptophan
3. Tyrosine
What feeds into the TCA cycle at Fumerate
1. Proline
What feds into the TCA cycle at Oxaloacetate
1. Aspartate
2. Asparigine
What are the 4 steps of Beta Oxidation
1. Oxidation - 7 NADH - 21 ATP
2. Hydration
3. Oxidation - 7 FADH - 14 ATP
4. Thiolysis - 8 AcCoA - 96ATB
= 131 ATP - 2 = 129
What are the Ab found in SLE
1. Anti-Smith
2. Anti-Cardiolipin
3. Anti-ds DNA
What disease is anti-histone antibody found in
Drug induced SLE
What autoimmune disease has Anti-Topoisomerase
Progressive Systemic Sclerosis
What autoimmune disease has Anti-TSH receptors
Graves
What autoimmune disease has Anti-centromere Ab
CREST
What autoimmune disease has Anti-Glomerular Basement Membrane Ab
Goodpasture's
What does Goodpasture's have antibody toward
Type IV collagen
What autoimmune disease has Anti-Mitochondria
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
What autoimmune disease has Anti-hair follicle
Alopecia Areata
What autoimmune disease has Anti-IgG
Rheumatoid Arthritis
What autoimmune disease has Anti-Myelin receptors
Multiple Sclerosis
What autoimmune disease has Anti-gliaden & Anti-Gluten
Celiac Sprue
What are the Amino Acid Deficiencies?
PKU
Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Cyctinuria
What deficiency causes PKU?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency, needed to make tyrosine, leads to a lack of Dopamine, Epi and RE and Melanin
What deficiency causes Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
Deficiency in branched amino acids (Leu, Lys, Val), defective transport in the kidneys
What deficiency causes Cystinuria?
Cystathione Synthase Deficiency; Cysteine, ornithine, lysine and arginine en up in urine (COLA). Can develop stones.
What are the Acidic Amino Acids?
Aspartic Acis (ASP) and Glutamic Acid (GLU)
What are the basic amino acids?
Arginine & Lysine
What amino acids have sulfur bonds?
Cystine & Methionine
What amino acids have 'O' bonds?
Serine, Threonine & Tryptophan
What amino acids have 'N' bonds?
Aspartate & Glutamine
What amino acid are branched?
Leucine, Isoleucine & Valine
What amino acids are bulky (aromatic)?
Phenylalanine, Threonine & Tryptophan
What is the smallest amino acid?
Glycine
What amino acid is responsible for bends/twists?
Proline
What are the Ketogenic amino acids?
Lysine & Leucine
What are the amino acids that are Gluco & Ketogenic?
Phenylalanine, Isoleucine, Threonine, Tryptophan
What are the glucogenic amino acids?
All the rest: His, Asn, Val, Arg, Tyr, Ala, Glu, Cys, Gly, Asp, Pro, Gln, Met
What are the essential amino acids?
*PVT TIM HALL
Phe, Val, Thr, Trp, Iso, Met, His Arg, Leu, Lys
If there is a deficiency in Phenylalanine (PKU), what amino acid becomes essential?
Tyrosine
If there is a deficiency in Methionine what amino acid becomes essential?
Cystine
Where does Trypsin cut?
right of Arg, Lys
Where does Chymotrypsin cut?
right of Phe, Tyr, Trp
Where does Elastase cut?
right of Gly, Ser, Ala
Where does Mercaptoethanol cut?
Met, Cys
Where does Aminopeptidase cut?
right of amino terminal
Where does Carbosypeptidase cut?
Left of carboxy terminal
Where does Cyanobromide cut?
right of Met
What is the Ab seen in Type I Diabetes
anti-Islet cell receptor
What is the Ab seen in Vitiligo?
anti-Melanocyte
What is the Ab seen Myasthenia Gravis
anti-Acetycholine receptor
What is the Ab seen in Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?
anti-Ribonuclear protein
What is the Ab seen in Pernicious anemia?
anti-Parietal cell receptor
(aka anti-Intrinsic Factor)
What is the Ab seen in Pemphigus Vulgaris?
Anti Epidermal anchoring protein receptor
(aka anti-Intercellular junctions of epidermal cells)
What is the Ab seen in Bullous Penphigoid?
anti-Epidermal basement membrane protein
What is the Ab seen in Hashimoto's
anti-thyroglobin
anti-Microsomal
What is the Ab seen in Scleroderma?
anti-smooth muscle
anti-SCL-70
What is the Ab seen in Sjogren's?
anti-Rho
anti-La
anti-SSA
anti-SSB
What is the Ab seen in Wegener's?
C-ANCA
anti-Proteinase
What is the Ab seen Polyarteritis Nodosa?
P-ANCA
What is the Ab seen in Idiopathic Thrombocytic Purpura?
anti-Platelet
(aka anti-glycoprotein IIb/.IIIa)
What are the Co-factors for Pyruvate DH, alpha-ketogluterate DH & Branched chain DH?
*TLC For Nancy
TPP....Thiamin (B1)
Lipoic Acid...B4
CoA... Panthothentic Acid (B5)
FAD... Riboflavin (B2)
NAD... Niacin (B3)
What are the diseases with X-Linked Recessive inheritance?
Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia
CGD (NADPH Oxidase defic)
Duchenne' MD
Color Blindness
Hemophilia
G6PD
Lesch0Nyhan
Pyruvate DH defic
Fabry's
Hunter's
What are the diseases with X-linked dominant inheritance?
Vitamin D resistant Rickets
Where is the clot in Renal Arter Stenosis?
clot in front of renal artery
Where is the clot in Renal Failure?
clot oblocks off entire renal artery
What is seen in Glomerular Nephritis?
Inflamed glomeruli
Where is the clot in Papillary necrosis?
clot in papilla
where is the clot in Interstitial Nephrititis
clot off medulla
Where is the clot in Focal Segmental GN?
clot off pieces of nephron
Where is the clot in Rapidly Progressive GN?
clot off lots of nephrons
MC Nephrotic disease in adults?
Membranous GN
MC renal dis in blacks/hispanics?
Focal Segmental GN
MC renal disease in HIV/Drug users?
Focal Segmental GN
MC Renal Mass?
Cyst
MC malignant renal tumor in adults?
adenocarcinoma
MC malignant renal tumor in kids
Wilm's tumor
MCC of RPGN?
Goodpasture's
MC nephrotic disease in kids
Minimal Change Disease
What is seen with RPGN?
crescent formations
What illness has occured prior to onset of Minimal Change Disease?
URI 2 weeks prior
What is the rescue for tPA?
Aminocaproic acid
What is the rescue for Streptokinase?
Aminocaproic acid
What is the rescue for Warfarin?
Vitamin K
What is the rescue for Heparin?
Protamine Sulfate
What is the rescue for an active hemorrhage following thrombolytic administration?
Fresh Frozen Plasma