Pos

Front 1

Which one of the following is NOT an example of active immunisation?

a) Toxoid
b) MLV
c) Subunit Vaccine
d) Recombinant Vaccine
e) Colostrum

Back 1

E. This is an example of PASSIVE immunisation

Front 2

Which of the following vaccination times for a puppy is least likely to work?

a) <6 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 10 weeks
d) 12 weeks
e) 14 weeks

Back 2

A. Vaccination should never be done this early

Front 3

Which of the following canine diseases has multiple serovars and is therefore not very well prevented by vaccination?

a) Rabies
b) CDV
c) CAV
d) CPV
e) Lepto

Back 3

E.

Front 4

Which of the following feline diseases has multiple serovars and is therefore not very well prevented by vaccination?

a) Feline Herpesvirus
b) FeLV
c) Chlamydia
d) Feline Calicivirus
e) Panleukaemia

Back 4

D.

Front 5

Which of the following equine diseases has multiple serovars and is therefore not very well prevented by vaccination?

a) Tetanus
b) Strep. Equi
c) Equine Influenza
d) Equine Herpesvirus
e) Rotavirus

Back 5

C.

Front 6

Which of the following is NOT part of the core canine vaccination programme in the UK?

a) CDV
b) CPV
c) Lepto
d) CAV

Back 6

C. Although it is usually sold with the others as one vaccine

Front 7

Where is the best time for serology to be done after the primary vaccination course is completed in a puppy?

a) 8 weeks
b) 10 weeks
c) 14-16 weeks
d) 20 weeks
e) 6 months

Back 7

D. After the interference of MDAs has waned

Front 8

Which breeds of dog are particularly predisposed to having poor vaccine responses?

Back 8

Black & Tan dogs e.g. Rotties / Doberman

Front 9

How often do vaccine companies claim you a dog or cat will need boosters?

a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 3 years
e) 4 years

Back 9

D.

Front 10

Which of the following regarding canine vaccination protocols is FALSE?

a) Core vaccines require boosters every 3 years
b) Non-Core vaccines require boosters every year
c) Puppies should never be vaccinated before they are 6 weeks old
d) Leptospirosis is not a core vaccine
e) If a dog lapses during a primary course, you do not need to start again from the beginning

Back 10

E. Memory Cells will remember!!

Front 11

Which of the following canine conditions can be treated with a DNA vaccine?

a) Myeloma
b) Lymphoma
c) Melanoma
d) Allergic Skin Disease
e) Soft Tissue Sarcome

Back 11

C. Human-Tyrosinase DNA vaccine for malignant melanomas

Front 12

Prior exposure to which of the following diseases can lead to vaccine failure in felines?

a) Panleukaemia
b) FCV
c) FHV
d) Chlamydia
e) Bordetella

Back 12

C.

Front 13

Which one of the following equine vaccinations can provide instant protection in acute cases?

a) Strep. Equi
b) EHV
c) E. Influenza
d) Tetanus
e) Rotavirus

Back 13

D.

Front 14

Which of the following equine vaccinations is delivered sub-mucosally, in the gums?

a) Tetanus
b) Rotavirus
c) EHV
d) EIV
e) Strep Equi

Back 14

E.

Front 15

A young dog presents with PUO and strange neurological signs.
What is one of your top differentials, and how would you test for it?

Back 15

Toxoplasma / Neosporum - via serology

Front 16

A dog presents with acute kidney failure and the owner confesses she wasn't sure if the dog had had his primary vaccination course.

Most likely differential and how to test for it?

Back 16

Leptospirosis, via serology

Front 17

A positive result on which feline serological test is very common and rarely means it is the cause of disease?

a) FeLV
b) FCoV
c) Chlamydia
d) Calicivirus
e) Panleukaemia

Back 17

B. (FIP)

Front 18

Why do drug field trials require a margin of safety when used in real practice?

a) Because the trials are shorter than real life
b) Because the patient are healthier than real life
c) Because the patients are a different species
d) Because the doses are smaller
e) All of the above

Back 18

B. Drug trials use healthy, young animals.

Front 19

Which type of adverse drug reaction can be seen as Idiosyncratic?

a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type C
d) Type D
e) Type E

Back 19

B. Reactions that are unrelated to the action, but may be predictable if doses are chronic / excessive

Front 20

ACE inhibitors used at the recommended dose and intervals leading to acute renal failure. What type of drug reaction is this?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
​e) E

Back 20

A. This is RELATED to the action of the drug

Front 21

Which of the following is NOT a neonatal factor that affects drug action?

a) Immature liver means less biotransformation
b) Immature kidney means less excretion
c) Increased body water means more VoD
d) Decreased gut motility means less absorption
​e) Increased fat means increase plasma conc.

Back 21

E. This is seen in OLDER patients

Front 22

Which of the following is NOT a geriatric factor that affects drug action?

a) Decreased muscle means higher plasma conc.
b) Multiple diseases likely
c) Greater weight mean lower VoD
d) Decreased body water means more drug conc.
​e) Decreased organ function = accumulation

Back 22

C.

Front 23

Which of the following drugs can cause IMMEDIATE cardiac toxicity in horses if used with plasma-protein bound drugs such as PhenylButazine?

a) Sulphonamide
b) Ivermectin
c) Pyrethrum
d) Tetracyclines
​e) Cimetidine

Back 23

A.

Front 24

A neonate will have a higher VoD and lower excretion capacity, therefore it would require..

a) A higher dose at a higher frequency
b) A higher dose at a lower frequency
c) A lower dose at a lower frequency

d) A lower dose at a higher frequency
​e) No drug is safe

Back 24

B.

Front 25

Which of the following drugs can cause articular damage in young animals and stunted growth?

a) Tetracyclines
b) Suphonamides
c) Penicillins
d) Macrolides
​e) Fluoroquinolones

Back 25

E.

Front 26

What kind of organism(s) can produce endotoxins?

a) Gram +ve and Gram -ve bacteria
b) Only Gram +ve bacteria
c) Only Gram -ve bacteria
d) Only fungi
​e) All fungi and bacteria

Back 26

C.

Front 27

Which of the following fungi can cause Ergotism when eaten?

a) Toadstools
b) Claviceps Purpuea
c) Aspergillus Flavus
d) Fusarium
​e) All of the above

Back 27

B. Plant fungi that causes arteriole vasoconstriction = gangrene and lamness and convulsions

Front 28

At what time of year is Ergotism most common?

a) Late Winter
b) Early Spring
c) Early Summer
d) Late Summer
​e) Late Autumn

Back 28

D.

Front 29

What pathogen is shown here?

a) Amanita Phalloides
b) Aspergillus Flavus
c) Fusarium Graminearum
d) Aspergillus Ochraceus
​e) Claviceps Purpurea

Back 29

E. Ergotism!

Front 30

Which one of the following toxicologies can be cured by Acetylcysteine in dogs?

a) Chocolate
b) Paracetemol
c) Mycotoxins
d) NSAIDs
e) Anticoagulant Rodenticides

Back 30

B.

Front 31

Which colour should you NOT use when signing a certificate?

Back 31

BLACK - it can be photocopied

Front 32

Which of the following could a vet be subject to after false certification?

a) RCVS Action
b) Criminal Offence for trade
c) Criminal Offence for fraud
d) Assusation of recklessly supplying false info
e) Civil Court proceedings for negligence
f) All of the above

Back 32

F.

Front 33

"A systemic review of performance."
Which of the following is being described?

a) Clinical Audit
b) Clinical Effectiveness
c) Risk Management
d) Staff Management
e) Client Involvement

Back 33

A.

Front 34

A practice wants to improve how it stabilises its epileptic patients. What type of clinical audit would this be?

a) Process
b) Outcome
c) Structure
d) All of the above

Back 34

A. Investigating the PROCESS

Front 35

A practice have recently lost two cats to routine anaesthesia and want to investigate their practice. What type of clinical audit would this be?

a) Process
b) Outcome
c) Structure
d) All of the above

Back 35

B. Investigating the OUTCOME (ie deaths)

Front 36

Approximately what percent of first opinion clients are insured?

a) 5%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 65%
​e) 90%

Back 36

B.

Front 37

Approximately what percent of second opinion clients are insured?

a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%
​e) 90%

Back 37

D.

Front 38

Which of the following statements regarding drug disposition is FALSE?

a) Surface area is proportional to metabolic rate
b) A smaller dog will need a bigger dose/kg

c) Lipid-soluble drugs require the same dose in all size dogs
d) Patients with hepatic failure should have a lower dose of drug
​e) Starvation and increase the half life of a drug by 1.5

Back 38

D. They can have the same dose, but at LONGER intervals

Front 39

"The percent of drug that reaches the blood." What is being defined here?

a) The Volume of Distribution
b) Pharmacokinetics

c) Bioavailability
d) Solubility
​e) Absorption

Back 39

C. (This is 1 for IV injections and <1 for oral meds)